The Passage Below Is Accompanied by A Set of Questions. Choose The Best Answer To Each Question

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
The task of creative work is to weave something new and wonderful out of the tattered threads of culture and convention.
On the enchanted loom of the mind, our memory and experience, our personal histories and cultural histories, interlace into
a particular pattern which only that particular mind can produce — such is the combinatorial nature of creativity. In describing
the machinery of his own mind, Albert Einstein called this interweaving “combinatory play.” It cannot be willed. It cannot be
rushed. It can only be welcomed — the work of creativity is the work of bearing witness to the weaving.
The inner workings of that unwillable loom, which we often call inspiration, is what Rainer Maria Rilke explores in a beautiful
passage from his only novel – The Notebooks of Malte Laurids Brigge, which also gave us Rilke on the essence of art.
Decades before pioneering psycholinguist Vera John-Steiner noted that “in the course of creative endeavors, artists and
scientists join fragments of knowledge into a new unity of understanding,” Rilke writes:
For the sake of a few lines one must see many cities, men and things. One must know the animals, one must feel how the
birds fly and know the gesture with which the small flowers open in the morning. One must be able to think back to roads in
unknown regions, to unexpected meetings and to partings which one has long seen coming; to days of childhood that are
still unexplained, to parents that one had to hurt when they brought one some joy and one did not grasp it; to childhood
illness that so strangely began with a number of profound and grave transformations, to days in rooms withdrawn and quiet
and to mornings by the sea, to the sea itself, to seas, to nights of travel that rushed along on high and flew with all the stars
— and it is not yet enough if one may think of all of this. One must have memories of many nights of love, none of which
was like the others, of the screams of women in labor, and of light, white, sleeping women in childbed, closing again. But one
must also have been beside the dying, one must have sat beside the dead in the room with the open window and the fitful
noises.
More than half a century before neurologist Oliver Sacks enumerated “forgetting” among the three essential elements of
creativity, Rilke adds:
And still it is not enough to have memories. One must be able to forget them when they are many, and one must have the
great patience to wait until they come again. For it is not yet the memories themselves. Not until they have turned to blood
within us, to glance, to gesture, nameless and no longer to be distinguished from ourselves — not until then can it happen
that in a most rare hour the first word of a verse arises in their midst and goes forth from them.
1)
The purpose of this passage is to:
show that Rilke was a thinker ahead of his

time.
explain the inner workings of the creative
process.
present Rilke’s views on creativity and highlight that Rilke expressed them decades before other prominent
thinkers.
list the combination of all elements essential in the course of creative
endeavors.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The passage starts with an explanation of the combinatorial nature of creativity. It then quotes Rilke on the inspirations
crucial for creative work and highlights the fact that his writings expressed these thoughts decades before similar
observations were noted by pioneering psycholinguist Vera John-Steiner. The author then states the importance of
“forgetting” as essential to creativity and compares Rilke’s writings, written more than half a century before, to those of
neurologist Oliver Sacks.
Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does give examples where the ideas about creativity expressed by Rilke were also
expressed by other prominent thinkers, decades later. But, we cannot conclude whether Rilke was ahead of his time i.e.
whether he was radical by the standards of his time. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The passage explains the inner workings of creativity through the writings of Rilke. This explanation of
the creative process is the central idea of the excerpts provided from Rilke’s novel, but it is not the purpose of writing the
passage. The author’s purpose is to present Rilke’s views on creativity.
Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does state some elements essential to creative work, but listing the combination of
elements is not the primary purpose of the passage.
Option 3 is correct. It correctly sums up the author’s purpose for writing the passage, which is, to present Rilke’s views on
the creativity and inspiration and to note that Rilke expressed these views decades before similar thoughts were expressed
by other thinkers.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
present Rilke’s views on creativity and highlight that Rilke expressed them decades before other prominent thinkers.
Time taken by you: 228 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 114 secs
Your Attempt: Wrong
% Students got it correct: 39 %
2)
According to Rilke, poetry reflects all of the following experiences of a poet EXCEPT:
Solitude and solitary

wanderings.
Travel to unfamiliar
places.
Death and bereavement.
The guilt of hurting one’s
parents.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The third paragraph describes Rilke’s summary of experiences that are reflected in poetry. He says, “For the sake of a few
lines one must see many cities, men and things. One must know the animals, one must feel how the birds fly and know the
gesture with which the small flowers open in the morning. One must be able to think back to roads in unknown regions, to
unexpected meetings and to partings which one has long seen coming;…” and so on.
Option 1 is incorrect. Rilke says that, one must be able to think back to days in rooms withdrawn and quiet and to mornings
by the sea, to the sea itself, to seas, to nights of travel that rushed along on high and flew with all the stars — and it is not
yet enough if one may think of all of this…” Thus, we can safely conclude that experiencing loneliness is one of the
important factors in the creative process. Thus, option 1 is not an exception. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 also states that “One must be able to think back to roads in unknown regions ...” implying
option 2. Hence, eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. In the same paragraph we also find that “But one must also have been beside the dying, one must
have sat beside the dead in the room with the open window and the fitful noises.” Thus, we can conclude that experiencing
death and bereavement are part of the experience that trigger creativity. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 2 states that “One must be able to think back [...] to parents that one had to hurt when they
brought one some joy and one did not grasp it ...” Thus, Rilke does not suggest or imply any guilt arising out of the hurt
caused to parents. He mentions it merely within the range of experiences reflected in poetry. Hence option 4 is an
exception and the answer to this question. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
The guilt of hurting one’s parents.

Your Attempt: Correct
3)
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
Inspiration is the accumulation of our experiences, memories and surroundings that unite unconsciously in a new work
of creativity.
Forgetting is the ability to revisit vast troves of memories so that they come in handy in a rare hour of writing inspiring
poetry.
Inspiration is a result of a poet’s complete mastery of the medium of
poetry.
Forgetting must be consciously
internalized.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 2 is incorrect. According to the last paragraph, “forgetting” does not mean retaining memories but it means
assimilating them in such a way that “they have turned to blood within us, … [they can] no longer be distinguished from
ourselves”. In essence, it means that one must not consciously revisit one’s memories while writing poetry. Thus, we can
eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant in the context of the passage. The passage does not mention whether
complete mastery of the medium of poetry will spark inspiration. Furthermore, the passage states that inspiration and
creativity are a combinatory play of many factors. Thus, inspiration cannot be a result of just complete mastery of the
medium of poetry. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The last paragraph which explains the role of memory and “forgetting” in inspiration does not say that
“forgetting’ is something that a poet can consciously cultivate. On the contrary, ‘forgetting’ according to the passage is an
assimilation of memory which conditions us unconsciously and makes us what we are. Eliminate option 4.
Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 1 states that “On the enchanted loom of the mind, our memory and experience, our personal
histories and cultural histories, interlace into a particular pattern which only that particular mind can produce — such is the
combinatorial nature of creativity ... It cannot be willed.” Option 1, thus, is the same idea expressed in different words.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
Inspiration is the accumulation of our experiences, memories and surroundings that unite unconsciously in a new work of
creativity.

4)
Which one of the following statements is true about inspiration?
It can be attained by travelling the world and meeting new

people.
It strikes when we seek experiences, memories and knowledge of different
cultures.
It may strike when it is least
expected.
It cannot be attained without knowing ourselves.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Though the entire passage is about inspiration and creativity, at the beginning of the passage, the writer explains the nature
of inspiration as something that “cannot be willed. It cannot be rushed. It can only be welcomed — the work of creativity is
the work of bearing witness to the weaving. The inner workings of that unwillable loom, which we often call inspiration is
what Rainer Maria Rilke explores in a beautiful passage from his only novel … which also gave us Rilke on the essence of
art.” From this point of view…
Option 1 is incorrect. Since inspiration is a combinatory play of the sum total of one’s life’s experiences a single factor of
travelling and meeting new people is not enough to get inspiration. We can eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Seeking experiences, memories and knowledge as the option states, similar to option 1, is still
another specific effort or pursuit. Inspiration is an unwillable combinatory play of all these and more. So eliminate option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant in the context of the passage. The passage does not state whether one needs
to know oneself to attain inspiration. Furthermore, knowing oneself may not be enough to get inspiration. Eliminate option
4.
Option 3 is correct. The 2nd paragraph calls inspiration “The inner workings of that unwillable loom,” Thus we can infer that
inspiration is unwillable, and that it strikes unconsciously and when it is least expected.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
It may strike when it is least expected.

Your Attempt: Wrong
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How the world uses energy is a hot topic for a warming planet, and fears of pollution and resource strain have produced a
virtual arms race of energy-efficiency strategies. From the European Union to China, economies are vowing to reduce their
energy intensity with the help of technological innovations and legislative changes. Yet, despite these promises, consumer
demand for energy is forecast by the International Energy Agency to rise until at least 2040. With the world’s energy needs
growing, how can policymakers guarantee supply?
To put it bluntly, the world has nothing to worry about when it comes to reserves. After 40 years of fearing energy shortages,
we have entered an era of abundance. We need to guard against false narratives, not scarce resources. The culprit of this
storyline is the Club of Rome, a global think-tank that, in the 1970s, spurred energy anxiety with its absurd prophecies
derived from questionable models. As devoted followers of Thomas Malthus and Paul Ehrlich, the club argued that bad
things come from exponential growth, and good things from linear growth. This idea fueled the prediction that the world
would run out of oil by 2020.
By adopting this nonsense dogma, developed countries enabled resource-rich authoritarian leaders like Muammar el-
Qaddafi in Libya, and Ayatollah Ruhollah Khomeini in Iran, to use their oil reserves as tools to oppose the West – and
particularly its support for Israel. This contributed to the oil shocks of the 1970s, and reinforced the erroneous perception
that hydrocarbon reserves were even more limited, and largely confined to the Middle East.
Rapid advances in technology, particularly in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places,
eventually upended such narratives. Today’s energy “crisis” stems not from shortages, but from anxiety over pollution. But
this anxiety has not slowed our exploration habits. On the contrary, politics and international law, like the United Nations
Convention on the Law of the Sea, have been adapted to enable discovery.
But perhaps the biggest technology-driven upheaval for global energy markets in recent years has come from shale gas and
shale oil production in the United States. At 8.8 million barrels per day, US oil production is now higher than that of Iraq and
Iran combined. Taken together, these developments have contributed to lower energy prices, and reduced the strength of
OPEC. Furthermore, because LNG is favored by the transport sector (particularly freight and maritime shippers) for
environmental reasons, the ability to use oil as a geopolitical weapon has disappeared. Iran was so desperate to ramp up its
oil exports that it agreed to abandon its nuclear program.
Wind and solar are often presented as alternatives to oil and gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for
electricity generation. If they could, there would be no reason for the EU to support renewable energy production through
legislation. Moreover, while wind and solar technologies generate electricity, the biggest energy demand comes from
heating. In the EU, for example, electricity represents only 22% of final energy demand, while heating and cooling
represents 45%; transportation accounts for the remaining 33%.
All of these factors help explain why fossil fuels, which currently meet more than 80% of the world’s energy needs, will
remain the backbone of global energy production for the foreseeable future. This may not come as welcome news to those
pushing for an immediate phase-out of hydrocarbons. But perhaps some solace can be gained from the fact that
technological innovation will also play a key role in reducing the negative impacts on air and water quality.
Amid the global conversation about climate change, it is understandable that developed economies would promise
significant gains in energy efficiency. But while the EU may be committed to reducing CO2 emissions, other signatories of
the 2015 Paris climate agreement do not seem as resolute. It would not be surprising if most of the signatories actually
raised their energy consumption in coming years, turning to fossil fuels because they cannot afford any other option.
Energy policy will remain on the agenda for advanced economies for many years to come. But as countries work to balance
security of supply with environmental goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight.
1)
Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do?
In view of the world’s growing energy needs, the passage cautions the energy policy makers about the impossibility of
ideals winning over facts.
Energy policy makers ought to take account of the fact that despite fears of shortages or threats from pollution, we have
entered an era of fossil fuel abundance that shows no sign of abating.
While vowing to reduce their energy intensity with the help of technological innovations, the energy policy makers must
realize the prevalence of wrong ideas.
Policy makers ought to realize that rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and the ability to extract
hydrocarbons in new places will soon deplete the world’s oil resources.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. The passage talks about how there is a misconception about the availability of resources and how this
affects policy-impact. It does not imply or suggest that policies prioritizing energy efficiency are idealistic. He believes they
are based on a misapprehension of facts. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is correct. In paragraph 2, the writer says: “To put it bluntly, the world has nothing to worry about when it comes to
reserves.” Thus, the writer’s intention in the passage is to clarify this fact and he later states that: “We need to guard
against false narratives, not scarce resources.” He goes on to discuss how wrong notions about energy scarcity have
triggered ineffective policies and ends by saying that “as countries work to balance security of supply with environmental
goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight”. Retain option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. It refers to the “prevalence of wrong ideas among policy makers” which is an unspecific remark that
does not focus on answering the question of what the passage intends to accomplish. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. It is both unspecific and misrepresentative of the passage. There is no “idealized agenda” that the
writer talks about. He refers instead to a misinformed policy. Reject option 4. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Energy policy makers ought to take account of the fact that despite fears of shortages or threats from pollution, we have
entered an era of fossil fuel abundance that shows no sign of abating.

