1. Which of the following monosaccharides is a pentose-
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Ribose (4) Galactose 2. Ring structure of glucose is due to formation of hemiacetal and ring formation between- (1) C1 and C5 (2) C1 and C4 (3) C1 and C3 (4) C2 and C4 3. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called- (1) Esterification (2) Saponification (3) Inversion (4) Hydration 4. Starch is changed into disaccharide in presence of- (1) Amylase (2) Maltase (3) Lactase (4) Zymase 5. The disaccharide present in milk is- (1) Sucrose (2) Maltose (3) Lactose (4) Cellobiose 6. The pH value of the solution in which a particular amino acid does not migrate under the influence of electric field is called its- (1) Eutectic point (2) Neutralisation point(3) Isoelectric point (4) Effusion point 7. The number of essential amino acids for the growth & maintenance of life is- (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8 8. Secondary structure of proteins refers to- (1) Mainly denatured proteins and structure of prosthetic group (2) Three dimensional structure specially the bond between amino acid residues that are distant from each other in polypeptide chain (3) Linear sequence of amino acid residue in the polypeptide chain (4) Regular folding patterns of continuous portion of the polypeptide chain 9. A pigment protein in animals is- (1) ChlorophyII (2) Insulin (3) Keratin (4) Haemoglobin 10. The main structural feature of proteins is- (1) An ester linkage (2) An ether linkage (3) The peptide linkage (4) All 11. -Helical structure refers to the- (1) Primary structure of protein (2) Secondary structure of protein (3) Tertiary structure of protein (4) Quaternary structure of proteins 12. Simplest amino acid is- (1) Lysine (2) Glycine (3) Leucine (4) Alanine 13. ‘Kwashirokor’ is a disease caused by the deficiency of- (1) Vitamins (2) Hormones (3) Blood (4) Essential amino acids 14. Hair, finger, nails, hoofs etc. are all made of- (1) Fat (2) Vitamins (3) Proteins (4) Iron 15. Mark the globular protein in the following- (1) Collagen (2) Myoglobin (3) Myosin (4) Fibroin 16. The end product of protein digestion is- (1) Peptides (2) Peptones (3) Protones (4) -Amino acids 17. The enzyme pepsin hydrolyses- (1) Proteins to peptides (2) Fats to fatty acids (3) Glucose to ethyl alcohol (4) Polysaccharides to monosaccharides 18. Which one is the complimentary base of adenine in one strand to that in the other strand of DNA- (1) Cytosine (2) Guanine (3) Uracil (4) Thymine 19. The base present in RNA but not found in DNA is- (1) Thymine (2) Uracil (3) Adenine (4) Guanine 20. Calorific value is in the order- (1) Fats > Proteins > Carbohydrates (2) Carbohydrates > Fats > Protein (3) Fats > Carbohydrates > Protein (4) Protein > Fats > Carbohydrates 21. Ptyalin of saliva acts in: (1) Slightly acidic medium (2) Slightly alkaline medium (3) Neutral medium (4) All types of media 22. Vitamin B12 takes part in : (1) increase in blood pressure (2) decrease in blood pressure (3) activating bone marrow (4) maturation of RBC’s 23. Ascorbic acid is called as: (1) Vit. C (2) Vit. A (3) Vit. D (4) Vit. B 24. Cyanocobalamin is the chemical name of: (1) Vitamin B1 (2) Vitamin B2 (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B12 25. Continuous bleeding from an injured part of body is due to deficiency of: (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin E (3) Vitamin B (4) Vitamin K 26. Cobalt as a rare element is essential in the synthesis of this vitamin: (1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D (3) Vitamin B1 (4) Vitamin B12 27. Which of the following is an essential amino acid? (1) Serine (2) Cysteine (3) Glycine (4) Phenylalanine 28. Vitamin necessary for blood clotting is: (1) E (2) C (3) K (4) D 