ASTHRA EDUCATIONAL ACADEMY-VIJAYAWADA

THE BEST EVER CHOICE FOR NEET & AIIMS ASPIRANTS

PHYSICS (3) Parabolic (4) Elliptical
1. A solid sphere of radius R made of a 7. The two ends of a cylindrical rod are at
material of bulk modulus k is surrounded by temperatures q 1 and q 2. The rate of flow of
a liquid in a cylindrical vessel. A massless heat is Q cal/s. If all the linear dimensions
piston of area A floats on the surface of the are doubled, keeping the temperature
liquid. When a mass M is placed on the constant, the new rate of flow of heat
piston to compress the liquid, the fractional (in cal/s) will be
change in the radius of the sphere is (1) 4Q (2) 2Q
Mg Mg
(1) (2) (3) Q/4 (4) Q/2
kA 3kA
8. A reversible engine converts one-sixth of the
3Mg Mgk
(3) (4) heat input into work. When the temperature
kA 3A
of the sink is reduced by 62°C, the efficiency
2. A rod elongates by L when a body of mass of the engine is doubled. The temperatures
M is suspended from it. The energy stored in (in °C) of the source and the sink are
the rod is
(1) 95, 37 (2) 80, 37
MgL
(1) MgL (2) (3) 99, 37 (4) 90, 37
2
(3) 2MgL (4) Zero 9. If the temperature of a black body increases
from 7°C to 287°C, the rate of energy
3. The depth at which an air bubble of radius radiated increases by a factor of
0.7 mm will remain in equilibrium inside
water is (1) 4 (2) 2
(Given, surface tension of water = 7 × 10 –2 (3) 16 (4) (287/7)4
N/m and g = 10 m/s2)
10. Two plots of volume V against temperature T
(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm for an ideal gas at two different pressures P1
(3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm and P2 have been shown. Hence
4. A vessel contains oil (density 0.8 g/cm3) over
mercury (density 13.6 g/cm 3 ). A V P2
homogeneous sphere floats with half the
volume immersed in mercury and the other P1
half in oil. The density of the material of the
sphere (in g/cm3) is
(1) 3.3 (2) 6.4 T

(3) 7.2 (4) 12.8 (1) P2 > P1 (2) P2 < P1

5. A solid of density D floats in a liquid of
density d. If V1 is the volume of the solid
submerged in the liquid and V 2 is its total
volume, then V1/V2 is equal to
(3) P2 = P1 (4) P2 = 2P1
11. Change in internal energy of a system during
a cyclic process in one complete cycle is

d D (1) Positive (2) Negative

(1) (2)
D d (3) Zero (4) 8.314 J
D Dd 12. A given mass of gas expands from its initial
(3) (4)
Dd D
volume V1 to a final volume V2. Work done
6. The velocity distribution of a viscous
by the gas is maximum when the expansion
streamline liquid flow inside a cylindrical
is
pipe is
(1) Straight (2) Zig-zag (1) Isobaric (2) Isothermal
 (3) Adiabatic (4) Isochoric T2
will be equal to
13. A gas at 250 K is confined in a closed T1
1
container. If the temperature of the gas is (1) 1 (2)
2
raised by 5 K, the percentage increase in 1
pressure will be (3) (4) 2
4
(1) 2% (2) 3% 19. Which of the following functions represents
an SHM?
(3) 4% (4) 5%
(1) y = sinwt – cos2wt(2) y = sin2wt
14. Two iron spheres have the same mass. One is (3) y = sinwt + sin2wt (4) y = sinwt +
solid and the other is hollow. They are cos3wt
heated to the same temperature. The 20. A body executing SHM has its
percentage increase in diameter will be speed 10 cm/s and 7 cm/s when its
(1) More for hollow sphere displacement from the mean position are 3
cm and 4 cm respectively. The amplitude of
(2) More for solid sphere
SHM is
(3) Same for both the sphere
(1) 10 cm (2) 5.7 cm
(4) Depends on their diameter (3) 20 cm (4) 12.3 cm
15. An iron ball has a spherical cavity at its 21. Mean free path of ideal gas molecules is
centre. When the temperature of the ball is (1) Inversely proportional to number of
increased, volume of the cavity molecules per unit volume
(1) Decreases (2) Directly proportional to temperature at
(2) Increases constant pressure
(3) Is independent of the speed of molecule
(3) Remains constant
(4) All of these
(4) May increase or decrease
22. Real gas behaves as ideal gas at
16. The time period of a simple pendulum inside
a stationary lift is 2 s. What will be the time (1) Low pressure and high temperature
period when the lift moves upward with an (2) High pressure and high temperature
g (3) Low pressure and low temperature
acceleration ?
2
(4) High pressure and low temperature
2 3 23. The increase in pressure required to decrease
(1) 2 s (2) 2 s
3 2 20 litres volume of a liquid by 0.004% in kPa
i s
(3) 2 2 s (4) 2 3 s (Bulk modulus of the liquid is = 2100 MPa)
17. Two pendulums A and B of time period 4 s (1) 8.4 (2) 84
a n d
4.2 s are made to vibrate simultaneously. (3) 92.4 (4) 168
They are initially in phase. After how many 24. A particle is executing SHM with time period
vibration of A will they be in phase again? T. Starting from mean position, time taken by
(1) 25 (2) 30 5
it to complex oscillations, is
8
(3) 35 (4) 21
T T
18. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. If (1) (2)
12 6
T1 and T2 are the time taken by the particle
5T 7T
A A (3) (4)
to travel from 0 to and from to A, then 12 12
2 2
25. A small iron ball of mass m is suspended
 with the help of a massless rod of length L 31. A body takes 1 hour to cool from 70°C to
and is free to oscillate in vertical plane. Its 65°C when the surrounding temperature is
time period of oscillation is 30°C. The time taken by the body to cool
from 45°C to 40°C is
mL mL
(1) 2 (2) 2 (1) 180 minute (2) 120 minute
2g g
(3) 30 minute (4) 15 minute
L m
(3) 2 (4) 2 32. An ideal gas is taken through cycle ABCA as
g gL
shown in volume versus pressure (V vs P)
26. Two spheres of equal densities but radii R
diagram below. If the net heat supplied to the
and 2R are allowed to fall in a liquid. The
gas in the cycle is 10 J, the work done by the
ratio of their terminal velocities is
gas in the process C to A is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 32 (4) 2 : 1 3
V(m )
27. In a surface tension experiment with a C
2 B
capillary tube, water rises upto 0.1 m. If the
same experiment is repeated in an artificial
satellite which is revolving around the earth,
water will rise in the capillary upto a height 1
A
of P(N/m )
2

