Biology 240-75

Professor Rabin
Exam 2 Practice Test Answers
SI Leader: Alexander Maltese
Email: anmalt01@louisville.edu

BIOLOGY 240- EXAM 2 PRACTICE TEST

1) If a stick of celery were placed in a red hypertonic solution, what would the celery stick look
like?
A) Plasmolyzed and mostly green
B) Plasmolyzed and mostly red
C) Turgid and mostly green
D) Turgid and mostly red
E) Flacid and mostly red

2) Why is cholesterol important for maintaining membrane structure?

A) Glycoproteins in the cell membrane bind to cholesterol and anchor the plasma membrane in place
B) The rapid export of cholesterol molecules from the Golgi Apparatus to the plasma membrane
provides many phospholipids from its transport vesicles
C) Cholesterol packs itself tightly into the plasma membrane, preventing the phospholipid tails from
packing too tightly in cool temperatures and from moving too much in warm temperatures
D) Cholesterol packs itself tightly into the plasma membrane, preventing the phospholipid tails from
packing too tightly in warm temperatures and from moving too much in cool temperatures
E) Receptor proteins can be signaled by cholesterol from the extracellular matrix, activating
phospholipase enzymes which detach fatty acid tails from phospholipids

3) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the structure of the plasma
membrane?
A) Protein molecules may be partially or wholly embedded in the membrane
B) Phospholipids are distributed unequally throughout the plasma membrane
C) Viscous fatty acids can pack closely together, but fluid fatty acids can’t.
D) Phospholipids frequently rotate in place, move laterally across the membrane, and flip from one side
of the membrane to the other.
E) The section of an integral protein embedded in the plasma membrane is generally nonpolar

4) Which of the following statements is not correct about the movement of glucose across the
plasma membrane?
A) Glucose uses the membrane protein, Glut4, to cross the plasma membrane.
B) Because of its size, individual glucose molecules must use a carrier protein to cross the plasma
membrane.
C) Glucose may be transported out of the cell using vesicles that run along the cell cytoskeleton
D) The concentration gradient glucose flows down is maintained by the consumption of glucose in
glycolysis
E) Glucose diffuses from the extracellular matrix across the plasma membrane only if the concentration
of glucose is lower inside the cell.
5) Suppose a thistle tube containing a 10% sugar solution is covered at one end by a selectively
permeable membrane and is placed in a beaker containing a 5% sugar solution. What will happen
to the water?
A) Water will only enter the thistle tube.
B) Water will only leave the thistle tube.
C) There will be no net water movement.
D) More water will enter the thistle tube than leave the thistle tube.
E) More water will leave the thistle tube than enter the thistle tube.

6) Endocytosis moves materials _____ a cell via _____.

A) Into ... facilitated diffusion
B) Into ... membranous vesicles
C) Into ... a transport protein
D) Out of ... diffusion
E) Out of ... membranous vesicles

7) Which process will transport sodium ions to the outside of the cell and potassium ions to the
inside of the cell?
A) Simple diffusion
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Osmosis
D) Active transport
E) Exocytosis

8) Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?

A) Cell-cell recognition
B) Lipid Synthesis
C) Attachment to cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix
D) Signal Transduction
E) Transport

9) Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy (disorder) within a cell?
A) Anabolic reactions
B) Hydrolysis
C) Respiration
D) Dehydration
E) Catabolic reactions

10) Describe the process of quorum sensing:

A) Bacterial cells rapidly divide when not directly touching another bacterial cell, as recognized by
receptor proteins, and attack any non-bacterial cells simultaneously by expressing the same pathological
DNA sequences at once.
B) Viruses acidify the pH of a cell’s cytoplasm, allowing them to operate with increased efficiency
within the cell. When the cell has been completely overrun, it lyses and acidifies the cells surrounding it,
allowing viruses to move from cell to cell.
C) Endocrine cells secrete hormones into the blood stream depending on a response to external stimuli
—the hormones then move into the smooth ER which break down and ship its macromolecules into the
nucleus to transcribe a segment of DNA code.
D) Bacterial cells release pheromones that activate signal receptors in the same species and trigger
pathological responses; as more bacteria accumulate, more pheromones are released and more
pathological traits are exhibited.

11) Which of the following is not true about cell signaling?

A) Receptor proteins recognize a substrate and activate a series of events called a phosphorylation
cascade
B) The enzymatic activities, without help from ATP, are spontaneous reactions
C) Kinase enzymes attach phosphate from ATP to enzymes and activate the protein
D) Phosphatase enzymes detach phosphate from enzymes and deactivate from the protein
E) Both C and D

12) A chemical reaction has a delta G value of +10.5. How many molecules of ATP are necessary
to cause the reaction to happen spontaneously?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

13) A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme
that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of
the enzyme. Substance A functions as:
A) A coenzyme.
B) An allosteric inhibitor.
C) The substrate.
D) A feedback inhibitor
E) More than one of the above

14) Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?