29. Scurvy is a disease caused by: (1) a virus (2) deficiency of vitamin E (3) deficiency of ascorbic acid (4) deficiency of vitamin D 30. Which pairing is found in DNA- (1) Adenine with thymine (2) Thymine with guanine (3) Guanine with adenine (4) Uracil with adenine 31. The acidic characters of DNA and RNA are due to: (1) purine bases (2) sugar molecules (3) pyrimidine bases (4) phosphoric group 32. According to the Chargaff’s law: (1) A + T = G + C (2) T + A = C (3) A + T + G = C (4) AT = GC 33. Those amino acids which can not be synthesised by animal bodies are called- (1) Non - essential (2) Essential (3) Energy yielding (4) Active 34. DNA molecule is formed of- (1) Pentose sugar, pyrimidines and purines (2) Pentose sugar: Phosphoric acid, pyrimidines and purines (3) Pentose sugar,phosphoric acid, and purines (4) Chloridepentose sugar, phosphoric acid and pyrimidines, 35. In DNA if 10% of guanine is present, how much thymine is present? (1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 40% (4) 80% 36. In mammals carbohydrates are stored in the form of- (1) Lactic acid in muscles (2) Glycogen in liver and muscles (3) Glucose in liver and spleen (4) Glycogen in liver and spleen 37. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar- (1) Sucrose (2) Galactose (3) Glucose (4) Lactose 38. The sulphur containing essential amino acids bonded together in long peptide chains form- (1) Hydrocarbons (2) Nucleic acids (3) Organic acids (4) Proteins 39. Find out the example of phosphoprotein- (1) Plasma membrane (2) Casein of milk (3) Haemoglobin (4) Mucin of saliva 40. If a portion of DNA code is CAT, the anticodon for this code on t RNA will be- (1) GUA (2) GTA (3) ATG (4) AUG 41. How many carbon atoms can be found in a monosaccaride- (1) 5-6 (2) 3-5 (3) 3-7 (4) 1-5 42. The nucleotides of one polynucleotide chain are joined together by- (1) Weak hydrogen bonds (2) Disulphide bonds (3) Phospho-diester bonds (4) Glycosidic bonds 43. If 30% of an organism’s DNA is thymine, then: (1) 70% is purine (2) 20% is guanine (3) 30% is adenine (4) Both (2) and (3) 44. Deoxyadenylic acid, deoxyguanylic acid, deoxythymidylic acid & deoxycytidylic acid are- (1) Necleotides of DNA (2) Fatty acids (3) Necleosides of DNA (4) Nucleotides of RNA 45. Which of the following substances is involved in all energy transformation reactions in a living system- (1) Calcium (2) Phosphate (3) Cyclic AMP (4) Creatine phosphate 46. The base sequence for a nucleic acid segments is given as GAG, AGG, GGA , CGA,& CCA , from this it can be definetely concluded that it is a segment of- (1) t–RNA (2) m–RNA (3) DNA (4) Data not sufficient 47. Nucleic acids are made of: (1) Proteins (2) nucleotides (3) amino acids (4) nucleosides 48. A nucleoside is: (1) base + sugar (2) base + phosphate (3) sugar + phosphate (4) base + sugar + phosphate 49. Characters are transferred from parents to offspring through- (1) RNA (2) DNA (3) Lipid (4) Protein 50. Which of the following groups includes all essential amino acids for man- (1) Leucine, methionine, lysine & valine (2) Tryptophan, phenylalanine, glycine & glutamine (3) Glutamine, valine & arginine (4) Phenylalanine , valine , lysine, glycine tyrosine 51. Base is not found in DNA is- (1) Uracil (2) Adenine (3) Guanine (4) Cytosine 52. The similarity between DNA & RNA is that both- (1) Are polymers of nucleotides (2) Are always double stranded (3) Have similar kind of sugar (4) Have similar type of pyrimidine bases 53. Semi conservative method of DNA duplication means- (1) Newly synthesized DNA is conserved only in one cell cycle (2) Newly synthesized DNA molecules have one strand from the parent DNA molecule (3) Replication of DNA results in the formation of only one stranded daughter DNA (4) Only one strand of DNA molecule car for m RNA 54. In DNA, guanine pairs with: (1) Cytosine (2) Thymine (3) Adenine (4) Uracil 55. Which DNA molecule among the following will melt at lowest temperature? 