(1) 10 cm 20

(2) 20 cm (1) – 10 J (2) – 5 J

(3) 98 cm
(4) Full length of the capillary
28. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel. When
the vessel is rotated about its axis, the liquid
rises on its sides. If the radius of the vessel is
0.05 m and the speed of rotation is 2
revolutions per second, the difference in the
heights of the liquid at the centre and at the
sides of the vessel will be (take
g = 10 m/s2 and p2 = 10)
(1) 2 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 1 cm (4) 8 cm
29. A mass of dry air at N.T.P. is compressed to
1 th
of its original volume suddenly. If g =
32
1.4, the final pressure woild be
(1) 32 atm (2) 128 atm
(3) – 15 J (4) – 20 J
33. If the ends of a metal rod are kept at
temperatures T1 and T2 (T2 > T1), the rate of
flow of heat along the rod is directly
proportional to
(1) The diameter of the rod
(2) The length of the rod
(3) The cross-sectional area of the rod
(4) The square of the length of the rod
34. A solid cube is first floating in liquid. The
coefficient of linear expansion of cube is a
and the coefficient of volume expansion of
liquid is g. On increasing the temperature of
(liquid + cube) system, the cube will sink if

1
(3) atm (4) 150 atm (1) g = 3a (2) g > 3a
32
(3) g < 3a (4) g = 2a
30. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal
process is 35. Two identical calorimeters containing equal
volume of liquids A and B are both 30°C
(1) Zero (2) Infinite
above room temperature. The cooling curves
(3) Constant (4) Negative for these are shown in the graph below
 (3) Both graph a and graph b may be for
adiabatic expansion

Temperature
(4) Both (2) & (3)
B 40. The work done by the system is zero for a
process shown by the graph
A
P P
Time

Specific heat of A and B, S A and S B are (1) (2)

related as T V
(1) SA > SB (2) SA < SB V P
(3) SA = SB (4) SA = 2SB
(3) (4)
36. In a wave motion T T
(1) Transfer of information takes place 41. In the process a ® b ® c the internal energy
(2) Transfer of energy takes place of an ideal gas
P
(3) Transfer of matter takes place a
b
(4) Both (1) & (2)
c
37. The ratio of speed of sound in a gas to the V
r.m.s. speed of its molecules is
(1) Increases
CP CP (2) Decreases
(1) 3CV (2) 3C (3) First increases then decreases
V
(4) First decreases then increases
CV 3CP 42. The ratio of translational kinetic energy of N2
(3) (4) and O2 at room temperature is
3CP CV
14
(1)
38. The path difference between two waves 16
28
y1 = 10 sin(2pt – x) and (2)
16
y2 = 20 cos(2pt – x + f) 14
(3)
32
3
where f = is (x and t are in SI units) (in (4) Independent of their molecular weight
2
43. Phase difference between the instantaneous
cm)
velocity and acceleration of a particle
(1) 4p m (2) 3 m executing SHM is
(3) 2p m (4) 1 m 
(1) Zero (2)
39. The graphs in the adjacent figure show 2
expansions of gas/gases, which of the (3) p (4) 2p
following statements 44. In the adjacent figure, if the incline plane is
is/are correct? smooth and the springs are identical, then
P the period of oscillation of this body is

a k
b
V M
k
(1) If graph b is adiabatic expansion then
graph a should be isothermal expansion

