Notice Class 9 Going To 10TH Assignment

CLASS-9-GOING-TO-10TH-ASSIGNMENT-SET-A
L I M I T E D
Dear Student,
As you know that in wake of latest guidelines issued by Delhi Government and Health Ministry,
classes will resume after reviewing the situation on 31st March 2020.
But you are advised to utilise this break period by completing the prescribed class wise assignments
at home.
All the Students are advised to have subject wise note books dedicated for this break period only, as
you are supposed to bring these separate subject wise note books (with all the prescribed work) in
the very first class after this break.
You can ask your subject doubts through WhatsApp/Phone calling from your respective faculty
member. In case you don’t have WhatsApp no. of your faculty member then please mail at
academics.sd@fiitjee.com with your name, batch code & enrolment no.
Prescribed Work for one week:
1. Complete all the remaining CRP study packages of class 9th in that separate dedicated note
books.
2. If all the CRP study packages are over, then complete the class wise assignment provided in
www.fiitjeesouthdelhi.co.in in separate dedicated note books.
3. We believe that you will complete the above mentioned assignments in a weeks’ time. So
after one week we would be providing some more online assignments. You would be
supposed to finish that material in separate dedicated note books.
Team FIITJEE South Delhi
National Admissions Office: FIITJEE House, 29 – A, Kalu Sarai, SarvapriyaVihar, New Delhi-110016
Ph: 011-46106000 / 10 / 13 / 15 Fax: 26513942 Website:www.fiitjee.com
L I M I T E D
SET – A
Physics Section-I
1. A body covers a distance of 20m in the 7th second and 24m in the 9th second. How much
distance shall it cover in 15th sec.
(A) 75 m (B) 18 m
(C) 56 m (D) 36 m
2. A car is moving at a speed 50 km/h. Two seconds there after it is moving at

60 km/h. Calculate the acceleration of the car.
(A) a = 1.89 m / s2 (B) a = 1.39 m / s2
(C) a = 2 m / s2 (D) None of these
3. The distance-time graph of a moving vehicle is as shown in the figure.

70
60
50
Distance (cm)
40
30
20
10
5 10 15 20 25 30 35
Time (s) →
(A) The speed of the vehicle is increasing with time.

(B) The speed of the vehicle is decreasing with time.
(C) The final speed of the vehicle is zero.
(D) Graph is not possible.
4. A particle covers equal distance around a circular path, in equal intervals of time. Which of the
following quantity connected with the motion of the particle remains constant with time ?
(A) Displacement (B) Velocity
(C) Speed (D) Acceleration.
5. The angular speed of the hour hand of the clock is :

(A) 2 rads −1 (B) 2 radminute−1
(C) 2 radday −1 (D) None of the above.
6. An elevator is moving vertically upwards with uniform velocity of 6 m/s the force exerted on
the floor by the man of mass 70 kg is
(A) 420 N (B) 70(6 + 9.8) N
(C) 70 (−6 + 9.8)N (D) 70  9.8 N
Space for Rough Work
L I M I T E D
7. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction this is statement of Newton’s
___________ law of motion.
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Third (D) None of these
8. The two ends of a spring-balance are pulled each by a force of 20 kg wt. What will be the
reading of the balance?
(A) 20 kg wt. (B) 0 kg wt.
(C) 10 kg wt. (D) 40 kg wt.
9. Why do we use circular tyres?

(A) They require less material.
(B) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.
(C) It is easy to inflate the circular tyres
(D) Due to some reason other than those listed above.
10. The coefficient of friction of an inclined plane is 1/ 3 . If it is inclined at angle 30° with the
horizontal, what will be the downward acceleration of the block placed on the inclined plane ?
(A) 0 (B) 2 ms−2
(C) 3 ms−2 (C) 3 ms −2
11. When you move from equator to pole, the value of acceleration due to gravity (g)
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) increases then decreases
12. The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit is independent of

(A) the mass of the satellite
(B) radius of its orbit
(C) both the mass of satellite and radius of the orbit
(D) neither the mass of satellite nor the radius of its orbit
13. If the radius of the earth’s orbit around the Sun is R and the time period of revolution of the
earth around the Sun is T. The mass of the Sun is
GT 3 4  2R 3
(A) (B)
4 R
 2
GT 2
1 1
 4  2R 3  2  4  2R 3  3
(C)   (D)  
 GT 2   GT 2 
14. If the metal bob of a simple pendulum is replaced by a wooden bob, then its time period will
(A) increase (B) decreas
(C) remain the same (D) may be increase or decrease
15. If the earth losses its gravity, then for a body

(A) weight becomes zero, but not mass (B) mass becomes zero, but not weight
(C) neither mass nor weight, is zero (D) both mass and weight are zero
16. Work done in holding a mass of 50 kg at a height of 1m above ground is

(A) zero (B) 25 J
(C) 100 J (D) 980 J
L I M I T E D
17. Work done by force 100 N which makes 60o with horizontal moves 50 kg block through a
horizontal distance of 10 m.
(A) 500 J (B) 1000 J
(C) 200 J (D) 900 J
18. A ball of mass 0.1 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m. What is the kinetic energy of the ball
when it hits the ground ?
(A) 25 J (B) 10 J
(C) 15 J (D) 30 J
19. A body of mass 1 kg and momentum 2 Ns has kinetic energy equal to