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
What is the ‘false narrative’ that the author mentions in the second paragraph?
The narrative that after 40 years of shortages, we have entered an era of abundance in oil
reserves.
The prediction that the world would run out of oil by
2020.
The Malthusian doctrine that linear growth is preferable to exponential
growth.
The shifting of energy anxiety that stemmed from fear of shortages to anxiety over
pollution.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The second paragraph mentions that though the world’s energy needs are constantly on the rise, “the world has nothing to
worry about when it comes to reserves. We need to guard against false narratives, not scare resources.” In effect, the false
narratives are the ones propagating scarcity of oil reserves.
Option 1 is incorrect. The era of abundance in oil reserves is currently the reality, and not the false narrative. Eliminate
option 1.
Option 2 is correct. The scarcity of oil and the possibility of the world running out of oil reserves by 2020 are the false
narrative that writer is referring to. He also mentions that the prediction was fueled by the doctrines of Malthus and Paul
Ehrlich. Retain Option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Though the writer mentions Malthus and Paul Ehrlich, he does not comment on the general principle
of growth patterns, or the principle of these economists. The writer merely states that the scaremongering that the world
would run out of oil was fueled by Malthusian principles of growth. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The shifting of the energy anxiety from that of a possible scarcity of oil to that of pollution from fossil
fuels is something that happened out of a concern for the environment. The writer does not term it as a false narrative.
Eliminate option 4.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
The prediction that the world would run out of oil by 2020.

3)
All of the following are said to have reduced the dependence on oil, especially from any particular geopolitical area,
EXCEPT:
Technological improvements in exploration

methods
Extraction of hydrocarbons from new places around the
globe
The preference for LNG by the fuel
transporters
The discovery of energy efficient renewable energy
sources
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 states: “Rapid advances in technology, particularly in the field of exploration and the
ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places, eventually upended such narratives.” Thus technological improvements in
exploration methods did reduce the dependence on oil. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 mentions that technology enables extraction of hydrocarbons from new places around
the world. Therefore, reject option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 5 explicitly mentions that LNG is favoured by transporters and that this is another reason
why oil is no longer a geopolitical weapon. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is correct. The passage makes the point that fossil fuels will continue to be used precisely because renewable
energy sources are NOT energy efficient even if they are environment friendly. Paragraph 6 says about renewable energy
sources: “they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation. If they could, there would be no reason for
the EU to support renewable energy production through legislation”. Thus the discovery of energy efficient renewable
energy sources is NOT said to be a reason for the reduced dependence on oil. Retain option 4. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
The discovery of energy efficient renewable energy sources

4)
According to the writer, the dependence on fossil fuels for meeting world’s energy needs is unlikely to change in the near
future, for all these reasons EXCEPT:
A major part of the world’s energy need is for heating which is currently met by gas and
oil.
Wind and solar energy cannot compete with the traditional sources for electricity
generation.
Fossil fuels currently meet more than 80 percent of the world’s energy
needs.
The legislation in European Union to support renewable energy production is unlikely to
succeed.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. It is not an exception. The sixth paragraph states that “Wind and solar are often presented as
alternatives to oil and gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation. … Moreover, while
wind and solar technologies generate electricity, the biggest energy demand comes from heating. In the EU, for example,
electricity represents only 22% of final energy demand, whileheating and cooling represents 45%; transportation accounts
for the remaining 33%.” If the biggest demand for energy comes from heating and if wind and solar technology can produce
only electricity – the implication is that the demand for heating is met by gas and oil or fossil fuels. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. It is stated verbatim in paragraph 6 that “Wind and solar are often presented as alternatives to oil and
gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation.” Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, option 3 also is an almost verbatim repetition of paragraph 7 which begins, “All of
these factors help explain why fossil fuels, which currently meet more than 80% of the world’s energy needs, will remain the
backbone of global energy production for the foreseeable future.” Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is correct. The legislation in European Union mean to support the production of renewable energy is cited as an
example of the dependence on fossil fuels. However, option 4 says it is unlikely to succeed. No such inference is possible
from the passage. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
The legislation in European Union to support renewable energy production is unlikely to succeed.

5)
It can be inferred from the passage that one of the fallouts of the unfounded fears about scarce oil reserves is that …
authoritarian leaders could not use oil as a geopolitical

weapon.
oil rich countries could oppose the west in its support to
Israel.
the US started producing more oil than Iran and Iraq
combined.
led to rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new
places.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The first three paragraphs of the passage are about the increasing consumer demand for energy, and how the fear of
running out of fuel sources has shaped geopolitics. The writer also states that the oil shock of the 1970s spurred energy
anxiety and it became widely accepted that the planet’s oil reserves would run out by the year 2000. This energy anxiety
gave the Middle East, which is rich in oil reserves, unprecedented bargaining power politically, because of their oil.
It may be worthwhile for you to know what the passage is referring to as the oil shock of the 1970s. During the 1973 Arab-
Israeli War, Arab members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)imposed an embargo against the
United States, in retaliation to the U.S support to the Israeli military. Arab OPEC members had also extended the embargo
to other countries that supported Israel. The embargo both banned petroleum exports to the targeted nations and
introduced cuts in oil production to create an artificial scarcity. This is known as the oil shock.
From this point of view:
Option 1 is incorrect. In fact authoritarian leaders used oil as a geopolitical weapon, and the passage mentions Muammar
el-Qaddafi in Libya, and Ayatollah Khomeini in Iran who had used their oil reserves as tools to oppose the West. Eliminate
Option 1.
Option 2 is correct. The scaremongering in the 1970s about the exhaustibility of the oil reserves gave immense economic
and political power to the oil rich countries. Hence the Middle East, rich in oil reserves could use their clout against the west
which was heavily dependent on the Middle East for their energy needs. The passage cites the examples of Libya and Iran
who could afford to oppose the more powerful West in its support to Israel because of this. Retain Option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Currently option 3 is factually correct. The passage also mentions that the US now produces more oil
than Iran and Iraq combined. However, it is not implied as fallout of the scarcity but attributed to technological advances
and intensive exploration. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and extraction of oil are not attributed
directly to the unfounded fears of scarce oil reserves. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
oil rich countries could oppose the west in its support to Israel.

6)
“How the world uses energy is a hot topic for a warming planet…” The first sentence of the passage serves which of the
following purposes in the essay?
It leads the reader to a better understanding of the “hot topic” of energy misuse and the warming of the
planet.
It captures the writer’s thesis that while potential shortages and threats from pollution form the energy narrative, the
demand for fossil fuels shows no sign of abating.
It introduces the reader to the ideas about to be presented in the passage that have to do with effective use of
energy.
It makes a sarcastic stress on the “hot topic” which, as the passage later reveals, is not deserving of the urgency it has
received.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. The question asks us to identify the reason for a particular choice of words. The answer lies in the
broad intent of the passage – its main idea. But energy misuse is not the subject of the passage. Rather, the passage talks
about the misinformation surrounding energy sources. Therefore, reject option 1.
Option 2 is correct. The author goes on to argue in the passage that while there is good cause for environmental pollution
from fossil fuels, the fear of a scarcity of fossil fuels is unfounded. This is the main idea of the passage. Refer the last
paragraph – “Energy policy will remain on the agenda for advanced economies for many years to come. But as countries
work to balance security of supply with environmental goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight.” The
writer thus points out how the hot topic or the energy narrative is centered around the fear of shortage or pollution, they
need to understand that the world cannot and will not do away with fossil fuels in the near future. Retain option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not deal with the subject of the effective use of energy but with the misinformation
about energy. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The passage is serious and based on scholarship and sound reasoning. It is factual and persuasive.
Option 4 mentions sarcasm which is not correct. Reject option 4.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
It captures the writer’s thesis that while potential shortages and threats from pollution form the energy narrative, the
demand for fossil fuels shows no sign of abating.

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Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Time taken by you: xx secs
Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs
Your Attempt: xx secs
% Students got it correct: xx secs
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Traditionally, countries’ global political power was assessed according to military might: the one with the largest army had
the most power. But that logic was not always reflected in reality. The US lost the Vietnam War; the Soviet Union was
defeated in Afghanistan. In its first few years in Iraq, the US discovered the wisdom of Talleyrand’s adage that the one thing
you cannot do with a bayonet is sit on it.
Enter soft power. The term was coined by Harvard’s Joseph S. Nye in 1990 to account for the influence a country – and, in
particular, the US – wields, beyond its military (or “hard”) power. As Nye put it, a country’s power rests on its “ability to alter
the behavior of others” to get what it wants, whether through coercion (sticks), payments (carrots), or attraction (soft power).
“If you are able to attract others,” he pointed out, “you can economize on the sticks and carrots.”
Nye argues that a country’s soft power arises from “its culture (in places where it is attractive to others), its political values
(when it lives up to them at home and abroad), and its foreign policies (when they are seen as legitimate and having moral
authority.)” But I believe that it also emerges from the world’s perceptions of what a country is about: the associations and
attitudes conjured by the mention of a country’s name. Hard power is exercised; soft power is evoked.
The US has been the world’s largest economy and oldest democracy, a haven for immigrants, and the land of the American
Dream – the promise that anyone can be anything if they work hard enough. It is also the home of Boeing and Intel, Google
and Apple, Microsoft and MTV, Hollywood and Disneyland, McDonald’s and Starbucks. The attractiveness of these assets,
and of the American lifestyle that they represent, is that they enable the US to persuade, rather than compel, others to adopt
its agenda. In this sense, soft power acts as both an alternative and a complement to hard power.
But there are limits to a country’s soft power – even America’s. In the wake of the US terrorist attacks of September 11,
2001, there was an outpouring of goodwill for the US. Then the country launched its War on Terror, in which it relied heavily
on hard power. The instruments of that power – the Iraq invasion, indefinite detention of “enemy combatants” and other
suspects at Guantánamo Bay prison, the Abu Ghraib scandal, and revelations of CIA “black sites,” the killing of Iraqi civilians
by private US security contractors – were not received well by the global public. America’s soft power declined sharply,
demonstrating that how a country exercises its hard power affects how much soft power it can evoke.
America’s domestic narrative soon overcame its foreign-policy setbacks, thanks partly to today’s unprecedented
connectivity. In a world of instant mass communications, countries are judged by a global public fed on a diet of relentless
online news, smartphone videos, and Twitter gossip.
In such an information age, Nye wrote, three types of countries are likely to gain soft power: “those whose dominant cultures
and ideals are closer to prevailing global norms (which now emphasize liberalism, pluralism, autonomy); those with the most
access to multiple channels of communication and thus more influence over how issues are framed; and those whose
credibility is enhanced by their domestic and international performance.” Nye has argued that, in an information age, soft
power often accrues to the country with the better story. The US has long been the “land of the better story.” It has a free
press and an open society; it welcomes migrants and refugees; it has a thirst for new ideas and a knack for innovation. All of
this has given the US an extraordinary ability to tell stories that are more persuasive and attractive than those of its rivals.
However, Trump’s ascent to power has shattered America’s image.
1)
“The one thing you cannot do with a bayonet is sit on it” – which of the following is the most likely explanation of these words
in the context of the passage?
A country with military-might must not remain idle without employing its power in some
way.
Military-might is useful to win a war but is not the correct assessment of a
country.
Military-might ultimately leads to a country’s
downfall.
A large military can be defeated by small but well-organized military
forces.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The context has to be well understood for choosing the correct answer. Briefly, the first two paragraphs state that
traditionally the global power of a country is assessed using its military power. However the US lost to Vietnam, and the
Soviet Union was defeated n Afghanistan – implying large armies were defeated by very small ones. The next example is of
Iraq where the US discovered the wisdom in the words – “Enter soft power.” Then the second paragraph explains the
meaning and implications of soft power. The words are used to introduce the concept of soft power. Hence the most likely
implication in the context is option 2.
Option 1 is incorrect – there is no implication of not remaining idle and having to continue using military might all the time.
Option 3 is incorrect – ‘downfall’ of a military power is different from losing a war. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect – organization of the armies is irrelevant. There is no suggestion that large armies are not well
organized or that small armies are. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Military-might is useful to win a war but is not the correct assessment of a country.

