RENR PRACTICE TEST 4

1. Nutritional needs during pregnancy are affected by

a. the mother’s age.
b. the sex of the infant.
c. the mothers food cravings.
d. whether the mother works.

2. A pregnant woman’s energy needs must be met in order to

a. spare vitamins.
b. spare adipose stores.
c. prevent fetal deformity.
d. spare protein.

3. Drinking 3 to 4 cups of milk a day during pregnancy is recommended because it is a good source of
a. folate.
b. iron.
c. vitamin D.
d. vitamin C.

4. A very overweight pregnant woman older than 30 years of age is at high risk for
a. anemia.
b. gestational diabetes.
c. edema.
d. phenylketonuria.

5. After questioning a pregnant woman about her fluid intake, the nurse discovers that the patient is drinking
four glasses of diet cola per day. Which response by the nurse is best?
a. As long as you get enough fluid, soda is all right to drink.
b. Less than two cups of caffeine a day is probably OK.
c. The major worry with soda is the sugar content.
d. You really should switch to decaffeinated colas.

6. The client tells the nurse that his lips are dry and he feels thirsty. Which of the following validates the client’s
statement?
a. Pitting edema of 1+ to ankles
b. BP 100/60 mm Hg
c. Sodium 145 Meq/L
d. Skin turgor no tenting

7. The nurse explains to the prenatal class attendees that at full term about 10 to 11% of the maternal weight
gain is attributed to which of the following?
A. Blood, uterine, and breast tissue
B. Fetal tissue
C. Maternal reserves
D. Placental fluid

8. The pediatric nurse explains to a new mother that two factors, nature and nurture, may influence the
formation of her child’s essence. Which factor among the following would be considered nature?
a. Cultural aspects
b. Parenting skills
c. The era in which the child develops
d. Traits inherent in the infant

9. The pediatric nurse teaches the parents of a 3-month-old baby the principles of growth and development that
will occur in their child’s lifetime. Which statement accurately describes one of these principles?
a. Each child progresses through predictable stages within a predictable timeframe.
b. Growth and development begin in infancy and continue until the adult years.
c. Growth refers to the ongoing process of adapting throughout the life span.
d. Within each child, body systems develop at the same rate.
10. After administering the Captopril as prescribed, which of the following statement by the nurse to the
client is MOST significant?
a. “If you feel dizzy do not hesitate to call the nurse
b. “Rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position”
c. “Are you allergic to any medication?”
d. “If you have a dry cough, report it to the nurse”

11. During a well-child visit, the pediatric nurse assesses a 2-year-old child for language development.
Which developmental domain is the nurse assessing?
a. Cognitive
b. Family development
c. Moral/spiritual
d. Psychosocial

12. A mother takes her 10-year-old son to the pediatrician for a sprained wrist. During the medical history,
the pediatric nurse listens to the mother describe her son as busy playing basketball all day long with the
other boys in the neighborhood. Based on the nurse’s assessment, which stage of Freud’s psychosocial
development is this child experiencing?
a. Anal stage
b. Genital stage
c. Latency stage
d. Phallic stage

13. A pediatric nurse examines a 7-year-old at a well-child visit. Based on Erikson’s theory, which basic task
does the nurse anticipate for this child?
a. Balance independence and self-sufficiency against uncertainty and misgiving.
b. Develop a sense of confidence through mastery of different tasks.
c. Develop resourcefulness to achieve and learn new things without self-reproach.
d. Recognize there are people in his or her life who can be trusted to take care of basic needs.

14. A nurse has started admitting a new person on home care and is beginning to establish a relationship.
Which of the following would be the most important thing for the nurse to do?
a. Complete the paperwork in a timely fashion
b. Establish open communication
c. Conduct a complete physical health assessment
d. Provide feedback to the person’s questions

15. Which of the following best describes person-centered communication?

a. The nurse says to the person seeking care, “Why do you continue to drink when you know it is not good for
you?”
b. The nurse responds to person seeking cares request for pain medicine by saying, “It is not time for your pain
medicine. You had it hours ago.”
c. The client says to the nurse, “I think my husband is cheating on me.” The nurse responds by saying, “You
think your husband is cheating on you?”
d. The client says to the nurse, “I can’t believe I have cancer.” The nurse responds by saying, “One of my
closest friends had cancer and had to have chemotherapy.”

