T est is part of Rau’s IAS T est series for Preliminary Exam 2020

CSAT (PAPER–II) Test Code

FULL LENGTH TEST – 4 TS20E1061

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet)
provided. Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

3. All items carry equal marks.

4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions
contained therein.

5. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

T his test is part of Rau’s IAS T est series for Preliminary Exam 2020
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Read the
following two passages and answer the items that follow
each passage. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages only.
Passage-1
When asteroids collide, some collisions cause an
asteroid to spin faster; others slow it down. If
asteroids are all monoliths—single rocks—
undergoing random collisions, a graph of their
rotation rates should show a bell-shaped
distribution with statistical “tails” of very fast and
very slow rotators. If asteroids are rubble piles,
however, the tail representing the very fast rotators
would be missing, because any loose aggregate
spinning faster than once every few hours
(depending on the asteroid’s bulk density) would
fly apart. Researchers have discovered that all but
five observed asteroids obey a strict limit on rate of
rotation. The exceptions are all smaller than 200
meters in diameter, with an abrupt cutoff for
asteroids larger than that.
The evident conclusion—that asteroids larger than
200 meters across are multicomponent structures or
rubble piles—agrees with recent computer
modeling of collisions, which also finds a transition
at that diameter. A collision can blast a large
asteroid to bits, but after the collision those bits will
usually move slower than their mutual escape
velocity. Over several hours, gravity will
reassemble all but the fastest pieces into a rubble
pile. Because collisions among asteroids are
relatively frequent, most large bodies have already
suffered this fate. Conversely, most small asteroids
should be monolithic, because impact fragments
easily escape their feeble gravity.
Q.1) The passage implies which of the following
about the five asteroids?
(a) Their rotation rates are approximately
the same.
(b) They have undergone approximately
the same number of collisions.
(c) They are monoliths.
(d) They are composed of fragments that
have escaped the gravity of larger
asteroids.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
Q.2) The discovery of which of the following
would call into question the evident
conclusion?
(a) An asteroid 100 meters in diameter
rotating at a rate of once per week
(b) An asteroid 150 meters in diameter
rotating at a rate of 20 times per hour
(c) An asteroid 250 meters in diameter
rotating at a rate of once per week
(d) An asteroid 500 meters in diameter
rotating at a rate of once per hour
Q.3) According to the passage, which of the
following is a prediction that is based on the
strength of the gravitational attraction of
small asteroids?
(a) Small asteroids will be few in number.
(b) Small asteroids will be monoliths.
(c) Small asteroids will collide with other
asteroids very rarely.
(d) Most small asteroids will have very
fast rotation rates.
Q.4) The author of the passage mentions "escape
velocity" in order to help explain which of
the following?
(a) The tendency for asteroids to become
smaller rather than larger over time
(b) The speed with which impact
fragments reassemble when they do
not escape an asteroid's gravitational
attraction after a collision.
(c) The frequency with which collisions
among asteroids occur.
(d) The tendency for large asteroids to
persist after collisions.
Passage-2
People who do regular volunteer work tend to live
longer, on average, than people who do not. It has
been found that ‘doing good.’ a category that
certainly includes volunteer work, releases
endorphins, the brain's natural opiates, which
induce in people a feeling of well-being. Clearly,
there is a connection: Regular releases of
endorphins must in some way help to extend
people's lives.
1
Q.5) Which of the following, it true most Q.7) If he decides to pick up those exclusive pairs
seriously undermine the force of the of adjacent boys whose numbers, if totaled,
evidence given as support the hypothesis turn out to be exactly 12, how many such
that endorphins promote longevity? pairs would be available?
(a) People who do regular volunteer (a) Nil
work are only somewhat more likely
(b) Six
than others to characterize the work
(c) Five
they do for as a ‘doing good.
(d) Four
(b) Although extremely high levels of
endorphins could be harmful to
health, such levels are never reached Q.8) If the two mixtures of milk and water
as a result of the natural release of having milk concentrations as 40% and 75%
endorphins. are mixed in the ratio of 3 : 4, what is the
(c) There are many people who have milk % in the resultant mixture?
done some volunteer work but who (a) 70
do not do such work regularly. (b) 65
(d) People tend not to become involved (c) 60
in regular volunteer work unless they
(d) 55
are healthy and energetic to begin
with.
Q.9) During a charity event, every student in a
class contributes as many rupees as the
Q.6) A printing machine gets overheated after
using for a certain time period, so it has to number of students in that class. With the
be turned off for 10 minutes to cool down additional contribution of Rs. 6 by one
before using again. One day it was used student only, the total collection is Rs. 1030.
from 10:00 am to 3:26 pm. Machine is used Then how many students are there in the
for six periods of equal duration during this class?
interval. After every period, a rest of 10 (a) 23
minutes is given to the machine. The exact (b) 32
duration of each period is :
(c) 47
(a) 42 minutes
(d) 64
(b) 44 minutes
(c) 46 minutes
Q.10) A scientist is studying the correlation
(d) 48 minutes
between the size of a dog and its age. She
finds that 65 percent of the dogs in a sample
Directions for the following 1 (one) item: 25 boy were less than 3 years in age. The number of
scouts bearing names A to Y are standing in one dogs at least 3 years in age that weigh at
straight row. The teacher wanted to select various least 40 pounds is twice the number of dogs
teams from among them. He gave them random
less than 3 years in age less than 40 pounds.
number from 3 to 8 as shown below.
If the number of dogs at least 3 years in age
A B C D E F G H I J K L M that weigh at least 40 pounds is six times the
4 4 6 3 5 4 3 3 5 6 7 5 9 number of dogs at least 3 years in age that
weigh less than 40 pounds, and there were
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y 300 dogs in her sample in total, how many
of the dogs were less than 3 years in age and
3 9 7 9 4 9 7 7 4 5 6 6
weighed at least 40 pounds?

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 2
 (a) 15 of tea in the mixture is 2: 3, find the cost
(b) 45 price of each kind of tea in Rs/kg.
(c) 60 1 2
(a) 7 &14
(d) 150 7 7
1 2
(b) 6 &12
Q.11) The monthly incomes of A and B are in the 5 9
ratio 4 : 5, their expenses are in the ratio 5 : 1 2
(c) 4 & 24
6. If A saves Rs.25 per month and B saves 7 5
Rs.50 per month, what are their respective 1 1
(d) 7 &14
incomes ? 6 3
(a) 200, 250
(b) 400, 500 Direction for the following 3 (three) items:
(c) 600, 750 Consider the given information and answer the three
items that follow.
(d) 800, 1000
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are traveling in three different
vehicles. There are at least two passenger in each
Q.12) Networks of blood vessels in bats’ wings vehicle – Maruti, Santro, Opel – and only one of
serve only to disperse heat generated in them is a male. There are two engineers, two
flight. This heat is generatedonly because doctors and three teachers among them.
bats flap their wings. Thus paleontologists’ (i) C is lady doctor and she does not travel
recent discovery that the winged dinosaur with the pair of sisters, A and F
Sandactylushad similar networks of blood (ii) B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a
vessels in the skin of its wings provides teacher in Maruti
evidence for the hypothesis that Sandactylus (iii) D is a male doctor
flew by flapping its wings, not just by
(iv) Two persons belonging to the same
gliding. profession do not travel in the same vehicle.
In the passage, the author develops the (v) A is not an engineer and travels in Santro.
argument by
(a) forming the hypothesis that best Q.14) What is F’s profession?
explains several apparently conflicting
(a) Engineer
pieces of evidence
(b) Doctor
(b) reinterpreting evidence that had been
(c) Teacher
used to support an earlier theory
(d) Data inadequate
(c) using an analogy with a known
phenomenon to draw a conclusion
Q.15) In which vehicle does C travel?
about an unknown phenomenon
(a) Maruti
(d) speculating about how structures
observed in present-day creatures (b) Santro
might have developed from (c) Opel
similarstructures in creatures now (d) Data inadequate
extinct
Q.16) Which of the following represents the three
Q.13) A tea merchant buys two kinds of tea, the teachers?
price of the first kind being twice that of the (a) GDC
second. He sells the mixture at Rs.14/kg (b) GEA
there by making a profit of 40%. If the ratio (c) GBF
of the quantities of the first to second kind (d) Data inadequate

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 3
Q.17) An article is made up of 4 components P, Q, follows each passage. Your answers to these items should
R and S, contributing in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 : 6 be based on the passages only.
respectively to its manufacturing cost. If
there is a change of + 10%, —20%, — 30% Passage-1
and + 40% in the cost-contribution of P, Q, R A provincial government plans to raise the fossil
and S respectively, then by what percentage fuel tax to give people an incentive to drive less,
would the cost of manufacturing the article reducing traffic congestion in the long term.
change? However, skeptics point out that most people in the
(a) 8% province live in areas where cars are the only viable
(b) 0% transportation to jobs and stores and therefore
(c) 5.33% cannot greatly change their driving habits in
(d) 11.7% response to higher fossil fuel prices.

