FIITJEE – JEE (Main)

Batches: 12th Studying & 12th Pass

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Mock Test – X
QP Code:
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

▪ Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You ar e allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions:
A. General Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. This question paper contains Three Parts.
6. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
7. Each Part has only one section: Section - A.
8. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
9. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
10. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
11. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
12. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

B. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (21 – 25, 46 – 50, 71 – 75) contains 15 Numerical based questions, the answer of which
maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

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JEEM Mock Test-10

PART – I: PHYSICS
Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If a solution of ferromagnetic material is poured into a U tube and one arm of this tube is
placed between the poles of a strong magnet with the meniscus in line with the field,
then the level of the solution in this arm will
(A) rise (B) fall
(C) oscillate (D) remain unchanged

2. In order to convert a miliammeter of range 1.0 mA and resistance 1.0 ohm into a
voltmeter of range 10 V, a resistance of how many ohms should be connected with it and
in what manner?
(A) 999  in series (B) 999  in parallel (C) 9,999  in series (D) 9,999  in parallel

3. A bar magnet take /10 second to complete one oscillation in a oscillation

magnetometer. The moment of inertia of the magnet about the axis of rotation is
1.210−4 kg-m2 and earth’s horizontal magnetic field is 30T. Find the magnetic moment
of the magnet.
(A) 1600 Am2 (B) 1700 Am2 (C) 1900 Am2 (D) 1800 Am2

4. A arc PQ with centre at O and an infinitely long wire having linear

Q
charge density  are lying in the same plane. The minimum amount +
of work to be done by an external agent to move a point charge q0
+
from point P to Q through circular arc PQ of radius a is equal to:
q02 2 q 2 +
(A) In (B) 0 In O a P
2 0 3 2 0 3 +
2a
q 3 q02 3
(C) 0 In (D) In +
2 0 2 2 0 2

5. What change in surface energy will be noticed when a drop of radius R splits up into
1000 droplets of radius r, surface tension of T?
(A) 4R 2 T (B) 7R2T (C) 16R2 T (D) 36R2 T

6. If the distance between conduction band and valence band is 1 eV, then substance is
(A) metal (B) insulator (C) conductor (D) semiconductor

7. A reversible engine and an irreversible engine are operating between the same
temperatures. The efficiency of
(A) both the engines will be 100% (B) reversible engine will be 100%
(C) reversible engine will be greater (D) irreversible engine will be greater
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8. A ball falls from rest from a height h onto a floor, and rebounds to a height h/4. The
coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is
1
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) (D) ¾
2
9. A conducting wheel is rolling on the ground in
a uniform magnetic field Bo then the emf x x x x x
induced between points A and B; VA – VB will B
be x x x x x
60o
(A) Bo w 2 ( 3 R)
x x x x x
3
(B) − Bw 2 R w v

2
x R x x x x
(C) Bo w 2 2 R
 5
(D) −Bo w 2 
 2 
R x x x A x x
 

10. Forces acting on a particle moving in a straight line varies with the velocity of the particle

as F = where  is constant. The work done by this force in time interval t is
v
1
(A) t (B) t (C) 2t (D) 2 t
2

11. The linear velocity of a rotating body is given by v =   r, where  is the angular velocity
and r is the radius vector. The angular velocity of a body is  = ˆi − 2jˆ + 2kˆ and the
radius vector r = 4jˆ − 3k,
ˆ then | v | is
(A) 29 units (B) 31 units (C) 37 units (D) 41 units

12. A current flows along the length of a long thin cylindrical shell, then which of the following
statements is incorrect?
(A) Magnetic field at all the points lying inside the shell is zero.
(B) Magnetic field at any point outside the shell varies inversely with distance from the
surface of the shell.
(C) Magnetic field strength is maximum just outside the shell.
(D) Magnetic field strength is minimum just outside the shell.

13. In a radioactive reaction an unstable nucleus A

dis-integrates into a stable nucleus B. But A is generated at
a constant rate of q nucleus per second. Then at steady
state number of nucleus of A will be –1 
q (sec ) A B
q (Parent (Daughter
(A) q (B) Nucleus) Nucleus)


(C) q –  (D)
q
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14. 1 gm of a radioactive substance takes. 50 sec to loose 0.01 gm then the half life of the
sample will be
50 ln (2) 50 ln (2) 50 ln (2) 50 ln (2)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 100  ln (100) ln (99) ln (0.99)
ln  
 99 

15. A block slides down an inclined plane of inclination  with constant velocity. It is then
projected up the plane with an initial speed u. How far up the incline will it move before
coming to rest
u2 u2 u2 u2
(A) (B) sin  (C) sin  (D)
4gsin g 2g 4g