Your Attempt: Skipped
2)
According to Joseph S Nye, all these are examples of soft power EXCEPT:
The ability to alter the behavior of
others.
The ability to achieve what a country wants through
inducements.
The ability to use the military and influence the behaviour of
others.
The use of the military to win
wars.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The term soft power is explained in the second paragraph: “Enter soft power. The term was coined by Harvard’s Joseph S.
Nye in 1990 to account for the influence a country – and, in particular, the US – wields, beyond its military power. Nye
explained that a country’s power rested on its “ability to alter the behavior of others” to get what it wants, whether through
coercion, payments, or attraction (soft power).
Hence options 1 and 2 are part of Nye’s explanation of soft-power. Eliminate Options 1 and 2.
Between options 3 and 4, option 3 states that the ability to use the military to influence others (without war) is implicitly a
part of soft power, but option 4 states that it is also the ability to win wars. Since soft power, according to Nye, is “beyond
military power,” wars cannot be part of soft power.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
The use of the military to win wars.

3)
All the following have contributed to America’s soft power in the world EXCEPT:
The American
Dream.
American
conglomerate.
American foreign
policy.
The American war on terror.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
In the third and the fourth paragraphs, the writer explains how America was able to ‘evoke soft power’ through its culture,
foreign policy, its promise of the American Dream – “that anyone can be anything if they work hard enough,” and its
business houses like, Boeing, Intel, Google, Apple etc… And in this sense, “its soft power acts as both an alternative and a
complement to hard power”. In the next paragraph, the writer talks about the launch of America’s war on terror which relied
heavily on hard power or the military; and as a consequence of the abuses and excesses, the ‘soft power of the US
declined’ sharply.”
Thus options 1, 2 and 3 – the American Dream, its businesses (the American conglomerate) and its foreign policy have all
contributed to the soft power of America. This eliminates options 1, 2, and 3.
Though the presence of a large military can evoke power, war itself is not a part of soft-power. Hence America’s war on
terror is the exception. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
The American war on terror.

4)
According the passage, the decline of US soft power can be attributed to which of the following?
Its heavy dependence on hard power when it launched its war on terror in the wake of the terrorist attacks of
September 2011.
The invasion of Iraq and the misuse of the instruments of hard
power.
Trump’s ascent to
power.
All of the
above.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The decline of America’s soft power is explained in the last three paragraphs of the passage. It began with the American
response to the September 2011 terror attacks. Immediately after the attacks, there was an outpouring of goodwill for the
US. However, the excessive use of its military might to mishandle the instruments that such power afforded - excesses
were committed with Prisoners of war and Iraqi civilians were killed by private US security contractors - caused its soft
power to decline drastically. The domestic narrative overtook foreign policy setbacks; the American story of liberalism,
pluralism, and autonomy were undermined. The last paragraph then mentions the ascent of Trump to presidency as
another factor that shattered America’s image. America’s image is also crucial to its soft power.
Thus options 1, 2, and 3 are all reasons mentioned in the passage.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
All of the above.

5)
According to Joseph S Nye, in a world of instant mass communication which of the following helps a country to gain soft
power?
I. Its adherence to globally emphasized norms of liberalism, pluralism, autonomy.
II. Its access to multiple channels of communication and credible domestic and international performance.
III. Its propaganda machine that promotes a better story about itself.
All of I, II and
III
I and II
II and
III
III
only
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
In the last paragraph, the author describes Nye’s view on how ‘in such an information age, three types of countries are
likely to gain soft power: “those whose dominant cultures and ideals are closer to prevailing global norms (which now
emphasize liberalism, pluralism, autonomy); those with the most access to multiple channels of communication and thus
more influence over how issues are framed; and those whose credibility is enhanced by their domestic and international
performance.” Hence statements I and II are supported by the passage. Mere propaganda to promote itself by “better story
about itself” is incorrect – as the soft power depends on access to channels of communication and not propaganda
machine.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
I and II

6)
In the context of the passage, which of the following is likely to be a “country with a better story”?
A
Utopia
A country without borders – akin to the global
village.
A liberal democratic society and
economy.
A welfare state with military
might.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The answer to this question can be derived from the last paragraph of the passage. “Nye has argued that, in an information
age, soft power often accrues to the country with the better story. The US has long been the “land of the better story.” It
has a free press and an open society; it welcomes migrants and refugees; it has a thirst for new ideas and a knack for
innovation.
The ‘better story’ is vaguely partly explained by what the US was, perhaps until recently, with free press and open society,
open to immigrants etc.
Option 1 is incorrect – A utopia is an idea and does not exist in reality. We can eliminate this option because the passage
is not about what is ideal and does not exist – it is about realpolitik and soft power.
Option 2 is incorrect for the same reason. Nowhere does the passage suggest that a country can be or has to be without
borders, for trade or other purposes.
Option 3 is correct. Among other things that may be required to be a “better story”, if a country has to have an open society
that encourages new ideas and innovation it has to be a liberal democratic economy.
Option 4 is incorrect, as military might, though relevant to what the writer has written about soft power earlier in the
passage, does not relate to what is a “better story”. We can eliminate option 4.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
A liberal democratic society and economy.

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Whether the art of writing was introduced into India from outside, or whether it was an indigenous development, is still a
moot point. But clearly many ideas and influences had penetrated the Indian subcontinent from the north-west. Throughout
history the north-west frontier had been more often wide open than not. While the Bactrian, Saka and Kushan empires had
actually straddled the Khyber pass, the constant spate of conquests had systematically eroded cultural barriers and washed
down onto the Indian plains a rich topsoil of Persian and Mediterranean skills and ideals.
The most obvious example was in coins. At the time of the Mauryas (third century BC), Indian coinage was still the
unadorned lumps of metal marked with a simple punch that had been in circulation from the earliest times. But the idea of a
minted coinage, incorporating a design or portrait and a legend, dates only from the time of these invasions. The evolution
of a specifically Indian coinage is clearly marked in the coins of western India, where markedly Indian profiles start to appear
about the second century AD. By the fourth century, the distinctive gold coinage of the Guptas was in circulation throughout
north India.
In literature, it has been suggested that Sanskrit drama owed something to Greek influence; Indian playwrights like Kalidasa
may have inherited some of the conventions of Greek comedy as performed at the Bactrian court in the Punjab.
In architecture there is a more obvious connection. The temple of Jandial at Taxila in Pakistan has Ionic columns and a lay-
out not unlike that of the Parthenon on a reduced scale. It could hardly look less Indian and indeed it is not Indian; built by
Parthian invaders at the beginning of the first century AD, it was probably used by fire-worshipping devotees of the Persian
god Zoroaster. But the significant point is that this temple is the earliest structural, as opposed to rock-cut, temple on Indian
soil. So did the ancient peoples of India learn about architecture from the invaders? The answer is certainly no. They had
been building on a grand scale in wood and brick for centuries. Megasthenes’ description of the gigantic royal palace at
Pataliputra is in itself enough to prove the point. But Hellenistic buildings like Jandial did have some impact. In the
Himalayan valley of Kashmir the foreign style caught on and produced a distinctive and enduring school of building which
employed classical pillars, trefoil arches and triangular pediments.
However, it was in the working of stone and in sculpture that foreign skills really made their mark on India. Craftsmen and
masons seem to have moved about the ancient world more freely even than ambassadors. The Ashoka pillars with their
bell-shaped capitals bear a striking resemblance to the pillars of Persepolis, the ancient Achaemenid capital of Persia. The
highly developed modelling shown in the lion capitals found at Sarnath and Sanchi suggest an already well-developed style
which must mean that Ashoka borrowed both the idea of the pillars, and the masons to carve them, from Persia.
1)
The central point in the first paragraph is that:
Historically, many foreign cultural influences entered India from the north-
west.
It is not clear whether writing entered India from outside, but many other ideas and influences
did.
In the north-west of India, constant conquests tore down the empires that existed around the Khyber
pass.
Constant conquests from the north-west resulted in ancient India being unable to develop culturally on its
own.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option [1] is correct. This is the point made in the second sentence of theparagraph – ‘many ideas and influences had
penetrated the Indian subcontinent from the north-west’ – and then elaborated upon in the rest of the paragraph. Retain
option [1].
Option [2] is not a comprehensive answer. It focuses unduly on the first sentence of the paragraph, which is the only one
that discusses writing, and ignores important points made in the rest of the paragraph, such as the direction of the entry of
the foreign influences. So option [2] can be ruled out.
Option [3] is incorrect as well. There is no suggestion in the passage that the constant conquests ‘tore down’ the empires
around the Khyber pass, just that these conquests influenced India culturally. Option [3] is thus rejected.
Option [4] makes a judgement about India being ‘unable to develop culturally’, that is not warranted. The paragraph only
talks about foreign cultural influences on ancient India – it does not suggest that India was ‘unable to develop culturally on
its own’. So option [4] is also eliminated.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
Historically, many foreign cultural influences entered India from the north- west.

2)
What, according to the author, is noteworthy about the temple of Jandial?
It was built by Parthian invaders around two millennia

ago.
It was used by the fire-worshipping devotees of the Persian god
Zoroaster.
It is the earliest temple on Indian soil that was built rather than carved from
rock.
It is the earliest example of a typically Indian style of
architecture.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option [1] is incorrect. While it is factually true that the temple of Jandial was builtby Parthian invaders around two millennia
ago, the author does not claim that this point is particularly noteworthy. So option [1] is eliminated.
Option [2] can be ruled out on the same grounds as option [1] – it is correct but not noteworthy, according to the writer.
Option [3] is correct. Refer to paragraph 4: ‘But the significant point is that this temple is the earliest structural, as opposed
to rock-cut, temple on Indian soil.’ Retain option [3].
Option [4] is incorrect. According to the author, the temple of Jandial ‘could hardly look less Indian’, so it cannot be
considered to be of a typically Indian style. So option [4] is rejected.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
It is the earliest temple on Indian soil that was built rather than carved from rock.


3)
The passage answers all the following questions EXCEPT..

When did distinctly Indian coinage arise in ancient
India?
Did the Hellenistic style of building have any impact on

India?
What was the reason for the well-developed style of the Ashoka
pillars?
Was the art of writing an indigenous development in
India?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option [1] is not the answer, as it is a question that is clearly answered in paragraph 2 – distinctly Indian coinage arose in
the second century AD in ancient India. So option [1] can be ruled out.
Option [2] is not the answer either, as it is answered in paragraph 4 – the Hellenistic style of building caught on in Kashmir
and produced a distinctive style of architecture. Thus option [2] is also eliminated.
Option [3] is not the answer as well, as it is answered in the last paragraph – the reason for the well-developed style of the
Ashoka pillars is that Ashoka borrowed the idea for them, as well as the masons to carve them, from Persia. So option [3]
can be rejected as well.
Option [4] is the right answer, as it is a question that is not answered in the passage. The first sentence of the passage says
that ‘Whether the art of writing was introduced into India from outside, or whether it was an indigenous development, is still
a moot point.’ After that, this topic is not brought up again, so the question remains unanswered. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
Was the art of writing an indigenous development in India?

