MODULE - I

1. Which of the following is/are characteristic/s of mechatronic products and systems?

a. Functional interaction between mechanical, electronic and information technologies
b. Spatial interaction of subsystems in one physical unit
c. Intelligence related to the control functions of the mechatronics system
d. All of these

2. Which control system does not have a stability problem?

a. Open loop system
b. Closed loop system
c. Both open and closed loop systems
d. None of these

3. In which system does the output not affect the process in any way?
a. Open loop system
b. Closed loop system
c. Both open and closed loop systems
d. None of these

4. A group of components which can complete certain tasks or achieve certain desired results in a
desired manner while working together is called as_____.
a. output system
b. sequence system
c. control system
d. all of these

5. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are immediately required
for use is called as______.
a. HDD
b. ROM
c. RAM
d. SSD

6. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital controllers?
a. Very slow
b. Very fast
c. Same
d. Almost similar

7. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________ that of the
PLCs.
a. poor than
b. excellent than
c. as good as
d. unpredictable as

8. Micro-controllers are ________________ than the PLCs.

 a. bulky and expensive
b. bulky but cheaper
c. portable and cheaper
d. portable but expensive

9. __________ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming
b. Installation
c. Commissioning
d. All of these

10. PLC can be ___________ in plant to change the sequence of operation.

a. only programmed
b. only reprogrammed
c. programmed and reprogrammed
d. able to give a set point

11. The PLC is used in _______.

a. machine tools
b. automated assembly equipment
c. moulding and extrusion machines
d. all of these

12. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?

a. Relay coils
b. Solenoids
c. Indicators
d. Motors
e. Lamps
f. Alarms

13. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches
b. Relays
c. Sensors
d. None of these

14. The task of time sharing, in which large number of data signals are sent through cables or buses,
is performed by_________.
a. sensors or transducers
b. central processing unit (CPU)
c. multiplexer
d. analog to digital converter

15. A good example of standalone mechatronics system is _________.

a. washing machine
b. wire aircraft
c. CIM
d. humanoid robot
16. A bread toaster is a_________.
a. open-loop system
b. closed-loop system
c. follow-up system
d. servo mechanism system

17. In closed-loop system the control action is_________.

a. dependent on the output
b. independent on the output
c. partially dependent on the output
d. none of these

18. Exteroceptive sensors give the robot information about the__________.

a. surrounding environment
b. position
c. orientation and the speed
d. none of these
19. Main requirement of a good control system is_________.
a. sensitivity
b. oscillation
c. linearity
d. stability

20. A regulator control system maintains the control variable at a ________.

a. constant set point
b. changing set point
c. both constant set and changing set points
d. none of these

21. The device which converts one form of energy into another is called a _________.
a. transistor
b. transducer
c. PLC
d. microcontroller

22. ________ is a closed-loop system.

a. electric iron box
b. DC motor
c. car starter
d. AVCS

23. An ideal amplifier has _______ input impedance.

a. high
b. low
c. medium
d. none

24. An ideal amplifier would have _______ output impedance.

a. high
 b. low
c. medium
d. none

25. If the signal to the inverting input terminal of the op-amp is negative, the output signal will
be___________.
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. cannot say

26. A voltage follower has a _________ gain.

a. high
b. low
c. unity
d. none

27. The instrumentation amplifier circuit is a __________ amplifier optimized for high input
impedance and a high common mode rejection ratio.
a. summing
b. differential
c. differentiator
d. subtracting

28. Passive analog filters employ circuits containing element such as____________.
a. transistor
b. op-amp
c. resistor
d. none

29. A circuit that does not change components within a specified band of frequencies is known
as____________.
a. low pass filter
b. high pass filter
c. band pass filter
d. notch filter