Q.18) X and Y are two stations 600 km apart. A Q.21) In light of the skeptics' objection, which of
train starts from X and moves towards Y at the following, if true, would most logically
the speed of 25 km/hr. Another train starts support the prediction that the
from Y at the same time and moves towards government's plan will achieve its goal of
X, at a speed of 35 km/hr. How far from X reducing traffic congestion?
will they cross each other? (a) The revenue from the tax will be used
(a) 200 km to make public transportation a viable
(b) 250 km means of transportation to jobs and
stores for far more people.
(c) 350 km
(b) The tax will encourage many residents
(d) 400 km
to switch to more fuel-efficient cars,
reducing air pollution and other
Q.19) A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle problems.
having length 30 cm and width 5 cm. This is
(c) Because fossil fuel has been
used to construct a closed cube. The side of
underpriced for decades, the province
the cube is:
has many neighborhoods where cars
(a) 3 cm are the only viable means of
(b) 4 cm transportation
(c) 5 cm (d) Most residents who cannot greatly
(d) 6 cm change their driving habits could
compensate for high fossil fuel prices
Q.20) Five people are running in a race. The first by reducing other expenses.
three to finish win gift certificates. How
many different groups of people could win Passage-2
the gift certificate? One way of determining whether a job candidate is
(a) 5 telling the truth has to do with his or her
(b) 10 willingness to divulge negative information during
(c) 60 the interview process. If, for example, a candidate
admits to being fired from a previous job, having a
(d) 120
less-than-stellar attendance record, or possessing a
below-average typing speed, that may be
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read interpreted as a sign that she is telling the truth,
the following eight passages and answer the item that particularly regarding any favourable information
she divulges about herself or her work history.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 4
Q.22) The above statements support which of the
following as a conclusion?
(a) Candidates who do not reveal
negative aspects of their personalities
or work histories are not being
truthful.
(b) Self-deprecation is ultimately self-
serving.
(c) Interviewees often use reverse
psychology to gain the trust of
influential people.
(d) Unfavourable character traits can
prove beneficial in some situations.
Passage-3
Through “pay-per-click” advertising, also known as
PPC, an Internet advertisement appears in
designated sections of a results page when a person
enters certain keywords into a search engine. While
many Web users ignore such results, given that
those listings look different from the non-sponsored
results listed in the main body of the page, people
who do see PPC ads will be pre-qualified sales
prospects, given that such ads are specific to the
keywords entered by the person seeing them. PPC
offers advertisers control over their budgets, since
only ads for the highest bidders on specific
keywords appear at the top of a search results page.
Q.23) Which of the following conclusions is most
supported by the statements above?
(a) Most Web users do not consider paid
search engine results legitimate.
(b) The visibility of some kinds of Internet
advertising is inversely proportional
to the revenue spent on such
advertising.
(c) Companies that do not offer products
or services online will not derive a
significant benefit from PPC
advertising.
(d) PPC advertisers may be forced to
choose between spending more than
they intended or missing potential
sales opportunities.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
Passage-4
When a person chooses a digital camera, it is
imperative to consider each model’s design,
options, and limitations. For the serious
photographer interested in superior image quality,
it is best to choose a camera that has fixed-length or
inter-changeable lenses. On the other hand, those
who have neither the need nor the means to tote
bulky equipment may be satisfied with the
compactness and portability of cameras that have
folded-optics systems.
Q.24) Which of the following can reasonably be
concluded from the above statements?
(a) Cameras with fixed-length lenses are
too bulky for anyone but the
professional photographer.
(b) Serious photographers are concerned
primarily with superior image quality.
(c) Despite claims to the contrary,
traditional film cameras are still the
best choice for professionals.
(d) Cameras with folded optics systems
generally do not produce images as
high in quality as those with
interchangeable lenses.
Passage-5
Although manned spaceflight to Mars is not out of
the question, it does raise some important
considerations. Extended time in space means
extended time in weightlessness, which is linked to
bone loss, muscle atrophy, cardiovascular problems
and other serious health issues. For example,
astronauts who spent 28 days on Skylab, a space
station that orbited the Earth back in the 1970s,
required approximately 10 days to return to their
normal, pre-mission condition. It bears noting that a
one-way trip to Mars alone would take
approximately eight months, using current
technology.
Q.25) If the above statements are true, which of
the following must also be true?
(a) As long as astronauts receive proper
training, they will be at reduced risk of
5
 health complications arising from time
spent in space.
(b) Scientists have not made progress on
the development of viable, artificial-
gravity systems.
(c) Travel to and from the Moon does not
entail significant enough risk to
prevent such a mission from
occurring.
(d) Travel to Mars could adversely affect
the health of those undertaking such a
journey.
Passage-6
Although they cost up to three times as much as
standard engine oils, synthetic motor oils resist
viscosity breakdown, that is, a degradation of their
lubricating and engine-protection abilities, longer
than do standard motor oils. They also maintain
maximum lubrication over a wider variety
temperatures than their conventional counter parts.
That allows for up to 66% longer durations between
oil changes, as well as significantly more protection
at engine start-up, when most engine wear is
believed to occur.
Q.26) If the above statements are true, then which
of following must also be true?
(a) Cars that use synthetic motor oils will
last longer than cars that use standard
motor oil.
(b) The benefits of certain kinds of motor
oil may compensate for their added
cost.
(c) Drivers who use synthetic motor oils
care more about their cars than do
drivers who use conventional oils.
(d) Blended motor oils, which fuse
standard and synthetic oils, offer
considerably less engine protection
than does purely synthetic motor oil.
Passage-7
Access to capital is only one of several factors
necessary to business success. Proper pricing
structure is equally essential, so as to furnish
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
consistently a particular product or service for less
than one’s costs. Further complicating this scenario
is that many startup companies must compete with
established businesses that can offer lower prices for
the same products and services.
Q.27) If the above statements are true, then it must
be true that
(a) Price competition is a more common
way to drive out market rivals than is
a battle over product superiority.
(b) Recently-formed companies have
higher operating costs than do
established companies.
(c) Established businesses can drive
competitors out of a given market by
offering lower prices than their
competitors can.
(d) Length of time serving a particular
market may correlate with capital or
cost advantages.
Passage-8
In the context of finance, speculation involves
assuming the risk of loss in return for the uncertain
prospect of financial gain. It is only in the absence of
risk that one may call a particular financial strategy
an investment. Therefore, as long as a monetary
transaction involves potential capital loss
________________ .
Q.28) The above statements are structured to lead
which of the following as a conclusion?
(a) that investment cannot be considered
sound
(b) it should not be attempted without
consulting a financial services
professional.
(c) it is not an investment but an act of
speculation.
(d) it cannot be considered an instance of
speculation.
Q.29) The door of Sumit's house faces the East.
From the back side of his house, he walk
straight 50 metres, then turns to the right
6
 and walks 50 metres again. Finally he turns middle step, how many steps does the
towards left and stops after walking 25 ladder have?
metres. Now, Sumit is in which direction (a) 16
from the starting point ? (b) 17
(a) South-east (c) 18
(b) North –east (d) 19
(c) South-west
(d) North-west Direction for the following 3 (three) items:
Consider the given information and answer the three
items that follow.
Q.30) A park is in the form of a rectangle having
length L meters and breadth B meters (L (i) A group of eight fiends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and
H, play one game or the other. Three of them
and B are variable). If L + B = 60 meters,
play cricket and table tennis each and two of
then the area of the park will not exceed
them play football. Each one of them has a
which one of the following values?
different height.
(a) 3600 sq m
(ii) The tallest does not play football and the
(b) 900 sq m shortest does not play cricket.
(c) 755 sq m (iii) F is taller than A and D but shorter than H
(d) 540 sq m and B. E who does not play cricket, is taller
than B and is second to the tallest. G is shorter
Q.31) The average age of a family of 5 members is than D but taller than A.
20 years, The age of the youngest member is (iv) H, who is fourth from the top, play table
10 years. Find the average age of the family tennis with D.
just before the birth of the youngest (v) G does not play either cricket or football. B
member? does not play football.
(a) 10
(b) 11.5 Q.34) Who is the tallest?

(c) 12.5 (a) B

(d) 13 (b) H
(c) C
(d) Data inadequate
Q.32) The daily salaries of 2 people are in the ratio
of 4 :7. If both of them receive an increase of
Rs.25 each in their daily salary, the ratio Q.35) Who is the shortest?
changes to 3: 5. Find their daily salaries (a) G
(before the increase). (b) D
(a) Rs.120 &Rs. 210 (c) A
(b) Rs.80 &Rs.140 (d) Data inadequate
(c) Rs.180 &Rs.300
(d) Rs.200 &Rs.350 Q.36) Which of the following pairs of friends play
football?
(a) EF
Q.33) A person is standing on the second step
(b) EA
from the top of a ladder. If he has to climb
down 7 more steps to reach exactly the (c) HF
(d) Data inadequate

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 7
Q.37) AB is a vertical electrical pole with A being project in another 6 days. Who is more
the point where the base of the pole touches efficient out of the two and by how much?
the ground. Due to a cyclone, the pole has (a) Smita is thrice as efficient as Anita.
been broken at C which is at a height of 8 (b) Smita is twice as efficient as Anita.
meters, broken part is partially attached to
(c) Anita is four times as efficient as
the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the
Smita.
end of the broken part B touches the ground
(d) Anita is as efficient as Smita.
at D which is at a distance of 6 meters from
A, then the original height of the electrical
pole is: Q.41) A military code writes SYSTEM as SSEMTY
(a) 16 m and NEARER as NAERRE. Using the same
code, FRACTIONcan be written as:
(b) 18 m
(a) CARFTION
(c) 20 m
(b) FRACNOIT
(d) 24 m
(c) NOITCARF
(d) FATONICR
Q.38) A professor left his college and proceeded
towards North for 4 km, after seeing a
signboard from point ‘O’. On reaching the Q.42) If a number is divisible by 12, then which of
place he saw an another signboard and the following is necessarily true?
proceeded 4 km to his right to the point ‘P’, (a) The number leaves a remainder of 3
only to find that the signboard was on right when divided by 4.
of ‘P’. From ‘P’ he proceeded right to reach (b) The number does not leave a
that place 4 km away. In which direction he remainder when divided by 4.
has to go to reach the place from where he (c) The number is divisible by all
started? multiples of 12.
(a) East (d) The square of number leaves a
(b) West remainder of 6 when divided by 6.
(c) North
(d) South Q.43) How many numbers are there between 200
and 400 which either begin with or end with
Q.39) A cube has all its faces painted with 3 but do not begin and end with 3?
different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes (a) 97
of equal sizes such that the side of the small (b) 100
cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number (c) 110
of small cubes with only two of the sides (d) 134
painted is:
(a) 24
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read
(b) 12 the following five passages and answer the items that
(c) 9 follow each passage. Your answers to these items should
(d) 6 be based on the passages only.