1 1 1 1 (1) 5 -A-A-T-G-C-T-G-C-3 ; 3 -T-T-A-C-G-A-C-G-5 1 1 1 1 (2) 5 -A-A-T-A-A-A-G-C-3 ; 3 -T-T-A-T-T-T-C-G-5 1 1 1 1 (3) 5 -G-C-A-T-A-G-G-C-3 ; 3 -C-G-T-A-T-C-C-G-5 1 1 (4) 51 A-T-G-G-C-T-G-C-31; 3 -T-A-C-C-G-A-C-G-5 56. The carbon atoms of the pentose sugar involved in phosphodiester bond formation in DNA and RNA are: (1) C1 and C 5 (2) C 2 and C3 (3) C4 and C5 (4) C 3 and C 5 57. The successive nucleotides of DNA are covalently linked through: (1) peptide bonds (2) hydrogen bonds (3) glycosidic bonds (4) phosphodiester bonds 58. Purines are (1) Adenine and guanine (2) Adenine and thymine (3) Cytosine and thymine (4) Cytosine and guanine 59. Replication is: (1) DNA DNA (2) DNA RNA (3) RNA DNA (4) DNA Proteins 60. The process of DNA replication is: (1) dispersive (2) conservative (3) semiconservative (4) non-conservative 61. If one strand of DNA has the nucleotide sequence 5 GATCAA-3 , its complementary strand will have the sequence: (1) 51-CTAGTT-31 (2) 51-TTGATC-31 (3) 51-TTCATC-31 (4) 51-TTGTTC-31 62. In double stranded DNA the sequence of base pairs in one strand are 31-AGCTAAGC-51 What is the complementary sequence on the other strand? (1) 31-CGUAUUCG-51 (2) 51-AGCTAAGC-31 (3) 31-UAUTAUCG-51 (4) 51-TCGATTCG-31 63. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence 3 -ATGCTTGA-5 the sequence in the complementary strand will be: (1) 51-TACGAACT-31 (2) 51-TACGTACT-31 (3) 31-TAGGTAGT-51 (4) 51-TCCGAACT-31 64. Find the correct combination that can form a nucleotide of RNA: (1) uracil + ribose + phosphate (2) thymine + ribose + phosphate (3) uracil + deoxyribose + phosphate (4) Adenine + deoxyribose + phosphate 65. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of the bases in its transcript will be: (1) UAAGCUAC (2) TAAGCTAC (3) CAUCGAAU (4) AUUCGAUG 66. A sequence of three bases codes along the DNA molecule is called: (1) genome (2) genetic drift (3) gene pool (4) genetic code 67. A codon consists of: (1) 1 nucleotide (2) 2 nucleotides (3) 3 nucleotides (4) 4 nucleotides 68. Translation is a process in which: (1) DNA is formed on DNA template (2) RNA is formed on DNA template (3) DNA is formed on RNA template (4) Protein is formed from RNA message 69. The enzyme which combines with non protein part to form a functional enzyme is: (1) Holoenzyme (2) Prosthetic group (3) Apoenzyme (4) None of these 70. Incorrect statement is- (1) All proteins are enzymes (2) All enzymes are biocatalysts (3) All enzymes are thermolabile (4) All enzymes are proteins 71. A nonprotein organic part attached firmly by a covalent linkage to the apoenzyme is called: (1) activator (2) cofactor (3) coenzyme (4) prosthetic group 72. A amino acid without asymmetrical carbon atom is- (1) Glycine (2) Threonine (3) Proline (4) Histidine 73. In RNA, which base is found in place of thymine of DNA- (1) Adenine (2) Uracil (3) Pyridine (4) Guanine 74. Sucrose, a common table sugar, is composed of: (1) glucose + fructose (2) glucose + galactose (3) fructose + galactose (4) none of these 75. Chemical nature of cellulose is: (1) polypeptide (2) disaccharide (3) polynucleotide (4) polysaccharide 76. Lactose is composed of: (1) Glucose + Glucose (2) Glucose + Fructose (3) Glucose + Galactose (4) Fructose + Galactose 77. Cellulose is a polymer of: (1) - 1 - glucose (2) - D – glucose (3) β - D - glucose (4) β - 1 - glucose 78. All the following are composed exclusively of glucose except: (1) lactose (2) amylose (3) cellulose (4) maltose 79. Which of the following groups contains all polysaccharides? (1) Maltose, lactose and fructose (2) Sucrose, glucose and fructose (3) Glycogen, cellulose