30. The integral control mode is____________.

a. phase leading
b. phase lagging
c. in-phase
d. phase reversing

31. The most common combination of control modes found in the typical process plant
is____________.
a. proportional
b. PI
c. PID
d. ON–OFF
32. In a proportional controller, the offset between set point and control point must be held to a
minimum value. Therefore, the proportional band must be____________.
a. as narrow as possible
b. as wide as possible
c. of moderate value
d. none of these

33. The proportional band is the____________.

a. amount of change in error that will cause the output to change from 0% to 100%
b. amount of error that can occur before deviation alarm is activated
c. amount of error that can occur before the process alarm is activated
d. none of these

34. If the integral time of a process control system is decreased while the gain is held constant, the
system will____________.
a. respond more rapidly
b. respond very slowly
c. not change its response
d. respond moderately

35. The term tuning a loop refers to____________.

a. adjusting the offset for the feedback signal
b. adjusting the gain, reset or rate for a process control system
c. adjusting the set point for a process control system
d. none of these

36. The type of process that most often can benefit from derivative is____________.
a. flow
b. level
c. temperature
d. pressure

37. The derivative control mode is____________.

a. phase leading
b. phase lagging
c. in-phase
d. phase reversing

38. The electronic type of controller may be considered to be____________.

a. an analog of pneumatic type
b. a more economical method of control
c. a more accurate method of control
d. a different method of control

39. When the PLC processor is in the program mode____________.

a. it executes its scan cycle
b. it does not execute its scan cycle
c. solve logic in its program
d. none of these
40. When the input contact that enables a retentive timer is opened, the accumulated value in the
timer will____________.
a. reset
b. freeze
c. go to an undermined value and the timer must be reset manually
d. add value from the point where it left off

41. A latch coil____________.

a. maintains its state when power is interrupted
b. is only sealed in and returns to reset when power is interrupted
c. requires an unlatch coil with same address
d. maintains its state when power is interrupted and requires an unlatch coil with same
address

42. The term PLC stands for____________.

a. personal logic controller
b. programmable logic controller
c. programmable logic computer
d. personal logic computer

43. The cycle time of PLC is the time it takes to____________.

a. read an input signal
b. read all input signals
c. check all input signals
d. read all input, run the program and update all outputs

44. ____________ is an electromechanical relay that accumulates time whenever the device receives
power, and maintains the current time should power be removed from the device.
a. ON delay timer
b. OFF delay timer
c. On line timer
d. Retentive timer

45. Information entered in a ____________ is usually not changed once it is entered.

a. ROM
b. RAM
c. EPROM
d. EEPROM

46. A counter that starts from a specified number and increments down to zero is known as
the____________.
a. up counter
b. down counter
c. cascading counter
d. reset counter

47. ____________ is a PLC function capable of storing and shifting binary data.
a. Timer
b. Counter
 c. Shift register
d. Relay

48. The output for the ladder diagram shown in Figure below is produced when____________.

a. X1 is ON
b. X2 is ON
c. X1 and X2 are OFF
d. X1 and X2 are ON

49. Figure below is an example of____________.

a. XOR gate
b. AND block
c. OR block
d. NAND gate

50. ____________ instruction fetches the contents of specified data memory word.
a. GET
b. JUMP
c. ARITHMETIC
d. NONE OF THESE

51. ____________ instruction permits the by passing of selected portions of the user program.
a. JUMP
b. DATA TRANSFER
c. ARITHMETIC
d. LOGICAL

52. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of____________.

a. virtual relay contacts and coils
b. logic gate symbols with connecting lines
c. function blocks with connecting lines
d. text-based code

53. In PLC, solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to____________.

a. digital input
b. analog input
c. digital output
d. analog output
 MODULE – II

2. The range of control of controller __________ due to presence of offset.

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. cannot say

3. Shifting of set point and adjusting its new value by the controller, when the value of disturbance
increases, is called as_______.
a. set-shift
b. offset
c. stabilization
d. none of these

4. Consider the following graph of Controller Characteristics of On-Off Control. The region shown
between curve A and curve B is called as________.