4)
What is the central idea of the passage?
The effect of foreign invasions on ancient

India
Foreign influence on ancient Indian art and culture
Indian art and architecture in ancient
times
The similarity between ancient Indian and foreign
art
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option [1] is too general. The focus of the passage is not on all the effects of foreign invasions on ancient India, but
specifically on the effect on Indian art and culture. So option [1] can be eliminated.
Option [2] is correct. The passage discusses the numerous foreign influences on ancient Indian art and culture – in the
realms of coinage, literature, architecture, masonry and sculpture. Retain option [1].
Option [3] is a partial answer. It fails to mention the fact that the passage doesn’t just discuss Indian art and architecture in
ancient times, but rather foreign influences on the same. So option [3] can be rejected.
Option [4] is incorrect. The passage does not focus at any length on similarities between ancient Indian and foreign art, and
when it does mention such similarities, it does so in order to point out foreign influences on Indian art. So option [4] can be
ruled out.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Foreign influence on ancient Indian art and culture

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage.
Regularly drinking above the UK alcohol guidelines can take years off your life, according to a major report. The study of
600,000 drinkers estimated that having 10 to 15 alcoholic drinks every week could shorten a person's life by between one
and two years. And they warned that people who drink more than 18 drinks a week could lose four to five years of their
lives. Scientists, who compared the health and drinking habits of alcohol drinkers in 19 countries, found people who drank
the equivalent of about five to 10 drinks a week could shorten their lives by up to six months. Recommended limits in Italy,
Portugal, and Spain are almost 50% higher than the UK guidelines, and in the USA the upper limit for men is nearly double
this.
Which of the following can be validly concluded from the above?
Mortality rate due to consumption of alcohol in UK is likely to be lower than that in the US, Italy, Portugal, and
Spain.
Light drinkers, or drinkers who consume alcohol less than the recommended limits lower the risk of several
cardiovascular conditions.
If you already drink alcohol, drinking less may help you live
longer.
There are no health benefits from drinking alcohol even below the recommended
limits.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
A conclusion is completely and conclusively supported by the passage. The data in the passage can be summarized this
way: A study concludes that drinking alcohol above quantities recommended levels progressively reduces one’s longevity.
The recommended levels in the US, Italy, Portugal, and Spain are greater than those of UK.
Option 1 is incorrect. Though the mortality rate due to consumption of alcohol being higher in countries where recommended
levels are higher than those of UK is expressed as a possibility, there is no data about how much people in these countries
drink. Hence the possibility expressed in option 1 cannot be evaluated. It is at best data inadequate, hence not a valid
conclusion. Eliminate the option.
Option 2 is incorrect. Though it may be correct by common sense standards that light drinkers may lower their risk of heart
ailments, there is no information in the passage to come to this conclusion. Hence eliminate option 2.
Option 4 is also data inadequate. The paragraph gives us no information to evaluate the health benefits of alcohol
consumed below recommended levels.
Option 3 is correct. That drinkers may improve their longevity if they reduce their intake is a conclusion, because the
passage says that the more one drinks, the more is the risk of reduced longevity. The option states this as a possibility and
accounts for other causes of reduced longevity as well. Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
If you already drink alcohol, drinking less may help you live longer.

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After achieving dramatic gains against hunger and famine, the world runs the risk of backsliding, owing to poorly considered
choices. But if we accept the claim that climate change is to blame for a recent uptick in global hunger and malnutrition, we
also risk embracing the costliest and least effective solutions.
The argument assumes that:
Recent uptick in global hunger and malnutrition is attributable to climate

change.
Climate policies divert resources from measures that directly reduce
hunger.
Any realistic effort to combat climate change will be incredibly expensive and have virtually no impact on
climate.
Very well-intentioned policies to combat global warming could very well exacerbate hunger and
malnutrition.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
The argument can be simplified this way: poor policies (the passage says ‘poorly considered choices’) have increased the
amount of hunger and malnutrition in the world. The increase is sometimes attributed to climate change. The conclusion is
that if we accept that climate change is the reason for the increase, we will be accepting the costliest and least effective
solutions to the problem of hunger and malnutrition. One of the assumptions is that the efforts to combat climate change are
going to be expensive, and at the same time, least effective in dealing with either climate change or, consequently, hunger
and malnutrition. This idea is expressed in option 3. Hence Option 3 is the answer.
Option 1 is incorrect. In fact, the argument assumes the opposite of what is stated in option 1, that the uptick in hunger and
malnutrition is NOT attributable to climate change. The argument states, “If we accept the claim that climate change is to
blame...” implies that climate change as the cause is tentative. Hence eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. It is true, that the argument assumes that there are other measures to directly reduce hunger and
malnutrition. Those measures are also assumed to be cheaper and more effective. However, whether or not resources are
diverted from these measures is not assumed in the argument. Eliminate option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. The argument states that there is an increase in global hunger and malnutrition. The argument
assumes that there is a tendency to link the increase to “poor choices.” One of the poor choices implicitly arises from the
belief that the increase is attributable to climate change. However, the policies meant to address climate change will
increase or exacerbate global hunger and malnutrition is not implied in the argument. So eliminate option 4. Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
Any realistic effort to combat climate change will be incredibly expensive and have virtually no impact on climate.

Your Attempt: Wrong
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In order to avoid chances of drug addicts getting affected by HIV, National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) would start
with oral substitution therapy (OST). Besides, addicts would be motivated to shed use of syringes. Health employees are
already being trained in this connection. Under this programme, oral medicines would be given to all drug users to help them
kick the habit. This would also help in reducing the risk of HIV transmission from one intravenous drug user to another.
Which of the following, if true, would make OST successful in reducing the risk of HIV among drug addicts?
Drug addicts are globally marginalized and have high rates of HIV
infection.
Over 75% of HIV infected drug addicts are used to the sharing of
needles.
OST is recommended by the World Health Organization for people who inject drugs after diagnosis with HIV
infection.
Providing Oral Substitution Therapy (OST) alongside other therapies to people who inject drugs results in a significantly
greater reduction in deaths.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
This is a “strengthen the argument” question. Simplified, the argument is about Oral Substitution Therapy (or OST), which
means administering drugs/medicines orally, to reduce the risk of AIDS among drug addicts. The passage also says that
HIV transmission among drug addicts occurs from one intravenous drug user to another. Intravenous means entering the
body by way of veins or injection. The assumption in the argument is that HIV spreads through needles – either shared or
otherwise.
The option that strengthens the argument will establish this relationship between the needles and HIV or support that OST is
effective in countering the spread of AIDS.
Option 2 states that 75 per cent of HIV infected drug addicts are used to sharing the needles. This establishes a clear cause
effect relationship between HIV and the needles. Thus doing away with the needle will clearly eliminate the cause of HIV
infection. Hence option 2 sufficiently answers the question and is the correct answer to this question.
Option 1 is incorrect. Option 1 does not address the relationship between OST or needles and HIV. Eliminate option 1.
Option 3 is incorrect. The recommendation of WHO does not explain the reason for the withdrawal of the needles, and for
the introduction of OST. These are assumptions in the recommendation. We can eliminate option 3 as inadequate
response.
Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 is beside the point. The argument is not related to deaths. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Over 75% of HIV infected drug addicts are used to the sharing of needles.

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A law to completely ban plastic bags has come into force in Maharashtra. The aim is to reduce the choking of drains due to
plastic waste, during rainy season and thereby prevent flooding. The government is determined to implement the ban by
imposing penalties on users and manufacturers of plastic bags. This will ensure that the ban will achieve its objective.
Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s conclusion?
A blanket ban on plastic bags of all sizes and thickness will make it easier to
implement.
Maharashtra had banned bags below 50 microns after the Mumbai floods of 2005, but that did not lead to prevention of
flooding.
The ban does not cover multi-laminated packaging, which is plastic lined with foil, which is most widely in use and the
greatest in terms of volume of waste.
The government has failed to set-up proper systems to ensure the collection, segregation and disposal of the existing
stockpile of plastic bags.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
The author’s conclusion is that imposing penalties will ensure that ban will achieve its objective, which is to reduce the
choking of drains and thereby prevent flooding.
Option 1 is incorrect. Ease of implementation will help the government to enforce the ban and achieve its objective. Thus
this option strengthens the author’s argument that the government will be able to implement the ban and will achieve its
objective. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Whether an earlier ban on bags below 50 microns prevented flooding or not is irrelevant to the author’s
conclusion. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is correct. If multi-laminated packaging is most widely used and has the greatest volume of plastic waste generated
but is not banned, then the government will fail to achieve its objective of reducing choking of drains and thereby prevent
flooding. The plastic waste generated by multi-laminated packaging will still choke the drains and cause flooding. Thus,
option 3 weakens the author’s conclusion. Retain option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. Neither the question stem nor the passage specifies the amount or volume of existing stockpile of
plastic bags. Even if the existing stockpile of plastic bags is not properly disposed, it is possible that it is not enough to choke
the drainage system. Thus, this option does not provide enough information to weaken the author’s conclusion. Eliminate
option 4.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
The ban does not cover multi-laminated packaging, which is plastic lined with foil, which is most widely in use and the
greatest in terms of volume of waste.

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The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's
position. Enter your answer in the space provided using the keypad.
An idea comes to some minds as an intuition, to many in the form of faith or imitation, or a convenient corroboration of a
bias. An idea always arrives as a realization, spreads as a belief. The arrival of an idea is a religious moment. But its
legitimacy is proved in public and private through the fabrication of rational substantiation. An argument then is reverse
engineering of a religious moment. Is debate then as intellectually robust and pure as we are trained to assume? In the
hierarchy of intellectual activities, this method of transmission of an idea is unfortunately more respected than the very force
that creates ideas—intuition.
1. The religious moment in which ideas arise in some minds spread later as beliefs and unfortunately become more
respected.
2. Ideas arise to some minds as a religious realization of their faith or biases. Debates try to reverse- engineer the faith and
are unfortunately more respected.
3. Realization happens as a result of the corroboration of a faith or bias. Debates are the unfortunate reverse engineering of
realizations arising out of intuition.
4. An idea that comes to some minds as intuition is rationalized to reverse engineer the intuition; this is unfortunate as it
ignores the intuition that creates ideas.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. It is ambiguous. “The religious moment in which ideas arise in some minds spread later as beliefs and
unfortunately become more respected,” means that the idea itself is ‘unfortunately more respected.’ This is contrary to the
passage which says that the debate (not the idea itself) unfortunately, becomes more respected. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The option says the debate tries to reverse engineer the faith. This is a misrepresentation. The debate
does not try to reverse engineer the faith but the religious moment of realization or the rise of idea through intuition.
Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. That realisation happens as a result of the corroboration of a faith or bias, is incorrect. Realisation
happens in a religious moment as an intuition. The realisation, in many minds, reinforces the faith or bias that they hold. So
they do not happen as a result of the faith or bias. The passage explains the relation between the faith and realisation – it
does not establish a cause effect relationship. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is correct. The main points in the passage are represented in option 4 without ambiguity or distortion.
Hence, 4.
Correct Answer:

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The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's
position. Enter your answer in the space provided using the keypad.
Although the category of popular music presupposes differences from serious music, there is limited consensus about the
nature of these differences beyond the near-tautology that most people prefer popular music to art music. This obvious
disparity in popular reception generates philosophical (and not merely sociological) issues when it is combined with the
plausible assumption that popular music is aesthetically different from folk music, art music, and other music types. There is
general agreement about the concept’s extension or scope of reference – agreement that the Beatles made popular music
but Igor Stravinsky did not. However, there is no comparable agreement about what “popular music” means or which
features of the music are distinctively popular.
1. The assumption that popular music is aesthetically different from art music generates philosophical and sociological
issues about which there is no consensus except about the extent of reference.
2. There appears to be no difference between popular music and serious music aesthetically except for a broad consensus
that Beatles made popular music but Igor Stravinsky did not.
3. Although popular music presupposes differences from serious music, there is limited consensus about their aesthetic
differences beyond the near-tautology that most people prefer popular music to serious music.
4. Popular music presupposes differences from serious music; however, the assumption that they are aesthetically different
raises philosophical and sociological issues about their distinctive features.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. It incorrectly states that theassumption of difference raises philosophical and sociological issues, whereas
the paragraph says that the popular reception generates social and philosophical issues – which only means that the popularity may
be studied from the point of view of sociology and philosophy. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. That there appears to be no difference between popular music and serious music is not stated in the
passage. The passage leaves it open. The passage merely states that there is no consensus, and not that there is no
difference. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is correct. It captures the important points without any distortion. Retain option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. It is a misrepresentation similar to option 1. The assumption does not raise sociological or
philosophical issues but only the popular reception does. Also, these issues are unrelated to their distinctive features if any.
Eliminate option 4.
Hence, 3.
Correct Answer:

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The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this
sequence of five numbers as your answer.
1. But it also had an older association with philosophy, going back to Plato, for whom light is knowledge of the true, which we
acquire as we leave the caves whose walls of prejudice and ignorance have obscured our vision.
2. Or rather, the English term ‘enlightenment’ is itself a translation, coined in the late 19th century, of two distinct terms, both
in use in the 18th century: the French lumières and the German Aufklärung.
3. ‘Enlightenment’ has had many translations.
4. Light then carried a strong religious connotation: Christ was the light of the world, a light that we let into our souls.
5. The two have in common the idea of ‘light’; the French noun, however, is in the plural, while the German one indicates
less a light shining than a process of enlightenment.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams397045DA5534F039ytdqvxdR9K+XS+MJedH9rzIEcsnSRqVEDpGG9d8Jiix9lgKmZu0xiF7Cs6HHKNLPcAwaU70vAos=
Explanation:
The only standalone sentence is 3, so we can take it to be the first sentence. The idea of translations of the word
‘enlightenment’ connects sentence 3 to sentence 2. The ‘two’ mentioned in sentence 5 can only refer to the two translations
of the word ‘enlightenment’ mentioned in sentence 2, so we get a 2-5 link. The remaining two sentences – 4 and 1 – together
form a conclusion to the paragraph, by mentioning past connotations of the idea of light (as mentioned in 5), with 4
describing a Christian view and 1 describing an older, Platonic view. Hence, we get the sequence 32541.
Correct Answer:
32541

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1. The atmosphere is almost entirely made of carbon dioxide, and the atmospheric pressure is only 1 percent that of the
Earth, so an astronaut would suffocate within a few minutes if exposed to the thin Martian air and his blood would begin to
boil.
2. For one, there are the fierce dust storms, which engulf the planet with a fine red dust that resembles talcum powder and
almost tipped over the spacecraft in the movie.
3. The movie was realistic enough to give the public a taste of the difficulties Martian colonists would encounter.
4. In the 2015 movie The Martian, the astronaut played by Matt Damon faces the ultimate challenge: to survive alone on a
frozen, desolate, airless planet.
5. To produce enough oxygen to breathe, Matt Damon has to create a chemical reaction in his pressurized space station.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams81F52770965739CEwXd9j1xkt1dboVQ4A5+/3uxpUse+OlmISs+nB61YifitO1g92VfQUBRVgmWVj0/UxEwFUn4yVaY=
Explanation:
Sentence 4 is the first sentence, as it introduces the movie, The Martian, and the topic of survival on Mars. Sentence 3,
which expands on this point, follows from 4. Sentence 2 provides one example of the difficulties Martian colonists would
encounter, so it links to 3. Sentence 1 provides another example; and sentence 5 explains how this particular difficulty was
overcome in the movie. Hence, we get the sequence 43215.
Correct Answer:
43215

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1. Our industrial and commercial age erects universities and museums, huge concert halls and stadiums, railroads,
highways, and the World Wide Web.
2. Aztec rulers of ancient Mexico laid out their fifteenth-century capital, Tenochtitlan, ‘the Place of the Prickly Pear Cactus’, in
the centre of their vast empire as a depiction in stone and stucco of their cosmos.
3. They are the civilization’s most tangible statement of what is important in its time, and what it would be known for in
history.
4. The Pyramids of Giza in Egypt were built at enormous expense as symbolic ladders to heaven for the divine pharaohs
who were buried in them 4,500 years ago.
5. Every civilization expresses itself through its great works.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams100DE7E869955563mzSMf085hxA2fRS6h8f8YTykEB+yDJFxUJmj/DHeTih6UxfSb/bFIAeAdBy+flsZQs4UAsGvq4I=
Explanation:
Sentence 5 states the theme of this paragraph, so it has to be the introductory sentence. Sentence 3 continues the point
stated in 5, so it is the second sentence. The remaining three sentences – which provide examples of ‘great works’ in three
different civilizations – do not have any direct links to each other, but they make most sense when arranged in a
chronological order: 4-2-1. Hence, we get the sequence 53421.
Correct Answer:
53421

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Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and
coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in your answer.
1. For several decades Salim Ali’s was the only Indian name that figured in the world of ornithologists or in general
knowledge books for schoolchildren.
2. Interestingly, the number of bird species sighted is only increasing, helped no doubt by the vast range of habitats
available in the subcontinent.
3. Dividing his time between Delhi, Dehradun and theSunderbans, he has never shied away from doing the hard yards
when it comes to birdwatching.
4. BikramGrewal is one such avid birdwatcher who has quietly but persuasively kept his lens focused on the birds of the
subcontinent.
5. Today, inspired by Salim Ali, thousands of people have taken to bird study, birdwatching and bird photography.
Section
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams349A0D433CAF33685CSOJXmc+YHYJsm5krqGrOqExJVOdE/1QMAymNT7UEiyaATE1jnPgKQAtYSkpkFJsnqLJ5VH0
Explanation:
A comparison of five sentences quickly tells us that only sentence 1 can start theparagraph also that sentence 5
immediately follows sentence 1. Put together the talk about the birdwatchers in India – Salim Ali the only popular
birdwatcher in India for several decades and the thousands of people who are inspired by him and are now interested in
birdwatching. Sentences 1-5-4 are thus a logical sequence. Out of the two remaining sentences, sentence 3 and sentence
2, we can easily see that sentence 3 talks about the passion and activity of Bikram Grewal and is related to the narration.
Sentence 2 is out of place as it is about the increase in the number of bird species.
Hence the correct answer is 2. Hence, 2.
Correct Answer:

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1. The Government of India became a party to the protocol schedule in June 1992, entrusting the responsibility of
implementation to the ministry of environment, forest and climate change.
2. Further scaling up the fight against emissions, Montreal Protocol signatories decided to move on from focusing on ozone
depletion to tackling global warming in 2016.
3. It played a crucial role in phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODSs) such as
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), carbon tetrachloride (CTC) and halons.
4. This means an urgent need to find efficient and environment-friendly alternatives to these refrigerants.
5. Implementation of the Montreal Protocol has had a significant impact on protecting the ozone layer for three decades.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsEABFBDB839E39DAFlVt0Be7E+3D5dTCwi65nKk/84YtoplX41i2cSDyYrQp11kvK23gmzASzDVKSgjJb6+SeZevxvnY=
Explanation:
“Party to the protocol…” in sentence 1 refers to the “Montreal Protocol’ in sentence 5. So 5-1 is a mandatory pair. The
theme is that Montreal Protocol was implemented three decades ago and has had a significant impact on protecting the
ozone layer and the GOI became a signatory in 1992. The pronoun “it’ in sentence 3 can have either of these antecedents –
1. The ministry of environment … 2.The Montreal Protocol. Since 5-1 is we can see that ‘it’ refers to the ministry. It gives us
the sequence 5-1-3. So these three sentences can be summarized this way: Montreal Protocol was signed/implemented in
1992 and India entrusted the responsibility of protecting the ozone layer to the ministry of environment. Comparing
sentences 2 and 4, now it becomes very easy to understand that “this” in sentence 4 does not refer to anything specific in
any of the sentences. Hence, 4.
Correct Answer:

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1. Every cell that is “you” carries a molecular ID card made of a protein marker.
2. Our body is a nation of trillions of cells working together under a system.
3. To ensure equitable distribution of common facilities only to the “self” and not to hostile or parasitic aliens, human body is
armed with a highly specialized UID system.
4. The only agenda they serve is towards their self-gain and growth.
5. This system ensures that each body cell receives common facilities like oxygen, nutrients, protection from attack etc. in
exchange for serving in the specific role it is assigned.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams713926868E4B209CzEdLzyfzl07fiogcHa8N0YnEZOU+HNx5yDUWIySk0vP8NyH3/jhY8kLVB78F5x/au+SFKrTvS/o=
Explanation:
After reading through the five sentences we can start solving the question by focusing on sentence 2 or sentence 5. ‘This
system in ensures…’ in sentence 5 refers to the system mentioned in sentence 2 – so we can see that 2-5 is a mandatory
pair – that human body is a system of trillions of cells and that this system ensures the well-being of each cell and helps it
function well. So the theme is how a system of cells help the smooth functioning of the human body as a whole. Sentence 3
and 1 are related to the same theme. Sentence 3 elaborates on the functioning of the cell and how each cell has a
specialized UID and sentence 1 tells us that this unique ID is a protein marker. From this point of view we can be sure that
sentence 4 is out of context. Neither the pronoun “they’ nor “the agenda” in sentence 4 is related to the theme.
Hence, 4.
Correct Answer:
4

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In the following question the word given at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the sentence in which the
use of the given word is incorrect and key in your answer in the space provided.
Slew
1] He has written a slew of books.
2] I was assaulted by the thump andslew of the bus.
3] The knight slew the dragon.
4] He watched the snake slew its skin.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsA80485F1339C4B1BmINHl30r3/d3V7oDA+1ruE5K4GexDaEVf7Qv+VVm/WoLciV2TcvSWhBc3Oa+1mh26LwjJKT5l04
Explanation:
The word slew has several meanings. Most commonly it is used as a noun to mean a large number. So sentence 1 is
correct – a slew of books means a large number of books. In its less common use as a noun the word slew means: a violent
or uncontrollable sliding movement. That makes sentence 2 correct. The sentence means I was assaulted by the thump and
the violent and uncontrollable movement of the bus.
Slew is also the past tense of the verb slay. Slay means to kill violently or strike down. So sentence 3 uses the past tense of
the verb slay. The knight killed or slew the dragon. Interestingly, slayed can also be used as the past tense of the verb slay.
Slay also has a completely different and idiomatic meaning – that is ‘to delight or amuse immensely. That’s why we have
sentences like, He slayed the audience. If used in this sense, we cannot use the word slew. He slew his audience will be
incorrect, (unless you mean he violently killed his audience). Option 4 is incorrect. A snake sloughs (/slufs/) its skin.
Sentence 4 is meaningless.
Hence, 4.
Correct Answer:

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In the following question the word given at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the sentence in which the
use of the given word is incorrect and key in your answer in the space provided.
Pin
1] He handed me a pin with a peace sign on it.
2] Bother them all! I don’t care a pin about them.
3] It is hard to pin exactly when things changed.
4] She doesn’t generally pin up her beautiful long hair.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
The word Pin, most commonly used as a noun, means something used for fastening things together or as a support by which
one thing may be suspended from another. The first sentence, he handed me a pin with the peace sign on it, is thus
correct. Pin also means ‘little’ or ‘trifle’ in certain contexts. So the second sentence means I don’t care about them at all. In
fact, the second sentence is from Bram Stoker, the famous author of Dracula. So the second sentence is correct. The fourth
sentence is correct as pin is used correctly, in its more common use as a verb, meaning to fasten, join or secure with apin.
Sentence 3, however, is incorrect. The intended meaning of the sentence appears to be that , it is hard to pin down when
things changed – pin down is a phrasal verb which means to define or determine clearly or precisely.
Hence, 3.
Correct Answer:

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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
TABLE 1 gives information about the average of the number of questions in each of the 10 sections of an entrance test
XYZ. For example, in TABLE 1, in the cell corresponding to Section II and Section I, 28 is the average of the number of
questions in Section I and Section II.
TABLE 2 gives information about the average number of questions solved correctly in each of the 10 sections of the
entrance test XYZ by a student named Akshay. For example, in TABLE 2 in the cell corresponding to Section II and Section
I, 14 is the average of the number of questions solved correctly in Section II and Section I by Akshay. Each question in the
entrance test XYZ is either solved correctly, solved incorrectly or left unattempted.
Four marks are awarded for each correct answer, one mark is deducted for each unattempted question and two marks are
deducted for each incorrect answer.
1)
For which section was the difference between the total number of questions and the number of questions solved correctly in
that section the lowest?
III
VI
VIII
V
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
In section V, the difference between the number of questions and the number of questions solved correctly is the least i.e.,
4. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:

2) Which of the following cannot be the ratio of the number of questions solved incorrectly to the number of questions left
unattempted in section VI?
3:
11
3:
4
3:
5
1:
1
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
The total number of questions in section VI that were answered incorrectly orunattempted were 14.
The number of questions solved incorrectly and the number of questions leftunattempted in section VI can be 3 and 11, 6
and 8 or 7 and 7 (individually in no particular order). So options 1, 2 and 4 are possible. But they cannot be in the ratio3 : 5.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer: 3 : 5
3)
For how many sections (other than section II) is the total number of questions in that section not less than the total number
of questions in section II?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
The number of questions in sections VI, VII, VIII, IX and X is greater than or equal to the number of questions in section
II. So there are 5 such sections. Therefore, the required answer is 5.
Correct Answer:

4)
For every section, we defined the following quantities:
A : The number of questions solved correctly by Akshay in that section.
B : The sum of the number of questions left unattempted and the number of questions solved incorrectly by Akshay in that
section.
For how many sections (other than section X) the value of the absolute difference between A and B not greater than that the
corresponding value for section X?