and starch (4) Glycogen, sucrose and maltose 80. Benedict’s solution is not reduced by: (1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Maltose (4) Sucrose 81. A semi-indispensable amino acid for human consumption is: (1) Valine (2) Lysine (3) Arginine (4) Leucine 82. Nonessential amino acid is: (1) not needed in the diet (2) not essential for growth (3) not required for protein synthesis (4) not synthesized in the body 83. The number of asymmetric carbon atom in the glucose molecule is– (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Six 84. Which of the following is a ketohexose– (1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Sucrose (4) Starch 85. The change in optical rotation with time of freshly prepared solution of sugar is known as– (1) Specific rotation (2) Inversion (3) Rotation (4) Mutarotation 86. The excess of dil H2SO4 is removed by titration with barium hydroxide ppt of BaSO4 is removed by filtration remaining solution concentrated under reduced pressure contain– (1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Both (4) Sucrose 87. Glucose is a/an– (1) Oxidising sugar (2) Reducing sugar (3) Reducing & oxidising sugar (4) All of the above 88. Glucose with excess of phenyl hydrazine forms– (1) Fructosazone (2) Glucose phenyl hydrazone (3) Glucosazone (4) Phenyl hydrazone of glucosazone 89. Glucose when heated with CH3OH in presence of dry HCl, & –methyl glucoside are formed. This is because it contain– (1) An aldehyde group (2) –CH2–OH group (3) A ring structure (4) Fine hydroxyl group 90. Alpha–glucose & beta–glucose are called– (1) Isomers (2) Anomers (3) Tautomers (4) Epimers 91. A disaccharides which give only glucose on hydrolysis– (1) Lactose (2) Fructose (3) Sucrose (4) Maltose 92. When sucrose is heated with conc. HNO3 the product is– (1) Sucrosenitrate (2) Oxalic acid (3) Formic acid (4) Citric acid 93. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called– (1) Saponification (2) Inversion (3) Mutarotation (4) Rotatory motion 94. Starch can be used as an indicator for the detection of traces of – (1) Proteins in blood (2) Urea in blood (3) I2 in aqueous solution (4) Glucosein aqueous solution 95. (C6H12O5)n + nH2O ( X) ; C12H22O11 + H2O ( Y) 2C6H12O6 Enzymes X & Y are–
(1) Zymase & Invertase (2) Diatase & maltase
(3) Maltase & Diatase (4) Diatase & zymase 96. The pH value of a solution in which a polar amino acid does not migrate under the influence of electric field is called– (1) Iso-electric point (2) Iso-electronic point (3) Neutrilization point (4) All 97. Individual amino acid can be distingused by their– (1) Action of HI (2) Carbylamine reaction (3) Reduction (4) Isoelectric point 98. Which of the following is a fibrous protein– (1) Haemoglobin (2) Albumin (3) Keratin (4) Enzymes 99. The sequence in which –amino acid are linked to one another in a protein molecules is called– (1) Quaternary structure (2) Primary structure (3) Tertiary structure (4) Secondary structure 100. The disease sickel–cell anaemia is caused by– (1) Deficiency of protein (2) Deficiency of vitamins (3) Defective haemoglobin (4) Phenyl alanine hydroxylase KEY Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Ans 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 1 4 2 3 Q.NO. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Ans 2 4 1 4 4 4 4 3 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 1 Q.NO. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Ans 3 3 4 1 2 4 2 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 4 4 1 1 3 Q.NO. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 Ans 2 4 1 1 1 4 3 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 1 3 4 Q.NO. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 Ans 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 3