a. dead zone
b. hysteresis
c. both dead zone and hysteresis
d. none of these

5. __________ is the time required for the response to reach 50% of the final value in the first
attempt.
a. Rise time
b. Peak time
c. Settling time
d. Delay time

6. If the frequency of the input signal to a system is increased, the amplitude of the output _______.
a. start reducing
b. start increasing
c. be remain constant
d. be unpredictable

7. In all cases of input frequency, if the gain starts reducing, the phase angle will _______.
a. start reducing
b. start increasing
c. be remain constant
d. be unpredictable
8. What is the ratio of amplitude of response to that of the input called?
a. Response
b. Gain
c. Phase
d. Frequency

9. When ___________ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
a. normally open type
b. normally closed type
c. both open and closed types
d. none of these

10. ________ is the curve plotted between input and output by giving known inputs to an instrument
and obtaining corresponding outputs.
a. Characteristic curve
b. Accuracy curve
c. Calibration curve
d. Sensitivity curve

11. The process of establishment of a relationship between the input to the instrument and output
from the instrument is called as_____.
a. static sensitivity
b. static characterization
c. static accuracy
d. static calibration

12. The study of relationship between the input and output, when the input is invariant with respect to
time is called as_____.
a. static characteristics of instruments
b. dynamic characteristics of instruments
c. variable characteristics of instruments
d. none of these

13. In which stage the measurement system comes in contact with the measurand or the quantity to be
measured?
a. Transducer Stage
b. Signal Processor Stage
c. Output Stage
d. None of these

14. What is used to make considerable simplification in the devices such as watches and cameras etc.
as compared to pure mechanical designs?
a. Actuators with electrical auxiliary energy
b. Amplifiers with electrical auxiliary energy
c. Both actuators and amplifiers with electrical auxiliary energy
d. None of these

15. The characteristic that provides an output with respect to the relation with the input is called as
________.
a. calibration of a system
b. response of a system
 c. characteristic relation of a system
d. instrumentation of a system

16. Consider the following graph of error (e) vs controller output (m). The curve B corresponding to
the value of error e2 is the curve followed by controller characteristics when value of error
__________.

a. is decreasing
b. is increasing
c. remains constant
d. is unpredictable

17. A thermocouple sensor has a time constant of 50 s in still air. When it is subject to a temperature
change of 100°C, in 50 s its temperature will have changed by about:
a. 31℃
b. 50℃
c. 63℃
d. 100℃

18. Consider the below diagram of Two Position Control. What would be the value of error, when the
controller output takes a fixed value corresponding to the 'ON' position of final control element?

a. zero
b. less than zero
c. more than zero
d. unpredictable

19. A sensor is__________.

a. an element which acquires a physical parameter into a signal
b. a device that converts a physical parameter into mechanical signal
c. an instrument that acquires input signal into many output signals
 d. a device that senses the speed of a car

20. A function of transducer is to convert_________.

a. one form of energy into another form of energy
b. mechanical energy into electrical energy
c. electrical energy into mechanical form
d. mechanical displacement into electrical signal

21. Primary transducer is a__________.

a. transducer which converts energy from one form to another form of required signals
b. transducer which converts the energy from one form to another in the final stage
c. transducer which senses the energy from the input signal
d. transducer which converts the energy from one form to another in the first stage

22. Self-generating transducers are_____________.

a. passive transducers
b. active transducers
c. primary transducers
d. secondary transducers

23. In a voltmeter, the specification 0–20 V refers to ______________.

a. span
b. accuracy
c. range
d. maximum capacity

24. A set of readings has a wide range and therefore it has___________.

a. low precision
b. low accuracy
c. high accuracy
d. high precision

25. Sensitivity of the instrument refers to_________.

a. sensing capacity
b. accuracy
c. the ratio between output and input
d. the ratio between input and output