A) The products have more total energy than the reactants
B) The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy
C) The reaction goes only in a forward direction; all reactions will be converted to products, but no
products will be converted to reactants
D) A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reaction to proceed
E) The reactions are rapid

15) Which of the following is (are) true of anabolic pathways?

A) They do not depend on enzymes
B) They are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions
C) They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers
D) They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers
E) They consume energy to decrease the entropy of the organism and its environment.

16) In glycolysis there is a net gain of ______ ATP.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

17) All of the following processes release CO2 except?

A) The Citric Acid Cycle
B) Alcohol fermentation
C) Oxidative phosphorylation
D) The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol
E) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

18) In fermentation _____ is reduced and _____ is oxidized.

A) Lactate ... NADH
B) NAD+ ... pyruvate
C) Pyruvate ... NADH
D) Lactate ... ethanol
E) NADH ... lactate

19) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location?
A) Cytosol
B) Mitochondrial outer membrane
C) Mitochondrial inner membrane
D) Mitochondrial intermembrane space
E) Mitochondrial matrix

20) How many NADH are produced by the Citric Acid Cycle?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10

21) The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction between ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) and carbon
dioxide is _________.
A) Lipase
B) Pepsin
C) Maltose
D) Synthase
E) Rubisco

22) What is chemiosmotic phosphorylation?

A) Chemiosmotic phosphorylation is the osmosis of phosphates across a selectively permeable
membrane.
B) The use of a proton gradient to power ATP synthase and create ATP is called chemiosmotic
phosphorylation.
C) Chemiosmotic phosphorylation occurs when electrolytes build up within chloroplasts, creating
hypertonic conditions.
D) Movement of water through the chemicals of the thylakoid membrane is chemiosmotic
phosphorylation.

23) For every glucose molecule, _____ FADH2 are produced by the Krebs cycle.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
E) 6
24) What is the purpose of oxygen in aerobic respiration?
A) Oxygen accepts electrons at the end of the electron transport chain, attracting two H+ ions and
forming H2O
B) Oxygen is necessary to bind with CO2 and H+ to create HCO3, the buffer for human blood
C) Oxygen is used in the formation of 1,5 bisphosphocarboxylase, which can then enter the Citric Acid
Cycle as an intermediate compound.
D) The oxygen molecules indirectly power the formation of ATP by donating electrons into the electron
transport chain
E) Oxygen donates H+ used in the formation of NADH

25) What is the value of the alcohol fermentation pathway?

A) It produces ATP
B) It produces lactate
C) It produces ADP for the electron transport chain
D) It replenishes CO2 for the dark reaction
E) It replenishes NAD+ so that glycolysis can produce ATP

26) The reaction-center chlorophyll of photosystem I is known as P700 because:

A) there are 700 chlorophyll molecules in the center.
B) this pigment is best at absorbing light with a wavelength of 700 nm.
C) there are 700 photosystem I components to each chloroplast.
D) it absorbs 700 photons per microsecond.
E) the plastoquinone reflects light with a wavelength of 700 nm.

27) Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in
the Calvin cycle?
A) CO2 and glucose
B) H2O and O2
C) ADP, Pi, and NADP+
D) electrons and H+
E) ATP and NADPH

28) Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

A) Stroma of the chloroplast
B) Thylakoid membrane
C) Cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplast
D) Chlorophyll molecule
E) Outer membrane of the chloroplast

29) When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which of the

following?
A) Reducing NADP+
B) Splitting the water molecules
C) Chemiosmosis
D) The electron transfer system of photosystem I
E) The electron transfer system of photosystem II

30) Which statement describes the functioning of photosystem II?

A) Light energy directly excites electrons in the reaction-center complex of the a photosynthetic unit.
B) The excitation is passed along to a molecule of P700 chlorophyll in the photosynthetic unit.
C) The P680 chlorophyll donates a pair of protons to NADPH, which is thus converted to NADP+ .
D) The electron vacancies in P680 are filled by electrons derived from water.
E) The splitting of water yields molecular carbon dioxide as a by- product.

31) Where are the molecules of the electron transport chain found in plant cells?
A) Thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts
B) Stroma of chloroplasts
C) Inner membrane of mitochondria
D) Matrix of mitochondria
E) Cytoplasm

32) What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?