(2) If graph a is isothermal expansion then
graph b must be adiabatic expansion
 51. In a crystal of a compound AxByCz, C atoms
M 2M
(1) 2 (2) 2 are at the corners of a cubic unit cell and also
2k k
at alternate face centres. B atoms are at edge
M M sin  centres and A atoms are at body centre. x, y
(3) 2 (4) 2
k sin  k and z are respectively
45. The potential energy of a particle of mass 100
(1) 1, 3, 3 (2) 1, 2, 3
g moving along x axis is given by U = 5x (x
– 4) where x is in metre. Which of the (3) 1, 3, 2 (4) 3, 2, 1
following options is correct? 52. A compound A +B – has zinc blende type
(1) At x = 2 the particle moves fastest structure. If the radius of A+ is 82.8 pm, then
(2) The motion of particle is SHM the minimum possible radius of B– will be
(3) The period of oscillation is 0.2 ps (1) 368 pm (2) 200 pm
(4) All of these (3) 34.28 pm (4) Data insufficient
CHEMISTRY 53. Which solid has both Frenkel and Schottky
46. During osmosis between dilute and defects?
concentrated solution the vapour pressure of (1) AgCl (2) AgBr
dilute solution will
(3) NaCl (4) CaFe
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease 54. The charge required for the reduction of 1
mole of Cr2O72– to Cr3(+) is
(3) First decrease then increase
(4) Remain same (1) 1 F (2) 3 F
47. The product obtained at electrode by electrolysis (3) 4 F (4) 6 F
of one litre 0.25 M CuSO4 solution between 55. When 9.65 coulombs of electricity is passed
inert electrode by passing 1 faraday charge are through a copper sulphate, the amount of
(1) Copper & oxygen only copper deposited is (Atomic wt. of Cu =
(2) Copper, O2 & H2 only 63.5)
(3) Copper & H2SO4 only
(1) 31.75 mg (2) 3.175 mg
(4) Copper & H2 only
48. The cells A, B and C have resistance 100 W, (3) 63.5 mg (4) 6.35 mg
200 W and 300 W. The cell constants are 1, 2 56. A solid containing element A, B and C
and 3 respectively. The cell having maximum present at each corner, alternate face centre
molar conductivity for same concentration of and alternate edge centre respectively, then
electrolyte is formula of solid is
(1) A
(1) AB2C (2) ABC
(2) B
(3) C (3) ABC 2 (4) AB4C 3
(4) All have same molar conductance 57. If z is the number of atoms in the unit cell
49. The Ecell of given cell that represents the closest packing sequence
Pt, H2(1 atm)
CH3 COOH HCOOH
H2(1atm) , Pt ABCABC–. The number of tetrahedral void
 
[H ]  0.001 [H ]  0.01M in the unit cell is equal to
will be
(1) z (2) 2z
(1) Zero volt (2) 0.0591 V
(3) 1.0591 V (4) 0.941 V z z
(3) (4)
50. Common salt is sometimes yellow instead of 2 4
being pure white, this is 58. 10 g ethylene glycol is added to 200 g water
and the solution is cooled to –10°C. The
(1) Due to excess of Cl– weight of ice formed is (kf = 1.86).
(2) Due to excess of metal ion (1) 100 g (2) 170 g
(3) Due to F-centre (3) 150 g (4) 120 g
(4) Due to presence of K+ 59. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous
 solution will be highest for present at each body diagonal, of a cube. The
(1) NaCl (2) La(NO3)3 hypothetical composition of the substance is
(3) Ca(NO3)2 (4) C6H12O6 (1) AB3C 2D 4 (2) A3BCD 4
60. At a given temperature, total vapour pressure (3) A3BC 2D 2 (4) A3BC 2D 4
(torr) of a mixture of volatile components A 68. In salt AB, if the radius of the cation A is 130
and B is given by P = 120 – 75 X B hence, pm and anion B is 290 pm, then what is the
vapour pressures of pure A and B coordination number of cation A in the salt?
respectively (torr) are
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 120, 75 (2) 120, 195
(3) 6 (4) 8
(3) 120, 45 (4) 75, 45
69. The highest co-ordination among the
61. Which of the following solution has highest
following void is
boiling point?
(1) Cubic
(1) 1 M urea (2) 1 M NaCl
(2) Octahedral
(3) 1 M CaCl2 (4) 1 M Al2(SO4)3
62. The pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is found (3) Tetrahedral
to be 2. Hence, its osmotic pressure at the (4) All have equal co-ordination number
given temperature is 70. Which of the following solutions will have
(1) 1.1 RT (2) 0.1 RT highest boiling point?
(3) 0.11 RT (4) 0.01 RT (1) 2 M glucose
3
Cu2  Cu, the emf of cell (2) 1 M AlCl3 (30% dissociated)
63. For the cell, Cr Cr
(1M) (2 M)
(3) 1 M BaCl2 (40% dissociated)
at 25°C approx. will be
(4) 1 M urea
(E°Cr/Cr3+ = +2.36 V, E°Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V)
(1) 2.70 V (2) 1.09 V 71. Benzene and toluene form ideal solution. The
vapour pressures of benzene and toluene in
(3) 1.69 V (4) –2.69 V
pure state are 700 and 600 mm of Hg
64. 4 Faradays electricity is passed through respectively. Find the total vapour pressure
CuSO4 solution using Cu electrodes, then the when benzene and toluene is mixed in 2 : 3
total volume of gases evolved at NTP is molar ratio
(1) 67.2 L (2) 33.6 L (1) 620 mm of Hg (2) 640 mm of Hg
(3) 22.4 L (4) Zero
(3) 660 mm of Hg (4) 680 mm of Hg
65. A current of 0.5 ampere when passed
72. In 400 g of 20% solution (by mass), 50 g of
through AgNO 3 solution for 193 seconds
solute gets precipitated out. What amount of
deposited 0.108 g of Ag. The equivalent
solute will be left in the solution?
weight of Ag is
(1) 10 g (2) 30 g
(1) 108 (2) 54
(3) 7.5 g (4) 20 g
(3) 10.8 (4) 1
73. A hypothetical reaction A 2 + B 2 ® 2AB
H H H2 , Pt. For the feasibility of the
66. Pt, H2 (pH follows the mechanism given below
) (pH )
1 2
cell, the correct relation is (assume pressure A2 A + A (fast)
of H2 on both sides are same)
A + B2 ¾® AB + B (slow)
(1) pH1 > pH2 (2) pH1 < pH2
A + B ¾® AB (fast)
(3) pH1 = pH2 (4) pH1 ³ pH2
The order of overall reaction is
67. If ‘A’ atoms are at all face centres, ‘B’ atoms
are at all corners, ‘C’ atoms are present at (1) 2 (2) 3
four edge centre and one ‘D’ atom are (3) 3.5 (4) 1.5
74. A certain reaction is 50% complete in 32 give a coloured substance Z. The time (t)
minutes and 75% complete in 48 minutes. taken for various initial concentrations of X
What is the order of reaction? and Y to produce a certain colour intensity
(1) First (2) Second are given in the table.
(3) Zero (4) Third [X](mol L–1) [Y](mol L–1) Time/second
75. An endothermic reaction A ® B has an 0.05 0.05 44
activation energy ‘x’ kJ mole–1 and enthalpy
change of the reaction is ‘y’ kJ mole –1, the 0.05 0.10 22
activation energy of reverse reaction is 0.10 0.05 44
(1) x + y (2) x – y Which one of the following is correct?
y (1) Rate = K[Y]1/2 (2) Rate = K[X]1/2 [Y]1/
(3) y – x (4) x 
2 2
76. What amount of reactant left after two half
lives in a zero order reaction? (3) Rate = K[Y]–1 (4) Rate = K[Y]