Q.40) Anita starts working on a crucial project and Passage-1

works on it for 12 days and completes 40% Returning to school at an advanced age is not
of the project. After some days, Smita joins unusual. Many people, including seniors and
the project and together they complete the retirees who have enjoyed full lives and careers,
find that studying and thinking critically come just

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 8
as readily to them as those skills did decades prior.
Furthermore, since people in their 50s and beyond
do not need to “find themselves,” they are better
able to focus and commit to their coursework than
many of their younger peers.
Q.44) The author of the above statements suggests
(a) Young people have more need to
discover where their interests truly lie
than do their older counterparts.
(b) Additional schooling offers new career
opportunities for people regardless of
age.
(c) Older university students have less
hectic schedules than do younger
students.
(d) Book learning is not a suitable
alternative college study for seniors
and retirees.
Passage-2
Investment newsletters can be a handy guide to
stock market profits or a waste of cash. Either
scenario depends not only on the quality of
newsletter you choose but also on whether you
willing to put in the time and effort required to
follow its advice properly.
Q.45) From the above statements, it can be
inferred that
(a) Investment newsletters may not
garner profits for people who heed
their recommendations properly.
(b) Following a newsletter’s advice
properly may result in steady, long-
term profits.
(c) The better the quality of a particular
investment newsletter, the higher its
subscription price is likely to be.
(d) Some investment newsletters have
subscription costs that are beyond the
reach of many investors.
Passage-3
According to Howard Gardner’s Theory of Multiple
Intelligences, human intellectual ability is not
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
limited to the verbal, visual-spatial, and logical
mathematical tasks measured by traditional 10 tests.
Rather, Gardner’s theory posits that humans
manifest at least eight separate intelligences,
including not only the aforementioned three but
also interpersonal, intrapersonal, bodily-kinesthetic,
musical, and naturalistic intelligence. Support for
his theory comes, in part, from the observation that
when particular parts of the human brain are
compromised, isolated and specific deficits in
cognitive function occur while other mental
capabilities remain unaffected.
Q.46) Which of the following may correctly be
inferred from the above statements?
(a) Verbal intelligence does not correlate
with logical / mathematical ability.
(b) A brain-altering substance or injury
may affect one’s ability to speak
coherently while simultaneously
impairing that person’s ability to
playa violin concerto.
(c) Visual-spatial performance is guided
primarily by brain regions distinct
from those used to solve crossword
puzzles.
(d) 10 tests are not useful measures of
human intellectual ability.
Passage-4
A major study has found that an experimental drug
developed to reduce unhealthy amounts of low-
density lipoprotein, or “bad cholesterol:’ should not
only be approved but should also be prescribed to
healthy individuals. In fact, the study was cut short
after just eighteen months when it was found that
levels of HDL cholesterol, otherwise known as high-
density lipoprotein or “good cholesterol,” were
boosted in all participants, whether or not they had
high levels of LDL, or lowdensity lipoprotein. While
it is true that the study was funded by the drug’s
manufacturer, there is little reason to believe that
the results were manipulated, given that the study
was quite large in scope and sample size.
Q.47) Which among the following is the most
logical corollary to the above passage?
9
 (a) Small-scale study results are more
difficult to influence than are large-
scale study results.
(b) Drug companies that sponsor research
are reluctant to release results that
contradict their expectations.
(c) Cholesterol drugs benefit healthy
individuals as much as they do those
with cardiovascular issues.
(d) Natural remedies are usually
discouraged by physicians in favour
of drug treatments.
Passage-5
Resin is a plant secretion that hardens when
exposed to air; fossilized resin is called amber.
Although Pliny in the first century recognized that
amber was produced from “marrow discharged by
trees,” amber has been widely misunderstood to be
a semiprecious gem and has even been described in
mineralogy textbooks. Confusion also persists
surrounding the term “resin,” which was defined
before rigorous chemical analyses were available.
Resin is often confused with gum, a substance
produced in plants in response to bacterial
infections, and with sap, an aqueous solution
transported through certain plant tissues. Resin
differs from both gum and sap in that scientists
have not determined a physiological function for
resin.
In the 1950s, entomologists posited that resin may
function to repel or attract insects. Fraenkel
conjectured that plants initially produced resin in
nonspecific chemical responses to insect attack and
that, over time, plants evolved that produced resin
with specific repellent effects. But some insect
species, he noted, might overcome the repellent
effects, actually becoming attracted to the resin. This
might induce the insects to feed on those plants or
aid them in securing a breeding site. Later
researchers suggested that resin mediates the
omplex interdependence, or “coevolution,” of
plants and insects over time. Such ideas led to the
development of the specialized discipline of
chemical ecology, which is concerned with the role
of plant chemicals in interactions with other
organisms and with the evolution and ecology of
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
plant anti-herbivore chemistry (plants' chemical
defences against attack by herbivores such as
insects).
Q.48) According to the passage, which of the
following is true of plant antiherbivore
chemistry?
(a) Changes in a plant's antiherbivore
chemistry may affect insect feeding
behavior.
(b) A plant's repellent effects often
involve interactions between gum and
resin.
(c) A plant's antiherbivore responses
assist in combating bacterial
infections.
(d) Plant antiherbivore chemistry plays
only a minor role in the coevolution of
plants and insects.
Q.49) Of the following topics, which would be
most likely to be studied within the
discipline of chemical ecology as it is
described in the passage?
(a) Seeds that become attached to certain
insects, which in turn carry away the
seeds and aid in the reproductive
cycle of the plant species in question.
(b) An insect species that feeds on weeds
detrimental to crop health and yield,
and how these insects might aid in
agricultural production.
(c) The effects of deforestation on the life
cycles of subtropical carnivorous
plants and the insect species on which
the plants feed.
(d) Insects that develop a tolerance for
feeding on a plant that had previously
been toxic to them, and the resultant
changes within that plant species.
Q.50) The author refers to "bacterial infections"
most likely in order to
(a) describe the physiological function
that gum performs in plants.
10
 (b) demonstrate that sap is not the only Q.54) In a class of 50 students, where the number
substance that is transported through of girls is equal to that of boys, Anil, a boy,
a plant's tissues. is ranked 21 from the top. If there are 12
(c) explain how modern chemical analysis girls ahead of Anil, the number of boys in
has been used to clarify the function of rank after him is:
resin. (a) 18
(d) show that gum cannot serve as an (b) 16
effective defense against herbivores. (c) 14
(d) 12
Q.51) The author of the passage refers to Pliny
most probably in order to Q.55) A bird flies at an average speed of x km/hr
(a) give an example of how the nature of and covers a distance of 192 km in y hours.
amber has been misunderstood in the Another bird, starting at the same time as
past the first bird, travels the same distance at a
(b) show that confusion about amber has speed of (x + 4) km/hr and reaches the
long been more pervasive than destination in (y – 4) hours. The speed with
confusion about resin which the slower bird flies is
(c) make note of the first known reference (a) 15 km/hr.
to amber as a semiprecious gem (b) 12 km/hr.
(d) point out an exception to a (c) 16 km/hr.
generalization about the history of (d) Indeterminate
people's understanding of amber

Q.56) A can do 25% of a work in 25 days, B can do

Q.52) Five people are running in a race. The first 1/4 of the work in 40 days, C can do 50% of
one to finish wins a gold medal, the second the work in 50 days and D can do 1/3 of the
wins a silver medal, and the third wins a work in 30 days. Who will complete the
bronze medal. How many different work first?
arrangements of medal winners, in order
(a) A
from first to third, are possible?
(b) B
(a) 5
(c) C
(b) 10
(d) D
(c) 60
(d) 120
Q.57) The average monthly income of a person in
a certain family of 8 is Rs. 12,000. What will
Q.53) A pump can be used to fill or empty a tank. be the average monthly income of a person
The capacity of the tank is 3600 m3. The in the same family if the income of one
emptying capacity of the pump is 10 person decreased by Rs. 96,000 per year ?
m3/min higher than the filling capacity of
(a) Rs. 8,000
the pump. What is the emptying capacity of
(b) Rs. 9,000
the pump if the pump needs 12 more
minutes to fill the tank than to empty it? (c) Rs. 11,000