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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In an extempore competition, six girls – Abha, Bina, Chitra, Deepa, Tina and Urvashi were asked to speak on the latest
developments in India with respect to the following topics Literature, Women Empowerment, Sports, Politics and Inflation.
The girls in the first six positions in each of the five topics – from 1 st through 6th – are awarded 10, 8, 6, 4, 2 and 1 points
respectively. The following table provides partial information about the positions of the four girls (Abha, Bina, Chitra and
Deepa) in each of the five topics. For each row, the last column gives the sum of the number of points scored by these four
girls together in that topic.
The following points are known:
In each topic, exactly two of these four girls stood in the first three positions.
No two girls finished in the same position on any topic.
No girl was awarded the same number of points in two or more of the five topics.
1)
For how many of the above-mentioned four girls can their positions in all the five topics be uniquely determined?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:
AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd , 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th
positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics.
In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd , 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd ,
4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility isthat the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.
In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature
respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1 st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd
position in Inflation.
The following are the two possible cases:
Now all the questions can be answered.
All the five positions can be uniquely determined only for Chitra.
Therefore, the required answer is 1.
Correct Answer: 1
2)
Which girl got the highest total number of points in all the five topics put together?
Abha
Bina
Chitra
Deepa
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd, 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the
other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics.
In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2 nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd, 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd, 4th and
6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility is that the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.
respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd

Bina got the top 5 positions in the five topics, so she got the highest total number of points. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Bina

3)
If the total number of points scored by Deepa is more than that scored by Abha, then what position did Abha achieve in the
topic Women Empowerment?
1st
3rd
4th
5th
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Abha and Deepa got 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 (in any order). As Deepagot more points than Abha, the possible
case is as in the second table given above. Therefore, Abha got the first position in the topic Women Empowerment.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
1st

4)
What was the least total score by a girl out of the four in the given five subjects?
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:

Chitra got the least number of points.

Total points = 8 + 6 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 21
Correct Answer: 21
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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The following table provides partial information about 1500 professional footballers from three different countries – Germany,
Spain and England. The table lists out for footballers from each of the given countries, the number of footballers who have
played for the football clubs MUFC, Real Madrid and Bayern Munich as a percentage of the total number of footballers from
that country.
For example, according to the table, 30% of the footballers from Spain have played for MUFC, whereas 60% of the
footballers from Germany have played for Bayern Munich.
The following points are also known:
1. Each footballer played for one or two clubs.
2. 20% of all the footballers are from Germany.
3. The total number of footballers who have played for both Real Madrid and Bayern Munich is 420, of which 60 are from
Spain.
1)
What percentage of total footballers have played for Bayern Munich?
56%
42%
28%
70%
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20% i.e., 0.2.

Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8
Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X)
Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e.
20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.
Therefore, we get the following values:
P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180

Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180
R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180
V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840
Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360
T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180
Correct Answer:
56%

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
How many footballers from Spain have played for Bayern Munich?
240
180
120
300
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20%i.e., 0.2.

P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180

Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180
R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180
V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840
Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360
T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180
180 many footballers from Spain have played for Bayern Munich. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
180

3)
Find the number of footballers from England who have played for MUFC.
420
240
300
360
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20% i.e., 0.2.

P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180

Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180
R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180
V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840
Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360
T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180
360 footballers from England have played for MUFC. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
360

4)
How many footballers from Germany have not played for Bayern Munich?
150
90
105
120
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20%i.e., 0.2.

P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180

Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180
R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180
V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840
Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360
T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180
300 – 180 = 120 footballer from Germany have not played for Bayern Munich. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
120

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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The diagram given below represents the distribution of the number of persons who speak one or more of the four languages
– Kannada, Tamil, Telugu and Malayalam. In the figure given below assume that the number of persons belonging to any
particular combination (i.e., combination of languages spoken by the persons) which is not shown is 0.
1)
How many persons speaking at least one language out of Telugu and Malayalam also speak either Kannada or Tamil (but
not both)?
25
29
32
44
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The number that is within the circle or the hexagon, should be within the rhombus or triangle but not
both.
Required Answer = 2 + 23 + 19 = 44
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
44

2)
How many persons who speak Tamil speak exactly one other language?
2
4
7
25
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
The number should be within the triangle and one more other
shape.
Required Number = 4.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

3)
If every person, who speaks more than two of the given languages got an award, then how many persons got the award?
47
48
49
68
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
The number should be in three or more of the

figures.
Required Answer = 23 + 19 + 7 + 19 = 68.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
68

4)
How many persons speak at least two of the given four languages?
85
90
100
102
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Those who speak exactly 4 or 3 or 2

= Total of all numbers given – Total of all numbers appearing in only one
figure
= 185 – 100 = 85
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
85

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
In the annual school fair, four students – Arjun, Bipin, Chetan and Devang of Class XII put up a food stall with the help of a
local vendor. The food stall opened at 2 PM and was closed at 9 PM. The students monitored the activities at the food stall
in one-hour shifts and at least one student monitored the activities in each of the seven shifts. None of the students
operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left the shift in between.
Further it is known that:
I. Arjun operated in exactly four shifts.
II. At 4:30 PM, two students were monitoring the activities at the food stall and one of them was Bipin.
III. Chetan monitored the activities at the food stall in exactly three shifts and one ofthose shifts was 5 PM to 6 PM.
IV. Devang monitored the activities at the food stall in exactly two shifts and he was theonly student in those shifts.
V. Each of the four students monitored the activities at the food stall in at least twoshifts.
VI. Bipin and Chetan recently had an argument and hence did not monitor the activities at the food stall together in any of
the shifts.
1)
Who monitored the activities at the food stall in the shift just after the shift in which Arjun and Chetan operated together?
Bipin
Devang
Bipin and
Devang
There was no slot in which Arjun and Chetan operated
together
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence).
From statement (I), it can be concluded that Arjun monitored the activities in the 1st, 3rd , 5th and 7th shifts.
From statement (II), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities along with Arjun in the 3rd shift.
From statement (III), it can be concluded that Chetan monitored the activities in the 4th shift.
From statement (IV), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which Devang monitored the activities were 2nd and 6th.
Hence, Chetan monitored the activities in the 1st and 7th shifts.
From statement (V) and (VI), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities in the 5th shift along with Arjun. The
conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below:
Devang monitored the activities at the food stall in the shift just after the shift in which Arjun and Chetan operated together.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Devang

2)
In how many shifts only one student monitored the activities at the food stall?
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Only one student monitored the activities at the foodstallin exactly three shifts.
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
Bipin came to the fair just before his shift was about to start and left immediately after his last shift was over. How many
hours did he spend at the fair?
3
4
5
Cannot be determined
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Bipin monitored the activities from 4 PM to 5 PM and again from 6 PM to 7 PM. AsBipin came to the fair just before his
shift was about to start and immediately left after his last shift got over, he spent 3 hours at the fair.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
4)
How many student(s) were monitoring the activities at the food stall at 8:40 PM?
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Arjun and Chetan monitored activities at the food stall from 8 PM to 9 PM.
Correct Answer: 2
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Each of the six scholars – K, L, M, N, O and P have exactly two degrees out of B.Tech., M.Sc., B.Com., and B.A. No two
scholars have the same pair of degrees.
Further it is known that:
I. K and M do not have M.Sc. degree.
II. L and N do not have B.Com. degree.
III. O and P do not have B.Tech. degree.
IV. Only one out of L and O has B.A. degree.
V. Only one out of M and N has B.A. degree.

1)
Which of the following pairs of persons cannot have B.A. degree at the same time?
L&
M
M&P
K&
O
N&P
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of
the4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars.
From II,
One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A.
degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa.
From III,
One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees.
If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa.
Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A.
degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree.
(L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree.
If L, M & P have B.A. degree then,
K – B.Com., B.Tech.
N – M.Sc., B.Tech.
O – M.Sc., B.Com.
If K, N & O have BA degree then,
M – B.Com., B.Tech.
L – M.Sc., B.Tech.
P – M.Sc., B.Com.
Thus, we have
Either L, M and P have B.A. degree or K, N and O have B.A. degree. Therefore, N & P cannot have B.A. degree at the
same time.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
N&P

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
Which of the following degrees does K definitely not have?
B.Tech. &
B.Com.
B.Tech. &
B.A.
B.Com. &
B.A.
None of
these
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
the 4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars.
From II,
From III,
O – M.Sc., B.Com.
P – M.Sc., B.Com.
Thus, we have
K can have the degrees given in the first three options.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
None of these

3)
If M has a B.A. degree, then for which of the following scholars, the two degrees they have cannot be uniquely determined?
L
N
O
K
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
From II,
From III,
O – M.Sc., B.Com.
P – M.Sc., B.Com.
Thus, we have
If M has a B.A. degree, then we need to consider first two cases. Both degrees of K, N and O can be uniquely determined.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
4)
If N does not have a B.Tech. degree, then which of the following is definitely correct?
I. O has B.Com. & B.A. degrees.
II. P has M.Sc. & B.Com. degrees.
Only
I
Only II
Both I and
II
Neither I nor
II
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
From II,
From III,
O – M.Sc., B.Com.
P – M.Sc., B.Com.
Thus, we have
If N is does not have a B.Tech degree, then we need to consider case III. Both the statements are correct.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
Both I and II

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Mr. Trump has a number of coins with him. Each coin has two sides, named ‘H’ and ‘T’. He plays a game, which begins with
a number of coins all facing either ‘H’ or ‘T’.
If the coins face ‘H’ initially, the target of the game is to make all the coins face ‘T’ at the end. Similarly, if the coins face ‘T’
initially, the target of the game is to make all the coins face ‘H’ at the end.
The game consists of a number of moves. In each move, Mr. Trump has to flip exactly three coins (from ‘H’ to ‘T’ or from ‘T’
to ‘H’, as the case might be).
1)
Mr. trump begins the game with four coins, all facing ‘T’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the
target of the game?
2
3
4
More than
4
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Let us denote ‘T’ by +1 and ‘H' by -1. Accordingly, we can get ‘sum’ at the end of any move. If there are 5 T at the end of a
move, its ‘sum’ = +5 and so on.
If a coin is flipped from ‘T’ to ‘H’, the ‘sum’ reduces by 2. Similarly, if a coin is flipped from ‘H’ to ‘T’, the sum increases by 2.
Initial configuration: 4T (Sum = +4)

Once, the target is achieved, Sum = -4
In the first move, Mr. Trump flips three coins from ‘T’ to ‘H’.
Thus, the configuration after the first move: (1T & 3H)
The second move can be (1 T to H & 2 H to T) or (3 H to T).

But the second move would restore the original configuration of 4T. So, this move is ruled out.
Thus, the configuration after the second move: (2T & 2H)
The third move can be (2 T to H & 1 H to T) or (2 H to T & 1 T to H).

(2 T to H & 1 H to T) would result in (1T & 3H), which is same as the configuration at the beginning of the second move and
hence rules out.
Thus, the configuration after the third move: (3T & 1H)
Now in order to achieve target, the fourth move has to be (3 T to H).