26. Repeatability is defined as____________.

a. the closeness of agreement among the number of consecutive measurements of the output
for the same value of input under the same operating conditions
b. the closeness of agreement among the repeated measurements of the output for the
same value of input under the same operating conditions over a period of time
c. the closeness of accuracy among the number of consecutive measurements of the output
for the same value of input under the same operating conditions
d. the closeness of precision among the repeated measurements of the output for the same
value of input under the same operating conditions over a period of time
27. Uncertainty refers to_____________.
a. amount of repeatability
b. amount of reproducibility
c. amount of irregularities
d. amount of regularities

28. Uncertainty is used for____________.

a. analysis of multi-sample data
b. analysis of single sample data
c. analysis of both single and multi-sample data
d. none of these

29. A quartz piezoelectric crystal having a thickness of 5 mm and a voltage sensitivity of 0.1 Vm/N is
subjected to a pressure of 1.5 × 106 N/m2. The voltage output is___________.
a. 705 V
b. 730 V
c. 750 V
d. 743.33 V

30. A thermometer is calibrated from 100℃ to 250℃. The accuracy is specified within ±0.2%. The
maximum static error is____________.
a. 1.33℃
b. ±0.133℃
c. ±13.3℃
d. ±0.0133℃

31. A milliammeter has a uniform scale with 100 divisions, the full-scale reading is 50 mA and 1/20
of a scale division can be calculated with a fair degree of certainty. The resolution of the
instrument is________________.
a. 0.25 mA
b. 0.025 A
c. 0.25 A
d. 0.025 mA

32. The transfer function of a system refers to the____________.

a. ratio of Laplace transform of output to Laplace transform of input
b. ratio of Laplace transform of input to Laplace transform of output
c. product of Laplace transform of output and Laplace transform of input
d. product of Laplace transform of input and Laplace transform of output

33. While selecting a transducer for a particular application______________.

a. only the transfer characteristics should be considered
b. only the input characteristics should be considered
c. only the output characteristics should be considered
d. all the three characteristics should be considered

34. Non-contact sensors have____________.

a. physical contact between the measured object and sensor
 b. no physical contact between the measured object and sensor
c. virtual contact between the measured object and sensor
d. none of these

35. The function of a potentiometer is_____________.

a. to convert linear motion to rotary motion
b. to convert rotary or linear displacement to a voltage
c. to convert both kind of motions vice-versa
d. none of these

36. A potentiometer resistance transducer has a total winding resistance of 15 kΩ and a maximum
displacement range of 8 cm. The power dissipation at maximum displacement is not to exceed 50
mW. The output voltage of the transducer when the input displacement is 4 cm would
be________.
a. 12 V
b. 1.37 V
c. 13.7 V
d. 137 V

37. Unbounded strain gauges are___________.

a. exclusively used for transducer applications
b. exclusively used for stress analysis
c. exclusively used for both transducer applications and stress analysis
d. none of these

38. The gauge factor of a strain gauge is_________.

a. (ΔL/L) / (ΔR/R)
b. (ΔR/R) / (ΔL/L)
c. (ΔR/R) / (ΔD/D)
d. (ΔR/R) / (Δρ/ρ)

39. A resistance wire strain gauge with a gauge factor of 3 is bonded to a steel structural member
subjected to a stress of 150 MN/m2. The modulus of elasticity of steel is 200 GPa. The percentage
change in the value of the gauge resistance due to the applied stress is__________.
a. 2.3%
b. 0.23%
c. 23%
d. 0.023%

40. LVDT is ___________.

a. inductive transducer
b. capacitive transducer
c. resistive transducer
d. none of these

41. The size of air-cored transducers in comparison to their iron-cored counterparts is________.
a. smaller
b. same
c. bigger
 d. unpredictable

42. The output of an LVDT is connected to an amplifier output of 5 mA across the terminals of
LVDT when the core moves through a distance of 0.8 mm. The sensitivity of LVDT
is____________.
a. 6.25 mA/mm
b. 0.625 mA/mm
c. 62.5 mA/mm
d. 0.0625 mA/mm