(a) 50 m3/min (d) Rs. 11,500

(b) 60 m3/min
(c) 70 m3/min Q.58) Five cities – A, B, C, D and E are as follows:
C is to the north of A. D is to the south of B.
(d) 65 m3/min
E is to the east of C and A is to the west of B.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 11
 If the shortest distances between D and C,
and D and E are the same. Towards which
direction is B located with respect to E?
(a) North-east
(b) South
(c) South-west
(d) South-east
Q.59) The game of chuck-a-luck is played at
carnivals. Its rules are as follows: You pick a
number from 1 to 6 and the operator rolls
three dice. If the number you picked comes
up on all three dice, the operator pays you
Rs.3; if it comes up on two dice, you are paid
Rs.2; and if it comes up on just one die, you
are paid Rs. l. Only if the number you
picked does not come up at all, you pay the
operator Rs. l. The probability that you will
win money playing in this game is
(a) 0.52
(b) 0.753
(c) 0.42
(d) 0.33
Q.60) The household expenditure pattern of Mrs.
Khanna is such that during the first half of
the year, total expenditure shows a 20%
increase over the previous half yearly
expenditure value, while the second half of
the year always witnesses a 10% decrease
over the previous half yearly sales value. If
this trend has continued since 2014, then in
the year 2017, the expenditure in the second
half of 2017 is
(a) Greater than the expenditure in first
half of 2016.
(b) Less than the expenditure in second
half of 2015.
(c) More than the increase in value in first
half of 2016.
(d) None of these
Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the
following two passages and answer the items that follow
each passage. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages only.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
Passage-1
The argument for “monetizing”—or putting a
monetary value on—ecosystem functions may be
stated thus: Concern about the depletion of natural
resources is widespread, but this concern, in the
absence of an economic argument for conservation,
has not translated into significant conservational
progress. Some critics blame this impasse on
environmentalists, whom they believe fail to
address the economic issues of environmental
degradation.
Conservation can appear unprofitable when
compared with the economic returns derived from
converting natural assets (pristine coastlines, for
example) into explicitly commercial ones (such as
resort hotels). But according to David Pearce, that
illusion stems from the fact that “services” provided
by ecological systems are not traded on the
commodities market, and thus have no readily
quantifiable value. To remedy this, says Pearce, one
has to show that all ecosystems have economic
value—indeed, that all ecological services are
economic services. Tourists visiting wildlife
preserves, for example, create jobs and generate
income for national economies; undisturbed forests
and wetlands regulate water runoff and act as
water-purifying systems, saving millions of dollars
worth of damage to property and to marine
ecosystems. In Gretchen Daily’s view, monetization,
while unpopular with many environmentalists,
reflects the dominant role that economic
considerations play in human behaviour, and the
expression of economic value in a common currency
helps inform environmental decision-making
processes.
Q.61) Information in the passage suggests that
David Pearce would most readily endorse
which of the following statements
concerning monetization?
(a) Monetization represents a strategy
that is attractive to both
environmentalists and their critics.
(b) Monetization is an untested strategy,
but it is increasingly being embraced
by environmentalists.
12
 (c) Monetization should at present be
restricted to ecological services and
should only gradually be extended to
such commercial endeavors as tourism
and recreation.
(d) Monetization can serve as a means of
representing persuasively the value of
environmental conservation.
Q.62) Which of the following most clearly
represents an example of an "ecological
service" as that term is used in line 20?
(a) A resort hotel located in an area noted
for its natural beauty.
(b) A water-purifying plant that
supplements natural processes with
nontoxic chemicals.
(c) A wildlife preserve that draws many
international travelers.
(d) A nonprofit firm that specializes in
restoring previously damaged
ecosystems.
Q.63) According to the passage, Daily sees
monetization as an indication of which of
the following?
(a) The centrality of economic interests to
people's actions
(b) The reluctance of the critics of
environmentalism to acknowledge the
importance of conservation
(c) The inability of financial interests and
ecological interests to reach a common
ideological ground
(d) The inevitability of environmental
degradation
Q.64) Which of the following can be inferred from
the passage concerning the
environmentalists mentioned in line 8?
(a) They are organized in opposition to
the generation of income produced by
the sale of ecological services.
(b) They are fewer in number but better
organized and better connected to the
media than their opponents.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
(c) They have sometimes been charged
with failing to use a particular strategy
in their pursuit of conservational
goals.
(d) They have been in the forefront of
publicizing the extent of worldwide
environmental degradation.
Passage-2
Historians remain divided over the role of banks in
facilitating economic growth in the United States in
the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.
Some scholars contend that banks played a minor
role in the nation’s growing economy. Financial
institutions, they argue, appeared only after the
economy had begun to develop, and once
organized, followed conservative lending practices,
providing aid to established commercial enterprises
but shunning those, such as manufacturing and
transportation projects, that were more uncertain
and capital-intensive (i.e., requiring greater
expenditures in the form of capital than in labor).
A growing number of historians argue, in contrast,
that banks were crucial in transforming the early
national economy. When state legislatures began
granting more bank charters in the 1790s and early
1800s, the supply of credit rose accordingly. Unlike
the earliest banks, which had primarily provided
short-term loans to well-connected merchants, the
banks of the early nineteenth century issued credit
widely. As Paul Gilje asserts, the expansion and
democratization of credit in the early nineteenth
century became the driving force of the American
economy, as banks began furnishing large amounts
of capital to transportation and industrial
enterprises. The exception, such historians argue,
was in the South; here, the overwhelmingly
agrarian natureof the economy generated outright
opposition to banks, which were seen as
monopolistic institutions controlled by an elite
group of planters.
Q.65) The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) compare the economic role played by
southern banks with the economic role
played by banks in the rest of the
United States during the late
eighteenth and early nineteenth
centuries.
13
 (b) reevaluate a conventional
interpretation of the role played by
banks in the American economy
during the late eighteenth and early
nineteenth centuries.
(c) present different interpretations of the
role played by banks in the American
economy during the late eighteenth
and early nineteenth centuries.
(d) analyze how the increasing number of
banks in the late eighteenth and early
nineteenth centuries affected the
American economy.
Q.66) The passage suggests that the scholars
mentioned in line 4 would argue that the
reason banks tended not to fund
manufacturing and transportation projects
in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth
centuries was that
(a) these projects, being well established
and well capitalized, did not need
substantial long-term financing from
banks.
(b) these projects entailed a level of risk
that was too great for banks'
conservative lending practices.
(c) banks preferred to invest in other,
more speculative projects that offered
the potential for higher returns.
(d) bank managers believed that these
projects would be unlikely to
contribute significantly to economic
growth in the new country.
Q.67) Vague laws set vague limits on people’s
freedom, which makes it impossible for
them to know for certain whether their
actions are legal. Thus, under vague laws
people cannot feel secure.
The conclusion follows logically if which
one of the following is assumed?
(a) People can feel secure only if they
know for certain whether their actions
are legal.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
(b) If people do not know for certain
whether their actions are legal, then
they might not feel secure.
(c) If people know for certain whether
their actions are legal, they can feel
secure.
(d) People can feel secure if they are
governed by laws that are not vague.
Q.68) Consider the following statements:
1. One proven way for a product’s
marketing to succeed is for that
product to be the first in a particular
category.
2. The product becomes the top product
because it defines the category-so
much so that people may refer to the
particular item by its brand name
rather than by its category, be that
facial tissue or photocopies.
3. As such, a brand’s success is due
primarily to its being first in the
market rather than via its company’s
marketing abilities.
Which one of the following conclusions may
be true in the light of the above facts?
(a) Corporations stand to gain more value
from brand names than from the
quality of their products.
(b) No amount of marketing expertise can
supersede the importance of product
ranking.
(c) Marketers should focus more on
creating new product categories than
on creating new products.
(d) Products that are the first of their kind
have, in at least some instances, sold
better over time than rival products.
Q.69) A solo dice game is played in the following
manner: one each turn, a normal pair of dice
is rolled. The score is calculated by taking
the product, rather than the sum, of the two
numbers shown on the dice. On a particular
game, the score for the second roll is five
more than the score for the first; the score
14
 for the third roll is six less than that of the Read the following passage and answer the
second; the score for the fourth roll is eleven questions based on the passage.
more than that of the third; and the score for “Religion is not the outcome of the weakness of
the fifth roll is eight less than that of the human nature; religion is not here because we fear a
fourth. What was the score for the first and tyrant; religion is love, unfolding, expanding, and
fifth throws? growing. Take the watch – within the little case is
(a) 9, 15 machinery and a spring. The spring, when wound
(b) 15, 12 up, tries to regain its natural state. You are like the
(c) 15, 9 spring in the watch, and it is not necessary that all
(d) 10, 12 watches have the same kind of a spring, and it is not
necessary that we all have the same religion. And
Q.70) Consider the following statement: why should we quarrel? If we all had the same
"We shall go neither dancing nor for ideas the world would be dead. External motion we
swimming". call action; internal motion is human thought. The
stone falls to the earth. You say it is caused by the
Which of the following, if true, would falsify
this claim? law of gravitation. The horse draws the cart and
God draws the horse. That is the law of motion.
(a) We do not go dancing and swimming
Whirlpools show the strength of the current; stop
(b) Dancing and swimming boost the
the current and stagnation ensues. Motion is life.
immune system
We must have unity and variety. The rose would
(c) We do not go swimming and dancing
smell as sweet by any other name, and it does not
(d) We go either swimming or dancing
matter what your religion is called.

Q.71) 97 baseball teams participate in an annual

Q.73) In religion, love is not ____________
state tournament. The champion is chosen
for this tournament by the usual elimination (a) unfolded
scheme. That is, the 97 teams are divided (b) expanded
into pairs, and the two teams of each pair (c) concretized
play against each other. The loser of each (d) grown
pair is eliminated, and the remaining teams
are paired up again, etc. How many games
Q.74) You have three closed boxes of fruit. One
must be played to determine a champion?
contains just apples, one contains just
(a) 194
oranges, and one contains a mixture of both.
(b) 193
Each box is labelled -- one says "apples," one
(c) 103 says "oranges," and one says "apples and
(d) 96 oranges." However, it is known that none of
the boxes are labelled correctly. What is the
Q.72) A boy has 4 different boxes and 5 different minimum number of boxes you have to
marbles. In how many ways can he place open up to label the all three boxes
the marbles in the boxes such that each box correctly?
has at least one marble? (a) 1 box
(a) 560 (b) 2 boxes
(b) 240
(c) 2 boxes with 50% chances of error in 2
(c) 420 boxes
(d) 36 (d) All 3 boxes

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 15
Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Q.78) Find the minimum possible number of
Consider the following information and answer the cigarettes that Marco must pick up from the
four items that follow: bag in order to be sure of having picked at
least one cigarette of Marlboro.
Directions for the following question: Answer the (a) 81 (b) 91
questions on the basis of the information given (c) 101 (d) 111
below. Marco, the chain smoker, emptied some
packets of each of the five cigarette brands Directions for the following question: At a certain
Marlboro, Rothmans, Camel, Lucky Strikes and restaurant, there are 4 lights arranged side by side
Dunhill in a large bag. The following bar graph and numbered consecutively, left to right from 1 to
provides information about the number of cigarettes 4. Lights are used to signal waiters when orders are
per packet in each of the mentioned brands and the ready. On certain shift there are five waiters A, B, C,
number of packets of each brand Marco emptied in D and E.
the bag.
I. To signal A, all 4 lights are switched on.
20 18 II. To signal B, lights 1 and 2 are switched on.
18
16 III. To signal C, only light 1 is switched on.
14 12
12 10 IV. To signal D, lights 2, 3 and 4 are switched
10 8 on.
8 6
6
3 3
4 V. To signal E, lights 3 and 4 are switched on.
4 2
2
1
0

Marlboro Rothmans Camel Lucky Strikes Dunhill

Q.79) If light 3 is switched on and light 1 is
Number of Cigarettes per packet switched off, then waiter signalled is
Number of packets emptied into the bag I. B
II. D
Q.75) Find the minimum possible number of III. E
cigarettes that Marco must pick up from the Select the correct answer using the code
bag in order to be sure of having picked at given below:
least one from each packet. (a) I only
(a) 55 (b) 103 (b) II only
(c) 108 (d) 115 (c) I and II only
(d) II and III only
Q.76) Find the minimum possible number of
cigarettes that Marco must pick up from the Q.80) Your sock drawer contains ten pairs of
bag in order to be sure of having picked at white socks and ten pairs of black socks. If
least one of each brand. you're only allowed to take one sock from
(a) 55 (b) 103 the drawer at a time and you can't see what
(c) 108 (d) 115 colour sock you're taking until you've taken
it, how many socks do you have to take
Q.77) Find the minimum possible number of before you're guaranteed to have at least
cigarettes that Marco must pick up from the one matching pair?
bag in order to be sure of having picked all (a) 21
the cigarettes of at least one brand. (b) 11
(a) 55 (b) 103 (c) 7
(c) 108 (d) 116 (d) 3