Thus, the configuration after the fourth move: (4H)
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:

2)
Mr. trump begins the game with five coins, all facing ‘H’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the
target of the game? (Write 0 if the target cannot be achieved.)
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Initial configuration: 5H (Sum = -5)

Once, the target is achieved, Sum = +5
In the first move, Mr. Trump flips three coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’.
Thus, the configuration after the first move: (2H & 3T)
The second move can be (3 T to H) or (1 T to H & 2 H to T) or (2 T to H & 1 H to T)

The move (3 T to H) would restore the original configuration of 5H. So, this move is ruled out.
The move (1 T to H & 2 H to T) would result into configuration (1H & 4T) while the move (2 T to H & 1 H to T) would result
into configuration (3H & 2T).
It can be seen that configuration (3H & 2T) would result into 5T by flipping 3 H to T.
Thus, the second move has to be (2 T to H & 1 H to T) and the third move has to be 3 H to T.
Thus, in 3 moves the target can be achieved.
Correct Answer:

3)
Additional information: Mr. Trump now flips 5 coins in each move, instead of 3. All other rules of the game remain
unchanged.
Mr. trump begins the game with six coins, all facing ‘H’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the
target of the game?
2
4
5
6
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Initial configuration:6H (Sum = -6)

In the first move, Mr. Trump flips five coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’.
In the first move, Mr. Trump does not flip 1H.
The second move can be (1 H to T & 4 T to H) or (5 T to H).

But the second move would restore the original configuration of 6H. So, this move is ruled out.

(4 H to T & 1 T to H) would result in (1H & 5T), which is the configuration at the beginning of the second move. So this
move is ruled out.
So, (2 T to H & 3 H to T) will be the third move and the configuration:(3T & 3H)
The fourth move can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (2 H to T & 3 T to H).

(2 H to T & 3 T to H) would result in (2T & 4H), which is the configuration at the beginning of the third move. So this move is
ruled out.
Thus, fourth move: (2 T to H & 3 H to T) and configuration:(4T & 2H)
The fifth move can be (3 T to H & 2 H to T) or (1 H to T & 4 T to H).

The move (3 T to H & 2 H to T) would result in (3T & 3H) which is the configuration at the beginning of the fourth move. So
this move is ruled out.
Thus, the fifth move: (1 H to T & 4 T to H) and configuration:(1T & 5H)
Now, the target can be achieved in the sixth move by flipping 5 H to T.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:

4)
Additional information: Mr. Trump now flips 5 coins in each move, instead of 3. All other rules of the game remain
unchanged.
Mr. trump begins the game with six coins, all facing ‘H’ and achieves the target in minimum possible moves. What is the
absolute value of the difference between the number of coins that face ‘H’ and the number of coins that face ‘T’ just before
he makes the last move?
(Write 7 if it is not possible to achieve the target.)

Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Initial configuration: 6H (Sum = -6)

In the first move, Mr. Trump flips five coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’.
In the first move, Mr. Trump does not flip 1H.
The second move can be (1 H to T & 4 T to H) or (5 T to H).

But the second move would restore the original configuration of 6H. So, this move is ruled out.

(4 H to T & 1 T to H) would result in (1H & 5T), which is the configuration at the beginning of the second move. So this
move is ruled out.
So, (2 T to H & 3 H to T) will be the third move and the configuration:(3T & 3H)
The fourth can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (2 H to T & 3 T to H).

(2 H to T & 3 T to H) would result in (2T & 4H), which is the configuration at the beginning of the third move. So this move is
ruled out.
Thus, fourth move: (2 T to H & 3 H to T) and configuration:(4T & 2H)
The fifth move can be (3 T to H & 2 H to T) or (1 H to T & 4 T to H).

The move (3 T to H & 2 H to T) would result in (3T & 3H) which is the configuration at the beginning of the fourth move. So
this move is ruled out.
Thus, the fifth move: (1 H to T & 4 T to H) and configuration:(1T & 5H)
Now, the target can be achieved in the sixth move by flipping 5 H to T.
Thus, just before the last move, the configuration: 1T & 5H
The absolute value of the difference between the number of coins that face ‘H’ and the number of coins that face ‘T’ just
before he makes the last move = 5 – 1 = 4

Correct Answer:

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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16 students (2 from each school) – K to Z participated in the inter-school chess competition.
In the above arrangement of the 16 students, each row and column has at least two students from the same school. It is
known that K and the other student from his school are in the same row. This holds true for students P, U and Z as well. It is
known that N and the other student from his school are in the same column. This holds true for students Q, T and W as well.
1)
If K and L are from the same school, then which of the following pairs of students are definitely from the same school?
N and R
W and
O
S and U
Y and Z
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column.
Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of
students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school.
Since K and L are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:
Y and Z are definitely from the same school.
Hence, [4].
Alternatively,
K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students
from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W
cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be
concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools.
Assume that K and L are from the same school.

So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be
Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school.
Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools.
The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.
Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R,
P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}.
If K and L are from the same school, Y has to be from same school as Z. W can be from O’s of S’s school. N can be from
R’s or V’s school.
Correct Answer:
Y and Z
2)
If O and P are from the same school, then for how many of the remaining 14 students, the other student from the same
school can be uniquely determined?
6
8
4
12
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Since O and P are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:
(W and S), (N and R) and (U and V) are pairs of students from the same school. Therefore, for 6 students, the other student
from the same school can be uniquely determined.Hence, [1].
Alternatively,

P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}.
If O and P are from the same school, then W& S, U & V, N & R are pairs from three schools. Nothing can be decided
uniquely about the remaining 8 students.
Therefore, of the remaining 14 students, for remaining 6 students, the other student from the sameschool can be uniquely
determined.
Correct Answer:

3)
If Q and Y are from the same school, then the student from the same school as O is:
P
W
R
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Since Q and Y are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:
(X and Z), (T and L) and (K and M) are definitely from same school. Remaining pairs of students from the same school
cannot be determined. Hence, [4].
Alternatively,

P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}.
Either P or W is from the same school as O.

Correct Answer:

4)
If N and V are from the same school, then the student from the same school as U is:
V
S
T
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Since N and V are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:
P and R are from the same school.

U and S are from the same school.
O and W are from the same school.
Hence, [2].
Alternatively,

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V,
U & S}.
If N and V are from the same school, then S is from the same school as U.
Correct Answer:

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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If x < 40, y > 60 and z < 20, then which of the following is definitely false?
(x – y + z) <
−10
(y − 4z) >
5
(z − 2y) >
−100
None of
these
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsE0F8D8C1CB81AD23fY8QGMpcf+YJBX8c8L4i8x7P2jTMICrlVdPUUyP5szjS64iSbfTnQRTeeSi3npMI95BPnQJLiaw=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
(z - 2y) > -100

(z - 2y) > -100

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Mohan sold a certain number of chocolates and suffered a loss of Rs. 231. If he had sold 100 fewer chocolates, his loss
would have reduced to Rs. 147. How many chocolates should he have sold so that his loss would be only Rs. 42?
25
50
75
100
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsD061FCB81527C0F7+SwQT2vfa9Ki3OrZ8gqlSYDq0u3xt+ECv3n8S3vE+ycHr5tHlGuopKKh7FbnRqgUqLmj1CxPKQ8=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
50

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A class of students is divided into two groups – A and B. The number of all possible pairs of students in group A is thrice the
number of all possible pairs of students in group B. When 4 students are transferred from group A to B, the number of all
possible pairs of students in group A becomes equal to the earlier value of the number of all possible pairs of group B. How
many possible pairs can be formed if both groups are combined into one single group?

Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsAAC7533620BEC675tm1pz3GcLWJFdjl//9+BpdinpTSmOL53Rfm5E4dv7M1nhziWek/RuY3LX3+aTNQnqkF26OdbzBs=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
120

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Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsBEED7E3A47D2D763uZa1W0Hd43Rj+U5OLa0Ql+4+J1tvigp6jrsbOXeGDB6TDhIQ0ssff6hg7OP2Fj437j6lniKguGM=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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For how many positive integers m is m3 – 5m2 – 25 m + 125 ≤ 0?
0
1
2
More than
2
Section
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams9AB13286750F78D38J8rMqr6xj7Sy2HlBejkfrx1xlihjTEzoU4oEWs9yvVt48DdYhJKq1S7IepU8uOvSqu3ekbGBAo=
Explanation:
m3 – 5m2– 25m + 125 = 0

m2(m – 5) – 25(m – 5) = 0
(m2 – 25)(m – 5) = 0
(m + 5)(m – 5)2 = 0
Given that m is positive, m + 5 > 0.
Also, (m – 5)2 always greater than or equal to 0.
Hence, only for m = 5, the inequality holds.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

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If | log(x – 1) (x + 1) | = 2, then how many real values of x satisfy the givenequation?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsFC246E879985AF45zM+u+sPH/m+8kHnUaP5ApbnWAv88AjsbBxedai+HUig7as1m/7p0HetS8fqEB2IJHEQaqBQgz4M=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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A, B and C have a certain number of balls with them. If B gives 6 balls to C, then the ratio of the number of balls with A, B
and C will become 2 : 3 : 5. Instead, if C gives 4 balls to A, then the ratio of the number of balls with A, B and C will become
6 : 9 : 10. If, from the original distribution, had B given 4 balls each to A and C, then what would have been the ratio of the
number of balls with A, B and C?
6:7:
12
3:4:
6
6:7:
11
7:6:
12
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsD47D84DEEE8064C13dHb9+81wMtEnaw0XQjhsIsb8wvOcyFoHJ+CMJj8SQHdkMOr2f3O0zxOXJFnbXsTL87ZzH9OLd
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
6 : 7 : 12

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The coordinates of two of the vertices of a triangle are (0, 0) and (0, 6). The coordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle
are (4, 3). Which of the following can be the coordinates of the third vertex of the triangle?
(7,
0)
(8,
0)
(9,
0)
(6,
0)
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams90257DD0FC4935BFsJTJxmTtj9riVS3Rj3fwZ9XEhH+2ccCQ5Oakc1HdFi08MGX38CucH5ThMc1kU+KCrXPoCFKbZdg
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
(8, 0)

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It is known that A and B are two real numbers such that A > B. The difference between 40% of A and 60% of B is the same
as the difference between 30% of A and 44% of B. By what percentage can B be less than A?
30%
33.3%
37.5%
40%
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsC7DA2B81975DB7C5PnEIn3btgIS2mK/v2IdCtovdr8KoB6j0aLWYFcPhfHpwJiFifeulXeGzx6oEnDdKrOz77zMi7Zw=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
37.5%

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What is the minimum value of |x – 2| + |2.25 – x| + |3 – x|, where x is a real number?
1
1.25
2
2.25
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams292C04FB791F2231V+6GyJaHWgE/Lbcila3cJw/ePdvVMoaZ7wgo5mO93oQRlBvUSEmJmb9mCeqbnGK1trDmTfRuIn4=
Explanation:
2 = x = 2.25 : f(x) = x – 2 + 2.25 – x + 3 – x = 3.25 – x

2.25 = x = 3 : f(x) = x – 2 + x – 2.25 + 3 – x = x – 1.25
f(x) will attain its minimum value at x = 2.25.
Minimum value of |x – 2| + |2.25 – x| + |3 – x| = 1
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:

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Raju has got a birthday cap on his birthday. It is in the shape of a hollow right circular cone with radius of the base 9 cm and
height 12 cm. What is the radius of the largest tennis ball (which is spherical in shape) that can be completely enclosed
within the cap?
4
cm
3.5
cm
4.5 cm
4
cm
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams16393F6839B33A7CPiMzwCube77JpRlvw1gzAJ1VAk0p9xZYDZY4TQTzhnCJgA7lz2vG5kkdufbsYXTvaIHjxIiPuSs=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
4.5 cm

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Ranveer bought a new motorbike on loan for 2 years at 12% compound interest without paying any down payment. If the
interest accrued in the second year was Rs. 6,048, what was the cost of the motorbike? It is known that the loan’s principal
amount was equal to the cost of the motorbike?
Rs. 40,000
Rs. 50,000
Rs. 48,000
Rs. 45,000
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams1057AE63C43901D8cFrLGbf/zVJZShh0TT5xZ081rm5k9IWhlqq0dziOiFHmu8VNYKrqXzHsr5AlomKRkgPQ34SYJKc=
Explanation:
Let the principal amount be Rs. P.