16. A communication earth satellite which takes 24hours to complete one circular orbit
eventually has to be replaced by another satellite which has twice the mass of the first. If
the new satellite is also to have an orbital period of 24 hr, what is the ratio of radius of
the new orbit to the radius of the original orbit?
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2

17. A particle is given an initial speed u inside a fixed smooth

spherical shell of radius R = 1 m that it is just able to complete
the circle. Acceleration of the particle when its velocity is
vertical is R •
(A) g 10 (B) g u

(C) g 2 (D) g 6

18. Imagine a Young’s double slit interference experiment performed with wave associated
with fast moving electrons produced from an electron gun. The distance between
successive maxima will decrease maximum if
(A) the accelerating potential in the electron gun is decreased.
(B) the accelerating potential is increased and the distance of screen from slit is
decreased.
(C) the distance of the screen fro the slit is increased.
(D) the distance between the slits is decreased.

19. If a person walking at the rate of 3km/hour, the rain appears him to fall vertically. When
he increase his speed to 6 km/hr it appears to meet him at angle of 300 with vertical. The
speed of rain is
3
(A) 3 2 km / hr (B) km / hr (C) 6 2 km / hr (D) 6 km / hr
2

20. A 200 W and a 100 W bulb, both meant for operation at 220 V are connected to a 220 V
supply.
(A) Total power consumed by them will be 150 W, if they are in series
(B) Total power consumed by them will be (200/3) W, if they are in series
(C) Total power consumed by them will be 150 W, if they are in parallel
(D) Total power consumed by them will be (200/3) W, if they are in parallel
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Section – A
Numerical based questions

21. Two blocks of masses m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 5 kg are

moving in the same direction along a frictionless
surface with speeds 10 m/s and 3 m/s respectively,
m2 being ahead of m1. An ideal spring with k = 1120
N/m is attached to the back side of m2. The
maximum compression of the spring when the
 1
blocks collide is   metre .
n

22. The gauge pressure inside two soap bubbles is 0.01 and 0.02 atm. Find the ratio of their
respective volumes.

23. A steady current I goes through a wire loop PQR having shape of a right angle triangle
with
PQ = 3x, PR = 4x and QR = 5x. If the magnitude of the magnetic field at P due to this
 0I 
loop is k   , find the value of k.
 48x 
10V
V
E
24. Find the value of
11 5 4
E
3
3

3
2
 85 
25. The ratio of wavelengths of K lines of elements is   , number of elements having
 81 
atomic number between these elements will be ________ .
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JEEM Mock Test-10

PART – II: CHEMISTRY

Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

26. Which of the following atoms have nearly identical atomic radius?
(A) Sc, Ti, V (B) Zn, Cd, Hg (C) Fe, Co, Ni (D) Cr, Mn, Fe

27 The dipole moment of PCl5 is identical to that of

(A) NCl3 (B) BCl3 (C) SCl2 (D) ICl3

28 The pressure exerted by N2 gas at T K is P atm. When the temperature is doubled all the
molecules dissociate to atoms. What would be the final pressure in atm unit in terms of
P?
P
(A) 2 P (B) (C) 4 P (D) P
2

29 Which of the following is NOT a property of s - block elements?

(A) They contain one or two electrons in their outermost shell.
(B) They melt at lower temperature than d-block elements.
(C) Most of them produce H2 gas when react with water.
(D) All the elements respond to flame test.

30. Which of the following element easily react with hydrogen?

(A) Sulphur (B) Phosphorus (C) Bromine (D) Silicon

31. The electronegativity of nitrogen atom is the highest in

(A) NH3 (B) NF3 (C) NO (D) N2

32. Which of the following statement is correct for the aqueous solution of sodium peroxide?
(A) It turns red litmus blue.
(B) Cr2(SO4)3 forms a yellow solution when reacts with it.
(C) FeSO4 forms Fe(OH)2 when reacts with it.
(D) A white precipitate is formed when CaCl2 reacts with it.