(A) 3J (B) 5J
(C) 2J (D) 8J
20. Spring constant of spring which has potential energy of 50 J when it is stretched through a
distance of 10 cm is
(A) 112  102 N/m (B) 100  102 N/m
(C) 900  10 N/m
2 (D) 70  103 N/m
21. Two vessels A and B of different shapes have the same base area
and are filled to a height ‘h’. The forces exerted by water on the h
bases are FA and FB respectively and the weight of the liquids are
wA & wB respectively. Then: A B
(A) FA > FB ; wB > wB (B) FA = FB ; wA > wB
(C) FA = FB ; wA < wB (D) FA > FB ; wA = wB
22. A cubical block of steel each side ‘’ is floating in mercury in a vessel. The densities of steel
and mercury are s and m. The height of block above the mercury level is given by.
     
(A)  1 + s  (B)  1 − s 
 m   m 
 m   m 
(C) 1 +  (D) 1 − 
 s   s 
23. A raft of wood (density 400 kg/m3) of mass 120 kg floats in water. How much weight can be
put on the raft to make it “just sink”,
(A) 120 kg (B) 200 kg
(C) 200 kg (D) 180 kg
24. Atmosphere
(A) is a unit of pressure (B) is unit of force
(C) does not exert buoyant force (D) is a vector quantity
25. A body floats in a liquid if the buoyant force is

(A) Zero (B) greater than its weight
(C) less than its weight (D) equal to its weight
L I M I T E D
Chemistry Section-II
1. 80 g NaOH (molar mass = 40) was dissolved in water to make the solution to 2 litre the
molarity of the solution is
(A) 1 M (B) 2 M
(C) 6 M (D) Approx 4 M
2. Electron revolves around the nucleus in definite circular paths called orbits. This was
suggested by
(A) Thomson (B) Rutherford
(C) Bohr (D) Dalton
3. Calculate the required amount of water to prepare 5% of caustic soda solution :

(A) 475g (B) 100g
(C) 95g (D) 97.5g
4. In S−2, the number of protons are

(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 17 (D) 18
5. A 25% alcohol solution means :

(A) 25ml alcohol and 75ml water (B) 15 ml alcohol and 100ml water
(C) 25ml water and 75ml alcohol (D) Can’t say anything
6. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of -particles showed for the first time that the atom
has
(A) Electrons (B) Protons
(C) Neutrons (D) Nucleus
7. A oxygen atom has …….protons, ………..electrons and ………….neutrons.

(A) 8, 7, 8 (B) 2, 8, 4
(C) 2, 8, 1 (D) 2, 8, 5
8. Which is the correct statement about proton?

(A) It is a nucleus of deuterium (B) It is an ionised hydrogen molecule
(C) It is n ionised hydrogen atom (D) It is an -particle
9. The charge on 1 gram ion of Al+3 is:

1 1
(A) NA e coulomb (B) NA e coulomb
27 3
1
(C) NA e coulomb (D) 3 × NAe coulomb
9
10. Maximum number of electrons, the third shell can accommodate is

(A) 32 (B) 2
(C) 8 (D) 18
L I M I T E D
11. When chlorine atom becomes chloride ion it
(A) Looses an electron (B) Gain an electron
(C) Does not loose or gain (D) Share electron
12. Select the correct statement among following

(A) Foam is a colloidal solution of liquid in gas
(B) Aerosol is a colloidal solution of liquid in gas
(C) Gel is a colloidal solution of solid in liquid
(D) Emulsion is a colloidal solution of solid in liquid
13. Which species of phosphorous is most stable?

(A) P (B) P−1
(C) P−2 (D) P−3
14. How many moles of electrons weight one kilogram?

1
(A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) × 1031
9.108
6.023 1
(C) × 1054 (D) × 108
9.108 9.108  6.023
15. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric chloride. This is because

(A) The blood starts flowing in the opposite direction
(B) The blood reacts and a solid is formed which seals the blood vessel
(C) The blood is coagulated and the blood vessel is sealed
(D) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel
16. If NA is the Avogadro constant, the number of valence electrons present in 2.4g of the nitride
ion (N3–) is:
(A) 2.4 NA (B) 4.2 NA
(C) 1.7 NA (D) 3.2 NA
17. Tyndall effect depends upon the

(A) Charge on the colloidal particles
(B) Difference between the refractive indius of dispersed phase and dispersion medium
(C) Size of the colloidal particles
(D) Magnitude of the charge
18. How many grams of CH3OH would have to be added to water to prepare 150 ml of a solution
is 2.0 M CH3OH?
(A) 9.6 (B) 2.4
(C) 9.6 × 103 (D) 4.3 × 102
19. Mg+2 ion is isoelectronic with

(A) Na+ (B) N−3
(C) Al+3 (D) All of these
20. Which of the species are most stable?