43. A Hall effect transducer is used for the measurement of_______________.

a. displacement
b. current
c. power
d. all of these

44. Hall effect transducers have the drawbacks of______________.

a. poor resolution
b. variation of Hall’s coefficient from plate to plate
c. high-sensitivity to temperature variation
d. both variation of Hall’s coefficient from plate to plate and high-sensitivity to
temperature variation

45. 36. The voltage generated in a magnetic field of moving magnet type transducer is_________.
a. V0 = BNv
b. V0 = BANv
c. V0 = BAv
d. V0 = IR

46. In transducers with Doppler effect, the type of input used is___________.
a. X-rays
b. ultraviolet rays
c. electron beam
d. an ultrasonic or radio beam

47. A sensor that converts speed of rotation directly into an electrical signal is called__________.
a. tachogenerator
b. tachometer
c. orifice meter
d. venturimeter

48. DC tachogenerator are sometimes preferred over AC tachometer generators

because___________.
a. they do not need maintenance
b. it is possible to know the direction of rotation
c. it is possible to know the direction of rotation and magnitude of speed
d. all of these

49. A stroboscope is used to measure__________.

 a. velocity
b. pressure
c. flow
d. strain

50. The speed of a flywheel on an engine is to be measured using a stroboscope for single mark. At a
setting of 2750 rpm on the stroboscope, a stationary picture of 5 marks is observed. The speed of
flywheel is_________.
a. 600 rpm
b. 550 rpm
c. 500 rpm
d. 650 rpm

51. The deflection of the spring when a force F is applied at the free end is given by_________.
a. x = 8D3n / Gd4
b. x = 8FD3n / Gd4
c. x = 8F3Dn / Gd4
d. x = 8FDn3 / G4d

52. A closed coil spring has a stiffness of 25×10−6 N/m. The stiffness of the new spring, when the
same spring is cut into two equal pieces, is__________.
a. 25×10−6 N/m
b. 50×10−6 N/m
c. 75×10−6 N/m
d. 100×10−6 N/m

53. Electromagnetic-type of balances_____________.

a. give an output which can be used for display, recording and control
b. cannot be operated from a remote location
c. are more sensitive to environmental effects
d. are of large size and have slow response

54. Pressductor is a device of_____________.

a. velocity transducer
b. pressure transducer
c. magneto-elastic-type force transducer
d. flow transducer

55. A seismic transducer working in the displacement mode should be designed to

have_______________.
a. weak springs and heavy mass
b. stiff springs and light mass
c. weak springs and light mass
d. stiff springs and heavy mass

56. A potentiometric-type accelerometer can be used for measurement of vibrations of

frequencies_______________.
a. higher than 10 kHz
b. higher than 1 kHz
c. 100 Hz and higher
 d. lower than 50 Hz

57. Piezoelectric type accelerometers_________________.

a. have a low natural frequency
b. should not be used for vibrations of input frequencies above 100 Hz
c. have a high natural frequency
d. should only be used for vibrations of low input frequencies

58. Torsion bars are used to measure____________.

a. power
b. load
c. torque
d. friction

59. Torque of rotating shafts is measured by mounting a strain gauge bridge on the shaft. The supply
to the bridge circuit is given to it. The output is measured by using_____________.
a. slip rings, rotary transformers, telemetry equipment
b. only slip rings
c. only rotary transformers
d. none of these

60. Dynamic pressure which is used for velocity measurement is the difference of_____________.
a. stagnation pressure and static pressure
b. dynamic pressure and static pressure
c. impact pressure and stagnation pressure
d. impact pressure and static pressure

61. Manometers are used to measure_____________.

a. velocity
b. flow
c. liquid level
d. pressure

62. Bellows have the advantages that_____________________.

a. they can be used for measurement of dynamic pressures
b. they can be used for measuring both drift and hysteresis
c. they can be used for low, medium and high pressures
d. they do not need any temperature compensating devices