33. Which of the following is most soluble in water?

(A) BeCrO4 (B) MgCrO4 (C) CaCrO4 (D) SrCrO4

34. CaCO3 ( s ) CaO ( s ) + CO2 ( g)

Which of the following statement is NOT correct for the above reaction?
(A) Kp = pCO2 = Pequm
(B) Kp > Kc
(C) The yield of CO2(g) increases by decreasing pressure
(D) Removal of CaO makes the reaction proceed towards forward direction
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35. CN− ( aq) + H2O HCN ( aq) + OH− ( aq)

The degree of hydrolysis of CN– according to above reaction increases by
(A) removing water (B) decreasing the concentration of CN– ion
(C) addition of NaOH (D) addition of NaCl

36. Which of the following is a monobasic acid?

(A) H3PO3 (B) H3BO3 (C) H2CO3 (D) H3PO4

37. What type of silicate share one oxygen atom between the SiO44− tetrahedra?
(A) Ortho silicates (B) Pyro silicates (C) Chain silicates (D) Cyclic silicates

38. Which of the following compound loses its optical activity when reacts with LiAlH4?
(A) CH3 CH2CHCH3 (B) CH3CH2CHCH3

CN Cl
(C) CH3 CH2CHCHO (D) CH3 CH2CHCH2Cl
CH3 NH 2

39. Which of the following two substances are distinguished by HCl/Anhy. ZnCl2?
(A) CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(C) CH3CH2OH and (CH3)3COH (D) CH3CH2CH2CHO and (CH3)3CCOCH3

40. Cl
Cl
Cl Cl

(I) ( II ) ( III ) ( IV )
What is the decreasing order of reactivity of the above compounds towards SN1
hydrolysis?
(A) II > III > I > IV (B) III > II > IV > I (C) III > IV > II > I (D) III > IV > I > II

41. Which of the following on dehydrohalogenation reaction forms the most stable alkene?
(A) CH3 CH2CHCH3 (B) ( CH3 ) C − C ( CH3 )
2 2

Cl H Cl
(C) ( CH3 )2 CHCH2CH3 (D) C2H5CH − CH2CH3

Cl Cl
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42. CH3CH2C  CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

2
→ P ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3 NaNH
Q
CH Cl

Br2 /CCl4 Na/NH3 ( )

S ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯ R ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Which of the following statement is correct for compound ‘S’?
(A) It is a meso compound (B) It contains a plane of symmetry
(C) It is an optically inactive compound (D) It is a racemic mixture

43. Which of the following substance does not form NH3 on heating?
(A) NH4Cl (B) (NH4)2SO4 (C) NH4NO3 (D) (NH4)2CO3

44. Which of the following compound is NOT formed?

(A) ICl5 (B) ICl4 (C) ICl3 (D) ICl

45. Which isomer of [Cr(NH3)4(NO2)Br]Cl forms a pale yellow ppt. with AgNO3 solution?
(A) Linkage isomer (B) Coordination isomer
(C) Ionization isomer (D) Geometrical isomer

Section – A
Numerical based questions

46. The solubility product of AgBr is 5  10–13 at 298 K. If the standard reduction potential of
the half cell, E0Ag+ / Ag (in volts) is n  10–1, the value of ‘n’ is

47. Cu ( s) + 4H+ (aq) + 2NO3− (aq) ⎯⎯

→ 2NO2 ( g) + Cu2+ (aq) + H2O ( )
In the above reaction at 1 atm and 298 K, if 6.36 g of copper is used. Assuming ideal gas
behavior the volume of NO2 produced in litres is (approx)
(Given atomic mass of Cu is 63.6, R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1)

48. The number of isomeric structures of di-substituted borazine B3N3H4X2 is

49. R − NH2 ⎯⎯⎯

CHCl3
KOH/ 
⎯→ R − NC
How many moles of KOH required for 1 mole of R – NH2

50. The time for 50% completion of a zero order reaction is 30 min. Time for 80% completion
x
of this reaction is x min. The value of is
6
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PART – III: MATHEMATICS

Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

51. If z = 20i − 21 + 20i + 21, then one of the possible values of arg ( z ) equals
  3
(A) (B) (C) (D) 
4 2 8

sec x cos x sec 2 x + cot x cos ec 2 x

 /2
52. If f ( x ) = cos2 x cos2 x cos ec 2 x , then the value of  f ( x ) dx is
/ 4
2 2
1 cos x cos ec x
  
(A) 0 (B) (C) − − (D) none of these
48 2 15 2

 3 −2 1   x   b 
    
53. The system of equations  5 −8 9   y  =  3  has no solution if a and b are
 2 1 a   z   −1
    
1 2 1 1 1 1
(A) a = −3, b  (B) a = , b  (C) a  , b = (D) a  −3, b 
3 3 3 4 3 3

54. The number of positive integers < 1,00,000 which contain exactly one 2, one 5 and one
7, is
(A) 2940 (B) 7350 (C) 2157 (D) 1582

55. The interval in which x (  0) must lie so that the greatest term in the expansion of
(1 + x )
2n
has the greatest coefficient is
 n −1 n   n n + 1  n n+ 2
(A)  ,  (B)  ,  (C)  ,
n 
(D) none of these
 n n − 1 n +1 n  n+ 2

56. Sum of the coefficients of the terms of degree m in the expansion of

(1 + x ) (1 + y ) (1 + z ) is
n n n

( ) (B) 3 ( n Cm )
3
3n
(A) n
Cm (C) n C3m (D) Cm

1 1! 2! 3!
57. Sum to n terms of the series + + + + ... is
5! 6! 7! 8!
2 1 1 1 n!  1 1 3! 
(A) − (B)  −  (C)  −  (D) none of these
5! ( n + 1) ! 4  4! (n + 4 ) ! 
 4  3! (n + 2 ) ! 