(A) Ca+ (B) Al+2
(C) Na+ (D) Mg+
L I M I T E D
Ma th Section-III
PART – A
1. 4
81 − 83 216 + 155 32 + 225 is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) none of these
2. If characteristic of log10x is 3, number of digits in x is

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
3. The value of logba.logcb.logac is

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) logaabc (D) 10
4. log2 log2 log216 is

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 0
5. 3
8  2 4 + 4 625  3 125 is equal to
(A) 5 2 + 3 5 (B) 2 + 125
(C) 1 (D) 29
6. If the polynomials ax3 + 4x2 + 3x − 4 and x3 − 4x + a leave the same remainder when divided
by
(x − 3), the value of a is
(A) −1 (B) 1
(C) 1/2 (D) −1/2
1 1
7. If x − = 2 , then the value of x4 + 4 is:
x x
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 34
8. The remainder when x1999 is divided by x2 – 1 is:

(A) 0 (B) – 1
(C) x (D) 2x – 1
9. log0.786 is equal to:

(A) log786 – log3 (B) log78.6 – log100
(C) log786 – 3 (D) both (B) & (C)
10. Given log2 = 0.3010 and log3 = 0.4771, find the value of log45:
(A) 1.6532 (B) 1.5632
(C) 1.3652 (D) none of these
L I M I T E D
11. Value of log6 is equal to:
(A) log1 + log2 + log3 (B) log(1 + 2 + 3)
(C) log(1  2  3) (D) all of the above
12. AB & CD are two parallel lines. PQ cuts AB & CD at E & F respectively. EL is the bisector of
FEB if LEB = 35° then AEQ will be.
(A) 55° (B) 70°
(C) 110° (D) 130°
13. In figure, If OP || RS then PQR is equal to: R S

(A) 30° O P
( 130°
B) 40° 110°
(C) 60°
(
D) 55°
Q
14. The line x = −5 when shown graphically is _____ to the y-axis

(A) parallel (B) perpendicular
(C) coincides (D) none of these
15. 2x + 3y = 7 intersects x-axis at the point

 7
(A) (2, 0) (B)  0, 
 3
7 
(C)  , 0  (D) (0, 0)
2 
16. The triangle formed by points (0, 0), (2, 2) and the line x = 2 has area equal to
(A) 4 sq. units (B) 2 sq. units
3
(C) sq. units (D) none of these
2
17. In the figure, X is a point in the interior of square ABCD. AXYZ A B

Z
is also a square. If DY = 3 cm and AZ = 2 cm. Then BY =
(A) 5 cm (B) 6 cm X
Y
(C) 7 cm (D) 8 cm
D C
18. In an equilateral triangle ABC, P is a point in such an way that PA2 = PB2 + PC2 then the
value of BPC is
(A) 120° (B) 150°
(C) 145° (D) 135°
L I M I T E D
19. A field is in the shape of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 25m and 10m. The non-parallel
sides are 14m and 13m. The area of the field is
(A) 156 cm2 (B) 176 cm2
(C) 196 cm2 (D) 206 cm2
20. In the given figure, AD is a median of ABC and E is the A