16. A nurse is counseling someone who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The nurse says, “Tell me
more about how this diagnosis has affected your daily activities”. Which of the following best describes the type
of communication the nurse is using?
a. Verbal communication
b. Nonverbal communication
c. Metacommunication
d. Functional communication
17. Which of the following should be the nurse’s PRIORITY action when she identifies an elevated ST
segment in an ECG report?
i. Administer aspirin
ii. Place in semi-fowlers position
iii. Administer oxygen
iv. Get a defibrillator
a. i and iv
b. ii and iii
c. iii and iv
d. i, ii and iii

18. Which of the following scenarios best describes a nurse using metacommunication?
a. Using both touch and silence when counseling an individual
b. Practicing reflection when interaction with an individual
c. Discussing with an individual how to solve a problem
d. Understanding that an individual needs a break before proceeding

19. Which of the following statements can be identified as a method for clarifying a message?
a. I get very upset when you talk to me in that tone.
b. You make me very angry when you drink alcohol.
c. I can make you happy. I know I can.
d. What I want from you is to be left alone!

20. A nurse and a man are involved in a conversation. When the person folds his arms across his chest, the nurse
almost simultaneously folds her arms across her chest. This behavior is recognized as:
a. Empathy.
b. Reciprocity.
c. Flexibility.
d. Spacing.

21. A nurse and her client are engaged in meaningful conversation when suddenly there is silence between the
two. To facilitate effective client-centered communication, the nurse should:
a. Ask the person what he is thinking, so they can understand each other.
b. Restate what the person said before silence ensued, to get clarification.
c. Change the subject to one that is more pleasant for the person to discuss.
d. Wait quietly to give the person time to reflect where he wants to lead the conversation.

22. A person has just been admitted to the hospital. In talking with the person, the nurse is able to elicit from her
that the reason for her hospitalization is that her husband beat her up. Which characteristic of the therapeutic
relationship is being demonstrated?
a. Empathy
b. Trust
c. Rapport
d. Purposeful communication

23. An individual reveals to the nurse that he is having an affair with his wife’s best friend. Which of the
following statements will enhance effective therapeutic communication between him and the nurse?
a. You know that what you are doing is wrong.
b. Why would you want do something like that?
c. How could you do that to your wife and children?
d. This affair seems to be troubling you.

24. A nurse is working with a person to increase his daily exercise and activity. Which of the following
statements by the nurse best demonstrates the use of reflection?
a. I have also struggled with finding time to exercise on a regular basis.
b. Regular exercise plays an important role in preventing many health problems.
c. You said that you have difficulty making time in your day for exercise.
d. It may be helpful if we developed a goal related to daily exercise.
25. A woman tells the nurse that she is very nervous about their meeting today. Which of the following
relationship stages are the nurse and woman most likely experiencing?
a. Orientation phase
b. Working phase
c. Therapeutic phase
d. Termination phase

26. A community believes many people in that community lead sedentary lives because they lack safe areas in
which to exercise. What action should the nurse take in order to confirm or reject these beliefs?
a. Walk around the neighborhood.
b. Interview members of the community.
c. Obtain town morbidity and mortality rates.
d. Go to the town hall to obtain the number of parks in the community.

27. The client’s daughter is upset that the nurse looks annoyed and demands to know the nurse’s name. The
name states, “I am here to take care of your father, not you.” Which element of ICN code is the nurse in breach?
a. Nurse and co worker
b. Nurse and people
c. Nurse and professional
d. Nurse and practice

28. The study of a population is referred to as (a):

a. Community pattern.
b. Windshield survey.
c. Demography.
d. Community diagnosis.

29. The process of dynamic change with adaptation in the systems parts, and how community systems and
subsystems interact is known as:
a. Structure of a community.
b. Community health promotion.
c. Community diagnosis.
d. Function of a community.

30. A nurse is assessing a community from both a developmental and risk perspective. Which of the following
characteristics would be of most interest to the nurse?
a. Gender
b. Age
c. Race
d. Socioeconomic level

31. Using developmental theory, a community nurse assesses the community and determines that the majority of
residents who are 45 years of age or older lead sedentary lives. Which of the following would be the priority for
this nurse to promote?
a. Health promotion activities
b. Accident prevention activities
c. Drug prevention activities
d. Pregnancy prevention activities

32. Which of the following demonstrates the nurse using subjective data to indicate a health concern in the
health-perception health-management pattern?
a. Examining high sexually transmitted disease rates recorded by the health department
b. Listening to community members discuss the high smoking rate among teenagers
c. Analyzing the high infant mortality rate reported by state hospitals
d. Discussing the high rate of teenage motor vehicle crashes recorded by the local police department
33. After assessing the community, the nurse concludes that the community is having difficulty meeting its
nutritional-metabolic pattern. Which of the following findings would the nurse most likely have discovered
during the assessment?
a. Decreased availability of grocery stores
b. Poor nutritional habits
c. Lack of subsidized food programs
d. Inadequate knowledge about proper nutrition