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 16
Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST CODE: TS20E1061

CSAT (PAPER – II)

Full Length Test-4

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
Full Length Test-4
CSAT Paper-II (TS20E1061)
Q.1) Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In the passage, five observed asteroids, refers
to the five asteroids whose rotation rates are
exceptions to the strict limit on the rate of
rotation found in all other observed asteroids.
These five asteroids all have diameters smaller
than 200 meters. The passage indicates that if
asteroids were all monoliths—that is, single
rocks—then their rotation rates would form a
bell curve when graphed, but if asteroids were
piles of rubble, the tail of the bell curve
indicating very fast rotation rates would be
missing. Among asteroids larger than 200
meters, this tail is missing, and only the five
asteroids described as exceptions have
rotation rates falling at the very high end of
the bell curve.
A All that the passage states about the rotation
rates of these five asteroids is that they do not
obey a strict limit. The passage does not rule
out that their rates of rotation are significantly
different from one another.
B According to the passage, frequent collisions
occur among asteroids. But the passage does
not suggest that asteroids that are of similar
sizes, or that have particularly high rotation
rates, will be similar in terms of the number of
collisions that they have undergone to reach
those distinctive states.
C Correct. The second paragraph states that
most small asteroids should be monolithic,
and the five observed asteroids are all smaller
than 200 meters in diameter.
D The five asteroids are most likely not
composed of fragments because, as the
passage states, small asteroids should be
monoliths.
The correct answer is C.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
Q.2) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The evident conclusion is that asteroids with
diameters greater than 200 meters are
multicomponent structures or rubble piles. To
call that conclusion into question, an
observation would have to suggest that
asteroids larger than 200 meters across are not
such multicomponent structures. According to
the first paragraph, rubble piles cannot be fast
rotators' spinning faster than once every few
hours would make them fly apart.
A Nothing in the passage suggests that the
behaviour of an asteroid 100 meters in
diameter is relevant to a conclusion about the
behaviour of asteroids greater than 200 meters
in diameter.
B Nothing in the passage suggests that the
behaviour of an asteroid 150 meters in
diameter would have any effect on a
conclusion about the constitution of asteroids
with diameters greater than 200 meters.
C An asteroid 250 meters in diameter rotating at
a rate of once per week would be rotating at a
slow enough rate to hold together a pile of
rubble. Thus, this observation would be
entirely consistent with the conclusion about
asteroids larger than 200 meters in diameter.
D Correct. Assuming that an asteroid composed
of a pile of rubble is of a great enough density,
a rotation rate greater than one revolution
every few hours would make it fly apart. So a
500-meter asteroid rotating at a rate of once
per hour—that is, faster than the crucial
speed—would fly apart if it were not a
monolith. The conclusion states that all
asteroids larger than 200 meters are
multicomponent structures (that is, are not
monoliths), so the discovery of a 500-meter
asteroid rotating at a rate of once an hour
would call into question that conclusion.
1
Q.3) Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Regarding small asteroids, the second
paragraph states that they have feeble gravity.
Any fragments from impacts would escape
that gravity, and thus, the passage states, the
small asteroids should be monolithic.
A Small asteroids could be few in number, but
the passage does not offer such a prediction.
B Correct. This prediction is offered in the
second paragraph, based on the fact that small
asteroids do not have strong gravitational
attraction. Any impact fragments will easily
escape the weak gravitational attraction of the
small asteroids.
C The passage discusses large asteroids
collisions in more detail than small asteroid
collisions, but it provides no basis for
predicting how often large and small asteroids
will, comparatively, be involved in such
collisions.
D The first paragraph indicates that the rotation
rates of small asteroids can exceed the upper
limit on the rotation rates of large asteroids,
but it does not indicate that most small
asteroids have rotation rates that exceed this
upper limit.
Q.4) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
This question asks about the purpose of the
author's use of the phrase escape velocity in
the second paragraph. The author is
discussing what occurs after an asteroid
collision, in which a large asteroid might be
blasted to bits. The bits, according to the
author, will move slower than their mutual
escape velocity—that is, the speed at which
they would have to move to get away from
each other and not reassemble, under the
influence of gravity, into a rubble pile.
A The author is emphasizing the asteroid bits
that do not escape rather than those that do.
Asteroids may become smaller over time, but
the fact that most bits move slower than their
escape velocity would not help to explain this
shrinkage.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
B That the bits of asteroid move slower than
their escape velocity helps explain why the
fragments reassemble, but it does not help
explain the speed with which they reassemble.
C According to the author, asteroid collisions
occur frequently, but the escape velocity of the
resulting fragments does not help to explain
that frequency.
D Correct. After a collision, it is the asteroid
fragments' failure to reach escape velocity that
allows the fragments' gravitational pull to
reassemble them into a rubble pile.
Q.5) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
People who volunteer regularly live longer on
average than people who do not. Doing good
work, including volunteer work, releases
endorphins, which induce a feeling of well-
being. The causal argument is that
volunteering leads to longer life. The question
asked is "What additional findings would
suggest that the cited evidence does not
indicate that endorphins increase longevity?"
The argument implicitly assumes that the
reason regular volunteers tend to live longer is
that volunteering lengthens their lives. It
further assumes that no factor that is
correlated with volunteering, other than the
endorphin release, would plausibly explain
how volunteering could have this effect.
Findings that cast doubt on either of these
assumptions would undermine the connection
between the cited evidence and the conclusion
that endorphins promote longevity.
A Volunteering might greatly boost volunteers’
endorphin levels even if the work the
volunteers do for a living is no different from
other people’s work.
B Even if unnaturally high endorphin levels
could harm health, the levels attainable
through volunteer work may promote health.
C The argument is about an observed
correlation in a certain group of people (those
who regularly do volunteer work). How many
people are outside that group (i.e., do not
regularly do volunteer work) is independent
2
 of the question of what causes the observed Q.10) Answer: (d)
correlation. Even if some people volunteer Explanation:
only occasionally, volunteering regularly may To solve this question, set up a group grid
promote longevity by causing regular releases
<3 3+ Total
of endorphins.
<40
D Correct. This suggests that the initially better 40+
health of people who choose to volunteer Total 300
could fully explain the cited correlation
between volunteering and longevity. This For the number of dogs less than 40 pounds
option goes against the reverse causal that are less than 3 years in age, use the
variable x. This means that the number of
assumption of the argument.
dogs at least 40 pounds and at least 3 years
in age is 2x. Now, since the number of dogs
Q.6) Answer: (c) at least 3 years in age and at least 40 pounds
Explanation: is 6 times the number that are at least 3 years
in age and less than 40 pounds, the number
10:00 am to 3:26 pm is 5 hours and 26 minutes at least 3 years and less than 40 pounds is
of time. During this time the machine was 1
used for six periods of equal duration and five x . Next, you know that 65 percent of the
3
breaks of 10 minutes. So machine was turned dogs in the sample were less than 3 years in
on for 5h26m - 50 minutes = 4h36m. Dividing age, which is 195 dogs. Now, if you use the
4h36m by 6 periods gives us 46 minutes. So variable y for the number of dogs that are
exact duration of each period is 46 minutes. less than 3 years in age and at least 40
pounds, you can fill out the group grid.
<3 3+ Total
Q.7) Answer: (d)
<40 X 1 4
Explanation: x x
3 3
There are 4 such adjacent pairs of boys
40+ y 2x 2x + y
whose number totals 12. These are KL, MN,
Total 195 105 300
NO and XY.

This means that

Q.8) Answer: (c)
4
Explanation: x  2x  y  300
3
The milk % in the resultant mixture 10
x  y  300
40  3  75  4 120  300 420 3
=  
34 7 7 But you also know that
= 60%. x + y = 195
y = 195–x
Q.9) Answer: (b) Combining these two equations gives you
10
Explanation: x  195 – x   300
3
If we subtract Rs 6 from Rs. 1030, we will be
10
left with Rs 1024. This 1024 is equal to x – x   300 – 195
3
number of students multiplied by the equal
7
contribution by each student. Or square root x  105
3
of 1024 will be equal to number of students
x = 45
in class.
y =195 – 45 = 150
1024  32 Now you can fill in all the values in the
So number of students in class = 32 group grid

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 3
 <3 3+ Total no evidence is discussed in relation to
<40 45 15 60 any earlier theory.
C Correct. This statement properly
40+ 150 90 240
identifies how the argument compares
Total 195 105 300 the wings of bats and of Sandactylus in
order to draw a conclusion about how
Watch for trap answers. Choice (A) is the the dinosaur flew.
number of dogs that are at least than 3 years D The argument is not about how the
in age and weigh less than 40 pounds. structures in the bats developed from
Choice (B) is the number of dogs that are the structures in the dinosaurs, but
less than 3 years in age and weigh less than rather about how Sandactylus flew.
40 pounds. The correct answer is (c).

Q.11) Answer: (b) 400, 500

Explanation: Q.13) Answer: (a)
Let A’s income = 4x  A’s expenses = 4x – Explanation:
25 14
The cost price of mixture   Rs.10 / kg.
 40 
Let B’s income = 5x  B’s expenses = 5x – 50 1  
 100 
It is given that ratio of A’s expense to B’s
expense is 5 : 6 Let the cost price of the first and second
kind of tea be Rs.2x/kg and Rs.x per kg.
 4 x  25  5  24x – 150 = 25x – 250  x Applying the rule of alligarion,
5 x  50 6
= 100.
= A’s income = 4x = 400 and B’s income = 5x
= 500.