mid-point of AD. If BE is joined and produced to meet AC at
F, Then AF = ?
1 1 F
(A) AC (B) AC
2 3 E
2 3
(C) AC (D) AC
3 4
B D C
21. If APB and CQD are two parallel lines, then the bisectors of APQ, BPQ, CQP and PQD
enclose a
(A) square (B) rhombus
(C) rectangle (D) kite
22. Six years hence a man's age will be three times the age of his son and three years ago he
was nine times as old as his son, then their present ages will be
(A) 30 years, 6 years (B) 77 years, 16 years
(C) 25 years, 54 years (D) 60 years, 10 years
23. Points P and Q are 90 km a part from each other on a highway. A car starts from P and
another from Q at the some time. If they go in the same direction they meet in 9 hours and if
they go in opposite direction they meet in 9/7 hours, then their speeds are
(A) speed of car P = 40 km/hr, speed of car Q = 30km/hr
(B) speed of car P = 70km/hr, speed of car Q = 20km/hr
(C) speed of car P = 80km/hr, speed of car Q = 30km/hr
(D) none of these
24. Students of a class are made to stand in rows. If one student is extra in a row, there would be
2 rows less. If one student is less in row there would be 3 rows more, then the number of
students in the class
(A) 44 (B) 60
(C) 62 (D) 78
25. PQR are respectively the mid points of sides BC, CA and AB of a triangle ABC, PR and BQ
meet at X, CR and PQ meet at Y the value of XY is
1 3
(A) AC (B) BC
2 2
1 3
(C) BC (D) AC
4 4
26. The diagonals of a parallelogram ABCD intersect at O. If BOC = 90° and BDC = 50° then
OAB is:
(A) 40° (B) 50°
(C) 10° (D) 90°
L I M I T E D
27. If M and Mg represent the mean of the raw and grouped data, respectively, then
(A) M = Mg (B) M  Mg
(C) Mg  M (D) cannot say anything
x3 x 4
28. If the mean of x1 and x2 is M1, and that of x1, x2, x3, x4 is M2, the mean of ax1, ax2, , is
a a
M1 + M2 aM1 + (M2 / a)
(A) (B)
2 2
(C)
2a
(
1 2
)
a − 1 M1 + 2M2 (D)
1
2a
(
2(a2 − 1)M1 + M2 )
T
29. In given figure, O is the centre of a circle and PQ is a diameter. If R
ROS = 40°, then RTS = ? P
(A) 70° (B) 60° 40°
(C) 120° (D) none of these O
S
E
30. Find the value of x, is ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
(A) 20° (B) 80° 80° C
(C) 100° (D) none of these D
B
A
x
31. A letter is chosen at random from the letter of the word 'ASSASSINATTION', find the
probability that he letter chosen is
(i) vowel (ii) consonant
6 7 6 6
(A) , (B) ,
13 13 13 13
7 6
(C) , (D) none of these
13 13
32. If a number x is chosen at random from the numbers – 2, – 1, 0, 1, 2, then what is the
probability that x2 < 2?
3 2
(A) (B)
5 5
1
(C) (D) none of these
5
33. A solid cylinder of glass whose diameter is 1.5 m and height 1 m is melted and turned into a
sphere. The diameter of the sphere is
(A) 1 m (B) 0.75 m
(C) 1.25 m (D) 1.5 m
L I M I T E D
34. A tank 15 m long, 10 m wide and 6 m deep is open at the top. If the width of the sheet is 2 m,
then the cost of iron sheet at the rate of Rs 5 per meter is
(A) Rs 550 (B) Rs 1050
(C) Rs 1125 (D) Rs 1150
35. Two cones A and B have their base radii in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their heights in the ratio 3 : 4.
The ratio of volume of cone A to that of cone B is
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 2
PART – B
1. If  and  are the roots of the equation x2 − 7x + 12 = 0, then the equation whose roots are 
+  and  −  is
(A) x2 + 8x − 7 = 0 (B) x2 − 8x + 7 = 0
(C) x − 6x − 6 = 0
2 (D) x2 − 6x + 6 = 0
2. Which of the following has terminating decimal ?

87 24
(A) (B)
12 7
83 57
(C) (D)
9 36
3. If polynomial of degree 4 is divided by polynomial of degree 1, then degree of remainder is

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) either 0 or 1 (D) greater than 1
4. If in an A.P series, each term is made three times and then reduced by half, then the common
difference would increase or decrease to
(A) increase to 150% (B) decrease to 150%
(C) increase to 50% (D) decrease to 50%
5. The line 2x + 7y = 14 cuts the x axis at

(A) (7, 0) (B) (2, 0)
(C) (0, 7) (D) (0, 2)
6. If 7th and 13th term of an A.P. be 34 and 64 respectively, then its 18th term is
(A) 87 (B) 88
(C) 89 (D) 90
7. Number of integral values of x which satisfies x2 − 7x + 12 < 0

(A) zero (B) 1
(C) infinite (D) none of these
8. Area of triangle formed by lines x = 0, y = 0 and x + y = 2

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
L I M I T E D
9. Number of zeroes of f(x) as shown below
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
10. Which of the following statements is false ?

(A) product of HCF and LCM of 3 numbers is equal to product of those 3 numbers
(B) a number of the form 5n + 5 always ends with zero (n is a natural number)
(C) every real number is rational or irrational
93
(D) has terminating decimal representation
25
11. The first and last terms of an A.P. are 1 and 11. If the sum of its terms is 36, then the number
of terms will be
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
12. If a and b are roots of the equation x2 + x + 1 = 0 then a2 + b2 =

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) –1 (D) 3
13. (x + y − 3) (x + y − 7) = 0 represents
(A) two intersecting straight lines (B) two coincident straight lines
(C) two perpendicular lines (D) two parallel straight lines
14. If x = −1 is the root of the equation 2x3 + 5x2 + 6x + 3 = 0, then other two roots are
(A) real distinct and of same sign (B) real distinct and of opposite sign
(C) real and equal (D) not real
p
15. 0.393 can be expressed in the form of such that q  0, as
q
393 393
(A) (B)
1000 99
393
(C) (D) none of these
999
16. If it is known that −1 and 2 are the zeroes of x4 − 7x3 + 9x2 + 7x − 10, the other 2 zeroes are
(A) 1, 5 (B) −1, −5
(C) 1, −5 (D) −1, 5
17. HCF of 135 and 1575 is

(A) 15 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 1
18. The value of k for which the system of linear equations (k – 1)x + ky = k + 1;
2kx + (k + 6)y = 4k will have infinite solutions is
(A) 3 (B) −3
(C) 2 (D) −2
L I M I T E D
19. If − 3 and −2 3 are the roots of a quadratic equations, then its equation is
(A) x2 − 3 3x + 6 = 0 (B) x2 − 3 3x − 6 = 0
(C) x2 + 3 3x + 6 = 0 (D) x2 + 3 3x − 6 = 0
20. If a1, a2, …. a30 are in A.P such that a1 + a5 + a10 + a21 + a26 + a30 = 300, then a1 + a2 + …… +
a30 equals
(A) 900 (B) 1200
(C) 1500 (D) 1800
21. The two simultaneous equations 3x + 4y = 7 and 3x + 4y = 15 has