34. A nurse is assessing a community’s exposure to pollutants by examining contaminated soil, air, water, and
food. Which functional health pattern is being assessed by the nurse?
a. Nutritional-metabolic pattern
b. Elimination pattern
c. Health-perception health management pattern
d. Values-beliefs pattern

35. The doctor ordered Gentamicin 20mg three times a day. On hand is Gentamicin 80 mg/2ml. How many ml
should the nurse give?
a. 0.4ml
b. 0.5ml
c. 4ml
d. 5ml

36. The nurse is conducting community education about stress. Which of the following statements should be
made by the nurse?
a. Stress always has a negative effect on the body.
b. A moderate amount of short-term stress can make a person more efficient and goal-focused.
c. Long-term stress is useful in helping one to meet goals.
d. Stress always has a positive effect on the body.

37. A nurse is discussing the various types of stress to a group of adults. Which of the following would be used as an
example of eustress?
a. Increasing alcohol intake to deal with loss of a job
b. Avoidance of social activities because of anxiety
c. Severely limiting food intake as a way to control stress
d. Joining a cardiac rehabilitation exercise program after a myocardial infarction

38. A nurse is caring for a person who has experienced a minor injury following a fall. Which of the following
physiological responses to stress would the nurse anticipate?
a. Lowered blood pressure
b. Elevated heart rate
c. Lowered respiratory rate
d. Elevated blood supply to the gut

39. Which of the following statements concerning spirituality is correct?

a. Spirituality is a search for the meaning of existence.
b. To fully experience spirituality, one needs a religious affiliation.
c. Stress always strengthens the quest for spirituality.
d. Spirituality always prevents depression, which is common following a stressful event.

40. A nurse has stated that the person she is working with demonstrates stress hardiness. Which of the following
individuals is most likely being described?
a. Refuses to see family members after the nurse practitioner tells him or her about test results
b. Conducts Internet research to learn about the latest treatment options for a health deviation
c. Calls in sick when faced with a personal relationship problem
d. Views stressors as negative life events
41. A nurse is describing adults who are in the sandwich generation. Which of the following provides the best
description of this term?
a. Middle-aged adults who are starting a family at an older age
b. Young adults who are beginning to find jobs, marry and start a family
c. Middle-aged adults who are caring for children and aging parent’s
d. Young adults who have several small children

42. A nurse is collecting health assessment data about a person’s coping mechanisms in relation to stressors.
Who would provide the best source of this information?
a. Persons primary care physician
b. Persons spouse/significant other
c. The person
d. Expert objective analysis skills of the nurse

43. A nurse is assisting a person to cope with stress. Which statement by the nurse would be the most helpful?
a. Most people in this situation feel the way you feel.
b. Tell me what this event means to you.
c. There are many support groups available for you to use.
d. Your family wants to help you through this stressful event. May I call them?

44. A nurse is planning to conduct a health promotion project in the community. Which consideration should the
nurse make when determining the appropriate population for this project?
a. The fastest growing population is children under the age of 12.
b. The fastest growing population is young adults.
c. The fastest growing population is middle-age adults.
d. The fastest growing population is adults age 65 and older.

45. Which of the following statements made by a client best identifies someone who would benefit from health
promotion interventions?
a. “I have a new grandchild and want to be part of her life.”
b. “My mother lived until she was 90, so a long life is in my genes.”
c. “Some chronic illness is just a part of aging.”
d. “I hope I’ll live a lot longer, but one never knows.”

46. A 75 year old client has a fever and left lower lobe pneumonia. When auscultating his chest over the
consolidated area, which sign would the nurse expect to be ABSENT?
a. Bronchophony
b. Dull percussion sound
c. Egophany
d. Resonance

47. Which of the following statements concerning urinary incontinence is correct?

a. Urge incontinence occurs when one has the urge to void but is unable.
b. Stress incontinence is associated with emotional turmoil.
c. Functional incontinence occurs is associated with environmental barriers.
d. Incontinence with high post-void residual occurs when someone laughs or sneezes.

48. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority related to the problem of urinary incontinence?
a. Risk for social isolation
b. Risk for impaired skin integrity
c. Risk for inadequate fluid intake
d. Risk for impaired coping

49. A 75-year-old man tells the nurse that he has difficulty staying asleep during the night. Which of the
following responses should be made by the nurse?
a. Older adults need as much sleep as middle-age and younger adults. Let’s talk about your sleep patterns.
b. I’ll ask the nurse practitioner to prescribe a sleeping pill for you.
c. Taking naps during the day can help relieve excessive fatigue and will help you sleep better.
d. Let’s talk about your sleep schedule and things that may prevent you from getting a restful night sleep.
50. A nurse is conducting a community education program about cognition in older adults. Which of the
following information should be included?
a. Some form of mild dementia is a normal part of aging.
b. All forms of dementia have the same symptoms, but progress at different rates.
c. Assessment for dementia should be part of routine physical exams.
d. Elders who score below 27 points on the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) are not likely to have a cognition
problem.

51. A nurse has recently accepted the position of unit nurse manager on a long-term care unit. Which of the
following directives should the nurse give to the staff nurses?
a. Encourage residents to participate in unit activities such as Scrabble and bingo.
b. Demonstrate the caring aspect of nursing by dressing residents before breakfast.
c. Fill in missing words during conversation with the residents to avoid embarrassment.
d. Instruct the aides to get residents ready for breakfast as quickly as possible to make sure they are ready to eat.

52. A nurse is planning a community health education program for young adults. Which of the following
considerations should be made by the nurse?
a. The age span encompassing young adulthood is between 20 to 30 years of age.
b. The number one cause of death for young adults is injury.
c. The number of young adults in the Caribbean is increasing.
d. The maternal mortality rate is at its lowest point since 1980.

53. A nurse is completing a health counseling session with a 25-year-old woman. Which of the following
statements should be made by the nurse during this session?
a. A yearly Pap test is recommended for detection of ovarian cancer.
b. Research supports that breast self-exams reduce breast cancer mortality.
c. The incidence of cervical cancer is very low in your age group.
d. Daily physical activity and weight control is one way to stay healthy.

54. A 26-year-old client has a total cholesterol of 206 mg/dL and an LDL of 110. Which of the following
conclusions can be drawn by the nurse?
a. The client has achieved the target levels for cholesterol in young adults.
b. The client has a very low risk of developing heart disease.
c. The client requires counseling about cardiac disease risk factors.
d. The client has early-onset cardiac disease.

55. The public health nurse is conducting a screening of young adults for metabolic syndrome. When asked
about the syndrome, which of the following responses should be made by the nurse?
a. Anyone who has low blood sugar, high cholesterol, and high blood pressure has this syndrome and is at risk
for cardiac disease.
b. This syndrome helps predict heart disease. Once it is diagnosed, the correct medication can be prescribed and
heart disease avoided.
c. This syndrome is a warning sign that the person could develop heart disease. When someone has metabolic
syndrome, dietary and activity level changes are recommended.
d. Anyone who has high cholesterol, high blood pressure, and high blood sugar has coronary artery disease.
Once we make the diagnosis, we can begin to treat the disease.

56. The university health services nurse is preparing a disease prevention program for college students. Which
of the following information should the nurse include in the program?
a. Living in the dorm increases ones risk of developing meningococcal disease.
b. The mortality rate from meningococcal disease is very low.
c. There are no antiviral medications that can treat meningococcal outbreaks.
d. A vaccine for meningococcal disease has not been developed.
57. A 30-year-old woman with a BMI of 36 is counseled by the nurse regarding interventions to assist with
weight reduction. In which order would the nurse discuss the implementation of these interventions?
1. Gastric stapling
2. Medication to reduce appetite
3. Nutrition and exercise education
4. Assessment of lipid profile and blood pressure
a. 4, 3, 2, 1
b. 4, 2, 3, 1
c. 3, 4, 2, 1
d. 3, 2, 1, 4

58. A nurse is discussing optimal activity for young adults. Which of the following information should be
stressed?
a. Forty-five minutes of moderate exercise per day are required to maximize health benefits.
b. An increase in heart rate from 70 to 200 beats/min during exercise is optimal.
c. Moderately brisk walking is an appropriate aerobic exercise.
d. Sixty minutes of exercise three times a week is recommended.