63. Inductive pressure transducers______________.

a. have high sensitivity
b. have poor dynamic response
c. are sensitive to vibrations
d. none of these

64. The advantages of strain gauge pressure transducers are________________.

a. high frequency response
b. continuous resolution
c. high output
d. powered by AC sources
65. Pirani gauge is used for measuring_________________.
a. very low pressure
b. high pressure
c. very high pressure
d. atmospheric pressure

66. Capacitive pressure transducers have the advantages of______________.

a. large temperature range
b. good thermal conductivity
c. good frequency response
d. high input impedance

67. Pressure transducers using LVDT have_______________.

a. good dynamic response
b. poor dynamic response
c. low sensitivity
d. high sensitivity

68. A typical piezoelectric pressure transducer has a range of_____________.

a. 0–10 kPa
b. 0–20 MPa
c. 0–700 kPa
d. 0–100 kPa

69. Venturimeter and orifice meter are used to measure___________.

a. pressure
b. velocity
c. vibration
d. rate of flow

70. Venturimeter has the advantages of________________.

a. low head loss, low coefficient of discharge and small size
b. low head loss, high coefficient of discharge and small size
c. high head loss, low coefficient of discharge and small size
d. high head loss, high coefficient of discharge and small size

71. Eccentric orifice plates are used for measurement of flow rates of_____________.
a. clean fluids
b. clean fluids and fluids containing solids
c. fluids containing solids only
d. all of these

72. Nozzles are used to measure the____________.

a. velocity
b. rate of flow
c. pressure
d. none of these

73. The meter which is suitable for flow tantalization is_______________.

a. turbine meter
b. ultrasonic meter
 c. venturimeter
d. orifice meter

74. A flowmeter that measures flow rates which are independent of density is___________.
a. rotameter
b. electromagnetic flowmeter
c. orifice meter
d. venturimeter

75. Rotameter is a type of_______________.

a. drag force flowmeter
b. variable head meter
c. variable flowmeter
d. propeller vane-type meter

76. AC excitation is used in electromagnetic flowmeters because of________________.

a. no polarization, no thermocouple effect and no distortion
b. no polarization and distortion, but thermocouple effect
c. no polarization and thermocouple effect, but distortion
d. no polarization, but thermocouple effect and distortion

77. The hot-wire anemometers are used in feedback constant current mode because they
provide_____________.
a. correct compensation for large velocity fluctuations
b. correct compensation for large velocity fluctuations and there is no possibility of wire
burnout
c. correct compensation for large velocity fluctuations and compensation is inherent in
the system
d. none of these

78. A laser Doppler anemometer can function properly if the fluid_____________.

a. contains large concentration of tracer particles
b. contains no tracer particles
c. contains small tracer particles
d. none of these

79. Radiation pyrometers are used for measuring temperature in the range_____________.
a. 500–750℃
b. 1200–3500℃
c. 1000–2000℃
d. 3500℃ and above

80. The best device for measuring the temperature of hot bodies radiating energy in the visible
spectrum is using__________.
a. thermister
b. optical pyrometer
c. thermocouple
d. RTD
81. LVDT cannot be used for measuring____________.
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. velocity
d. displacement

82. The disadvantages of radiation pyrometer are____________.

a. poor precision and slow response
b. maintenance requirement
c. individual calibration requirement
d. high initial as well as installation costs

83. Pyrometer is used to measure____________.

a. pressure
b. displacement
c. strain
d. temperature

84. The advantages of thermisters are___________.

a. minimal errors due to self-heating
b. high sensitivity almost matching that of platinum resistance thermometers
c. high error due to resistance of thermistors
d. all of these

85. Laws of intermediate metals in thermocouples allows them to____________.

a. use meters for measurement of emf without disturbing the circuit conditions
b. use extension wires of materials other than the ones used for making thermocouples
c. use reference junction temperature
d. use both meters for measurement of emf without disturbing the circuit conditions
and extension wires of materials other than the ones used for making thermocouples