1
81. The graph representing 1st order reaction is
(1) th of initial amount
4

log (a – K)
(2) Zero –K
Slope =
2.303
t1/2
3
(3) th of initial amount (1) (2)
4
Progress of
1 Concentration reaction
(4) th of initial amount
8
77. Hydrolysis of cane sugar is the reaction of Ea
Slope = –
log K

2.303 R
(1) Second order (2) First order
(3) (4) All of these
(3) Pseudo first order (4) Third order
1
78. The reaction, 2NO + Br 2 ¾® 2NOBr, obeys T
82. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm
the following mechanism
K1 B
NO + Br2 NOBr2 —— Fast
K2
A
K3 x
NOBr2 + NO   2NOBr — — Log
m
Slow
The rate expression of the above reaction can
Log P
be written as
Ths slope of the AB line
(1) r = K¢[NO]2 [Br2] (2) r = K¢[NO][Br2]
(1) Log K (2) Log n
(3) r = K¢[NO] [Br2]2 (4) r = K¢[NOBr2] 1 1
K1 (3) Log (4)
n n
79. For the reaction, N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) the 83. The coagulation power of anion in decreasing
K2
rate of disappearance of NO2 is given by order to coagulate the positively charged sol.
(1) K1[N2O4] – K2[NO2]2 (1) Cl  SO24  PO34  Fe(CN)6 4 
(2) K2[NO2]2 – K1[N2O4] (2) Fe(CN)6 4  PO34  SO42  Cl
(3) 2K2[NO2]2 – 2K1[N2O4] (3) Fe(CN)6 4  Cl  SO24  PO34
(4) 2K1[N2O4] – 2K2[NO2]2 (4) Fe(CN)6 4  Cl  SO24  PO34
80. Two colourless substance X and Y react to 84. Which of the following method is not
 employed for the purification of colloids? (1) Helps in loss of water as liquid drops
(1) Electrodialysis (2) Dialysis (2) Helps in ascent of sap
(3) Ultracentrifugation (4) Peptisation (3) Remains always open
85. Curd belong to category of (4) More than one option is correct
(1) Gel (2) Sol 94. Passive water transport is related to all except
(3) Emulsion (4) Froth (1) Pump
(2) Transpiration pull
86. Negative catalyst for auto decomposition of
H2O2 (3) Absorption through the roots
(1) H2SO4 (2) H3PO4 (4) DPD gradient
95. The free living nitrogen fixing anaerobic
(3) NaOH (4) KOH
microbes are
87. Which has maximum coagulation power for
(1) Azotobacter and Clostridium
As2S3?
(2) Clostridium and Rhodospirillum
(1) K2SO4 (2) Al2(SO4)3
(3) Beijerinckia and Azotobacter
(3) FeSO4 (4) CaSO 4 (4) Bacillus and Beijerinckia
88. Catalyst does not change value of 96. Inhibition of cell division is due to deficiency
(1) Rate constant of
(2) Equilibrium constant (1) Ca, K, Cu and Mg (2) S, Mo, N and
K
(3) Activation energy
(3) Mo, Fe, S and Mn (4) Mn, Cl, Zn and S
(4) Threshold energy
97. Essential elements
89. Which is not character of physical
(1) Are 8 macro and 9 micro elements
adsorption?
(2) Cannot be categorised as macro and
(1) Reversible micro elements
(2) Monolayered (3) Are required to complete the life cycle
(3) Non specific (4) Are also called tracer elements
(4) Pressure favorable 98. Xylem helps in upward movement of
90. An overall order of the reaction is 2, whose (1) Amides (2) Some hormones
rate expression is given as, r = [A]x [B]y [C]z.
The respective x, y and z might be (3) Minerals and water (4) All of these