59. The assessment finding that may indicated a fluid volume excess in a client with a stroke is?
a. Reduced blood pressure
b. A very weak pulse
c. Adventitious breath sounds
d. Highly concentrated urine

60. Which of the following reflects Piaget’s theory as applied to young adults?
a. Voting for a candidate based on popularity
b. Voting for a candidate based on media advertisements
c. Voting for a candidate based on support of the candidate by peers
d. Voting for a candidate based on analysis of views about various issues

61. Which of the following adults has transitioned to Erikson’s intimacy versus isolation and loneliness stage of
development?
a. A 21-year-old man who has a part-time job, spends most of his leisure time with his buddies, and has
numerous short-term intimate relationships
b. A 25-year-old woman who is very concerned with how she is perceived by her coworkers and friends
c. A 30-year-old man who just graduated with a PhD and is looking for his first full-time job
d. A 26-year-old woman who has a long-term relationship with a female companion

62. Which of the following young adults exemplifies Kohlberg’s postconventional level of moral reasoning?
a. 28-year-old person who calls in sick so as to help a friend move to a new location
b. 22-year-old man who uses marijuana on the weekends with friends
c. 30-year-old woman who volunteers at a soup kitchen one day a month
d. 35-year-old who works long hours so as to be considered for a promotion

63. When performing chest percussion on a child, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
a. Firmly but gently striking the chest wall to make a popping sound.
b. Gently striking the chest wall to make a slapping sound
c. Percussing over area from umbilicus to the clavical
d. Placing a blanket between the nurse’s hand and the child’s chest.

64. The nurse assessing a client with diverticulitis, the nurse should report which of the following to the health
care provider?
a. Hyperactive bowel sounds
b. Rigid abdominal wall
c. Explosive diarrhea
d. Excessive flatulence
65. Which of the following factors is most important for healing an infected decubitis ulcer?
a. Adequate circulatory status
b. Schedule periods of rest
c. Balanced nutritional diet
d. Fluid intake of 1500 ml/day

66. A client is receiving digoxin (lanoxin) and the pulse range is normally 70 to 76 bpm. After assessing the
apical pulse for 1 minute and finding it to be 60 mbp, the nurse should first:
a. Notify the physician
b. Withhold the digoxin
c. Administer the digoxin
d. Notify the charge nurse

67. When caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube for the purpose of decompression, which nursing action
takes PRIORITY?
a. Instil 30ml of air in the tube every two hours
b. Discontinue wall suction while providing care
c. Provide care to the nares at least every eight hours
d. Position the patient in the semi fowlers’s position

68. A health care center is using the health wellness illness continuum tool to evaluate the level of wellness for
clients. Which of the following clients should be placed at the center of the continuum?
a. College student with influenza like symptoms
b. An older adult client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
c. A new mother with a urinary tract infection
d. An older adult client with a long history of well controlled rheumatoid arthritis

69. The time interval between invasion by an infectious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms of
the disease is called:
a. Communicable period
b. Incubation period
c. Infectiousness
d. Pathologic reaction

70. The ability of an agent to produce a severe pathologic reaction is known as:
a. Antigenicity
b. Invasiveness
c. Toxicity
d. Virulence

71. Immunity is a characteristic of the:

a. Agent factor
b. Host factor
c. Environmental factor
d. Epidemiologic triad

72. Which situation describes the role of a nurse being involved in surveillance?
a. Educating clients about influenza immunizations
b. Collecting information about occurrence of measles
c. Evaluating the effectiveness of a HIV/AIDS prevention program
d. Advocating for changes in the national disease reporting requirements

73. A nurse is working in a health department when a patient arrives who has been traveling to Guyana and has
been diagnosed with malaria. The nurse knows:
a. The Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report should be consulted to investigate the rate of malaria in the
Caribbean
b. This is a disease that must be reported to the state health department.
c. The nurse should take precautions to wear a mask and gown to avoid exposure.
d. The patient is very ill and should be sent to the hospital immediately.
74. Which elements of surveillance does a nurse use?
i. Mortality registration
ii. Epidemic field investigation
iii. Laboratory reporting
iv. Individual case investigation
a. i, ii, iii
b. i, ii, iv
c. ii, iii, iv
d. i, ii, iii, iv

75. The factors, exposures, characteristics, and behaviors that determine patterns of disease are described using:
a. Descriptive epidemiology
b. Analytic epidemiology
c. Distribution
d. Determinants

76. To understand the causes of health and disease, epidemiology studies:

a. Individuals
b. Families
c. Groups
d. Populations

77. When a nurse examines birth and death certificates during an epidemiologic investigation, what data
category is being used?
a. Routinely collected data
b. Data collected for other purposes but useful for epidemiologic research
c. Original data collected for specific epidemiologic studies
d. Surveillance data

78. An epidemiologist wanting to know what caused severe diarrhea and vomiting in several people at a local
banquet would be using:
a. Descriptive epidemiology
b. Analytic epidemiology
c. Distribution
d. Determinants

79. When studying chronic disease, the multifactorial etiology of illness is considered. What does this imply?
a. Genetics and molecular structure of disease is paramount.
b. Single organisms that cause a disease, such as cholera, must be studied in more detail.
c. Focus should be on the factors or combinations and levels of factors contributing to disease.
d. The recent rise in infectious disease is the main focus.