86. Thermopiles are the combination of a____________.

a. number of thermocouples connected either in series or parallel
b. number of thermistors connected in parallel or series
c. number of RTDs connected in both series and parallel
d. none of these

87. A platinum resistance thermometer has a resistance of 150 Ω at 100℃. Its resistance increases to
250 Ω when it is in contact with a hot gas. Assume resistance to be 100 Ω at 0℃ and α for
platinum = 0.0039/℃. The temperature of the gas is___________.
a. 72.56℃
b. 702.56℃
c. 7256℃
d. 725.6℃

88. Photodiodes and semiconductor diodes are reverse-biased in an optical sensory circuit for
obtaining_____________.
a. low resistance
b. average resistance
c. high resistance
d. none of these
89. Photoconductive transducer behaves as a_____________.
a. light-controlled variable resistor
b. light-controlled constant resistor
c. both light-controlled variable and constant resistors
d. none of these

90. The function of digital transducer is______________.

a. to change mechanical displacement into mechanical signal
b. to directly change mechanical displacement into digital output
c. to change electrical input to mechanical output
d. none of these

91. The digital vortex flowmeter produces a____________.

a. mechanical output
b. electrical output
c. pulse output proportional to flow
d. all of these

92. Vibrating tube density meter is used to measure the______________.

a. liquid flow
b. liquid pressure
c. liquid velocity
d. liquid density

93. In a fluid flow, the laser Doppler flowmeter__________________.

a. measures the velocity in terms of frequency change
b. measures the pressure in terms of frequency change
c. measures the rate of flow in terms of frequency change
d. none of these
 MODULE – III
1. Cost of energy in pneumatic systems is_________.
a. lowest
b. highest
c. medium
d. low to medium

2. One notable difference between the hydraulic and pneumatic systems is that the return fluid
is__________.
a. vented to atmosphere in pneumatic system
b. vented to atmosphere in hydraulic system
c. sent back to the receiver in pneumatic system
d. sent back to the cylinder

3. Pneumatic and hydraulic system require _________ to direct and regulate the flow of fluid from
compressor or pump to the various loading devices.
a. energy sources
b. control valves
c. air receiver
d. actuators

4. A 4/2 DCVs has___________.

a. 2 ports
b. 4 ports
c. 6 ports
d. none

5. A double-acting cylinder can be controlled by a ___________ final control valve.

a. 3/2 DCV
b. 5/2 DCV
c. dual pressure valve
d. 2/2 valve

6. If the switch is actuated, NC contacts ____________ the flow of current in a circuit.

a. enables
b. disables
c. diverts
d. none

7. In electro-pneumatic systems, ___________ are normally used as switches in which changing

current in one electrical circuit switches current ON or OFF in the circuit for solenoid operated
valves.
a. relays
b. change over contacts
c. PE converters
d. proximity switches

8. The ____________ is used in a pneumatic circuit for switching operation depending upon a pre-
set pressure.
a. dual pressure valve
 b. time delay valve
c. sequence valve
d. check valve

9. An_____________ acts as a storage device for high pressure fluid and can store and release the
hydraulic oil at a required system pressure.
a. accumulator
b. receiver
c. tank
d. none of these

10. Function of a check valve is to allow flow in ___________.

a. one direction
b. two direction
c. opposite direction
d. reverse direction

11. An ___________ is used to generate rotational motion in a pneumatic system.

a. air motor
b. air valve
c. air switch
d. air compressor

12. The __________ produces an electric signal when the pre-set limit of air pressure is reached.
a. PE convertor
b. AE convertor
c. DC convertor
d. AC convertor

13. The ___________ is a very important part of the machine tool because it gives rotational motion
and holds the cutter or workpiece.
a. spindle
b. guideways
c. slideways
d. structure