A) Use ATP to release carbon dioxide
B) Use NADPH to release carbon dioxide
C) Split water and release oxygen
D) Transport RuBP out of the chloroplast
E) Synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide

33) Which of the following is false concerning C4 plants and CAM plants?
A) Both use the enzyme PEP Carboxylase to transfer carbon into an acid
B) Both use the enzyme Rubisco to move inorganic Carbon into the Calvin cycle
C) Both close their stomata during the day and open them at night
D) The light reactions and Calvin cycle happen in different cells in C4 plants, but occur in the same cell
in CAM plants
E) Both adapted to their environments to avoid photorespiration

34) Centromeres divide and sister chromatids become full-fledged chromosomes during _____.
A) Metaphase
B) Interphase
C) Prometaphase
D) Telophase
E) Anaphase

35) During _____ the cell grows and replicates both its organelles and its chromosomes.
A) S
B) Cytokinesis
C) G1
D) Interphase
E) Mitosis

36) Chromosomes become visible during _____.

A) Metaphase
B) Prophase
C) Interphase
D) Prometaphase
E) Anaphase

37) Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores during _____.

A) Metaphase
B) Prometaphase
C) Interphase
D) Anaphase
E) Telophase

38) The centromere is a region in which:

A) Chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.
B) Metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate.
C) Chromosomes are grouped during telophase.
D) The nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
E) New spindle microtubules form at either end.

39) A cell containing 92 (4n) chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce
two nuclei each containing how many chromosomes?
A) 12
B) 16
C) 23
D) 46
E) 92

40) Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not
cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with:
A) One really large nucleus
B) Perpetual telophase-- no uncoiling of chromosomes
C) No nucleus due to lack of material necessary to form the nuclear envelope
D) Two nuclei
E) Half the calories and twice the flavor

41) During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids?
A) From interphase through anaphase
B) From G1 of interphase through metaphase
C) From metaphase through telophase
D) From anaphase through telophase
E) From prophase through metaphase

42) DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle:

A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M

43) Once a cell passes this point, it must reproduce:

A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
44) When are tetrads of chromosomes aligned at the equator of the spindle?
A) Prophase I
B) Prophase II
C) Metaphase I
D) Metaphase II
E) Anaphase II

45) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is:
A) Diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
B) Diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
C) Haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
D) Haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
E) Tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

46) Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs.

A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

47) Chromatids are separated from each other.

A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

48) Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of:

A) The random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the
metaphase plate during meiosis I.
B) The random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm.
C) The random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II.
D) The relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.
E) All of the above

49) A homologous chromosome includes which of the following sets of DNA strands?
A) Two single- stranded chromosomes that have synapsed
B) Two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed
C) Four sets of sister chromatids
D) Four sets of unique chromosomes
E) Eight sets of sister chromatids

50) Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that:

A) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase.
B) DNA replicates before the division.
C) The daughter cells are diploid.
D) Homologous chromosomes synapse.
E) The chromosome number is reduced.
-----the test will be 50 questions, but here are 10 more just for funsies----

51) What is true of autotrophs and heterotrophs?

A) Autotrophs undergo primarily catabolic reactions, and heterotrophs undergo primarily anabolic
reactions.
B) Autotrophs undergo primarily endergonic reactions, and heterotrophs undergo primarily exergonic
reactions
C) Autotrophs produce their own energy, and heterotrophs must acquire energy from other biotic
sources
D) Autotrophs primarily release heat, and heterotrophs primarily absorb heat

52) What reactants are oxidized and reduced in aerobic cellular respiration?
A) Glucose is oxidized, oxygen is reduced
B) Oxygen is oxidized, glucose is reduced
C) Carbon dioxide is oxidized, water is reduced
D) Water is oxidized, carbon dioxide is reduced

53) What type of respiration do muscle cells in the human body undergo when oxygen is scarce?
A) Anaerobic Respiration
B) Lactic Acid Fermentation
C) Alcohol Fermentation
D) Heterotrophic Respiration

54) Why do prokaryotes undergo binary fission?

A) They only have one circular ring of DNA that is easy to replicate
B) The process of cellular replication takes much less time in smaller, simpler prokaryotic organisms
C) Rapid reproduction allows for increased bacterial colonization of an area
D) All of the above

55) What is one method that enzymes do not use to lower activation energy?
A) The optimal orientation of its substrates
B) Straining the bonds of its substrates
C) Modification of an amino acid sequence in its substrates
D) Covalently bonding to its substrate

56) How many chromosomes does a haploid human gamete have?

A) 11
B) 23
C) 46
D) 92

57) Which is not an example of work that intentionally takes place in the cell?
A) Transport with sodium potassium pumps
B) Mechanical with vesicle movement
C) Chemical with energy coupling of ATP
D) Thermodynamic with heat generation

58) Which of the following is not unique to meiosis?

A) Synapsis and crossing over
B) Lining up of sister chromatids at the metaphase plate
C) Separation of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate
D) Lining up of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate

59) Which of the following does not ensure genetic variation due to meiosis?
A) Post reproduction changes to the DNA sequence
B) Random fertilization
C) Crossing over
D) Independent assortment of chromosomes

60) What is one way that cell division is not externally regulated?
A) Anchorage dependence
B) Growth factors
C) pH regulation
D) Density-dependent inhibition