Q.12) Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Argument Evaluation
3 2 x  10
Situation: Therefore,  
The network of blood vessels in bats’ wings 2 10  x
is compared with a similar structure in the – 3x = 4x – 20
wings of the dinosaur Sandactylus to  7x = 50
explain how the dinosaur flew. 1
Reasoning: x =7 .
7
How is this argument developed? The author
So, the cost price of each kind of tea = Rs.
first shows that a physical characteristic of
bats’ wings is directly related to their style 1 2
7 / kg and Rs. 14 / kg
of flight. The author then argues that the 7 7
similar structure found in the wings of
Sandactylus is evidence that the dinosaur EXPLANATION OF QS.14 TO 16:
had a style of flight similar to that of bats. There are three vehicles Maruti, Santro & Opel
The structure of this argument is a There are two engineers, two doctors and three
comparison, or analogy, between a known teachers among them
phenomenon (bats) and an unknown one
So,
(Sandactylus).
A The evidence of the blood vessels in the 2 Engineers.
wings does not conflict with other 2 Doctors
evidence. 3 Teachers
B The evidence of the blood vessels in the • C is lady doctor and does not travel with the
wings is used to support only one pair of sisters, A & F.
theory—that Sandactylus flew by C  Doc
flapping its wings as well as by gliding;

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 4
• B is a male engineer and travels only with G Q.19) Answer: (c) 5 cm
a teacher in Maruti, so G must be female Explanation:
also
G  Teacher
Area of the piece of tin is 30 × 5 = 150 is used
B  Engg.
to make six faces of cube.
B G  Maruti 150
So, area of each face =  25
• D is male doctor 6
D  Doc As area of each square face of cube = square
• A is not an engineer and travels in Santro so of side, So side of each face = square root of
A F  Santro
25 = 5 cm
Obviously C is traveling in Opel.
C and D are doctors and can’t travel in same vehicle
so D must travel in Santro. Now we will get Q.20) Answer: (b) 10
following table. Explanation:
Vehicle Person Profession In this race order doesn't matter. The first
B Engg. three people to finish all get the same gift
Maruti
G Tea. certificate, so it doesn't matter whether the
A Tea. race places Joe, Sue and Sam, or Sam, Sue
Santro F Engg. and Joe. In fact, the second outcome is a
D Doc. duplicate of the first, because regardless of
C Doc. the order, the group of people is still Joe,
Opel
E Tea.
Sue and Sam.
The first part of a combination problem is
the same as a permutation problem. When
Q.14) Answer: (a)
the first gift certificate is awarded there are 5
possible runners who could win it. Once the
Q.15) Answer: (c)
first gift certificate has been awarded, there
are 4 runners available to win the second
Q.16) Answer: (b)
gift certificate, and so on.
Now because order doesn't matter, you
Q.17) Answer: (c)
need to get rid of the duplicate outcomes.
Explanation:
You do this by dividing by the number of
Assume the initial contributions of P, Q, R
ways to arrange the items chosen. An easy
and S to be Rs.20, Rs.30, Rs.40 and Rs.60
way to do this is to simply divide by the
respectively. Thus, the initial cost of
factorial of the number of spots you have.
manufacturing the article = Rs.150. The
change in cost = +2 - 6 - 12 + 24 = +8. Here you have three spots (there are 3
runners in the race), so divide by 3!. Thus,
8
% change   100  5.33%. the number of different groups of people
150
who could win the gift certificates is
5´ 4´ 3
Q.18) Answer (b) = 10
3´ 2 ´ 1
Explanation:
00 The correct answer is choice (B).
Time of meeting  10 hours. Distance If you are arranging items from the same
25  35
from X distance travelled in 10 hours by the source and order doesn't matter, count
train starting from X = 25 × 10 = 250 km. down and divide.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 5
Q.21) Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The situation is that a provincial
government plans to raise the fossil fuel tax
in order to reduce traffic congestion by
discouraging people from driving. But
sceptics point out that most people in the
province have no viable form of
transportation other than driving. The
question asked is "What would suggest that
raising the fossil fuel tax will reduce traffic
congestion even though most people in the
province have no viable form of transportation
other than driving?"The sceptics point out
that since most people in the province have
no way to reach jobs or stores except by car,
they will not be able to reduce their driving
much even if the fossil fuel tax increases.
Any evidence that raising the fossil fuel tax
would reduce traffic congestion despite this
obstacle would help to support the plan in
light of the sceptics' objection.
A Correct. If the tax will fund these public
transit improvements, then far more
people will have a viable means of
transportation other than driving,
undermining the basis of the sceptics'
objection.
B People switching to fuel-efficient cars
would not reduce traffic congestion.
C This essentially only tends to support
the sceptics' objection. Unless the plan
somehow helps to alleviate the necessity
of driving (by, for example, making
alternative transportation available), the
information provided gives no reason to
suppose that the higher costs would
significantly reduce traffic congestion.
D If residents cannot greatly change their
driving habits, then the tax will not
reduce traffic congestion.
Q.22) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The passage discusses how willingness to
reveal negative information suggests that a
job candidate is being truthful. That said,
choice (a) is too strong, while choices (b),
and (c), are all beyond the scope of the
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
passage. Choice (d), however, is directly in
line with the author’s reasoning.
Q.23) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The passage states that PPC listings are
ranked by the size of advertisers’ bids,
suggesting that a larger budget allows one
businesses’ ad to gain precedence over those
of its competitors. Eliminate choice (a), since
it’s too strong; you don’t know whether
most Web users mistrust PPC ads. Cross out
choice (b) as well, since it goes in the
opposite direction of the author’s logic.
Choice (c) is outside the scope of the
passage. That leaves you with choice (d),
which would have to be true, given the
author’s statements about ads with higher
bids outranking other ads.
Q.24) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The statements separate the need for image
quality from portability. Choice (a) goes
beyond the information given, so eliminate
it. Meanwhile choice (b) is too strong,
because you can’t know for sure whether
serious photographers have image quality
as their main concern; perhaps ruggedness
or durability concerns them even more.
Eliminate choice (c) as well, since, like
choice (a), it’s beyond the information given.
However, choice (d) is clearly supported by
the second and third sentences, so keep it.
The best choice is choice (d).
Q.25) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The passage discusses the negative
consequences of extended periods in
weightlessness and then points out that
travel to Mars would require a highly-
extended period. Eliminate choice (a), since
the passage doesn’t give you enough
information to know whether proper
training would help. Meanwhile, choice (b)
is too strong; it’s possible that there has been
6
 some progress on the artificial-gravity front.
Choice (c), like choice (a), is beyond the
scope of the passage, so eliminate that one,
too. Choice (d) is most supported by the
statements and is the best answer.
Thus, the movements of Sumit are as shown
in Fig. (A to B, B, to C, C to D). Clearly,
Sumit's final position is D which is to the
North-west of the starting point A.

Q.26) Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The statements discuss the advantages of
synthetic over standard motor oils. Choice
(a) goes beyond the information given.
Choice (b), however, has the conservative
wording you like to see in an inference
answer, so keep that one. Get rid of choice
(c), since you can’t generalize about drivers
who use certain kinds of oil. Eliminate
choice (d), since it is beyond the scope of the
statements.

Q.27) Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The statements discuss key factors to
business success, but they don’t provide
enough information to know whether choice
(a) is true. You can also eliminate choice (b),
since you can’t know that based only on the
statements. Eliminate choice (c) because it’s
too extreme. Choice (d), on the other hand,
is in line with the author’s statements and
uses conservative language, so keep it.
Q.28) Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The author states that only ... the absence of
risk constitutes an investment, so anything
with a chance of financial loss would not be
an investment. Eliminate choice (a), since it’s
too extreme, while choice (b) is outside the
passage’s scope. Keep choice (c), however,
since it follows the author’s reasoning.
Eliminate choice (d), since it goes against
what the author is saying.
Q.29) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Since Sumit's house faces towards East and
he walks from backside of his house, it
means that he starts walking towards West.
Q.30) Answer: (b) 900 sq m
Explanation:
For any value of perimeter of a rectangle,
the greatest are is of a square. So if L and B
are equal, then area will be maximum. So L
= B = 30 meters. Then area = 30 X 30 = 900
square meters
Q.31) Answer: (c) 12.5
Explanation:
The present total age of the family
= 5 × 20 = l00
 Total age of the family at the birth of the
youngest member (100 – 10 – (10 × 4)) =
50
 Average age of the family just before the
50
birth of the youngest member =
4
= 12.5.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 7
Q.32) Answer: (d) F 5
Explanation: G 7
Let the salaries be 4x and 7x H 4
If salaries are increased by Rs. 25, then
4 x  25 3 Position-1 is tallest & 8 is shortest.

7 x  25 5
 5(4x + 25) = 3(7x + 25) Q.34) Answer: (c)
 20x + 125 = 21x + 75
 x  50 Q.35) Answer: (c)
Their salaries are 4 × 50 and 7 × 50, i.e.
Rs.200 and Rs.350. Q.36) Answer: (b)

Q.33) Answer: (b) Q.37) Answer: (b)

Explanation: Explanation:
When he climbs down 7 steps, he reaches Solve using the Pythagorean Theorem:
9th step from top. This 9th step is the middle
CD 2  AD 2  AC 2
step. So there are 8 steps below it and 8 steps
above it. Hence 8 + 8 + 1 = 17. CD 2  6 2  82
CD 2  36  64  100
Explanation of Question 34 to 36:
CD  10 m
According to instructions
Here, AB  AC  CD
ABCDEFGH are eight friends with different heights.
3 play cricket, 3 play table tennis, 2 play football. AB  8  10  18 meters
The tallest doesn't play football, shortest doesn't
play cricket. Q.38) Answer: (b)
Explanation:
H, B > F > A, D
E>B

E does not play cricket & is 2nd tallest.

D>G>A
H & D play TT

H is 4th from top in Height

G × cricket
G × Football
B × Football
Based on these instructions, if we fill up the table:

Cricket Table Football Height So, the answer is West.