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58. Let f : R → R be a function. Define g : R → R by g ( x ) = f ( x ) for all x. Then g is

(A) bounded even if f is unbounded (B) one – one if f is one
(C) continuous if f is continuous (D) differentiable if f is differentiable

59. The set of values of the parameter a for which the point of minimum of the function
x2 + x + 2
y = 1+ a2 x − x3 satisfies the inequality 2  0 , is
x + 5x + 6
(A) an empty set (B) ( −3 3, − 2 3 )
(
(C) 2 3, 3 3 ) (D) ( −3 3, − 2 3 )  ( 2 3, 3 3 )
60. A spherical balloon is filled with 4500  cubic meters of helium gas. If a leak in the
balloon causes the gas to escape at the rate of 72 cubic meters per minute, then the
rate (in meters per minute) at which the radius of the balloon decreases 49 minutes after
the leakage began is
7 2 9 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 2 7


61. I =  cot x  dx, where . denotes the greatest integer function, is equal to
0

 
(A) –1 (B) − (C) (D) 1
2 2

62. The degree of the differential equation satisfying

( )
1 + x 2 + 1 + y 2 = A x 1 + y 2 − y 1 + x 2 , where A is a parameter, is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) none of these

63. If the circles x2 + y2 + 2ax + cy + a = 0 and x2 + y2 − 3ax + dy − 1 = 0 intersect in two

distinct points P and Q, then the line 5x + by − a = 0 passes through P and Q for
(A) infinitely many values of a (B) exactly two values of a
(C) exactly one value of a (D) no value of a

a2
64. The common tangents to the circle x 2 + y 2 = and the parabola y2 = 4ax intersect at
2
the focus of the parabola
(A) x2 = 4ay (B) x2 = −4ay (C) y2 = −4ax (D) y2 = 4a ( x + a)

65. If the normal at point P to the rectangular hyperbola x2 − y2 = 4 meets the axes of x and
y in G and g respectively and C is the centre of the hyperbola, then 2PC =
(A) PG (B) Pg (C) Gg (D) none of these
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66. The point P is the intersection of the straight line joining the points Q (2, 3, 5) and
R (1, − 1, 4 ) with the plane 5x − 4y − z = 1 . If S is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from
the point T (2, 1, 4) to QR, then the length of the line segment PS is
1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2 2
2

67. If u, v, w are non coplanar vectors and p, q are real numbers, then the equality
3u pv pw  − pv w qu − 2w qv qu = 0 holds for
     
(A) more than two but not all values of (p, q)
(B) all values of (p, q)
(C) exactly one value of (p, q)
(D) exactly two values of (p, q)

68. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variances are given to be 4 and 5, the
corresponding means are given to be 2 and 4 respectively. The variance of the
combined data set is
13 5 11
(A) 6 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2

69. Three numbers are chosen at random without replacement from 1,2,3,...,10 . The
probability that the minimum of the chosen numbers is 3 or their maximum is 7, is
11 11 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30 40 7 8

70. The equation 2cos−1 x = sin−1 2x 1 − x 2 ( ) is valid for all values of x satisfying
1 1
(A) −1 x  1 (B) 0  x  1 (C) 0  x  (D)  x 1
2 2
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Section – A
Numerical based questions

 4 1 − 3x + x 2 
−1
x4 − 1 
71. lim  2 −1
−  + 3  is equal to
x →1
 x − x 1 − x3  x3 − x −1 


72. Let I = 
3/2

−3/2 (x + x + log ( x +

3
a ))
x2 + 1 dx , where [.] denotes the greatest integer
function. Then the value of –2I is equal to


73. If a line through P (a, 2) making an angle with the positive direction of x – axis meets
4
the curve 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 at A and D and the axes at B and C, so that PA, PB, PC, PD
are in G.P., then 2a – 9 is equal to
74. The number of solutions of the pair of equations 2sin2  − cos2 = 0 and
2cos2  − 3sin  = 0 in the interval 0, 2 is equal to

75. Circles of radii 36 and 9 touch each other externally. The radius of the circle which
touches the two given circles externally and also their common tangent is equal to
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