RENAL

1) Potassium conserving diuretics is:

a) Spironolactone
b) Thiazide
c) Furesemide
d) All

2) Diuresis is caused by all expect:

a) Propanolol
b) Maninitol
c) Glycerol
d) Urea

3) Aldosterone antagonist is:

a) spironolactone
b) mifepristone
c) mistranol
d) none

4) Chemically furosemide is :
a) Sulphamoyl derivatives
b) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
c) Aldosterone antagonist
d) Mercurial derivatives
5) Potassium supplements are given with:
a) Thiazides
b) Spironolactone
c) Prednisolone
d) Mannitol
6) The only diuretics which acts on the proximal tubules is:
a) Acetazolamine
b) osmotic diuretics
c) spironolactone
d) chlorothiazide
7) indicators of loop diuretics include all of the following except:
a) anion overdose
 b) acute pulmonary edema
c) hyperkalamia
d) acute renal failure
8) the thiazide diuretic which is primarily excereted by the biliary system is:
a) indapamide
b) chlorothiazide
c) polythiazide
d) benzthiazide
9) therapy with thiazide diuretics may result in all except:
a) hypertension
b) hypotension
c) hypokalamia
d) hyperglycemia
10) For quick and vigorous dieresis DOC is:
a) Furosemide
b) Thiazides
c) Diazoxide
d) Spironolactone
11) The following drugs are useful diabetes insupidus except :
a) Lithium
b) Desmopressin
c) Chlorpropamide
d) Hydroclorthiazide
12) The combination of which of the following diuretic with indomethacin has been reported to cause
acute renal failure:
a) Tiamterene
b) Spironolactone
c) Amiloride
d) Hydrochlorthiazide
13) Hyperkalemia may occur if potassium sparing diuretics are given along with:
a) Captopril
b) Atenolol
c) Prazosin
d) Clonidine
14) Lithium induced polyuria can be reversed by:
a) Amiloride
b) Furosemide
c) Mannitol
d) Torsemide
15) The primary site of action of osmotic diuretics is:
a) Loop of henle
b) PCT
 c) DCT
d) Collecting ducts
16) The loop diuretics which is likely to induce ototoxicity more often than other is:
a) Ethacrynic acid
b) Furosemide
c) Torsemide
d) Bumetanide
17) Mannitol when given i.v causes:
a) Increase blood viscosity
b) Increase intracranial tension
c) Decrease blood viscosity
d) Decrease GFR
18) Osmotic diuretics causes following except:
a) Increases salt reabsorption in DCT
b) Increases intravascular volume
c) Inhibit rennin release
d) Reduces salt reabsorption in ascending limb
19) In chronic renal failure which one is contraindicataed :
a) Triamterene
b) Furosemide
c) Ethacrynic acid
d) Bumetanide
20) Side effects of spironolactone is accelerated by concurrent administration of:
a) ACE inhibitors
b) Thyroxine
c) Salicylates
d) Paracetamol
21) Drug which is useful in neuronal diabetes insipidus in both children and adults given intranasally :
a) Desmopressin
b) Vasopressin
c) Lypressin
d) Presselin
22) Canrenone is the prodrug of:
a) Spironolactone
b) Ampicillin
c) Furosemide
d) Acetazolamine
23) Which of the following is not an effect of furosemide:
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Ototoxicity
d) Hyperuricemia
24) Which of the following is given as prophylaxis of acute mountain sickness?
a) Acetazolamide
b) Triamterene
c) Chlorthalidone
d) None
25) Loop diuretics act by inhibiton of:
a) Na+-k+-2cl- cotransport
b) Na+-k+ATPase
c) Na+-Cl- symport
d) H+-K+ ATPase
26) Which of the following diuretics causes megaloblastic anaemia?
a) Triamterene
b) Amiloride
c) Spironolactone
d) Furosemide
27) The diuretics which has been shown to improve mucociliary clearance in patients with cystic fibrosis
is:
a) Amiloride
b) Acetazolamine
c) Triamterene
d) Chlorthalidone
28) The effect of loop diuretics and thiazides on uric excretion is:
a) Acute administration increase while chronic administration decreases
b) Excretion is decreased
c) Excretion is increased
d) No effect
29) The longest acting thiazide- like diuretics is:
a) Chlorthalidone
b) Indapamide
c) Hydroflumethiazide
d) Polythiazide
30) Hyperglycemia induced by thiazide diuretics is due to :
a) Impaired release of insulin and diminished utilization of glucose
b) Glycogenolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Increased absorption of glucose