(1) 1, 1, –1 (2) 2, 1, 0 99. The enzyme which helps in the formation of

number of amino acids from glutamic acid is
(3) 0, 1, –1 (4) 0, 1, 1
(1) Transaminase
BOTANY
(2) Glutamate synthetase
91. Frankia has symbiotic relationship with roots
of (3) a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

(1) Alfalfa (2) Pea (4) Glutamate dehydrogenase

(3) Alnus (4) Gram 100. C4 plants loses only half as much water as a
C3 plant for the same amount of CO2 fixed.
92. The first stable product of Calvin cycle is The transpiration ratio of C 3 and C 4 plants
formed through are respectively.
(1) Decarboxylation (2) Regeneration (1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) Carboxylation (4) Reduction (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
93. The hydathodes 101. Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that
 reduces the dry weight of tissues by about
_______ is considered toxic.
(1) 0.5% (2) 2%
(3) 10% (4) 25%
102. In C 3 plants, during light reaction the
following are formed
(1) Hydrogen, O2 and sugar
(2) ATP, hydrogen and CO2
(3) ATP, reducing power and O2
(4) Hydrogen, CO2 and sugar
103. Rhizobium in soil
(1) Has anaerobic, N2 fixing ability
(2) Is aerobic without nitrogenase activity
(3) Can fix N2 asymbiotically
(4) Is called bacteroid
104. Plant factors that affect transpiration include
all, except
(1) Water status of the plant
(2) Distribution of stomata
(3) Canopy structure
(4) Humidity
105. The first action spectrum of photosynthesis
was described by
(1) Cornelius Van Niel (2) T.
Englemann
(3) Julius Von Sachs (4) Joseph Priestley
106. Nitrobacter and Nitrosomonas are
(1) Photolithotroph (2) Photoorganotroph
(3) Chemoautotroph (4) Chemoheterotroph
107. Identify the correct statement w.r.t.
photorespiration
(1) Occurs at high temperature
O2
(2) Occurs at high concentration
CO2
(3) Observed in C3 plants
(4) More than one option is correct
108. Read the statements A, B and C
A. All minerals can be passively absorbed by
the roots
B. The concentration of minerals in the soil
is usually lower than the concentration of
minerals in the root
C. Ions are absorbed from the soil by active
transport only
(1) A and B are correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) A and C are correct
(4) A, B and C are incorrect
109. Bulk flow is involved in
(1) Absorption through the roots
(2) Transport through xylem
(3) Transport through phloem
(4) All of these
110. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C4 plants.
(1) The number of carbon in the primary CO2
fixation product is four
(2) Mesophyll contains RuBisCO
(3) They have Kranz anatomy
(4) Temperature optimum is 30-45°C
111. Absorption spectrum of photosynthetic
pigments depicts that
(1) Chl (a) absorbs less light than chl (b) in
blue region
(2) Chl (b) absorbs less light than chl (a) in
red region
W. (3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Chl (a) absorb less blue light than it
absorb red light
112. Non cyclic photophosphorylation is
characterised by
(1) Uphill movement of electrons from PS-II
to OEC
(2) Downhill movement of electrons from PS-
I to cytochrome complex
(3) Movement of electrons from low redox
potential to high redox potential
(4) Generation of ATP and NADH
113. During C2 cycle, ATP molecules are utilized
in
(1) Peroxisome of mesophyll
(2) Mitochondria of mesophyll
(3) Cytoplasm of bundle sheath
 (4) Chloroplast of mesophyll (1) Two (2) One
114. Select the odd one (w.r.t. CAM plants) (3) Zero (4) Four
(1) Acidification during night 120. An element, which is activator of enzyme
alcohol dehydrogenase is
(2) Deacidification during day
(1) Zinc (2) Molybdenum
(3) Malic acid gets stored in vacuoles
(3) Copper (4) Boron
(4) Chloroplast dimorphism
121. Root pressure is absent in
115. Net production through glycolysis is
(1) Pinus (2) Pea
(1) 4 ATP, 2 NADH & 2 pyruvate
(3) Rice (4) Mango
(2) 2 ATP, 2 NADH & 2 pyruvate
122. Select the correct statement w.r.t. guttation.
(3) 2 ATP, 4 NADH & 1 pyruvate (1) Water loss in liquid phase
(4) 4 ATP, 4 NADH & 2 pyruvate (2) It takes place at night and mid-day
116. Match the following. (3) It occurs, when root pressure is low
Column I Column II (4) It occurs, when evaporation is high
a. Activator for (i) Chlorine 123. Most plants meet their water need by
catalase (1) Transpiration pull (2) Root pressure
b. Anion-cation balance (ii) Iron (3) Imbibition (4) Capillary action
c. Synthesis of Auxin (iii) Molybdenum 124. Present concentration of CO2 in environment
d. Nitrogen metabolism (iv) Zinc is
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), (1) 300-360 ppm (2) 500-1000 ppm
c(iv), d(iii) (3) 360-400 ppm (4) Beyond 450 ppm
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), 125. Which of the following can inhibit the
c(ii), d(iv) calcium translocation in shoot apex at its
higher concentration?
117. Read the following statements
(1) Manganese (2) Magnesium
(a) Glycolysis is a ten step process
(3) Potassium (4) Iron
(b) Glycolysis occur in cytoplasm of all living
organisms 126. Nitrification is carried by bacteria