14. The ___________ screws can be used for high-speed application.

a. roller
b. acme
c. ball
d. none of these

15. __________ is a load-carrying member, providing support to a machine tool.

a. Spindle
b. Guideways
c. Slideways
d. Machine structure
16. The recirculating linear roller bearings are used for movement along a _________ plane.
a. flat
b. circular
c. special plane
d. none of these

17. ___________ find wide application in machine tolls due to good damping properties and low
manufacturing cost.
a. Friction guideways
b. Frictionless guideways
c. Anti-Friction guideways
d. None of these

18. A ___________ screw has grooved roller elements which make physical contact with the threads
on the nut and screw.
a. roller
b. acme
c. ball
d. none of these

19. ___________ guideways wear away rapidly due to lack of bearing surface.
a. Vee
b. Dove tail
c. Flat
d. Circular
 MODULE – IV
1. What is the transfer function of an electrical system given below? Where; I: Current, V: Voltage
and R: Resistance.

a. R
b. 1/V
c. V/I
d. 1/R

2. The displacement of a mass attached to a spring in mechanical system is corresponding to

_______ in the electrical system.
a. voltage
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. current

3. Heat in thermal system is analogous to __________ in electrical energy.

a. current
b. potential difference
c. resistance
d. charge

4. In a liquid-level control system the fluid level in the tank can be controlled by changing the water
flow. Here the water flow can be assumed as a__________.
a. controlled variables
b. plant
c. set point
d. manipulated variable

5. A negative feedback system has a forward gain of 2 and feedback gain of 0.5. Its closed-loop
transfer function (CLTF) is___________.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 0.5
d. Infinity

6. In the armature-controlled DC motor, the speed of the motor is varied by____________.

a. varying the voltage on the armature circuit, and voltage supply to the field winding
is kept constant
b. varying the voltage on the field, and voltage supply to the armature circuit field is kept
constant
c. varying the voltage both in armature and field circuit
 d. keeping the voltage constant both in armature and field circuit

7. Fluid capacitance (C) is given by_____________.

a. area of the tank
b. height of the tank
c. inflow to the tank
d. outflow from the tank

8. Inductance of mechanical system is given by_______________.

a. damping coefficient
b. inertia
c. spring stiffness
d. mass

9. Hydraulic servo mechanism is a __________ device to control the piston movement.

a. feedback
b. output
c. input
d. none of these

10. A pneumatic system supplies air to the pressure vessel through a pipe line, and resistance to flow
is provided by a ___________.
a. constriction
b. dilation
c. opposite flow
d. none of these

Module-V: Data Acquisition

1. Digital to Analog Conversion is ______________ Analog to Digital Conversion.

a. less complex than
b. more complex than
c. as complex as
d. unpredictable

2. According to Nyquist theorem, the sampling rate should be _________ as fast as the highest
frequency of the signal being measured or sampled.
a. twice
b. thrice
c. ten times
d. hundred times

3. Data acquisition of all the physical quantities in the real world is done in _________.
a. the analog mode
b. the digital mode
c. either analog mode or digital mode
d. none of these
4. Which module of data acquisition system (DAQ) consists of the CPU that controls the
complete data acquisition system?
a. Input module
b. Output module
c. Sampling module
d. Control module

5. The capacity of data acquisition system (DAQ) can be specified in terms of______.
a. number of control elements
b. number of channels
c. number of interfaces
d. number of functions

6. What is the input of the data acquisition system (DAQ) to which a transducer is connected
called?
a. Control element
b. Channel
c. Interface
d. Function

7. Which of the following cannot be considered as data in Data Acquisition System (DAQ)?
a. Temperature
b. Mechanical displacement
c. Flow rate
d. None of these

8. Data acquisition is the process in which, physical variables from the real world are_____.
a. converted into electrical signals
b. modified and converted into a digital format for processing
c. converted into electrical signals, modified and converted into a digital format for
processing
d. none of these