Tennis
A 8 Q.39) Answer: (b) 12
B 3 Explanation:
C 1 Each edge of the large cube will have two
D 6 small cubes with two sides painted. So 6
E 2 edges X 2 cubes = 12 cubes.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 8
Q.40) Answer: (b)
Smita is twice as efficient as Anita
Explanation:
Anita completes 40% of the project in 12
days. The left over 60% of the work is
completed by both Anita and Smita in 6
days.
Hence, working together, Anita and Smita
would have completed the entire project in
 6 
   100  10 days
 60 
Since Anita, working alone, completes 40%
of the project in 12 days, she would have
 12 
taken    100  30 days to complete the
 40 
entire project.
LCM of 10 and 30 = 30, and so let us assume
that 30 units of work is required to be done.
Anita takes 30 days to complete the work
and so takes I day to complete 1 unit of
work.
When they work together, work is complete
in 10 days, which means work done in 1 day
30
=  3 units, of which Anita does 1 units
10
and hence balance 2 units of work would be
done by Smita only. So, Smita is more
efficient. Percentage by which Smita is more
2 1
efficient than Anita   100  100%.
1 earn profits. Keep choice (a), since it reflects
In other words, Smita is twice as efficient as
Anita.
Q.41) Answer: (d) FATONICR
Explanation:
Here positions in code are being shifted
from 123456 to 135642
So FRACTION becomes FATONICR
Q.42) Answer: (b)
The number does not leave a remainder
when divided by 4
Explanation:
If a number is divisible by a composite
number, example 12 and 12 = 3 X 4, then the
number will be divisible by both 3 and 4.
Q.43) Answer: (b) 100
Explanation:
100 numbers start with 3 i.e. 300 to 399
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
Add all 10 numbers that end with 3 i.e. 203,
213, 223......293.
Subtract all 10 numbers that begin and end
with 3 i.e. 303, 313, 323, ...393.
So, numbers are equal to 100+10-10 =100
Q.44) Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The author states that older students do not
need to ‘find themselves’ [and] are better
able to focus ... than their younger peers.
That suggests that young people do need to
find themselves. That supports choice (a).
You can eliminate choice (b), since it’s
beyond the scope of the statements. Choice
(c) is too extreme; the author never mentions
schedules. Choice (d) goes beyond the scope
of the passage.
Q.45) Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The author discusses two essential facets of
newsletter investing: the quality of the
newsletter and one’s willingness to follow
its advice. Neither facet depends on the
other, meaning that you could be willing to
follow a low-quality newsletter and thus not
that logic, but eliminate choice (b), since the
author never mentions steady or long-term
profits. Choice (c) is beyond the scope of the
passage, as is choice (d), so eliminate both.
Q.46) Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Gardner’s theory, according to the
statements, asserts that separate and distinct
parts of the brain are used for particular
cognitive activities. Choice (a) is too
extreme; you can’t know from the
statements whether no correlation exists
between any two intelligences. Choice (b)
goes in the opposite direction of the author’s
statements, so eliminate that one, too. In
contrast, choice (c) is in line with the
author’s logic and has moderate enough
language (primarily) so keep it. Choices (d)
9
 and (e) both go beyond the scope of the
passage.
Q.47) Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The argument brushes aside the notion that
the research results were manipulated,
citing the breadth of the study. That
suggests that a small-scale study is not
necessarily protected from bias or
tampering. Keep choice (a), since that’s in
line with the author’s reasoning, but
eliminate choice (b), since it’s beyond the
passage’s scope. Choices (c) and (d) are also
out of scope.
Q.48) Answer: (a)
Explanation:
This question addresses what the
information in the passage indicates about
plant antiherbivore chemistry—that is,
plants' chemical defenses against herbivore
attacks. The second paragraph of the
passage cites the views of variousscientists
regarding the possible role of resin in
antiherbivore chemistry; plants could have
evolved resin specifically to repel insects.
A Correct. According to the second
paragraph, various scientists have
suggested that a change in antiherbivore
chemistry, here specifically involving
resin, could repel insects; alternatively,
some insects could have been attracted
to resin, feeding more heavily on plants
that produced it. Other researchers have
suggested that even if resin does not
directly repel or attract insects, it may
indirectly affect insect-feeding behavior
by mediating changes in plants'
antiherbivo.re chemistry.
B The first paragraph states that plants
produce gum in response to bacterial
infections. Although this does not rule
out the hypothesis that gum also
contributes to plants' antiherbivore
chemistry, the passage provides no
evidence that it does so.
C According to the passage, a plant's
antiherbivore responses have developed
to combat predators, such as insects, that
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
eat plants. The passage provides no
evidence that such responses also
combat bacterial infections.
D The second paragraph indicates that
plant antiherbivore chemistry plays a
major role in the discipline of chemical
ecology, and chemical ecology concerns
itself with coevolution of plants and
insects.
The correct answer is A.
Q.49) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The discipline of chemical ecology, as it is
described in the passage, deals with how
plants see chemicals to interact with other
organisms—in particular, how they defend
against attack and how those interactions
have evolved. To be studied within that
discipline, a specific topic would need to
address some aspect of that chemical
interaction.
A The passage provides no reason to
suppose that the topic of seeds and how
they., travel would be studied within
chemical ecology, given that it does not
discuss how chemicals might be
involved in the reproductive cycle.
B The passage provides no indication that
chemical ecology would be concerned
with how weed-destroying insects
would aid agricultural production.
C The passage provides no indication that
deforestation would involve plant
chemicals or that: its effects would be
studied in chemical ecology.
D Correct. Chemical ecology developed to
deal with the interdependence between
plants and insects. Insects' developing a
tolerance for feeding on a once-toxic
plant, and the plants' resultant changes,
is a situation of just such
interdependence: plants and insects co-
evolving.
The correct answer is D.
Q.50) Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The author mentions bacterial infections in
the first paragraph as the reason why plants
produce the substance known as gum.
10
 A Correct. The author states directly that Q.52) Answer: (c)
plants produce gum in response to Explanation:
bacterial infections. In this problem order matters, because if the
B The author states directly that sap is race places like this.
transported through plant tissues. The Joe 1st
passage does not address the question of Sue 2nd
whether bacterial infections or anything Sam 3rd
related to them are similarly That's a different outcome than if the race
transported. places like this.
C The passage indicates that rigorous Sue 1st
chemical analysis is now available, but Sam 2nd
scientists still do not know resin's Joe 3rd
function, The reference to bacterial Each ordering of the top three places is a
infections is related to gum, not resin. different outcome, so the order is important.
D The reference to bacterial infections When the gold medal is awarded there are 5
possible runners who could win it. Once the
indicates the actual purpose served by
gold has been awarded, there are 4 runners
gum; it does not function to show ways available to win the silver. Once the gold
in which gum is inadequate. and silver have been awarded, there are 3
The correct answer is A. runners available to win the bronze. The
total number of arrangements of medal
winners is 5 × 4 × 3 = 60. The correct answer
Q.51) Answer: (d) is choice (C).
Explanation: If you are arranging items from the same
The passage states generally that amber has source and order matters, count down and
been widely misunderstood but cites Pliny as multiply.
noting correctly, in the first century, that
amber resulted from a substance discharged Q.53) Answer: (b)
by trees. Explanation:
Let f m3/min be the filling capacity of the
A Pliny's observation was, according to the
pump. The emptying capacity of the
author, accurate and not a
pump = (f + 10) m3/min.
misunderstanding.
3600
B The author equates confusion about Time taken to fill the tank  minutes
f
amber with confusion about resin; the
3600
reference to Pliny does not indicate and time taken to empty the tank =
f  10
which of the two, amber or resin, has
minutes
been more widely misunderstood.
Since it takes 12 more minutes to fill the tank
C The author indicates that others, not than to empty it,
Pliny, mischaracterized amber as a 3600 3600
semiprecious gem—and when that  = 12
f f  10
mischaracterization first occurred is not
 3600f + 36000 – 3600f = 12(f2+ 10f) = 12f2+
identified.
120f  12f 2 + 120f – 36000 = 0
D Correct. Pliny's recognition that amber Solving for the positive value of f, you get f
came from a substance discharged by = 50.
trees stands, in the author's account, as The emptying capacity of the pump = 50 +
an exception to the widespread incorrect 10 = 60 m3/min
identifications of the substance. Alternatively, use options. If filling capacity
The correct answer is D. is 50 m3/min, then emptying capacity is 60

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 11
 m3/min, but it does not satisfy the equation Q.58) Answer: (c) South-west
3600 2600 Explanation:
 =12 .
f f  10 From the given data, the possible figure is as
We can check similarly for other options. follows.

Q.54) Answer: (b) 16

Explanation:
In ranks 1 to 20 from top, there are 12 girls,
so remaining 8 are boys. Anil is a boy,
himself, so the number of boys in rank after
50
him   (8  1)  25  9  16
2
As the distance between C and D, and E and
Q.55) Answer: (b) 12 km/hr D is equal, E must be towards north-east
Explanation: from B or B is towards south-west from E.
For the first bird: xy = 192;
For the second bird: ( x  y )( y  4) = 192 Q.59) Answer: (c)
 xy  4( y  x) 16 =192 Explanation:
The probability of not getting the selected
 192  4( y  x)  16  192 3
 5  125
 4(y – x) = 16 number all the three times =   
 6  216
 ( y  x)  4
Therefore, the probability of getting the
192 selected number at least once
 y  4
y 125 91
 1 –   0.42
 y  16 hours and hence x =12 km/hr 216 216
Alternatively, use options.
Q.60) Answer: (c)
Q.56) Answer: (d) Explanation:
Explanation: Let the total expenditure at the beginning of
2014 be Rs10000. Then,
100
A will complete the work in  25  100 days YEAR 1st Half 2nd half
25
2014 12000 10800
1
B will complete the work in  40  160 days 2015 12960 11664
14
2016 14000 (approx.) 12600
100
C will complete the work in  50  100 days 2017 15120 13608
50
1 Increase in expenditure in first half of 2016 =
D will complete the work in  30  90 days 14000 - 11664 = 2336
13

Q.61) Answer: (d)