(c) Three non enzymatic irreversible steps are (1) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
present in glycolysis (2) Bacillus and Thiobacillus
(d) No decarboxylation and oxidation occur (3) Thiobacillus and Pseudomonas
during glycolysis (4) Rhodospirillum and Beijerinckia
How many of the above statements are 127. Maximum photosynthetic rate is achieved in
correct? (1) Red light (2) Blue light
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Green light (4) White light
(3) One (4) Two 128. Nitrogen fixation requires
118. Select odd one out (w.r.t. micronutrient) (1) A strong reducing agent
(1) Boron (2) Nickel (2) ATP
(3) Zinc (4) Sulphur (3) Mo-Fe protein
119. How many NADPH molecules are net (4) More than one option is correct
consumed during C4 cycle in mesophyll cell 129. The most crucial step of the Calvin cycle is
of maize for per CO2 fixed?
(1) Regeneration (2) Carboxylation
 (3) Reduction (4) Photorespiration ZOOLOGY
130. Which process occurs on plasma membrane 136. Number of nephrons in each adult human
of bacteria? kidney are :
(1) Citric acid cycle (1) 4 million (2) 2 million
(2) Electron transport chain (3) 1 million (4) 3 million
(3) Link reaction 137. The signal for micturition reflex starts from
(4) Glycolysis (1) Hypothalamus
131. Formation of cell wall and spindle formation (2) Kidney
essentially involves (3) Stretch receptor on the wall of urinary
(1) Zn (2) Mn bladder
(4) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cl (4) Ca
138. Which one of the following muscles does not
132. Identify the correct statement w.r.t. ETS
help in transportation of food through the
(a) Cytochrome C is the part of complex III digestive tract and gametes through the
(b) Fe–S is common to first three protein genital tract?
complexes (1) Smooth muscles (2) Visceral muscles
(c) F1 is peripheral large protein attached to (3) Striated muscle (4) Involuntary muscle
inner membrane
139. In the given diagram a, b, c is
(d) Flow of electrons occur from low redox (a)
potential to high redox potential (b)
(1) Only (a) (2) Both (a) & (c) (c)
(3) (b) & (d) (4) Only (c) (a) (b) (c)
133. How many electrons are contributed by two (1) Troponin Actin Tropomyosin
Kreb’s cycle to ETS? (2) Tropomyosin Troponin Actin
(1) Six (2) Four (3) Troponin Tropomyosin Actin
(4) Actin Troponin Tropomyosin
(3) Ten (4) Sixteen
134. A. The F1 head piece is a peripheral membrane 140. In the given diagram of human skull, (a), (b),
p r o t e i n (c), (d) are :
complex which contains the site of ATP
synthesis
(a)
B. F0 is an integral membrane protein complex (c)
w h i c h (b) (d)
forms the channel through which protons
c r o s s
the outer membrane
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A & B are correct (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Both A & B are incorrect (1) Occipital Parietal Temporal Frontal
135. Complex V is coupled to ETS (with four (2) Parietal Temporal Sphenoid Zygomatic
protein complexes) to carry out (3) Parietal Temporal Frontal Ethmoid
(1) Hydrolysis of ATP (4) Occipital Sphenoid Ethmoid Frontal
(2) Oxidative decarboxylation 141. Which of the following is correct regarding
(3) Oxidative phosphorylation human ribs?
(1) Their number is mostly 24 pairs
(4) Phosphorylation of ATP
(2) They are bicephalic
 (3) Each rib is a thin flat bone connected
ventrally to the vertebral column and
dorsally to the sternum
(4) 7, 8, 9 the pair of ribs do not articulate
directly with sternum
142. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
number of bones in a single limb?
(1) Palm bones – 5 metacarpals
(2) Ankle bones – 8 tarsals
(3) Phalanges – 5, digits 14
(4) Wrist bones – 8 carpals
143. The joint between the flat skull bones is a
type of
(1) Fibrous joint (2) Cartilaginous joint
(3) Synovial joint (4) Pivot joint
144. Which of the following do you think is the
disorder characterised by low calcium level
leading to spasm of muscles?
(1) Tetany (2) Osteoporosis
(3) Gout (4) Arthritis
145. Select the mismatch between part of the
brain listed with its function mentioned.
(1) Hippocampus – short term
memory
(2) Cerebrum – motor areas
(3) Cerebellum – equilibrium
(4) Amygdala – hungers & satiety centre
146. Which of the following is an example of
conditioned reflex?
(1) Watering of mouth on tasting food
(2) Withdrawl of hand on touching hot plate
(3) Cycling
(4) Flowing of tears while peeling and
cutting onions
147. Brain ventricles are lined by
(1) Podocytes (2) Schwann cells
(3) Neuroglial cells (4) Ependymal cells
148. During muscle contraction, which of the
following events is likely to take place?
(1) Decrease in width of sarcomere
(2) Increase in length of actin filaments
(3) Decrease in length of actin filaments
(4) Increase in length of myosin filament
149. Odd one out w.r.t. arthropods.
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Antennal
gland
(3) Coxal gland (4) Nephridia
150. Which of the following is not common in
cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons?
(1) Renal corpuscles (2) Columns of Bertini
(3) Vasa recta (4) PCT
151. A person has been diagnosed with presence
of calculi in kidney. The most common stones
are insoluble masses of crystallisted salts of
(1) Calcium & cholesterol
(2) Uric acid
(3) Oxalates
(4) Nitrogenous compounds including excess
urea
152. PCT helps to maintain pH and ionic balance
of the body fluid, by the process of
(1) Selective secretion of H+
(2) Reabsorption of HCO3–
(3) Reabsorption of glucose and amino acid
(4) Both (1) & (2)
153. Conditional reabsorption of Na + and water
takes place in
(1) DCT (2) Loop of Henle’s
(3) PCT (4) Both (1) & (2)
154. Counter-current mechanism plays a very
important role in producing a concentrated
urine, here counter current means
(1) Flow of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s
loop is in opposite direction
(2) Flow of blood through the two limbs of
vasa recta in opposite direction and also
opposite to urine/filtrate flow
(3) Flow of isotonic nephric filtrate in PCT
and flow of Hypotonic nephric filtrate in
DCT
(4) Both (1) & (2)
155. Which of the following is essentially a part of
medullary pyramid?
(1) PCT (2) Bowman’s capsule
(3) Loop of Henle (4) DCT
156. Mark the correct statement regarding our
 body muscle. (1) Have neurilemma
(a) It has mesodermal origin (2) Lack neurilemma
(b) It contributes 40–50% of the body weight (3) Transmit impulse slower than
(c) It is elastic in nature unmyelinated neurons
(d) ATP is the immediate source of energy (4) Are prone to damage during multiple
for muscle contraction
sclerosis
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a), (b) only
163. Which of the following is present at base
(3) (a), (b), (d) only (4) (a), (d) only
buccal cavity and is also included in skull?
157. In human body, which one of the following
is anatomically correct?
(1) Humerus (2) Hyoid
(1) Collar bones – 4
(2) Floating ribs – 4 (3) Mandible (4) Nasal bone
(3) Tibia and fibula – Both form part of 164. Major part of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed
knee joint in PCT. However there is selective secretion
of
(4) Shoulder and elbow – Ball and
socket type (1) HCO3– (2) Glucose
joint of joint (3) H+ (4) Na+
158. Which of the following is not a bone of axial 165. Function of tropomyosin troponin complex in
skeleton? skeletal muscle includes
(a) Clavicle (b) Frontal (1) Sliding of actin filament, which leads to
(c) Sternum (d) Coccyx shortening of muscle fibres
(1) (a), (b) (2) (a) only (2) Release of Ca 2+ after initiation of
contraction
(3) (a), (d) (4) (a), (c), (d)
(3) They cover the myosin binding site on
159. Which of the following is an example of pivot
actin
joint?
(4) Generate ATP that is hydrolysed by
(1) Glenoid cavity & head of humerus
myosin head
(2) Carpal & metacarpal of thumb
166. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(3) Femur & Tibia w.r.t. ‘Red fibres’
(4) Atlas & Axis (1) Myoglobin content is high
160. Muscular dystrophy is characterized as (2) They contain plenty of mitochondria,
(1) Autoimmune disorder which cna utilise the large amount of
oxygen stored in them for ATP
(2) Genetic disorder
production
(3) Inflammatory disorder
(3) They are aerobic muscles
(4) Age-related disorder
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is more developed
161. Which part of nephron is called as compared to white fibres
concentrating segment?
167. Properties of cardiac muscles have been
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule discussed. All of the following properties are
(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle correct, except

(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle (1) They are involuntary and striated

(4) Distal convoluted tubule (2) Immune to fatigue

162. Nodes of Ranvier in myelinated neurons of (3) Exhibits rhythmicity

PNS (4) Exhibits tetanus and regeneration
168. Synovial joints are characterized by presence (1) Cerebellar hemispheres
of fluid filled synovial cavity and considerable
(2) Cerebral hemispheres
movement. Which of the following is not a
synovial joint? (3) Lobes of a corpora quadrigemina
(1) Hinge (4) All of these
(2) Gliding joint 173. Given below is a table comparing the effects
(3) Sutures of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
system for four features (1–4). Which one
(4) Ellipsoidal
feature is correctly described?
169. Following four statements are related to
Feature Sympathetic
regulation of kidney function. All of the
Parasympathetic
following statements are correct except.
nervous system
nervous system
(1) Renin–released from JG cells
(1) Salivary gland Stimulates
due to fall in GFR
Inhibits secretion
(2) RAAS–is responsible for
(2) Pupil of eye Dilates Constricts
increasing the blood pressure
(3) Heart rate Decreases Increases
(3) ANF–opposes RAAS in its
action (4) Intestinal Stimulates Inhibits
Peristalsis
(4) Osmoreceptor in the – are deactivated
by bodychanges in blood 174. Mark the option that will not be a part of a
volume & osmolarity monosynaptic reflex?