? Interest at the end of the first year = P × 0.12 × 1 = Rs. 0.12P
Principal for the second year = P + 0.12P = 1.12P
? Interest for the second year = 1.12P × 0.12 × 1 = 0.1344P = 6048
? P = 45000
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
Rs. 45,000

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45°
15°
60°
30°
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsAAAEE731089A4D29lIso1pQPHFMbf2yAKnToyE/hvxDoU12k5/nc9V3Dg+nA7IkDSXIvbFb62b1jAjAMEm4MtTKQTuM
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
30°

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How many distinct numbers can be formed using the digits 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 (without repetition) such that they lie between
2000 and 4000?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams1AFEB41F6BB8AE08ewFLeLoe4zYTUVeO4mYK7UDdmiemxO6PoGEA8AsGViWL0uI5qj5KSvcdmQFX8hcTA9In13g
Explanation:
Number of numbers of the form 2 _ _ _ = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24

Therefore, requiredanswer is 48.
Correct Answer:
48

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Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsA91041F99F4DDC3DlYAjSLTAPHGHSQbHNTcop1Y0vN7xXKrwq9omOKX/aKyb32UHi3MTFCnIfMf4voQyuVB4u71
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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Given that (l, m), (m, n) and (n, l) are the roots of the equation x2 – 3ax + 6 = 0, x2 – 3bx + 10 = 0 and x2 – 3cx + 15 = 0
respectively. If l, m and n are natural numbers, then what is the value of (a – b + c)?
2
3
4
6
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams93D818C698931FC8uyfKQ8ZKI5qfcLEWWhtSP2wkBtgHkKbqW+8pw050ZGzunaDlN8Pv9gyjcdI8vnKqsbKxzUZn0hE=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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Mishka selects a single-digit number in base 10 and expresses its square in bases 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8. She adds these 7
representations as if they were decimal numbers. Which of the following cannot be the unit’s digit of the sum?
0
1
4
8
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams6W3S8R1HCTAZ6K1T+O8VbONftAB9IS9vgyScT5zc/SEtysgn/5FluERX2Iv7KAp25A2bFffgiUX2IxGoGTwxTD+nBOg=
Explanation:
We can tabulate the possible answers as follows:
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:

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Virat and Anushka are standing on the first floor of Palladium mall in Mumbai. They want to go to the ground floor using an
escalator. On the escalator, Virat moves with a constant speed of 10 steps/second while Anushka moves with a constant
speed of X steps/second. When the escalator moves downward at a constant speed, Virat takes 150 steps while Anushka
takes 126 steps to reach the ground floor. If the escalator has 210 steps, what is the value of X?

Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams651D5A7E607CD964T09Yk14z/RTz0n5No1xwzaiExVsmjcfRFjKN6FC16gbNNjSO90DCY1VmuMPc7mj5M8isR3B8z1s
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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For an arithmetic progression with terms a n, the average of a6, a7, a8, a9 and a10 is 26 and the average of a11, a12, a13, a14
and a15 is 41. What is the sum of the first fifteen terms of the same AP?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams197204B399CA1B94BZ97Ge/v/ij7aCRFtFrAGnNWXi5296LqTkMoTRwEbr01Qf3h3doCsQum+7/3n837fVI/XV2h7Wo=
Explanation:
Alternatively,
The terms a1, …., a5, a6, … a10, a11, …, a15 are in AP.
? Average of first fifteen terms of the AP = a8
Average of (a6, ….., a10) = a8 = 26
? Sum of the first fifteen terms of the AP = 26 × 15 = 390
Correct Answer:
390

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While calculating the average score of 20 students, Jennifer took the marks ofone student less by 20 than his actual score.
The average computed by her had a percentage error of 1%. What was the correct average of the marks scored by the 20
students?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsF93BADDDBC779A82raMCTtCMAzCAMi//Ch9fRHiFR8Cvz31uUswbjcxE6PpHVZKF6DOrQH217RAAltanzv6gmPlaslc
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
100

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Find the area (in cm2) of the largest regular hexagon that can be fit inside a rectangle with dimensions 10 cm × 15 cm.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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311
312
313
314
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
312

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In how many ways can you distribute 25 identical chocolates among Alex, Benjamin and Chris such that Alex receives at
least one chocolate, Benjamin receives at least two chocolates and Chris receives at least three chocolates?
969
210
420
231
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams2CAC3932A1F38680n/KSqdKjcazxDVFBbBVoaLfEG5pZJ/raAqMQ12pGwfGT4dHOpIzvyfv9uNgz0R+Kj4lXNLxuIao=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
210

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In a milk shop, three different types of milk – P, Q and R are sold. The concentrations of milk in P, Q and R are 72%, 81%
and c% respectively. If 200 ml of P when mixed with X ml of R, produces milk having 90% concentration and 200 ml of Q
when mixed with X ml of R produces a milk concentration of 93%, find X.
600
500
400
300
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams967AEED8F9E16399J7xNITpYDdQ60GpLYPpmTAI/ONG6L1+OsOKBfeqYAhZJr8ONAqFV+ezMLc06IspaTAKHb8h6k
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
400

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In a class, each student likes at least one of the four colours – Red, Blue, Green and Black. 90% like at least 2 colours, 70%
like at least 3 colours and 30% like all four colours. What percentage of the students like either one colour or exactly three
colours?
30%
40%
50%
60%
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams8791101F505EBA70r8QG04uUUvzAx4PRaHj0E/mtKGGcp0xrEr776lzPqFknd00lf/SRhScYHJ93hXr89Dop8pFhvTY=
Explanation:
Percentage of students who like exactly 1 colour = 100 – 90 = 10%

Percentage of students who like exactly 3 colours = 70 – 30 = 40%
Therefore, required percentage = 10 + 40 = 50%
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
50%

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ABCDEFGH is a cuboid with edges AD and AE of equal length and AB = 2AD. Point M is the centre of face EFGH and point
N is the centre of face BCGF. What is the ratio of the lengths of AM and AN?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams10F113F65320B189gXOeZY40n2yL5ZCCIAnu8kXSP63lnOircF0fx5l5C0m6fODzM5bu6i1Q5efhCNZDwUOPSrsijow=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Manan, Naman and Omar entered into a partnership. The ratio of their investments was a : b : c and the ratio of the periods
of their investments was b : c : a. If it is known that the ratio of the profit shares of Manan and Naman is equal to the ratio of
the profit shares of Naman and Omar, then which of the following is true?
a2 =
bc
b2 =
ac
c2 =
ab
a=
bc
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsB7ACCE19F541F45CuqvdqEksOID6TPPeWdqmYd1SJ/cI57IZLtuZxZacA38OGhnYrbAsNht2wzzproegXLY0PGLZvhE=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
a2 = bc

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Consider the equations x = a + m and mx + 2 = 0. Ifm and a are real numbers, then what is the minimum possible value of
|a|?
None of
these
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams5FAA65288D1DC27BNZd1nIJympVhdhFpBN5p9EGjY6SUZxOaF9Qt6DOyJYkDtNSS6SVgX2MKQU0UrRYB2pO/je27
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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Bulbs B1, B2, B3, … B8 and B9 are connected in series in that order to a light a design system. Bulb B1 flickers at the instant
the system is turned on and then the fourth bulb flickers after every 5 seconds (B5 after 5 seconds, B9 after 10 seconds, B4
after 15 seconds, and so on). If the system was turned on at 10:00:00 hrs, then which bulb flickered at 10:05:30 hrs?
B4
B6
B3
B8
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams2E547AC69ED16063+T79YsUm/BVUTTZ1+3VPbDr/YtvK+my18DS+S1PWZpWCIPQvIA4Zidtkf4SuBg7YINqzgcxAk0
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
B4

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Xavier and Yohana simultaneously start running towards point C on a straight line from the points A and B respectively with
constant speeds ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Point B is between points A and C such that AB : BC = 2 : 5. Once they reach point
C, they immediately turn back and run towards their starting point. On their return journey from point C, if they cross each
other at point D such that AD : BD = 3 : 1, then what is the ratio a : b?
3:
1
9:
11
1:
3
11 :
9
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams0ZBX4NEW7T3KDK9RfyCsX6JCfWYHkH2nosVV1sojmmlf9rbOp1MJCPPHdD+nBwWzvmSCdqbC1DzNNDMCDqv+Z
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
11 : 9

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A class has 25 students with roll numbers from 1 to 25. Five students are selected at random from the class. What is the
probability that exactly two students have odd numbered roll numbers?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsD47A91F9C4282139Fk/35tWyakYTUpgIgf1O9vfCLoWL3nJ53eHYAvozSuDo5cWeWw0rA2J4Qww4OYQlGSM0QigfIR
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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Zach and Liz have a son John. Liz’s present age is four times the age of her son’s present age. Zach was as old as Liz is
now when Liz was seven times as old as John was back then. After 25 years, Zach will be twice as old as John will be then.
Find the sum of the present ages of all Zach, Liz and John.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsE08BB7FD36175B348Z5Z1tCkIey3CFdL69KtgQkIJIgXTUZGdKx4ve4GNOrcBGdyeSBD0e1VrzxwcKd35EeTDtPOTPA
Explanation:
Let the present ages of Liz and John be 4x and x respectively.

Let Zach’s age be 4x years ‘m’ years ago. Therefore, his present age is (4x + m)years.
Also, (4x – m) = 7(x – m)
x = 2m
The present ages of Zach, Liz and John are 9m, 8m and 2m years respectively.
9m + 25 = 2 × (2m + 25)
m=5
The sum of the present ages of all the members of the family
= 9m + 8m + 2m = 19m = 95 years
Correct Answer:
95

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OAB is a quadrant of a circle. Square OCDE is drawn inside it. Inside this square, quadrant DCPE is drawn. Inside this
quadrant, square PRDQ is drawn. This process is continued infinite times. What is the ratio of the sum of the areas of all the
quadrants to the sum of the areas of all the squares?
11 :
7
22 :
7
14 :
11
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams41A4E52307D5D2B5SphjuW/HGoBNsOvyRjqxuCKwSyQ8mH7SCTQDisSW6B38nQz4I82+3YlR+tkPAJWZxU8ZU7KA
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
11 : 7

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A and B are given a job to complete together. When A works 3 hours a day for 6 days and B works 4 hours a day for 8 days,
then the job is completed. If B matches A’s work output per hour, then he needs to work only for 4 days (instead of 8 days)
for the entire job to be done by them together (A works for the same number of hours and days as before and B works for
the same number of hours per day as before). If A matches B’s work output per hour and they both begin the job together
and work exactly 8.5 hours a day, then how many days will it take for them to complete the job together?
4 days
5 days
6 days
7 days
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsCB4A8FF68A876D9FrHdydBm2g+r7FpuCOZfuBBgQAVdNhpArxhSOkMmSxTeOxOnJMzmCu5Je8UjFMwrybqmNrGU
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
4 days


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The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

The purpose of this passage is to:

show that Rilke was a thinker ahead of his

Time taken by you: 228 secs

Solitude and solitary

The guilt of hurting one’s parents.

Time taken by you: 124 secs

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

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Which one of the following statements is true about inspiration?

It can be attained by travelling the world and meeting new

It may strike when it is least expected.

Time taken by you: 9 secs

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Technological improvements in exploration

The discovery of energy efficient renewable energy sources

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authoritarian leaders could not use oil as a geopolitical

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The use of the military to win wars.

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The American war on terror.

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All of the above.

Time taken by you: 0 secs

I. Its adherence to globally emphasized norms of liberalism, pluralism, autonomy.

Time taken by you: 0 secs

A liberal democratic society and economy.

Time taken by you: 0 secs

The central point in the first paragraph is that:

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What, according to the author, is noteworthy about the temple of Jandial?

It was built by Parthian invaders around two millennia

Time taken by you: 0 secs

% Students got it correct: 82 %

The passage answers all the following questions EXCEPT..

Did the Hellenistic style of building have any impact on

Was the art of writing an indigenous development in India?

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What is the central idea of the passage?

The effect of foreign invasions on ancient

Foreign influence on ancient Indian art and culture

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Which of the following can be validly concluded from the above?

Time taken by you: 0 secs

The argument assumes that:

Recent uptick in global hunger and malnutrition is attributable to climate

Time taken by you: 277 secs

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Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s conclusion?

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3. ‘Enlightenment’ has had many translations.

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5. Every civilization expresses itself through its great works.

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