Q.57) Answer: (c) Rs. 11,000
Explanation:
- Total yearly income of family
= 12000 X 8 X 12 = 11,52,000
- Decreased yearly income of family
= 11,52,000 - 96000 = 10,56,000
- New average monthly income of 1
person  105600  8  12  11000
Explanation:
This question requires an understanding of
David Pearce's view of monetization.
According to the passage, Pearce finds the
idea that conservation is unprofitable to be
an illusion. He argues for showing the
economic value of ecosystems in order to
make progress in conserving those
ecosystems.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 12
 A The passage attributes to Gretchen Daily
the view that monetization is unpopular
with environmentalists. The passage
gives no reason to believe that Pearce
would endorse the idea that
environmentalists currently _ find
monetization attractive.
B The passage gives no indication that
monetization is increasingly being
embraced by environmentalists, even if
Pearce thinks it should be.
C The passage indicates Pearce's belief that
some types of tourism are also types of
ecological services that have economic
value and that they should be
monetized.
D Correct. Pearce believes that
monetization quantifies the value of the
services provided by ecological
systems—and if that value is quantified,
people are more likely to lie persuaded
to conserve those systems.
The correct answer is D.
Q.62) Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Based on the passage, ecological services are
services provided by natural assets that
have not been converted into commercial
assets. Thus any example of such an
ecological service requires that the area
providing it is natural.
A The passage mentions resort hotels as an
example of explicitly commercial assets.
Although some hotels might be situated
in ecologically valuable natural
environments, any ecological services in
such cases would be contributed by the
natural environments, not by the hotels
themselves.
B Water purifying is an ecological service
if it is supplied by undisturbed forests
and wetlands. The word plant here must
mean a technological installation, not a
botanical organism, because it is said to
supplement,.. not to be part of—the
natural processes. Thus it is not a
natural asset and therefore does not
provide an ecological service as
described in the passage.
C Correct. The passage states that a
wildlife preserve that creates jobs and
generates income would be providing
an ecological service.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
D A nonprofit firm that restores damaged
ecosystems would be performing a
valuable ecology-related service, but it
would not itself be an example of a
natural asset providing an ecological
service.
The correct answer is C.
Q.63) Answer: (a)
Explanation:
This question asks about Daily's view of
monetization, and according to the passage,
she sees monetization as a practice that
reflects the dominant role that economic
decisions play in human behavior.
A Correct. According to the passage, Daily
believes that economic interests are
central to people's actions, and
monetization of ecological services
would take that central role realistically
into account.
B Monetization, as Daily sees it, is a way
of assigning value to conservation and
thus acknowledging its importance.
Many environmentalists, rather than
their critics, are reluctant to embrace
monetization, according to Daily.
C For Daily, monetization represents a
way for financial interests and ecological
interests to reach a common ground; by
using this sommon currency, both sides
can make good decisions about the
environment.
D Monetization, on Daily's view, would
help to prevent environmental
degradation; the passage does not
suggest that she regards such
degradation as at all inevitable.
The correct answer is A.
Q.64) Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The sentence in question states that critics
blame environmentalists for their failure to
address the economic issues of
environmental degradation.
A The passage states that in the absence of
monetization, conservation can appear
unprofitable. But this does not mean
that the environmentalists in question
are opposed to conservation generating
income.
13
 B The passage does not address the issue
of the number of environmentalists in
question, the number of those opposed
to them, or whether either group is
better connected to the media.
Q.66) Answer: (b)
C Correct. The passage indicates that
critics of the environmentalists in
question believe environmentalists are
to blame for not using an effective
economics-based strategy to promote
conservation.
D Although it may be the case that the
environmentalists in question have been
prominent in publicizing worldwide
environmental degradation, the passage
does not provide grounds for inferring
that they have been.
The correct answer is C.
Q.65) Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The question depends on understanding the
passage as a whole. The passage describes
two contrasting views about the role banks
played in the economic growth of the
United States around the turn of the
nineteenth century The first paragraph
describes the view that banks played only a
small role. The second paragraph describes
the contrasting view that banks played a
critical role.
A The mention of banks in the South is a
small part of a 1;rger discussion about
the role of banks in the country as a
whole.
B The passage describes two major views
Q.67) Answer: (a)
held by historians; it does not reevaluate
either of those views.
C Correct. The passage describes two
different views about the role that banks
played in America's growing economy.
D The passage does not analyze any aspect
of the relationship between the
increasing number of banks and the
economy. It alludes to the increase in
numbers only within a broader
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
description of two contrasting views
about how banks affected the economy.
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The question asks about information
implied by the passage. According to the
scholars' view described in the first
paragraph, banks followed conservative
lending practices: they shunned projects that
were uncertain and that required substantial
investments in capital. It follows that,
according to those scholars, the reason
banks chose not to fund certain projects was
that they entailed too great a risk.
A The passage indicates that
manufacturing and transportation
projects were less well established than
those the banks preferred to fund, not
more so.
B Correct. Because the projects were
uncertain and required a great deal of
capital, banks considered them too risky
C The passage indicates that banks
followed conservative lending practices
and avoided investments that were
uncertain.
D The passage does not mention banks'
beliefs about economic growth, and it
does not provide any basis for inferring
that the scholars in question held any
particular views regarding such beliefs.
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The argument can be analyzed as follows:
Premise: Vague laws set vague limits on
people’s freedom. Premise: Vague limits on
people’s freedom make it impossible for
them to know for certain whether their
actions are legal. Conclusion: Under vague
laws people cannot feel secure. There is a
new element in the conclusion—“cannot feel
secure”—that must be justified. There is also
14
 an unconnected element in the premise—
“know for certain whether their actions are
legal”—that will likely appear in the answer
choice. Unfortunately, four of the answer
choices contain those two elements. Only
answer choice (D) does not contain both,
and as (D) also contains the “vague law”
element that appears in both a premise and
the conclusion, we can eliminate (D) for the
moment. Given the plethora of answers that
remain in contention, first examine the
conditional structure that is extant in the
stimulus: Premises: Vague laws →Vague
limits→~Know actions are legal.
Conclusion: Vague laws→~Secure.
Abstractly, this relationship is similar to:
Premises: A→B→~C, Conclusion: A→~D.
The relationship that must be added to the
premise to prove the conclusion is: ~C→~D.
Translating the diagram back to the terms
used in our premise and conclusion, we
need a statement like the following: ~Know
actions are legal→~Secure. Of course, the
contrapositive of this statement would also
be acceptable. Answer choice (A) is the
contrapositive and thus (A) is correct.
Answer choice (B): This answer is incorrect
because it has a different level of certainty
than the conclusion: this answer uses the
phrase “might not” when the conclusion
uses “cannot.” If this flaw were corrected,
the answer would be correct. Answer choice
(C): This answer is the Mistaken Reversal of
the correct answer. Answer choice (D): This
answer was eliminated previously.
Q.68) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The statements don’t provide enough
information to verify whether choice (a) is
true, since all you know is that products first
in their categories tend to have a marketing
advantage over those that come later.
Eliminate choice (b) as well, since it’s too
extreme, and cross out choice (c), since it
gives advice and thus goes beyond the scope
RAUSIAS-TS20E1061
of the passage. That leaves choice (d), which
has moderate enough language to make it
an acceptable inference.
Q.69) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
10 is the score for the first roll. 15 is the score
for the second roll. 9 is the score for the third
roll. 20 is the score for the fourth roll, 12 is
the score for the fifth roll.
Q.70) Answer: (d)
We go either swimming or dancing
Explanation:
The statement meant that none of the two
actions were to be done. Here options a and
c corroborate the given statement. Option b
is unrelated and out of scope by mentioning
the immune system. Only option d negates
the given statement.
Q.71) Answer: (d) 96
Explanation:
All teams but the champion team will lose a
game exactly once.
Q.72) Answer: (b) 240
Explanation:
Two marbles from 5 different marbles can
be selected in 5C2i.e. 10 ways.
Now, the boy has 4 different boxes. So,
number of ways is 10 × 4 i.e. 40.
Now, the remaining 3 marbles have to go in
3 different boxes which can go in 3 × 2 × 1
i.e. 6 ways.
So, the total no. of ways = 40 × 6 = 240 ways.
Q.73) Answer: (c) concretized
Explanation:
The passage clearly states “religion is love,
unfolding, expanding, and growing.” This
supports option (c).
15
Q.74) Answer: (a) 1 box
Explanation:
Take a piece of fruit from the box marked
"apples and oranges." Suppose the fruit you
take is an apple. Then that box must be the
box containing just apples. Therefore, the
box marked "oranges" can't be the box
containing just apples, and it can't be the
box containing just oranges either -- so it
must be the box containing apples and
oranges. The remaining box is therefore the
box containing just oranges.
If the fruit you take out is an orange, the
solution is derived in a similar fashion: the
box marked "apples and oranges" is the box
containing just oranges; the box marked
"apples" is the box containing both apples
and oranges; and the box marked "oranges"
is the one containing just apples.
Q.75) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Cigarettes/
Brand Packets Total
packet
Marlboro 3 10 30
Rothmans 2 12 24
We will consider the worst case scenario.
Since, Marco needs to pick one cigarette
from each packet hence the worst case will
be that Marco has picked all but have not
picked a single cigarette from the Dunhill
packet having least number of cigarettes i.e.
6. So, the worst case is that he has picked up
114 cigarettes but still one packet has not
been touched. So as soon as he picks up the
next cigarette he will be sure of having
picked at least one from each packet.
Q.76) Answer: (b)
Q.77) Answer: (d)
Q.78) Answer: (b)
Q.79) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
If light 1 is switched off then waiters A, B
and C cannot be signaled for sure. Now, if
light 3 is switched on then it can signal any
of the waiters, D or E.
Q.80) Answer: (d) 3

Camel 1 18 18 Explanation: In the worst case, the first two

socks you take out will consist of one black
Lucky 3 8 24
sock and one white sock. The next sock you
Strikes
take out is guaranteed to match one or the
Dunhill 4 6 24 other.
Total 120

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 16
 RAU’S IAS STUDY CIRCLE
OMR ANSWER SHEET Test Code:

GS BATCH : D D/MM/Y Y
Date :
INSTRUCTIONS FOR USING THE ANSWER SHEET
1. Use only BLACK ball pen on this sheet. USE BLACK BALL PEN Right Method
2. Use of PENCIL IS STRICTLY PROHIBITED. to darken Circles
3. Darken only one circle for each question. Darken completely & properly. 1.
4. Do not make any stray marks on the sheet. Rough work must not be done on
the answer sheet. Wrong Method
5. There may be more answer spaces than you need, if so leave than blank. to darken Circles
6. If your name is SACHIT A. IYER, then you should write your name in the
1.
space provided as follows : 2.
S A C H I T A I Y E R 3.

Name of the Candidate (as it appears in your I-CARD, in CAPITAL LETTERS)

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Enter
Your
SCAN
CODE

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 44 69 94
20 45 70 95
21 46 71 96
22 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100