(A) unique solution (B) two solution
(C) no solutions (D) infinite many solutions
22. Sum of n terms of two A.P. series are in the ratio (6n + 7) : (2n + 7), then ratio of their 4 th term
is
(A) 3 : 7 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 7 : 3 (D) 4 : 3
23. If the numbers a, b, c, d, e are in A.P., then value of a − 4b + 6c − 4d + e is

(A) 0 (B) 1
24. Distance of the point (−3, 4) from the y-axis is

(A) 4 units (B) 3 units
(C) 5 units (D) none of these
25. Number of real roots of the equation (x − 3)2 + (x − 4)2 + (x − 5)2 = 0 are
(A) 0 (B) 1
26. The values of ‘k’ for which x2 – 4x + k = 0 has distinct real roots are
(A) k  4 (B) k > 4
(C) k < 4 (D) k  4
36
27. The expression has
75
(A) terminating decimal expansion (B) non terminating decimal expansion
(C) is irrational number (D) none of these
x2 − 6x + 8
28. Number of integral vaues of x satisfying 0
(x − 2)2
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinite
1
29. If x = and x = 4 are the roots of equation ax2 − 34x + b = 0, then a + b is equal to
4
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 16
L I M I T E D
30. Number of real zeroes of the equation (x − 1)3 = 8 is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
1 1
31. If  and  are the roots of x2 − 2x − 15 = 0, then  + and  + are the roots of
 
(A) 5x2 − 14x + 280 = 0 (B) 5x2 + 14x − 280 = 0
(C) 15x2 + 28x + 260 = 0 (D) 15x2 − 28x − 260 = 0
32. 9(x+1/x) = 368/15, then x could be

3 5
(A) (B)
5 3
3 5
(C) or (D) none of these
5 3
33 .If a, b, c, d, e are in A.P, then the ratio of (e − b) : (d − c) is

(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
1 1
34. Number of solutions of the equation x + 3 − =3−
x x
(A) zero (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinite
35. If (p, q) is the solution to the simultaneous equations 2x + 7y = 14 and x − 7y = 1, then

(A) p > 0, q > 0 (B) p < 0, q < 0
(C) p > 0, q < 0 (D) p < 0, q > 0
36. Sum of lengths of two perpendicular sides of triangle formed by lines x = 0, y = 0 and x + y =
4
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 16
37. What must be subtracted from x4 − x3 − 7x2 + 10x + 5 so that it is fully divisible by x − 1
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 10
38. If x3 + x2 − 4x + 5 is divisible by (x2 − 1), then remainder would be of degree

(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) can be 3 or 1 (D) none of these
39. 2  3  7 + 3  7 is
(A) a prime number (B) a composite number
(C) divisible by 8 (D) none of these
40. The line 2x − 3y + 10 = 0 cuts the y-axis at

 10   10 
(A)  0,  (B)  , 0 
 3   3 
(C) (5, 0) (D) (−5, 0)
L I M I T E D
Bio Section-IV
1. Which of the following does not occur within mitochondria?

(A) Krebs cycle (B) Glycolysis
(C) Electron transport system (D) ATP synthesis
2. Which of the following is possessed only by some bacteria, not by eukaryotes?

(A) Cilia (B) Flagella
(C) Capsule (D) Centriole
3. A major function of Golgi bodies or Dictyosomes is:

(A) in modification of proteins
(B) in fermentation
(C) in light independent photosynthesis
(D) for isolation of electron transport systems
4. Which of the following does not surrounded by a double membrane in eukaryotes?

(A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria
(C) Chloroplasts (D) The cell
5. Cell wall of plant cell contains pit fields known as:

(A) Mitochondria (B) Golgi bodies
(C) Plasma membrane (D) Plasmodesmata
6. The girth of stem or root increases due to growth of:

(A) Lateral meristem (B) Apical meristem
(C) Intercalary meristem (D) Girth meristem
7. Cells of Schlerenchyma tissue is dead and hard due to deposits of:

(A) Pectin (B) Lignin
(C) Cellulose (D) Sucrose
8. Xylem consists of ________, ________, Xylem parenchyma and Xylem fibres:

(A) Sieve tube, Companion cell (B) Tracheid, Sieve tube
(C) Tracheid, vessel (D) Vessel, Companion cell
9. Phloem contains:
(A) Sieve tube (B) Tracheid
(C) Vessel (D) All of these
10. Inner lining of the mouth and oesophagus are covered with:
(A) Ciliated columner epithelium (B) Cuboidal epiothelium
(C) Stratified squamous epithelium (D) Squamous epithelium
11. Growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern is referred to
as:
(A) Crop rotation (B) Inter cropping
(C) Mixed cropping (D) Crop alternation
L I M I T E D
12. An Italian variety bee introduced in Indian apiculture is:
(A) Apis florae (B) Apis dorsata
(C) Apis cerana (D) Apis mellifera
13. Crops grown in rainy season are called:

(A) Kharif crops (B) Rabi crops
(C) Rain crop (D) All of the above
14. Out of the 16 nutrients essential to plants, ____ number are classified as macro nutrients:
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 6 (D) 12
15. Green manure is prepared by:

(A) Applying green fertilizer (B) Colouring the manure into green
(C) Ploughing and mulching sun hemp (D) Adding leaves and stems into the soil
16. Nitrogen constitutes _____ % of our atmosphere:

(A) 28 (B) 58
(C) 68 (D) 78
17. Water pollution involves:

(A) Addition of undesirable substances into water bodies
(B) Removal of desirable substances from water bodies
(C) Causing a change in temperature in water bodies
(D) All of the above
18. Acid rain is:

(A) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur dissolved in atmosphere during rain
(B) Rain of acid and no water
(C) Creating a fountain of acid
(D) None of the above
19. ______________ are pollution indicator plants.

(A) Mycorrhiza (B) Lichen
(C) Rose (D) Marigold
20. In coastal areas during the day the air above the land gets heated faster and thus:
(A) Air from the land rushes towards the sea
(B) Air from the land and sea rushes towards each other and collides
(C) Air from the sea rushes towards the land
(D) Air from the land rushes towards the sea creating a vacuum on the land
21. Which of the following disease combination is caused by virus?

(A) Influenza, Dengue, AIDS (B) Influenza, Kala azar, Haemophilia
(C) Sleeping sickness, Kala azar, Dengue (D) Influenza, Kala azar, Dengue
22. Antibiotics generally:

(A) Are toxic to bacteria (B) Directly kills the bacteria
(C) Blocks biochemical pathways of bacteria (D) Suffocates the bacteria
23. Which of the diseases is not spread by casual physical contact?

(A) Syphilis (B) AIDS
(C) Both a and b (D) Neither a nor b
L I M I T E D
24. The virus for Japanese encephalitis enters into our body through:
(A) Bite of a mad dog (B) Bite of a mosquito
(C) Taking in foul air (D) Drinking contaminated water
25. If liver is the target for infection the person is expected to suffer from:
(A) Breathlessness (B) Vomiting
(C) Cough (D) Jaundice
26. Eukaryotic unicellular organisms are grouped in the kingdom:

(A) Monera (B) Protista
(C) Fungi (D) Plantae
27. An organism having some characteristics of plant and animal kingdom is:
(A) Paramoecium (B) Amoeba
(C) Euglena (D) Giraffe
28. Amphibians of the plant kingdom are the:

(A) Algae (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Pteridophytes (D) Bryophytes
29. Pinus and Cycas belongs to the group:

(A) Angiosperms (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Bryophytes (D) Pteridophytes
30. Platyhelminthes have:

(A) Three germ layers (B) No true coelom
(C) Dorso-ventrally flattened body (D) All of the above features
L I M I T E D
Sst Section-V
1. How does a subsistence crisis happen?

(A) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains
(B) Rising food prices and the poorest cannot buy bread
(C) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots
(D) All the above
2. In the war against Prussia and Austria the army sang the patriotic song
_______________________.
(A) Liberty, written by an unknown woman poet
(B) ‘Marseillaise’ written by the poet Roget de L’Isle
(C) ‘Viva France’ written by a French peasant
3. Which of the following statements is untrue about the Third Estate?

(A) The Third Estate was made of the poor only
(B) Within the Third Estate some were rich and some were poor
(C) Richer members of the Third Estate owned lands
(D) Peasants were obliged to serve in the army, or build roads
4. Who wrote the pamphlet called ‘What is the Third Estate’?

(A) Mirabeau, a nobleman (B) Abbe Sieyes
(C) Rousseau, a philosopher (D) Montesquieu
5. The word livre stands for:

(A) unit of currency in France (B) tax levied by the church
(C) tax to be paid directly to the state (D) none of these
6. What was the effect of the rise of population of France from about 23 million in 1715 to 28
million in 1789?
(A) Education became difficult
(B) Rapid increase in the demand for foodgrains
(C) Housing problem occurred
7. Which social groups emerged in the 18th century?

(A) Lawyers (B) Administrative officials
(C) Middle class (D) All the above
8. The term ‘Old Regime” is usually used to describe:

(A) France before 1000 BC
(B) Society of France after 1789 AD
(C) Society and institutions of France before 1789 AD
L I M I T E D
9. In which of these countries was the model of government as advocated by Montesquieu put
into effect?
(A) USA (B) China
(C) USSR (D) All the above
10. Who wrote the book ‘The Spirit of the Laws’?

(A) Lenin (B) Karl Marx
(C) E H Carr (D) Montesquieu
11. Who wrote the book “The Social Contract”?