170. Age related disorder characterised by (1) Muscle spindle

decreased bone mass and increased chances (2) Motor end plate
of fractures is A . Decreased levels of B is
(3) Dorsal root ganglion
a common cause. Correctly fill in the blanks
(4) Interneuron
A and B
175. The thermoregulatory centre lies in
A B
(1) Spinal cord
(1) Myasthenia gravis Estrogen
(2) Hypothalamus
(2) Muscular dystrophy Progesterone
(3) Cerebellum
(3) Osteoporosis Estrogen
(4) Arthritis Progesterone (4) Medulla oblongata
176. From given four statements select wrong one
171. Cerebrospinal fluid helps to protect the brain
w.r.t. a resting neuron
by acting as a shock absorber. It is found in
(1) It is more permeable to K+
(1) Space between cranium and dura mater
(2) It is nearly impermeable to Na+
(2) Space between dura mater and arachnoid
(3) It is impermeable to negatively charged
mater
proteins present in the axoplasm
(3) Space between arachnoid mater and pia (4) Within axoplasm there is high
mater concentration of Na + and low
(4) More than one option is correct concentration of K+

172. Corpus callosum is a tract of nerve fibres 177. Route of reflex arc is
connecting (1) Receptors ® effectors ® grey matter ®
 motor fibres PHYSICS
(2) Receptors ® sensory fibres ® grey matter
® motor fibres ® effectors 1. (2) 2. (2)3. (1)4. (3)5. (2)
6. (3)7. (2)8. (3)9. (3)10. (2)
(3) Sensory fibres ® grey matter ® motor 11.(3)12. (1)13. (1)14. (3)15. (2)
fibres ® receptors ® effectors 16.(1)17. (4)18. (4)19. (2)20. (2)
(4) Effectors ® grey matter ® motor fibres ® 21.(4)22. (1)23. (2)24. (4)25. (3)
sensory fibres ® receptors 26.(1)27. (4)28. (1)29. (2)30. (2)
31.(1)32. (1)33. (3)34. (2)35. (2)
178. An axon has four terminal ends connected
36.(4)37. (1)38. (3)39. (4)40. (1)
with dendrites of four different neurons. Its
41.(3)42. (4)43. (2)44. (1)45. (4)
nerve impulse will
(1) Become weak due to distribution into four CHEMISTRY
different neurons
(2) Travel in all four neurons with equal 46.(2)47. (2)48. (4)49. (2)50. (3)
strength 51.(3)52. (2)53. (2)54. (4)55. (2)
56.(2)57. (2)58. (2)59. (4)60. (3)
(3) Pass on to one neuron only
61.(4)62. (3)63. (1)64. (4)65. (1)
(4) Travel to none because the movement of 66.(1)67. (2)68. (3)69. (1)70. (1)
impulse is from dendrite to axon 71.(1)72. (2)73. (4)74. (3)75. (2)
179. In a resting neuronal membrane, which is in 76.(2)77. (3)78. (1)79. (3)80. (3)
polarised state, potassium ions diffuse from : 81.(4)82. (4)83. (2)84. (4)85. (1)
86.(2)87. (2)88. (2)89. (2)90. (4)
(1) ECF to axoplasm
(2) Axoplasm to ECF, through leaky potassium BOTONY
ion channels
(3) Inside to outside through voltage gated K+ 91.(3)92. (3)93. (4)94. (1)95. (2)
channels 96.(2)97. (3)98. (4)99. (1)100. (3)
101.(3)102.(3)103. (2)104. (4)105. (2)
(4) Outside to inside through voltage gated 106.(3)107.(4)108. (2)109. (4)110. (2)
channels 111.(3)112.(3)113. (4)114. (4)115. (2)
180. Which hormone causes vasodilation and 116.(2)117.(4)118. (4)119. (3)120. (1)
decreases blood pressure? 121.(1)122.(1)123. (1)124. (3)125. (1)
126.(1)127.(4)128. (4)129. (2)130. (2)
(1) Vasopressin (2) Aldosterone
131.(4)132.(3)133. (4)134. (1)135. (3)
(3) Renin (4) ANF
ZOOLOGY

136.(3)137.(3)138. (3)139. (3)140. (2)

141.(2)142.(2)143. (1)144. (1)145. (4)
146.(3)147.(4)148. (1)149. (4)150. (3)
151.(3)152.(4)153. (1)154. (4)155. (3)
156.(1)157.(2)158. (2)159. (4)160. (2)
161.(3)162.(1)163. (2)164. (3)165. (3)
166.(4)167.(4)168. (3)169. (4)170. (3)
171.(3)172.(2)173. (2)174. (4)175. (2)
176.(4)177.(2)178. (2)179. (2180. (4)