80. Immunization for measles is an example of:

a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Health promotion

81. Screening for hearing defects is an example of:

a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Health promotion

82. Vocational rehabilitation of a person with a neuromuscular disease is an example of:

a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Health promotion
83. An example of primary prevention is:
a. Pap smear
b. Blood pressure screening
c. Diet and exercise
d. Physical therapy

84. An example of secondary prevention is:

a. Rehabilitation
b. Avoidance of high-risk behaviors
c. Immunization
d. Mammogram

85. An example of tertiary prevention is:

a. Rehabilitative job training
b. Parenting education
c. Testicular self-examination
d. Family counseling

86. The probability an event will occur within a specified period of time is called:
a. Rate
b. Risk
c. Epidemiology
d. Epidemic

87. Which statement is true about mortality rates? Mortality rates:

a. Are informative only for fatal diseases
b. Provide information about existing disease in the population
c. Are calculated using a population estimate at year-end
d. Reveal the risk of getting a particular disease

88. A screening for diabetes revealed 20 previously diagnosed diabetics and 10 probable new cases, which were
later confirmed, for a total of 30 cases. This is called:
a. Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Attack
d. Morbidity

89. An example of an attack rate is the:

a. Number of cases of cancer recorded at a medical center
b. Number of people who died of cholera in India in a given year
c. Number of beef cattle inoculated against mad-cow disease on a farm
d. Proportion of people becoming ill after eating at a fast-food restaurant

90. A nurse is told that a screening test has high specificity. This means that the test:
a. Provides precise and consistent readings
b. Accurately identifies those with the condition or trait
c. Accurately identifies those without the trait
d. Has a high level of false positives

91. In which situation does the nurse need to be aware of the potential for selection bias?
a. Determining the population to be studied
b. Considering how the participants will enter the study
c. Studying cause and effect relationships
d. Documenting results of the study

92. As a result of an outbreak of influenza in a community, a nurse encourages members of the community to
receive the influenza vaccine. Which level of prevention is being used?
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Multifactorial prevention
93. Epidemiologic studies of diseases conducted by nurses during the twentieth century were influenced by the
i. Increasing rate of poverty
ii. Declining child mortality rates
iii. Overcrowding in major cities
iv. Development of new vaccinations
a. i and ii
b. i and iii
c. ii and iii
d. ii and iv

94. Nurses incorporate epidemiology into their practice and function in epidemiologic roles. Which of the
following a function of the nurse in epidemiology?
a. Policy making and enforcement
b. Collection, reporting, analysis, and interpretation of data
c. Environmental risk communication
d. Documentation on patient charts and records

95. The greatest risk factor for suicide in adult women is:
a. Divorce
b. Unemployment
c. Intimate partner violence
d. Terminal illness

96. A public health nurse is working in a community where there have been multiple closures of large factories
leaving many individuals without employment. Unemployment places this population at risk for:
a. Becoming an abuser at home
b. Committing violence in and outside the home
c. Applying for unemployment benefits
d. Neglecting the needs of their children

97. Which is the first action a nurse should take when developing a community program to prevent violence?
a. Talk to people who are victims of violence for their opinion.
b. Identify factors that lead to violence.
c. Develop a plan of action to combat violence.
d. Evaluate current community programs.

98. A child who lives in extreme poverty is at greatest risk for which type of abuse?
a. Sexual abuse
b. Emotional neglect
c. Physical neglect
d. Child abuse

99. When making a home visit to a low income, frail, older persons home, a nurse would most likely suspect
adult maltreatment if:
a. The older person reports giving money to family members on a regular basis.
b. The windows of the house are in need of repair.
c. The older person spends a great deal of time watching television.
d. There are dogs running loose in the yard of the home.

100. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when working with a rape survivor?
a. Provide continuous care once the victim enters the health care system.
b. Examine evidence for its authenticity.
c. Work with the criminal justice system to find the rapist.
d. Provide long-term therapy for psychological trauma.