(A) Lenin (B) Karl Marx
(C) Rousseau (D) E. H. Carr
12. In the meeting of the Estates General, the members of the Third Estate demanded that:
(A) All the three estates should have one vote altogether
(B) Each member of the three estates should have one vote
(C) Each estate should have one vote
13. On 20 June, the representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the indoor tennis court of
Versailles for:
(A) a hunger strike
(B) drafting a constitution for France which limited the king’s power
(C) declaring a revolt
(D) making an appeal to support the king in times of need
14. Who led the representatives of the Third Estate in Versailles on 20 June?
(A) Mirabeau (B) Abbe Sieyes
(C) Louis XVI (D) Both a and b
15. What did Louis XVI do, seeing the power of his revolting subjects?
(A) He accorded recognition to the National Assembly
(B) Accepted checks on his powers
(C) Ordered his army to crush the revolt
(D) Both (A) and (B)
16. Which of these provisions were passed by the Assembly on the night of 4 August, 1789?
(A) Abolition of feudal system of obligations
(B) Clergy had to give up its privileges
(C) Tithes were abolished
(D) All the above
17. The new constitution made France a:

(A) Constitutional monarchy (B) Communist state
(C) Fully democratic state (D) None of the above
18. According to the new Constitution of 1791, the National Assembly was to be:
(A) elected directly (B) appointed by the king
(C) elected indirectly (D) a hereditary body
L I M I T E D
19. Why is the period from 1793 to 1794 referred to as the ‘Reign of Terror’?
(A) Louis XVI’s successor became a tyrant
(B) Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment
(C) Jacobins opted for loot and plunder
20. Instead of the traditional Monsieur (sir) and Madame (madam), all French men and women
were henceforth addressed as:
(A) Citoyen (B) Citoyenne
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
21. Who seized power after the fall of the Jacobin government?
(A) Common people (B) Descendants of Louis XVI
(C) Wealthy middle class (D) Robespierre’s son
22. An estate consisting of the lord’s land and his mansion is called:
(A) Danton (B) Palace
(C) Chateau (D) Manor
23. What is livre?

(A) A tax levied by the Church
(B) Tax to be paid directly to the state
(C) Unit of currency in France
(D) Group of persons invested with special functions in Church
24. Which of the following bodies was set up to try and prosecute the Nazi war criminals at the
end of World War II?
(A) International Military Tribunal (B) British Military Tribunal
(C) Allied Military Tribunal (D) Allied Judicial Court
25. Germany’s ‘genocidal war’ was against which of the following people?
(A) Jews and political opponents
(B) Gypsies and Polish civilians
(C) Germans who were considered mentally and physically disabled
(D) All the above
26. Why did the Nuremburg Tribunal sentence only 11 Nazis to death for such a massive
genocide?
(A) Only these 11 Nazis were found guilty
(B) The Allies did not want to be harsh on the defeated Germany as they had been after
World War I
(C) Germany promised never to repeat such an act
(D) Germany was ready to pay a huge compensation to the Allied countries for these killings
27. Who were called the ‘November criminals’?

(A) The Opponents of Weimar Republic
(B) The Emperor who abdicated, and his men
(C) The supporters of Weimar Republic
L I M I T E D
28. War in 1917 led to the strengthening of Allies and the defeat of Germany because of the entry
of :
(A) China (B) Japan
(C) the USA (D) Spain
29. The National Assembly met at Weimer and decided to establish :

(A) a democratic constitution with a federal structure
(B) a communist form of government
(C) a powerful monarchy
(D) a military state
30. What was ‘Dawes Plan’?

(A) A plan which imposed more fines on Germany
(B) A plan which withdrew all punishment from Germany
(C) A plan which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans
31. Which of the following was a feature of Hitler’s foreign policy?

(A) He pulled out of the League of Nations in 1933
(B) He decided not to attack any country
(C) He thanked the Allied Powers for having put Germany on the right track
(D) All the above
32. What was the slogan coined by Hitler when he followed his aggressive foreign policy?
(A) Messenger from God (B) Conquer the World
(C) One people, One empire, and One leader (D) We are Aryans, the real rulers
33. Which incident led to the start of World War II?

(A) German invasion of Switzerland (B) German invasion of Poland
(C) Russian invasion of Germany (D) Japan’s sinking of ship at Pearl Harbour
34. When and among which countries was the Tripartite Pact signed?
(A) 1940, Germany, Italy and Japan (B) 1939, Germany, Austria and USSR
(C) 1940, England, France and USA (D) 1938, England, Germany and USSR
35. In which country did Nazi Germany first try its experiment of ‘concentration of Germans in one
area’?
(A) Poland (B) France
(C) Czechoslovakia (D) England
36. What was Nazi ideology with regard to school children?

(A) He believed that education of children was not necessary
(B) A control should be kept over children both inside and outside school
(C) All children should be regarded as equal
37. What was ‘Jungvolk’ in Nazi Germany?

(A) Magazine (B) Holocaust camp
(C) Youth organisation (D) Schools
L I M I T E D
38. What did the term ‘Evacuation’ mean?
(A) Living in separately marked areas called ghettos
(B) Deporting people to gas chambers
(C) Arrested without any legal procedures
(D) Detained without due process of law
39. Who among the following was assigned the responsibility of economic recovery by Hitler?
(A) Goebbels (B) Hindenburg
(C) Hjalmar Schacht (D) Adam Smith
40. Who was the propaganda minister of Hitler ?

(A) Hjalmar Schacht (B) Hindenburg
(C) Goebbels (D) Helmuth
41. What was the name given to gas chambers by Nazis ?

(A) Killing Machine (B) Solution Areas
(C) Revolutionary Ground (D) Disinfection Areas
42. Which article of the Weimar Constitution gave the President the powers to impose
emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree in Germany ?
(A) 46 (B) 47
(C) 48 (D) None of these
43. The Great Depression was a period of :

(A) Economic crisis (B) Global crisis
(C) Political crisis (D) Social crisis
44. An infamous film, which was made to create hatred for Jews was :
(A) The Essential Jew (B) The Evergreen Jew
(C) The Eternal Jew (D) The Emigrant Jew
45. When Germany did not pay the reparations in 1922, how did the French react in January
1923 ?
(A) They sought legal advice (B) They petitioned in League of Nations
(C) Doubled the reparations and added interest (D) They occupied the Ruhr
46. Who amongst these offered Chancellorship to Hitler ?

(A) Churchil (B) Plato
(C) Helmuth (D) Hindenburg
47. Who among the following propounded the theory of the “Survival of the Fittest’’ ?
(A) Charles Darwin (B) Herbert Spencer
(C) Adolf Hitler (D) Isaac Newton
48. The treaty of Versailles was hated by Germany because :

(A) Germany lost 75% of its iron (B) Germany was demilitarised
(C) Both of the above (D) None of these
L I M I T E D
49. When did Hitler pull out of League of Nations?
(A) 1933 (B) 1930
(C) 1932 (D) 1938
50. Against which of the following country Germany was not at war in the first world war ?
(A) England (B) Austria
(C) USA (D) Russia
51. In the context of Germany, what was ‘Volkswagen’?

(A) People’s car (B) German Police
(C) Employment programme (D) German Parliament
52. Which one of the following means the secret state police of Germany?
(A) Gestapo (B) Cheka
(C) CBI (D) FBI

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CLASS-9-GOING-TO-10TH-ASSIGNMENT-SET-A

Prescribed Work for one week:

Team FIITJEE South Delhi

2. A car is moving at a speed 50 km/h. Two seconds there after it is moving at

3. The distance-time graph of a moving vehicle is as shown in the figure.

(A) The speed of the vehicle is increasing with time.

5. The angular speed of the hour hand of the clock is :

Space for Rough Work

9. Why do we use circular tyres?

12. The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit is independent of

15. If the earth losses its gravity, then for a body

16. Work done in holding a mass of 50 kg at a height of 1m above ground is

Space for Rough Work

19. A body of mass 1 kg and momentum 2 Ns has kinetic energy equal to

25. A body floats in a liquid if the buoyant force is

Space for Rough Work

3. Calculate the required amount of water to prepare 5% of caustic soda solution :

4. In S−2, the number of protons are

5. A 25% alcohol solution means :

7. A oxygen atom has …….protons, ………..electrons and ………….neutrons.

8. Which is the correct statement about proton?

9. The charge on 1 gram ion of Al+3 is:

10. Maximum number of electrons, the third shell can accommodate is

Space for Rough Work

12. Select the correct statement among following

13. Which species of phosphorous is most stable?

14. How many moles of electrons weight one kilogram?

15. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric chloride. This is because

17. Tyndall effect depends upon the

19. Mg+2 ion is isoelectronic with

20. Which of the species are most stable?

Space for Rough Work

2. If characteristic of log10x is 3, number of digits in x is

3. The value of logba.logcb.logac is

4. log2 log2 log216 is

8. The remainder when x1999 is divided by x2 – 1 is:

9. log0.786 is equal to:

Space for Rough Work

13. In figure, If OP || RS then PQR is equal to: R S

14. The line x = −5 when shown graphically is _____ to the y-axis

15. 2x + 3y = 7 intersects x-axis at the point

17. In the figure, X is a point in the interior of square ABCD. AXYZ A B

Space for Rough Work

20. In the given figure, AD is a median of ABC and E is the A

Space for Rough Work

(C) 100° (D) none of these D

Space for Rough Work

2. Which of the following has terminating decimal ?

3. If polynomial of degree 4 is divided by polynomial of degree 1, then degree of remainder is

5. The line 2x + 7y = 14 cuts the x axis at

7. Number of integral values of x which satisfies x2 − 7x + 12 < 0

8. Area of triangle formed by lines x = 0, y = 0 and x + y = 2

Space for Rough Work

10. Which of the following statements is false ?

12. If a and b are roots of the equation x2 + x + 1 = 0 then a2 + b2 =

17. HCF of 135 and 1575 is

Space for Rough Work

21. The two simultaneous equations 3x + 4y = 7 and 3x + 4y = 15 has

23. If the numbers a, b, c, d, e are in A.P., then value of a − 4b + 6c − 4d + e is

24. Distance of the point (−3, 4) from the y-axis is

Space for Rough Work

32. 9(x+1/x) = 368/15, then x could be

33 .If a, b, c, d, e are in A.P, then the ratio of (e − b) : (d − c) is

8. Xylem consists of , , Xylem parenchyma and Xylem fibres: