SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES

AND
ETHICS
ARIEL C. MANLUSOC
INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY
1. The term criminology was originally derived from Italian word:
a. crimen c. criminologia-- Raffaelle Garofalo (1885)
b. criminologo d. criminologie- Paul Topinard (1887)
2. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the society to prevent and repressed them?
a. Penology b. Victimology c. Criminology d. Sociology of law
Victimology = study of the role of victim in relation to the commission of crime. It focus on the victim.
Sociology of law = attempt at scientific analysis of the condition which the penal/criminal laws has developed as
a process of formal or social control.
Penology = branch of criminology which deals with the management of jails and inmates.
3. The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge and concept of other sciences and field of study which
makes the study of criminology:
a. Dynamic b. Nationalistic c. Social science d. An applied science
Nationalistics = it varies with the nature, culture, laws of the country.
Social Science = it study crimes as part of society (social phenomenon)
Dynamic = it states that the study of criminology is not absolute and constant it changes as civilization or social
condition changed.
4. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the relationship between criminality and the milieu :
a.Ecology b) Demography
c) Epidiomology @ d) Physical anthropology
a) criminal epidiomology – the study of the relationship between environment and criminality
b) criminal ecology – the study of criminality in relation to the spatial distribution in a community
c) criminal physical anthropology – the study of criminality in relation to physical constitution of men
d) criminal psychology – the study of human behavior in relation to criminality
e) criminal psychiatry – the study of human mind in relation to criminality
5. It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure, functions and direction.
a. Sociology b. Criminology c. Psychology d. Anthropology
6. It deals primarily with the study of crime commission.
a. Criminology b. Criminal Etiology c. Criminological research d. Criminal Sociology
Criminal Etiology = is the study of the cause or origin of crime . It study the primary reasons for crime
commission.
Criminological research = study of the crime correlated to with antecedent variables, state of crime trend.
7. An act or omission in violation of the public law commanding or forbidding it.
a. Crime b. Felony c. Offense d. Infraction of law
Felony = act or omission punishable under the RPC.
Offense = Acts or omission punishable under the Special laws
Infraction of Law = a violation of city, municipal ordinances.
Delinquency = an act not inconformity with the norms of the society.
8. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by _____________.
a. Culpa b. Fault c. intentd. both a and b
9. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit, EXCEPT:
a. Intelligence b. Intent c. Freedom d. Negligence
10. Peter Pan, a victim of robbery, was able to identify his assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on the way to the
hospital where he was declared dead on arrival, This crime is called,
a. complex crime b. simple crime c) instant crime d) situational crime
Simple crime = one act, one felony
Compound crime = a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies.
Complex Crime = one felony is a means to commit the other.
11. Ms. Maita T. Tama is a skilled woman in making deception through verbal communication. She had
committed estafa to several persons through illegal recruitment. What crime according to result did she
committed?
a. acquisitive crime b. extinctive crime c) instant crime d) situational crime
Acquisitive = the criminal gains/benefited.
Extinctive = the crime resulted to destruction.
Instant = the crime is accomplish immediately.
Situational = circumstances surrounding the commission is conducive for their accomplishment.
12. A crime can be classified according to its stages of commission. What crime is committed when the offender
merely commences the execution of an offense by overt act but which nevertheless did not perform all acts of
execution which would produce the felony by reason of some cause other than his own spontaneous desistance?
a. Attempted crime c. Consummated crime
b. Frustrated crime d. Complex crime
Consummated Felony = When all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.
Frustrated Felony = when the offender performs all the acts of execution which would produce the felony as a
consequence but which nevertheless do not produce it by reason of causes independent of the will of the
perpetrator.
Crimes without frustrated: Rape, Bribery, Corruption of Public officers, Adultery, Physical Injury.
13. It is the process by which individual reduce the frequency of their offending behavior as the age increases.
a. doing gender c. aging out
b. criminal of reduction d. active precipitation
Crime of reduction = crimes that are committed when the offended party experiences a loss of some quality
relative to his or her present standing.
Doing gender = Men’s struggle to dominate women to prove their manliness. Violence directed toward women
is an especially economical way to demonstrate manhood.
Active precipitation = views that the source of many criminal incident is the aggressive or provocative behavior
of victims.
14. Crimes are classified under the RPC according to gravity. What crime to which the law attaches the capital
punishment or afflictive penalties.
a. grave felonies c. less grave felonies
b. light felonies d. complex felonies
Grave felonies= punishable by Capital or in any of its period is afflictive.
Less grave = punishable by correctional penalty
Light felonies = punishable by light penalty (fine of not more than 200 or by arresto menor.
15. What crimes according to the time or period of the commission are those which are committed only when the
circumstances or situation is conducive to its commission like for instance, committing theft in a crowded place.
a. seasonal crimes b. instant crimes c. situational crimes d. continuing crimes
16. There are crimes that are committed within a certain length of time. What crime is committed by a series of
acts in a lengthy space of time?
a. static crime b. instant crime c. situational crime d. episoidal crime.
17. Acts that are outlawed because they violate basic moral values such as rape, murder, assault and robbery?
a. Mala in se crime b. Enterprise crime c. Mala prohibitum crimes d. Expressive crime
Mala prohibitum crime = acts that are outlawed because they clash with current norms and public opinion,
such as tax, traffic and drug laws.
Enterprise crime = The use of illegal tactics by a business to make profit in the market.
Expressive crime = crime without purpose except to accomplish the behavior at hand, such as shooting someone.
18. Crimes that violates the moral order but in which there has no actual victim. It is society as a whole and not
any person/individual which is the victim.
a. victimless crime c. public order crime
b. reactive hate crime d. retaliatory crime
Reactive hate crime = perpetrators believe that they are taking a defense stand against outsides who they believe
threaten their community or way of life.
Retaliatory hate crime = offense committed in response to a hate crime, real or perceived.
19. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which are committed to maintain one’s livelihood or as a
means for living are what crimes?
a. Rational crimes c. Blue-collar crimes
b. Irrational crimes d. White collar crimes
Corporate crime = white color crime involving a legal violation by a corporate entity.
20. It is that element of intentional felony which means that the person who committed the felony has the
capacity to distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully understands the consequences of his
actions:
a. intelligence b. intent c. imprudence d. freedom
21. A psychological disorder in which a child shows developmentally inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity
and lack of attention.
a. psychotism b. neuroticism c. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) d. KSP disorder
22. One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action arises
from the intra-psychic conflict between the social and anti-social components of his personality?
a. Acute b. neurotic c. Chronic d. normal
23. Criminals can also be classified according to this behavioral system. What are those criminals who have high
degree of organization that enables them to commit crime without being detected and usually operates in a large
scale?
a. occasional c. professional
b. Career d. organized e. reasoning
Occasional = offenders who do define themselves by a criminal role or view themselves as committed career
criminals.
Career criminal = a person who repeatedly violates law and his/her lifestyle around criminality.

24. A forcible sex in which the offender and the victim are acquainted with each other.
a. aggravated rape c. statutory rape
b. marital rape d. acquaintance rape
Aggravated rape – rape involving multiple offenders, weapons and victim injuries.
Marital rape =forcible sex between legally married partners.
Statutory rape = sexual relations between an underage (minor) female and an adult male.
25. The concept that conduct norms are passed down from one generation to the next so that they become
stable within the boundaries of a culture.
a. heredity b. cultural transmission c. inheritance d. DNA
26. The Revised Penal Code is the primary source of our criminal law. It is otherwise known as:
a. Act 3815 b. R.A. 3815 c. P.D. 603 d. R.A. 9344
27. According to this principle, the punishment should be the same as the harm inflicted on the victim. Therefore,
a man who broke the hipbone of another during the fight will be punished by also breaking his hipbone:
a. law of talion b. classical c. utiliarianism d. neo-classical
28. During the prehistoric times, there was no formal criminal justice system, and crimes where punished based
on:
a. formal laws b. customs c. conscience d. the Bible
29. He is recognized as the first codifier of laws:
a. Drakon b. Solon c. the Hittites d. Hammurabi (Babylon)
Greek Codes: (1) Solon and (2) Drakon Code (known for severity)
Sumerian Code = (King Dungi) hundred years earlier than Code of Hammurabi made from clay tablets.
Hittites Law = known for its concerns for morality.
Twelve Tables = made from bronze tablets (Decemviri Consulari Imperio Legibus Scribundis)
30. His theory was that God did not make all the various species of animals in two days, as what the bible says
but rather that the species had evolved through a process of adoptive mutation and natural selection which led to
his conclusion that man was traced to have originated from the apes. “Origin of Species”
a. Jeremy Bentham b. Prince Charles c) Charles Darwin d)Charles de Gaulle
31. This school of thought in criminology states that although individuals have self-rule, there are other factors
that affect the exercise of their autonomy, which cause them commit crimes:
a) neo-classical b) classical c) utilitarianism d) positivist
32. This school of thought in criminology states that although individuals have free will, there are other factors
that affect the exercise of their free will, which cause them commit crimes:
a. neo-classical b. classical c. utilitarianism d. positivist
Classical =based on the assumption that individuals choose to commit crimes after weighing the consequences of
their actions. “individuals have free will.”
33. T he view that people’s behavior is motivated by the pursuit of pleasure and the avoidance of pain.
a. Utilitarianismc. Common law
b. Mosaic code d. Doctrine of stare decisis
Common law = (Henry II) future cases finds it resolution by applying decisions in previous case (Doctrine of
Stare Decisis).
34. He said that individuals are like human calculators. Before a person commits a crime, he first analyzes
whether the satisfaction he would gain is greater than the possible negative effect he would have to suffer if the
gets caught doing the crime:
a. Cesare Beccaria b. Cesare Lombroso c. Edwin Sutherland d. Jeremy Bentham
35. In the book (1764) “On Crimes and Punishment”, what was said to be the most effective means of controlling
crime?
a. death penalty b. monetary fine c. certainty of punishment d .life imprisonment
36. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works,
upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be
further studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern and Empirical Criminology”.
a) Cesare Beccaria c) Edwin Sutherland
b) Cesare Lombroso d) Jeremy Bentham
 Choice Theory
I. Rational Choice Theory
Free will theory = (Cesare Becarria)
Pain and pleasure Principle/ Greatest Hapiness theory / human are like “felicific calculus” (Jeremy Bentham)
Utilitarianism (Pain and pleasure)
= law violating behavior occurs when an offender decides to risk breaking the law after considering both personal
factors (needs) and situational factors (how well target is protect and how efficient the police force are)
II. Trait Theory
Positivist = The school of thoughts that criminal behavior is based on biological, psychological and social factors.
The shift from the Philosophical to scientific approach in explaining the causes of crime.
37. According to Lombroso, these are physical characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the general
population and are throwbacks to animals or primitive people.
a. physical deviations c. stigmata
b. atavistic anomalies d. ape-like appearance
Atavistic Stigmata (atavistic anomalies) = the physical features of creatures at an earlier stage of development
There are three (3) classes of criminals according to Lombroso:
a. born criminals – individuals with at least five (5) atavistic stigmata
b. insane criminals – those who are not criminals by birth; they become criminals as a result of some
changes in their brains which interfere with their ability to distinguish between right and wrong
c. criminaloids - those with make up of an ambiguous group that includes habitual criminals, criminals
by passion and other diverse types
38. It is the study that deals with the relationship between the skull and human behavior.
a. physiognomy b. physiology c. phrenology d. craniology
Biological Determinism = This explanation for the existence of criminal traits associates an individual’s evil
disposition to physical disfigurement or impairment
Human physiognomy= the study of facial features and their relation to human behavior. (founded by
Giambatista dela Porta (1535-1615) )
JOHANN KASPAR LAVATER (1741-1801) = Swiss theologian who state– “people’s true characters and
inclinations could be read from their facial features “
39. A type of physique characterized by strong , muscular and coarse bone. (violence)
a. Pyknic b. athletic c. asthenic d. aesthetic
Pyknic= massive neck, broad face, rounded face and medium height. (deception/fraud and violence)
Asthenic = lean, slightly built, narrow shoulder. ( petty thievery and fraud)
Ernst Kretschmer = founded the school of somatotype or Physiology
40. Among the different body types William Sheldon presented in his study, he considered this ONE to be the
most likely to become criminal
a. endomorph c) mesomorph
b. ectomorph d) dysplastic
Cranioscopy = (Franz Joseph Gall) study the personality and development of mental and moral faculties based
on the external shape of the skull.
Cranioscopy was later renamed as phrenology, the study that deals with the relationship between
the skull and human behavior
Franz Kaspar Spuzhelm = developed the science of Phrenology
41. It refers to an study showing the relationship between the physical built of a person to his personality
structure and the type of offense he is most prone to commit
a. physiognomy (face) b. phrenology c) somatotype d) psychology
42. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
a. Margaret Juke b. Ada Juke c. Ada Kallikak d. Ada Edwards
Hereditary as a factor
1)RICHARD DUGDALE (Juke Family)
2)HENRY GODDARD (Kalikak Family)
43. His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he concluded that feeblemindedness is inherited and related
to deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to use the term “moron”.
a. Robert Dugdale b. Eaenest Hooton c. Henry Goddard d. Charles Goring
44. This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, that
low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal behavior:
a. Nature Theory b. Strain Theory c) Psychological theory d) Labeling theory
45. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study of society, which to him passes through
stages divided on the basis of how people try to understand it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific
understanding of the world.
a. August Comte c. Adolphe Quetelet
b. Positivists d. Sociologists
Positivist = the name given to the followers of August Comte.
46. According to the psychoanalytic theory of personality, this component of an individual’s personality operates
under the “reality principle”:
a. superego b) conscience c) ego d) id
Ego ideal = part of the super ego; directs individual into morally acceptable and responsible behavior, which may
not be peasurable.
Charles Goring = relationship between criminality and defective intelligence and defective social instinct. That
criminal behavior was inherited.
Sigmund Freud = Psychodynamic/psychoanalytic theory.
Id = present at birth/unconscious biological drives/ “pleasure principle”.
Ego = compensates for the demand of the Id/guides man’s actions to remain within the boundaries of
social convention/ “reality principle”
Superego = resulted from incorporating within the personality the moral standards and values of parents,
community, and significant others/ tells what is right from wrong.
Neurotics = people who experience feelings of mental anguish and are afraid that they are losing control of their
personalities.
Psychotics = those who had lost total control and were dominated by their primitive id.
Schizophrenia = marked by hearing non-existence voices, hallucinations and inappropriate responses.
Paranoid schizophrenic = suffers complex behavior delusions involving wrongdoing or persecution.
Alfred Adler =“inferiority complex”
Erik Erikson = “identity crisis” a period of serious personal questioning
 Psycho sexual stages of human development
Eros = most basic drive present at birth (instinct to preserve & create life).
(1st yr.) - Oral stage = pleasure attained by sucking and biting.
(2nd & 3rd) Anal Stage = sexual attention is on elimination of bodily wastes.
(3rd) Phallic stage = children focus on their genitals. (Oedipus complex)/ (Electra Complex)
 (6 yrs.) Latency = feeling of sexuality are repressed until the genital stage begins at puberty; this mark the
beginning of adult sexuality.
Class A(distrust,suspicious to social detachment)
1. Paranoid P.D.= recurrent suspicions without justification , preoccupied by unjustified doubts, hostility,
oversensitivity, tends to see oneself as blameless.
2. Schizoid P.D. = pervasive detachment from social relationship, restricts expression of emotion, neither
enjoy nor desire close relationship, inability to form social relationship and lack of interest to do so.
3. Schizotypal P.D. = reduced capacity for close relationship, have old beliefs and magical thinking such as
superstitions, telepathy etc.
Class B (dramatic, emotional erratic)
1. Antisocial P.D. = fail to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors as indicated by repeated acts
that are grounds fro arrest. Unable to control their impulse, perform violent and harmful acts without experiencing
a bit of guilt.
2. Borderline P.D.= instability of interpersonal relationships, instability of mood, self-image and affects and
marked impulsivity, may have recurrent suicidal behaviors. Their mood may shift rapidly and inexplicably from
depression to anxiety to anger over a pattern of several hours.
3. Histrionic P.D. = pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking. Overly concerned with
their appearance and exaggerated impression of emotion.
4. Narcissistic P.D. = exaggerated sense of self importance, a preoccupation with being admired and lack of
empathy for the feeling of others.
Hypochondriasis = chronic anxiety about health.

Class C (anxiety and fearfulness)

1. Avoidant P.D. =feeling of inadequacy, hypersensitive to negative evaluation, timid and shy but do wish to
have friends, uncomfortable and afraid of rejection or criticism. Unlike schizoid, they don’t enjoy being alone.
2. Dependent P.D. = difficulty in making everyday decision without an excessive amount of advice and
reassurance from others, lack self confidence in judgment, uncomfortable and helpless when alone.
3. Obsessive –Compulsive P.D. = pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism and mental
and interpersonal control. Preoccupied with trivial details and rules and do not appreciate changes and routine.

47. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states that individuals copy behavior patterns of other
individuals, and that those with weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier by those with stronger
personalities:
a. Emile Durkheim b. Gabriel Tarde c) Adolphe Quetelet d) Enrico Ferri
The Theory of Imitation is explained by the following patterns:
 a) Pattern 1: individuals imitate others in proportion to the intensity and frequency of their contact
 b) Pattern 2: inferiors imitate superiors
 c) Pattern 3: when two behavior patterns clash, one may take the place of the other
48. Refers to the standard of behavior or conduct accepted in a given society which expected of an individual
living in that society.
a) Culture c) Norms
b) Principles d) Laws
49. Who stated that crime is normal in a society?
a. Gabriel Tarde c. Emile Durkheim
b. Cesare Lombroso d. Enrico Ferri
Anomie (Greek “nomos” = wthout norms) is one in which norms have broken down or become inoperative
during the period of rapid social change or social crisis such as war and famine.
Transition from Mechanical solidarity (pre-industrial society) to Organic solidarity (post industrial system)
Robert Merton = applied the theory of anomie of Durkheim to criminology. Utilized a modified version of it
and identify two elements of culture interaction to produce potentially anomie conditions: (culturally defined
goals and social approved means of obtaining them.
Conformity = when individual both embrace conventional social goals and also the means at their disposal to
attain.
Innovation = individual accepts the goals of the society but reject or is incapable of attaining them through
legitimate means.
Ritualism = gain pleasure from practicing traditional ceremonies regardless of whether they have real purpose or
goal.
Retreatism = rejects both the goals and the means of society.
Rebellion = substituting an alternative set of goals and means for conventional ones.
August Aichorn= “latent delinquency” = youngsters who seek immediate gratification without considering right
and wrong (they lack guilt)
Behavior Theory = human actions are developed through learning experiences. Focus on actual behavior.
Social Learning theory = (branch of behavior theory) Man are not born with ability to act violently but they learn
to be aggressive through their life experiences.
Behavior modeling = is the process by which violence is learned by experience.
50. He was the one who introduced the following definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge
regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking
laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
 a) Raffaelle Garofalo c) Edwin Sutherland
b) Cesare Beccaria d) Paul Topinard
51. It is the most essential part of the definition of the criminal law:
a. elements c. degree of evidence
b. penalty d. motive
52. In Biological Theory, the following can lead to criminal behavior, except:
a) Physical Defects
b) Chromosome Irregularity
c) Abnormal Brain Function
d) Inferior body construction
53. It contends that the exploitation of the working class would eventually lead to class conflict at the end of the
capitalist system.
a. Chicago School c. Positive Theory
b. Conflict Theory d. Class School
54. Group of urban sociologists who studies the relationship between environmental conditions and crime.
a. classical school c. chicago school
b. neo-classical school d. positive school
55. An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed to bring financial gain to the offender.
a. organized crime c. economic crime
b. bias crime d. profit crime
Bias crime = directed toward a particular persons or members of a group who share discernible racial, ethic,
religious or gender characteristics. Also called hate crime
56. Which of the following statement best describes the Latin maxim "There is no crime where no law
punishing it".
a. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege.
b. dura lex sed lex
c. ignorantia legis neminem excusat
d. actus me invitus factus non est meus actus.
Enrico Ferri = “people were driven to commit them by conditions of their lives”. Crime problem could be traced
not to bad people but to bad laws. “Theory of Imputable and Denial of Free Will”
A. Social Structure theory = view that disadvantaged economic class position is a primary cause of crime
1. Social Disorganizational theory = branch of social structure that focus on the breakdown of institution such as
family, school, and employment in inner city neighborhood. Focuses on the conditions within the urban
environment that affect crime rates . Links crime rate to neighborhood ecological characteristics .
(Shaw and Mckay=contended that criminals are not biologically inferior, intellectually impaired or
psychologically damaged and criminal behavior is cause by neighborhood denigration and slum conditions )
2. Strain theory = views that crime is a direct result of lower-class frustration and anger (due to unattained goals).
3. Cultural deviance theory = branch of social structure theory that sees strain and social disorganization
together resulting in a unique lower-class culture that conflicts with conventional social norms.
B. Social Process Theory = Views that criminality is a function of people’s interaction with various organization,
institutions and process in society
1. Social Learning = The view that human behavior is modeled through observation of human social
interactions, either directly from observing those who are close from intimate contact, or indirectly through the
media. Interaction that are rewarded are copied, while those that are punished are avoided. (Albert Bandura)
It views that violence as something learned through the process called behavior modelling.
(It includes Differential Association theory (Edwin Sutherland) and Differential reinforcement theory)
2. Social Control theory = maintains that all people have the potential to violate the law and that modern society
presents many opportunities for illegal activities
Social Bond Theory =(Travis Hirschi) the dominant version of the social control theory which views that people
commit crime when the forces that bond (weakening ties that bind people to society) them to society are
weakened or broken.
3. Social reaction theory = (commonly called labeling theory) view s that people become criminals when
significant members of society label them as such as they accept those labels as a personal identity.
57. This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term is used interchangeably with the term “terrorism”.
a. violence c. revolution
b. guerilla d. rebel
58. The commission of criminal acts using the instruments of modern technology such as computers or the
internet.
a. cyber sex c. computer crimes
b. cyber crime d. computer hacking
59. Frustration can be manifested by the presence of anxiety, irritability and
a) state of fear c) self fulfillment
b) satisfaction d) peace
60. A term that used to describe motorists who assault each other.
a. road rage c. predation
b. hate crime d. serial murder
61. This theory reflects the way people react to a given situation based on the social influences they acquired from
other people that practically determine their behaviors. This theory likewise serves as the learning process of
delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most important theory in crime causation.
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory
c) Differential Association Theory
d) Social Reaction Theory
62. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ wherein he concluded that the main difference
between a criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to different sets of conduct norms.
a) Emile Durkheim c) Andre Michael Guerry
b) Thorsten Sellin d) Abraham Maslow
63. He explained that individuals learn criminal behavior by means of communication with persons who dwell in
criminality:
a) Cesare Lombroso c) Edwin Sutherland
b) Charles B. Goring d) Emile Durkheim
64. The theory which states that attachment, connection and link to society will determine whether a person shall
commit a crime or not:
a. social control c) social disorganization
b. social bond d) social learning
65. The killing of a large number of people over time by an offender who seeks to escape detection.
a. road rage c. hate crime
b. mass murder d. serial murder
66. The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who violate the rights of others deserve to be punished. The
severity of the punishment should be commensurate with the seriousness of the crime.
a. restorative justice c. utilitarianism
b. jus desert d. equality of punishment
67. A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls below levels necessary for normal and efficient brain
functioning.
a. hyperglycemia c. hyperglycomia
b. hypoglycemia d. hypoglycomia
68. It is a proposal of a double male or super male syndrome. This theory held that the possession of an extra Y-
chromosome causes males to be violent and aggressive.
a. XYY syndrome c. XXY syndrome
b. YYX syndrome d. YXX syndrome
69. This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and concentrated on the need for the
quality among all citizen. They provided statistical data which claimed to show that variations in crime rates are
associated with variations in economic conditions.
a. Cartographic School
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Chicago School
70. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) . This was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the
personality that is characterized by an inability to learn from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
better known as:
a. psychotic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. neurotic behavior
d. dementia praecox
71. A tracing made by an instrument that measures cerebral functioning by recording brain wave activity with
electrodes that are placed on the scalp.
a. electroencephalogram
b. electroencephalograph
c. electrocraniogram
d. electo-brain activity

72. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the
law, and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this particular theory.
a. Disorganization Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory
c. Differential Association Theory
d. Strain Theory
73. It refers to the condition bought by normlessness.
a. criminality c. anomie
b. logomacy d. frustration
Logomacy = a statement that we would have no crime if we don’t have law and that we can eliminate crime if we
merely abolish criminal law.
74. A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred
from one generation to the next taking place mostly among disorganized urban areas.
 a. Cultural Transmission c) Social Phenomenon
b. Crime d) Delinquent behavior
75. This part of man’s personality is present at birth representing unconscious biological drives for sex, food and
other life-sustaining necessities and follows the “pleasure principle” which requires instant gratification and has
no concern for the rights of others.
a. Id c) Superego
b. Ego d) Alter ego
76. Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per month. It is the theoretical basis which determines the peace
and order situation.
a. index crimes c. crime rate
b. non-index crimes d. crime statistics
77. The idea that low female crime and delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency with which police treat
female offenders.
a. doing gender
b. chivalry hypothesis
c. masculinity hypothesis
d. pre-menstrual syndrome
78. A stage of development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers.
a. Oedipus complex c. doing gender
b. Electra complex d. chivalry hypothsis
79. It is the percentage of solved cases out of the total number of reported crime incidents handled by the police
for a given period of time.
a. crime rate c. crime analysis
b. crime solution efficiency d. crime variance
80. The legal principle by which the decision or holding in an earlier case becomes the standard by which
subsequent similar cases are judged. It literally means “to stand by decided cases”.
a. jus desert c. stare decisis
b. story decisis d. just stare
81. This theory focuses on the development of high-crime areas associated with the disintegration of conventional
values caused by rapid industrialization, increased migration, and urbanization.
a. social disorganization theory
b. differential association theory
c. culture conflict theory
d. maternal deprivation and attachment theory
82. This is a theory by Robert Merton which assumes that people are law abiding but under great pressure, they
will resort to crime.
a. strain theory c. social learning
b. cultural deviance d. anomie – microside anomie
83. The first IQ test was developed by a French psychologist named:
a. Rafael Garofalo c. Albert Bandura
b. Walter Reckless d. Alfred Binet
84. According to the Social Bond theory of Travis Hirschi, the four (4) social bonds that promote socialization
and conformity are the following:
a. attachment c. involvement
b. commitment d. belief
e. all of the above
85. The following, except one, are biochemical factors to criminality:
a. brain lesions c. food allergies
b. hypoglycemia d. diet
86. This theory viewed that people become criminals when significant members of the society label them as such
and they accept those labels as a personal identity.
a. social bond c. social disorganization
b. social reaction d. strain theory
87. It refers to the strength of emotional bond between the infant and the mother.
a. maternal bond c. emotional bond
b. attachment d. closeness
88. This theory points out that an individual commits crimes after he has made a rational decision to do so and has
weighed the risks and benefits of the act and selected a particular offense according to various criteria.
a. risk analysis theory
b. utilitarianism
c. rational choice theory
d. irrational choice theory
89. This social control theory, according to Walter Reckless, views that strong self-image insulates the youth from
the pressures and influences in the environment.
a. Containment theory c. Social reaction
b. Social bond thoery d. Social learning
90. According to Maslow, this need explains the individuals desire to respect s an honorable human being.
a. self –actualization c. Esteem
 b. safety need d. survival need
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
1. Which of the following is NOT included in the components of criminal justice system of the United States?
a. Law enforcement c. Corrections
b. Prosecution d. Courts
2. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that the most important function of the CJS is the protection of
the public and the repression of criminal conduct.
a. Crime prevention c. Crime control
b. Law and order d. Due process
3. According to this criminal justice model, the rights of an individual must be co-equal with the concern for
public safety.
a. Crime prevention c. crime control
b. Law and order d. due process
4. This concerns to the obligations of the community to individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common
advantages and sharing of common burden.
a. Prosecution c. justice
b. equality --- d. trial
5. This function of the law enforcement is being done through elimination of factors influencing the occurrence of
crimes, good community relations, educating the citizens about their role, introduction of delinquency prevention
programs, good parenting and others.
a. Maintenance of law and order
b. Reduction of crime
c. crime prevention
d. crime control
6. This principal character of the criminal justice process links all components of the CJS.
a. Offender c. Victim
b. witness d. Crime
7. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
a. Prosecution b. Correction
c. Police d. Court
8. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the police have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient to
warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged violator.
a. Investigator c. judge
b. prosecutor d. solicitor general
9. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense and the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of
introducing evidences.
a. Clerk of court c. judge
b. sheriff d. jury
10. The pillar of the CJS which is not under the executive branch of the government.
a. law enforcement c. court
b. prosecution d. correction
11. This is a governmental body that is charged with the responsibility of administering justice.
a. Law enforcement c. correction
b. Prosecution d. court
12. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some court,
Government Corporation, board or commission.
a. Agent of person in authority
b. Government employee
c. Government officer
d. person in authority
13. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as the
lawyer of the State or government in criminal cases.
a. law enforcement c. court
b. prosecution d. correction
14. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered by
the Barangay Court.
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. Certificate to file action
d. complaint affidavit
15. It refers to the study of the various agency of our government in charged of processing law violators to ensure
the protection of the society and maintenance of peace and order.
a. Criminology c. Criminal Justice
b. Victimlogy d. Sociology
16. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the commission of a crime and subject of an investigation.
a. Convict c. respondent
b. Accused d. suspect
17. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to
maintain peace and order?
a. Criminal Justice System c. Criminology
b. Criminal law d. Criminal jurisprudence
18. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral
certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the possibility of error.
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Clear and convincing evidence
c. substantive evidence
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
19. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the
prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering a
guilty plea.
a. arraignment c. preliminary investigation
b. pre-trial d. plea bargaining
20. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the country which is under the ________?
a. DOJ c. DILG
b. NAPOLCOM d. DSWD

21. A person who is under custodial investigation is basically protected by a number of rights mandated under the
constitution and this was even expounded in the legislative act known as _______?
a. Miranda Doctrine c. R.A. 7438
b. Bill of Rights d. R.A. 6975
22. A body officially assembled under authority of law in which judicial power is vested or the administration of
justice is delegated.
a. court c. corrections
b. prosecution d. law enforcement
23. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property
and ensure public safety.
a. police c. prosecution
b. court d. corrections
24. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation and treatment of persons convicted of committing crime.
a. police c. prosecution
b. court d. corrections
25. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.
a. R.A. 8294 c. R.A. 7080
b. R.A. 1379 d. R.A. 3019
26. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years.
a. Supreme Court c. RTC
b. Court of Appeals d. MTC
27. It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on
December 13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC.
a. R.A. 6975 c. P.D. 1184
b. R.A. 8551 d. R.A. 6040
28. Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s, cause oriented groups and advocacy groups that promote
the welfare of the people against all forms of abuse and exploitation.
a. crime control c. political parties
b. civil society d. volunteer
29. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the existence of a cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen the
police work as suppressing the spread of criminality.
a. Crime Prevention c. Crime control
b. Criminal apprehension d. law enforcement
30. Directly under the supervision of the Department of Justice, its most important function in the Criminal
Justice System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law through the speedy delivery of services particularly in
the prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service c. PNP
b. Ombudsman d. Solicitor General
31. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more municipalities?
a. MTC c. MeTC
b. MCTC d. MTC’s
32. What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s own judgment in a given situation without referring to
your superior due to the eminence of the situation?
a. Police resourcefulness c. Police discretion
b. Police integrity d. police prudence
33. It refers to the art or science of identifying law violators, locating and tracing them in order to affect their
arrest and gather evidence to prove their guilt in court.
b. Crime prevention c. criminal investigation
a. Crime control d. Intelligence work
34. An attached agency of the Office of the President tasked to implement and undertake drug law enforcement.
a. Narcotics Command c. AID-SOTF
b. PDEA d. NBI
35. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement
of the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of the prosecutor.
a. Complaint c. Information
b. Pleadings d. affidavit
36. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief
that a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
a. preliminary investigation c. Prejudicial question
b. inquest proceeding d. custodial investigation
37. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day.
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above
38. Is the actual restraint of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense.
a. Arrest c. investigation
b. invitation d. seizure
39. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the law breakers in the execution of their criminal
plan.
a. Instigation c. Entrapment
b. Investigation d. Raid
40. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or interdependent from any branch of government.
a. prosecution c. correction
b. court d. community
41. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it
on the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the
State in the prosecution of the offense?
a. Chief State Prosecutor c. Solicitor General
b. National or provincial prosecutor d. Judge
42. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer after a person has been taken into custody.
a. custodial investigation c. interview
b. inquest d. interrogation
43. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade 27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or
Art. 210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should first be filed to the office of _______ for the
conduct of the required preliminary investigation.
a. Ombudsman c. Solicitor General
b. Judge of MTC d. the President
44. In flagrante delicto means ______?
a. caught in the act c. caught after commission
b. instigation d. entrapment
 45. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use
in referring to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
a. Jurisdiction c. Venue
b. Jurisprudence d. Territory
46. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the first time to the exclusion of other courts.
a. original jurisdiction c. exclusive jurisdiction
b. appellate jurisdiction d. concurrent jurisdiction

47. It is the formal reading of the charges against a person accused of a crime and latter asking him whether he
pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
a. arraignment
b. preliminary investigation
c. plea
d. promulgation of judgment
48. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within Barangay level.
a. barangay tanod c. pangkat tagapagkasundo
c. barangay council d. lupon tagapamayapa
49. It is the most common way by which the police discovers or it informed that a crime has been committed:
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime.
b. When the police discovers the crime
c. When the victim reports the crime
d. When the suspect surrenders
50. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy.
Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other members who shall be:
 a. more than 10 but less than 20
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
c. more than 10
d. less than 10
51. When arrest may be made?
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn
52. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a warrant?
a. All of these
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the arresting officer.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is personal knowledge based on probable cause
that the person to be arrest has committed it.
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
53. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio c. counsel de parte
b. Public Attorney’s Office d. volunteer counsel
54. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or
documents under his control at the trial of an action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ad testificandum
c. subpoena duces tecum
d. warrant of arrest
55. The “anti-Plunder Act”.
a. R.A. 7080 c. R.A. 3019
b. R.A. 1379 d. R.A. 6713
56. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide free legal assistance to poor members of society:
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. National Prosecution Service
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Public Attorney’s Office
57. This is the power to apply the law to contests or disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties
between the state and private persons, or between individual litigants in cases properly brought before the judicial
tribunal.
a. Judicial Power c. Judicial Review
b. Court d. Court of Justice
58. This is the process or method whereby accusations are brought before the court of justice to determine the
innocence or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecutor c. Prosecution
b. Trial d. Preliminary Investigation
59. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to hear both sides and to come to a decision.
a. Mediation c. Settlement
b. Arbitration d. Agreement
60. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name of the government?
a. Public Prosecutor c. Private Prosecutor
b. Prosecution d. Ombudsman
61. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
a. RTC c. Sandiganbayan
b. Supreme Court d. MTC
62. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended, which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on
appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and decisions of
the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
a. Court of Justice c. Court of Appeals
b. Sandiganbayan d. Court of Tax Appeals
63. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27
above), which can only be committed because of their position.
a. Court of Justice c. Court of Appeals
b. Sandiganbayan d. Court of Tax Appeals
64. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities
to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
a. Commitment Order c. Mittimus
b. warrant of arrest d. habeas corpus
65. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
convicted offender.
a. Penology c. Probation
b. Correction d. Criminology
66. A Jail is a place for the temporary confinement for persons awaiting court action as well as convicted persons
serving short sentence. It was derived from what Spanish word?
a. jaula c. caula
b. gaol d. hawla
e. a and c
67. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by the president. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. Pardon c. Amnesty
b. Commutation of Sentence d. Parole
68. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted prisoners. What classification of prisoners is sentenced to serve
a prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose fine is less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner d. municipal prisoner
69. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of
imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word _____?
a. Presinto c. Precindio
b. presidio d. precinto
70. There are how many members the composed the Lupon?
a. 3 members c. 5 to 10 members
b. 10 to 20 members d. 5 members
71. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons
and Parole.
a. Pardon c. Probation
b. Amnesty d. Parole
72. They serve as the conciliation panel consisting of three (3) members.
a. Lupon tagapagkasundo c. Pangkat tagapagkasundo
b. Lupon Tagapamayapa d. Pangkat tagapamayapa
73. It is a security facility, usually operated by the police stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for
investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before the prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail c. Ordinary jail
b. workhouses d. prison
74. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted from the
length of years that a prisoner have been sentenced to serve for his good conduct.
a. Commutation of sentence c. Parole
b. GCTA d. reprieve
75. Correctional institutions in the country is divided into National and Local institution. What Department of the
Executive Branch is the one in charge of the National Penitentiary?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b. Department of Justice
c. Department of Interior and Local Government d. Bureau of Correction
76. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of the law.
a. penalty c. self-defense
b. exemplarity d. punishment
77. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional institution which primarily in charge of those detention
prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and serving short sentences and under the Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology. While it is true that even the Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are
under the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the __________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Correction
d. Provincial government
78. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the
community.
a. Reintegration c. reincarnation
b. Realization d. Rehabilitation
79. It refers to the examination of an individual’s person, house, papers or effects, or other buildings and premises
to discover contraband or some evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a criminal action:
a. Search c. Search and seizure
b. Raid d. entrapment
80. This court was established by virtue of PD1083, otherwise known as “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the
Philippines”.
a. Court of Tax Appeals c. Shari’a Court
b. Sandiganbayan d. Family Court
ETHICS AND VALUES
1. A division of ethics which deals with the general principles of morality.
a. general ethics b. special ethics
c. code of ethicsd. all of the above
2. It means courage to endure without yielding.
a. prudence b. fortitude
c. temperance d. justice
3. It is the virtue that inclines the will to give to each one his rights.
a. prudence b. fortitude
c. temperance d. justice
4. It is the ability to last.
a. endurance b. patience
c. perseverance d. fortitude
5. It is the ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of reason and sound judgment.
a. prudence b. fortitude
c. temperance d. justice
6. It the ability to moderate or to avoid something.
a. prudence b. fortitude
c. temperance d. justice
7. It is the ability to be calm in enduring situations.
a. patience b. perseverance
c. endurance d. prudence
8. The ability to go on despite obstacles or oppositions.
a. patience b. perseverance
c. endurance d. prudence
9. It is anything that is owed or due. The power to own, exact or use something.
a. right b. duty
c. law d. value
10. It includes all rights enjoyed by individuals as provided by the Constitution and other international
instruments.
a. rights b. human rights
c. privileges d. political rights
11. All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-honored
principle of ____.
a. Delicadeza c. Amor propio
b. Pride d. Pakikisama
12. It is the state of affairs requiring tact to protect the integrity of a person.
a. Virtue c. Delicadeza
b. Courage d. prudence
13. What is the complete title of the PNP Code of Conduct?
a. PNP Code of Ethical Standards and Professional Conduct
b. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
c. PNP Code of Conduct and Standards
d. PNP Ethical Standards
14. An example of Police immorality is _________.
a. Living with a woman not his wife
b. Going to the office not in uniform
c. Smoking while patrolling
d. Always absent from his post
15. It is a list of rights pertaining to persons; a list of individual liberties, freedom and rights which are guaranteed
and protected by the Constitution.
a. people’s rights b. bill of rights
c. personal rights d. rights
16. It is the absence of knowledge which a person ought to possess.
a. ignorance b. amnesia
c. intelligence d. dumb
17. An old Roman philosophy which means “the safety of the people is the supreme law”.
a. ignorancia leges neminem excusat
b. salus populi est suprema lex
c. ignorancia facti excusat
d. dura lex sed lex
18. It is an omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty which is the police officer’s
legal obligation to perform.
a. nonfeasance b. misfeasance
c. malfeasance d. corruption
19. Imports the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful execution, domination or excessive use of authority.
a. dishonesty b. disloyalty
c. incompetency d. oppression
20. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.
a. R.A. 1379 b. R.A. 3019
c. R.A. 7080 d. R.A. 6713
21. It is the misuse of authority for personal gain committed by a person who enforces the law.
a. corruption c. immorality
b. police corruption d. police immorality
22. It is the unreasonable, unnecessary and excessive use of force in the conduct of police operations which does
not support a legitimate police function.
a. brutality c. torture
b. police brutality d. police torture
23. No PNP member shall engage in any activity which shall be in conflict with their duties as public servant.
a. malingering b. moonlighting
c. loyalty to the service d. delicadeza
24. During labor disputes, strikes or rallies, members of peace keeping detail shall maintain themselves outside
the ____ radius from the picket line.
a. 50m b. 40m
c. 30m d. 20m
25. Giving unfair breaks to friends and relatives.
a. deviance c. misconduct
b. nepotism d. corruption
26. Police Community relation is:
a. The honest effort of both the police and the public to understand one another.
b. A pet project of the DILG
c. Building confidence
d. On its way out
27. Policy in exercising utmost restraint by law enforcers in the performance of their duties.
a. Command responsibility
b. maximum tolerance
c. Parens patriae
d. Rules of engagement
28. Worst form of graft and corruption in the government.
a. bribery c. malingering
b. abuse of authority d. moonlighting

29. Reason why a police officer must always wear his uniform securely buttoned.
a. loose clothing is shabby
b. a complete uniform gets women’s attention
c. it is a minor offense
d. a neat appearance will command respect
30. What is the primary purpose of a public relation program?
a. to develop mutual understanding between the police and public;
b. To plan for a community relation program;
c. To recruit new members for community relations;
d. To train police officers in community relations.
31. What program is concerned with creating a favorable public image of the police?
a. Human relations c. Press relations
b. Community relations d. Public relations
32. What changes must occur given an effective police community relations program?
A. Attitudinal and behavioral changes in policemen;
B. Political and social changes in policemen.
C. Attitudinal and mental changes in policemen.
D. Social and economic Changes in policemen
33. The key to professionalism is the implementation of a _____ program which includes the equitable
distribution of recruitment, fair promotion, and rationalized approach in assignment, skills development, grant of
awards and reward and decent living upon retirement.
a. Human resource dev’t c. System and Procedure
b. Organizational dev’t d. compensation
34. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the police organization.
a. loyalty c. patriotism
b. camaraderie d. valor
35. The authority to make decisions without reference to the specific rules or facts, using instead one’s own
judgment.
a. Discretion c. Negotiation
b. prudence d. conviction
36. What is the most important supervisory principle in order to improve the morale of staff?
a. Be fair and just c. BE strict on attendance
b. Be Kind and respectful d. Be forgiving
37. It refers to the planned use of mass communication for public purpose:
a. Press release c. advertisement
b. Publication d. Propaganda
38. The best measure for the competence of police officer is ______.
a. High morale of his men
b. Ability of his men to prepare reports.
c. Good command of words
 d. High level of education among his men
39. This particular program makes the policemen a friend and partner of the people as well as their defender. In
short, this program makes the police a part of, and not apart from society.
a. Civic Action Program
b. Public information Program
c. Public relation Program
d. Mass Communication Program
40. It is the sum total of all the dealings of the police with the people it serves and whose goodwill and
cooperation the police needs for the greatest possible efficiency in public service.

a. Police Community Relations

b. Human relations
c. Police Public relation
d. Public relations
41. A police-community relations programs must have the following objectives, EXCEPT:
a. to enforce the law and arrest violators
b. to obtain public cooperation and assistance
c. to create broader understanding and sympathy with the problems and needs of the police
d. to maintain and develop the goodwill and confidence of the community .
42. The best relation a law enforcement organization can give to the community is:
a. good and credible performance
b. frequent media coverage of police work
c. good public press relations
d. community visitations
43. In launching a police community program, to attain a sound degree of success, link or “ugnayan” should be
made first with:
a. Community Civic organization
b. Local prominent residents
c. local ladies club
d. Barangay officials
44. To develop public good will, a policemen on duty must do the following, EXCEPT:
a. be selective of people to serve
b. be courteous and fair
c. be quick to assist individuals in their problem
d. perform job with dedication and efficiency
45. The usual greetings rendered by the members of the PNP:
a. shake hands c. gun salute
b. hand salute d. thumbs-up
46. This program is designed to influence the opinions, emotions, attitudes, and behavior of the public so that they
will behave in a manner beneficial to the unit in particular and the whole PNP in general.
a. Mass Communication Program
b. Public Information Program
c. Civic Action Program
d. Public Information Program
47. It consists with the peace officers’ relations with the officers and men of his own department.
a. inter-departmental relations
b. intra-departmental relations
c. citizen’s relations
d. teamwork
48. To develop good will, a policeman on duty should do the following, EXCEPT:
a. annoy or inconvenience any law abiding citizen
b. perform his job with dedication
c. project an honest image
d. be courteous
49. Considered as the highest form of love in the PNP hierarchy of police values.
a. love of women c. love of God
c. selfless love of people d. love of power
50. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the
Constitution.
a. nationalism c. heroism
b. patriotism d. valor
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
1. Refers to any person below 18 years
of age or those over but unable to fully
take care of themselves from neglect,
abuse, cruelty, exploitation or
discrimination due to some physical
defect or mental disability or condition.
 a. child c. wards
b. physically disabled d. youth
2. Act or omission which may not be punishable if committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful when they are
committed by a child or a person of tender year or one who is in need of supervision or assistance.
a. crime c. status offense
b. delinquency d. felonies
3. The power of the state to give any form of charity of public nature. It is the philosophy behind the view that
youthful offender/child in conflict with the law is the victim of improper care and that the state is duty bound to
provide protection.
A. positivism c. loco parentis
B. patria potestas d. parens patriae
4. The age of majority under Philippine Law:
a. 21 c. 15
b. 18 d. 22

5. An act providing for stronger deterrence and special protection against child abuse, exploitation and
discrimination.

a. P.D. 603
b. R.A. 9344
c. R.A. 7610
d. R.A. 9262
6. The PD. 603 is otherwise known as:
a. The Child Welfare Code
b. The Child and Youth Welfare Code
c. Youth Offender’s Code
d. Children Welfare Code

 7. Under the law, they are the one responsible for preventing the child from becoming addicted to
intoxicating drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or any harmful practices.
a. DSWD
b. state
c. Parents
d. police
8. The civil personality of the child is deemed to have been commenced upon:
a. birth of the child
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday
c. from the time of his conception
d. upon reaching the age of majority
 9. PD 603 was signed by the late president Marcos when?
a. December 10, 1974
b. June 10, 1974
c. June 10, 1975
d. July 6, 1987
10. Truancy means absence from school without cause for more than _____ days not necessarily consecutive.
a. 30 days c. 5 days
b. 20 days d. 15 days

 11. Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as the legal guardian of the child even though the
parents of the child are still alive when the best interest of the said child so require.
a. adopter
b. loco parentis
c. guardian ad litem
d. temporary guardian
12. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is exempt from criminal liability unless:
a. he is committed a henious crime
b. he is the principal accused
c. he acted without discernment
d. he acted with discernment
13. The Child in Conflict with the law cannot be prosecuted for the commission of the following, EXCEPT:
a. status offense
b. vagrancy
c. prostitution
d. theft
14. A child left by himself without provisions for his needs/or without proper supervision falls under what special
category of a child?
 a. abandoned child c. abused child
b. neglected child d. dependent child
15. In the absence of death of both parents of the child who shall continue to exercise authority over the child?
I. Surviving grand parents
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age
III. Surviving parents of child
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age.
a. I, II and IV only c. I and II only
b. I, II, III only d. all of the above
16. The following are example of status offense except:
a. truancy from school
b. malicious mischief
c. use of profanity
d. running away from home

 17. Is a self association of peers, bound together by mental interest, who acted in concert in order to
achieve a specific purpose which includes the conduct of illegal activities and control over a particular
territory, facility or type of enterprises.
a. Juvenile gang
b. Organized criminal
c. a bond
d. street corner gang
18. A child that was conceived outside of a marriage, born during the marriage of the parents.
a. Illegitimate c. legitimated
b. legitimate d. adopted
19. The court can suspend parental authority if it finds that the parent is:
I. Treats the child with excessive harshness of cruelty.
II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel or example
III. Compel the child to beg
IV. Imposed to a child disciplinary actions.
a. I and II only c. I and III only
b. I, II, III and IV d. I, II and III only
20. Who among the following is considered as “Child in Conflict with the Law”?
a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
b. Pedro who is 10 years old.
c. Paul who is 17 years old
d. anyone of them
21. Refers to the totality of the circumstances which are most beneficial for the child.
a. child as zone of peace c. nation building
b. best interest of the child d. presumption of minority
22. It implies the keeping of the unlawful behavior from occurring originally and thus avoiding police
intervention.
a. prevention c. monitoring
b. control d. safekeeping

23. Is the mass obligation which the parents have in relation to the persons and property of their an
unemancipated child.
a. Paretal authority
b. Patria Potestas
c. Parens’ Patriae
d. Parental Responsibility
24. Which of the following best describe the philosophy behind the adoption.
a. for the childless home to be filled-in
b. to established paternity and filiation
c. to raise a child from illegtimacy to legitimacy
d. to promote the welfare of the child
25. Means freedom from parental authority both over the persons and property of the child.
a. adoption c. emancipation
b. legitimation d. recognition
26. A person of such age is automatically exempt from criminal liability but should be taken to the custody and
care of his parents, DSWD representative or any institution engage in child caring.
a.15 years and below
b. under 18 years of age
c. under 15 years of age
d. under 21 years of age
27. Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child by subsequent marriage of his/her parents.
a. illegitimate c. legitimated
 b. legitimate d. adopted
28. It is the expulsion of the fetus from the mother’s womb:
a. intentional abortion
b. unintentional abortion
c. therapeutic abortion
d. abortion
29. In case of separation between parents of the child, a child of such age is given by the court the preference to
choose between either parents.
a. under 9 years of age
b. 7 years of age
c. 10 years of age
d. 5 years of age
30. No descendants shall be compelled to testify his ascendants both in criminal and civil cases.
a. false c. doubtful
b. true d. misleading
31. Is a juridical act which creates a relationship between two persons similar to that resulting from legitimate
paternity and filiation.
a. marriage c. adoption
b. legitimation d. annulment
32. Refers to aggregate of persons working in commercial, industrial and agricultural establishments or
enterprises whether belonging to the labor or management whose primary duty is to care for the welfare of the
working children.
a. civic association of adult
b. community
c. Samahan
d. youth association
33. Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
a. death of the parents
b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
d. All of the above
34. The primary duty of the law enforcer is apprehending a youthful offender is:
a. subject him to psychological test
b. interview / interrogate him
c. take him to the nearest health center for the necessary medical, physical and mental examination
d. take him to the DSWD

35. Which of the following is the best way for the police to win youth’s trust and confidence.
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a person in authority
36. A child born inside a marriage where either party is suffering from an impediments.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child
37. The act of engaging in the trading, dealing with children like buying and selling of a child or minor for money
or consideration.
a. child abuse
b. exploitation
c. child trafficking
d. abduction
38. Is a special classification of a child characterized by his behavioral disorder, either functional or organic
which is in need of professional help or hospitalization.
a. emotionally disturbed child
b. physically handicapped
c. mentally ill child
d. neglected child
39. Any person who shall engage in trading and dealing with children, such as buying or selling of a child for
money shall suffer the penalty of:
a. reclusion temporal
b. prison correctional
c. reclusion temp to reclusion perpetua
d. prison mayor to reclusion temporal
40. Refers to the person who is subject for adoption:
a. adopter c. adoptive
b. adoptee d. adoptor
41. Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the adopter and the adoptee must first undergo a
supervised trial custody for a period of:
a. at least one year
b. at least six months
c. more than six months
d. more than one year
42. Who may file a complaint concerning abuse of child ( in order )
a. parents, offended party, grand parents, the state
b. the offended party, parents, grandparents, any peace officer or public officer in charge with the law
violated the state.
c. the parents, any peace officer, grandparents, that state and any other public officer in charge of the law
violated.
d. Peace officer, any public officer, the parents, grand parents, the state.
43. They are unable to acquire a higher academic skill but usually acquire basic skill for learning their I.Q. range
from 25 to 50.
a. educable c. trainable
b. borderline d. custodial group
44. Refers to any maltreatment made either habitual or not be it psychological, physical, or emotional
maltreatment.
a. child trafficking
b. child abuse
c. exploitation
d. child prostitution
45. R.A. 6809 is an act which amends for such purpose the provision of the E.O. 209 lowering the age of majority
from:
a. 20 to 17 years old
b. 18 to 21 years old
c. 17 to 20 years old
d. 21 to 18 years old
46. Is a process in which a child is given the same status and rights as legitimate child, both in relation to the
parents and to the relatives of the later.
a. adoption c. legitimation
b. marriage d. emancipation
47. A family type homes which provides temporary shelter from ten to twenty days for children who shall during
this period be under observation and study for eventually placement by the Dept. of Social Welfare.
a. shelter care
b. receiving homes
c. detention home
d. child caring inst.
48. In relation to the preceeding question, children should not anytime exceed:
a. Nine children c. seven children
b. eight children d. ten children
49. An illegitimate child shall inherit from his father ________.
a. one half of the legitimate of the spouse
b. one half of the legitimate of one legitimate child
c. one fourth of the legitimate of legitimate child
d. one forth of the legitimate of an adopted child
50. It is always the duty of a teacher to report to the parents the child’s absence if these exceed:
a. 6 days c. 5 days
b. 10 days d. 20 days

51. When during suspension of the sentence the youthful offender is found incorrigible or his willfully failed to
comply with the condition of his rehabilitation program he shall be:
a. returned to the committing court for the pronouncement of judgment
b. placed him under solitary confinement
c. be subjected to religious counseling
d. placed in a foster home
52. Which of the following is not a qualification of an adopter?
a. he must be accused of a crime involving moral turpitude
b. he must be at least 18 years of age
c. he must be in possession of full civil capacity
d. in a position to support and care not only his children but also the adopted
53. Shall mean the local government, together with the society of individuals or institution, both public and
private in which a child lives.

a. family c. barangay
b. community d. home
54. The following are some grounds for suspension or revocation of the license of a child welfare agency, except:
 a. the agency is being used for immoral practices
b. there are few numbers of children under its care
c. Lacks of financial capability to continue its activities
d. Unsanitary place which is unfit for children
55. It is an institution or place established for the purpose of curing or correcting youthful offender or other
disturbed children.
a. detention home
b. reception and study center
c. rehabilitation
d. child caring institution
56. Is a law which provides for the protection of youth from any form of abuses or maltreatment.
a. R.A. 6909 c. R.A. 7610
b. P.D. 603 d. R.A. 7658
57. An act of engaging children, whether male or female, in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct for money,
profit or other consideration:
a. child exploitation c. child labor
b. child prostitution d. child abuse
58. It is the Juvenile Justice and Welfare act of 2006:
a. RA 9262 c. RA 9344
b. RA 9346 d. PD 603
59. He is a child who has a greater tendency to commit crimes
a. child in conflict with the law
b. child offender
c. child at risk
d. child
60. This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a child who committed an offense by the law
enforcement officer:
a. initial contact with the child
b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
61. A child whose age does not exceed fifteen years is totally exempt from criminal liability, pursuant to:
a. Criminal justice and Welfare Act of 2006
b. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006
c. law against child abuse
d. Revised Penal Code
62. This government office is created pursuant to RA 9344 and it shall be and attached agency to the Department
of Justice:
a. Local council for the Protection of Children
b. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council
c. Sangguniang Kabataan
d. Samahan
63. A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen years of age shall be turned over to the ______ by the
police for the determination of appropriate program.
a. nearest police station
b. local DSWD
c. family
d. court
64. This common procedure applied when arresting an offender shall NOT be employed when the person who is
the subject of apprehension is a child.
a. informing the suspect is a child
b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
65. A _____________ is one who has committed a crime and is undergoing either intervention or diversion
program under the Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006:
a. Child in conflict with the law
b. Child offender
c. child at risk
d. child
66. It is the Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children Act of 2006
a. RA 9346 c. RA 9262
b. RA 9344 d. RA 9263
67. According to R.A. 7610, children in situation of armed conflicts are considered:
a. hostages c. zone of danger
b. zone of peace d. subject of protection
68. The diversion proceedings must be completed within ________ days
a. 30 c. 45
 b. 60 d. 20
69. If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law is guilty of the crime he is accused of doing, the
__________ of the sentence shall automatically suspended:
a. imposition c. determination
b. execution d. discharge
70. The child in conflict with the law whose sentence has been suspended shall be brought back to the court when
he reaches the age of _________ for final disposition of his case.
a. 21 c. 18
b. 19 d. 20
71. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions which are most congenial to the survival,
protection and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and
emotional development. It also means the least detrimental available alternative for safeguarding the growth and
development of the child.
a. Child at risk
b. Best Interest of the Child
c. Full development.
d. Child welfare program
72. It refers to a child who is vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses because of personal,
family and social circumstances?
a. Juvenile
b. Childe at risk
c. Child in conflict with the law
d. Youthful offender
73. It refers to a series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused the child to commit an
offense. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program which may include counseling, skills
training, education, and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-
being.
a. Intervention c. diversion
b. Diversion program d. rehabilitation
74. It refers to the program that the child in conflict with the law is required to undergo after he/she is found
responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings.
a. Intervention c. diversion
b. Diversion program d. rehabilitation
75. It refers to a principle which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
victim, the offender and the community .
a. Commulative justice
b. Restorative justice
c. Social Vengence
d. Retribution
76. Refers to offenses where there is no private offended party.
a. private crime c. public crime
b. victimless crime d. formal crime
77. In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall be determine in the absence of proof what
principle shall be observed?
a. He is presumed be minor
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced pending such issuance he should be hold.
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to prove his age.
78. Contest as to the age of a child in conflict with the law shall be filed:
a. RTC c. MTC
b. Family Court d. Court of Appeals
79. Any peace officer after initial contact with the child in conflict with the law whose age is 15 below
shall_____?

a. bring him to the DSWD.

b. release the child to the custody of his /her parents.
c. shall give notice to the local social welfare and development officer who will determine the appropriate
programs .
d. released to duly registered nongovernmental or religious organization.
80. In the absence of the parents, guardian/relative or when such child custody is not accepted, child in conflict
with the law shall be release to:
A. duly registered nongovernmental or religious organization
B. a barangay official or a member of the Barangay Council for the Protection of Children (BCPC)
C. a local social welfare and development officer or DSWD.
D. all of these
81. It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims and their
inability to respond to repeated physical and psychological violence?
A. Battered Woman Syndrome
 B. Battered Wife
C. Abused Woman
D. Rape syndrome
82. During the conduct of the initial investigation of the child in conflict with the law or in the taking of
the child’s statements, the following persons should be present EXCEPT:
a. child's counsel of choice or in the absence thereof, a lawyer from the Public Attorney's Office;
b. the child's parents, guardian, or nearest relative, as the case may be;
c. the local social welfare and development officer ;
d. the judge of the court where the case was filed
83. Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion program without necessity of court intervention
on the following:
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committee is not more than six (6) years
imprisonment;
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment;
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years but not more than 12
years imprisonment;
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed does not exceeds 12 years imprisonment.
84. Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict with the law is guilty of the crime charged, the
court shall:
A. Pronounce its judgment;
B. Wait for the application for suspension of sentence of the child and order his turn over to DSWD.
C. Automatically place the child in conflict with law under suspension of sentence.
D. Determine the civil liability and order the final discharge of the child in conflict with the law.
85. Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age of 18 while under suspended sentence the
court may:
A. Order the execution of sentence;
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with the law;
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain period or to its maximum age of 21.
D. Any of the above.
86. All records and proceedings involving children in conflict with the law from initial contact until final
disposition of the case shall be:
a. place in the dockets of court forms part of the public record;
b. should be open to the public;
c. should be considered restricted;
d. should be considered privileged and confidential
87. They serve as the juvenile’s first contact with the justice system:
a. barangay chairman c. prosecutor
b. police d. judge
th
88. Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18 birthday when she painted her neighbor’s walls with greeting to
herself. How will you classify Mona as an offender?
a. juvenile offender c. habitual offender
b. adult offender d. both a and b
89. The civil status of a child in relation to his parents:
a. paternity c. filiation
b. maternity d. foundling
90. An act committed by a minor that violates the penal code of the government with authority over the place in
which the act occurred.
a. crime
b. juvenile delinquency
c. delinquency
d. felony
91. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct:
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile delinquency when parents find it hard to balance their jobs with
their parental responsibilities
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency
d. it is only within the family that a child must learn his life values
92. The publication of photographs of persons or children in various lewd or indecent poses meant to cause sexual
excitement is a form of:
a. illegal publication
b. child pornography
c. adult entertainment
d. obscene publication
93. What is the age of full criminal responsibility?
a. over 15 but under 18 years old
b. below 18 years of age
c. 18 to 70 years of age
 d. 18 to 50 years of age
94. Mr. and Mrs. Mahilig, a poor couple with 10 children planned to sell their youngest child to a rich
childless relative in order to give him a good future. What crime will you charge the couple?
a. child trafficking c. child abuse
b. parental neglect d. no crime is committed
95. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street 24 hours a day with no place to go, surviving on
foods given by kind-hearted people with no one to supervise him at his young age of six. How do you categorize
Pedro?
a. neglected child
b. independent child
c. Abandoned child
d. dependent child
96. It refers to the taking into custody of a child who has committed an offense.
a. arrest
b. juvenile arrest
c. initial contact with the child
d. apprehension
97. This common procedure applied when arresting an offender shall NOT be employed when the person
who is the subject of apprehension is a child:

a. informing the subject of his rights b. stating the reasons of arrest

c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
98. A child in conflict with the law must be searched by:
a. the law enforcement officer who apprehended him
b. the law enforcement officer of the same gender
c. the law enforcement officer on duty
d. any law enforcement officer
99. Ms. Wang Bu, a 25-year old mongoloid was raped by her addict neighbor, Mr. Sha Bu. How do you
classify her as a victim?
a. an adult c. an insane
b. a child d. an adolescent
100. One of the rights of children in conflict with the law is the right not to be imposed a sentence of:
a. reclusion perpetua
b. death penalty
c. life imprisonment
d. reclusion temporal
HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND
CRISIS MANAGEMENT
1. It is individual does that involves self-initiated action and/or reaction to a given situation.
a. human behavior c. response
b. stimulus d. will
2. This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that is a manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
a. Psychosomatic illness c. Psychoticism
b. Psychoneurosis d. Psychosis
3.This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to the principles upon which society is based.
a. Anti-social c. Psychopath
b. Schizophrenic d. Sociopath
4. The defense mechanism that enables individuals to justify their behavior to themselves and others by making
excuses or formulating fictitious, socially approved arguments to convince themselves and others that their
behavior is logical and acceptable.
a. sublimation c. projection
b. fantasy d. rationalization
5. This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.
a. frustration c. conflict
b. anxiety d. apathy
6. This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction to an object or state of affairs at the same time repulsion
towards something associated with it.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. multiple
7. This is the process of excluding from the consciousness a thought or feeling that cause pain, shame or
guilt.
a. identification c. regression
b. repression d. fixation
8. This an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing a desirable type of
behavior.
 a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
9. The aggregate observable responses of an organism to internal and external stimuli.
a. human behavior c. behavior
b. personality d. attribute
10. The process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or practice.
a. actualization c. learning
b. thinking d. feeling
11. A field of medicine that specializes in the understanding, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mental
problems.
a. psychology c. psychiatry
b. philosophy d. sociology
12. This type of conflict occurs when there are two desirable but mutually exclusive goals.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. multiple
13. This type of conflict when there are two courses of action, each of which has both pleasant and unpleasant
consequences.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. multiple
14. This is the process of excluding into the consciousness a thought or feeling that causes pain, shame, or guilt.
a. identification c. repression
b. suppression d. fixation
15. This is an attempt to disguise or cover up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing a desirable
type.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
16. This is the process of interpreting our behavior in ways more acceptable to the self by using reasoning and
alibis to substitute causes.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
17. This is the region of the mind in which the perception of the individual whether within or outside is brought
into awareness.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
18. This is the region of the mind the materials of which one is not aware of but with the effort maybe brought to
the consciousness.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
19. This is the region of the mind the individual is not ware of.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
20. This part of the psychic structure is the source of instinct, instinctive energy, occupies the unconscious region,
reservoir of percept, libido, habit tendencies, pleasure principle region, immoral, illogical, no unity of purpose and
the repressed materials join or pleasure it.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
21. This part of the psychic structures merges with the id. It is mostly conscious and partly unconscious.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
22. This part of the outgrowth modification of the ego. It is generally unconscious and partly conscious.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
23. This is a false interpretation of an external stimulus.
a. hallucination c. delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion
24. This is a form of mental disorder resulting from the degeneration or disorder of the brain characterized by
general mental weakness, forgetfulness, and loss of coherence and total inability to reason.
a. melancholia c. amnesia
b. dementia d. apathy
25. A false or erroneous belief in something, which is not a fact.
a. hallucination c. delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion
26. This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situation or object.
a. melancholia c. phobia
 b. exaltation d. mania
27. It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.
a. psychoses c. neuroses
b. abnormality d. psychopathy
28. A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination and regression.
a. psychoses c. neuroses
b. abnormality d. psychopathy
29. An abnormal mental condition whereby a person perform an act while sleeping.
a. delirium c. somnambulism
b. dreaming d. somnolencia
30. A state whereby a person is half asleep or in condition between sleep and being awake.
a. delirium c. somnambulism
b. dreaming d. somnolencia
31. A transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring.
a. heredity c. DNA
b. transmission d. genes
32. An uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal or pathological stealing.
a. kleptomania c. legal insanity
b. phobia d. introvert
33. A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid sense of religious feeling.
a. mania c. mania fanatica
b. delusion d. legal insanity
34. Morbid craving, usually an erotic nature for dead bodies.
a. sex maniac c. masochism
b. necrophilism d. bestialism
35. A sexual perversion in which a person derives pleasure from being demented or cruelly treated.
a. sadism c. bestiality
b. masochism d. megalomania
Megalomania = a mental disorder in which the subject thinks himself as great or exalted.
36. An amnesia state where one wonders away from home or usual surroundings and when awareness set in, there
is no recollection as to how he or she came to be there.
a. insanity c. multiple personality
b. somnambulism d. fugue
37. The most tolerated way of handling frustration. It is a man’s last result when a person attempts to overcome
fear from an anticipated situation or event.
a. coping mechanism c.  aggression
b. defense mechanism d. fight-flight
38. This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situation or object.
a. melancholia c. phobia
b. exaltation d. mania
Melancholia = a mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and depression of spirit.
39. This is a sudden and irresistible force compelling a person to the conscious performance of some action
without motive or forethought.
a. compulsion c. impulsion
b. obsession d. delusion
40. This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the male or an inability to achieve it.
a. masturbation c. prostitution
b. exhibitionism d. frigidity
41. This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual, preferred, and compelling need for sexual gratification by
any technique, other than willing coitus between man and woman and involving actions that are directly results in
genital excite.
a. crime against chastity
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. sexual deviation
d. sexual offenses
 
43. Animals are used for the achievement of sexual excitation and gratification.
a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality
44. The achievement of sexual pleasure though clandestine peeping.
a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality
45. Nick, a chemist, after tasting an unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
a. olfactory c. auditory
b. cutaneous d. gustatory
46. Bong, who usually gets sexual stimulation and gratification with another man manifests what deviant sexual
behavior?
a. lesbianism c. homosexuality
 b. pedophilia d. incest
47. Mr. La Paz, a person working in a funeral parlor, dreams of having sexual intercourse with a corpse. What
type of sexual deviation did he commit?
a. necrophilia c. bestiality
b. pedophilia d. none
48. It is crime inspired by another crime that has been publicized in the news media or fictionally or artistically
represented in which the offender incorporates aspects of the original offense.
a. crime of imitation c. publicized crime
b. inspirational crime d. copycat crime
49. A personality disorder characterized by suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, rigidity, envy, excessive self-
importance, and argumentativeness plus a tendency to blame others for one's own mistakes and failures and to
ascribe evil motives to others.
a. anti-social personality
b. narcissistic personality
c. paranoid personality
d. schizotypal personality
50. A personality disorder which is characterized by a lifelong history of inability to conform to social norms.
a. anti-social personality
b. narcissistic personality
c. paranoid personality
d. schizotypal personality
51. The first step in hostage taking crisis is:
a. crowd control c. negotiation
b. assault d. traffic control
52. One of the following is not a terrorist act:
a. Hostage taking c. robbery
b. bombing d. assassination
53. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what particular defense mechanism?
a. repression c. sublimation
b. displacement d. projection
54. A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the bank together with their hostages; their demand is
geared towards:
a. revenge c. economic gain
b. escape d. vindication
55. The most important person in a hostage situation:
a. negotiator c. hostage taker
b. commander d. hostage
56. You are the first to respond to a call wherein a dead body is found at the scene of the crime with several
onlookers. As a rule, you are not allowed to express opinion. Why?
a. no useful purpose will be served
b. you do not know the cause of death
c. the killer may be around
d. your opinion may influence the negotiator
57. When both hostage and hotage taker develop a mutual feeling of sympathy, understanding, and other shared
stand on issues, leading them to become enemies of the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Stockholm Syndrome
b. Negotiation
c. Confrontation
d. familiarization
58. A dissociative disorder in which the individual shifts abruptly and repeatedly from one personality to another
as if more than one person were inhabiting the same body. This is commonly known as "split personality
disorder.“
a. amnesia
b. multiple personality disorder
c. Psychogenic Fugue State
d. Depersonalization
59. Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to:
a. police handling of the situation
b. negotiation
c. contact
d. control of area and people
60. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators should not command
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands
61. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which indicates openness and willingness to listen can be
shown by:
 a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance
c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are willing to negotiate
61. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media
62. A hostage taker is characteristically all of these, EXCEPT
a. mental derange
b. suffers servere depression and mental aberration
c. sociopath personality d. mental balance

63. These are not negotiable in a hostage taking situation:

a. guns and ammunition c. drinks
b. foods d. all of these
64. One of the following is not a terrorist tactics:
a. bombing c. assassination
c. hostage-taking d. media exposure
65. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical and
psychic energy, hence:
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the authorities
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender.
66. When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands, they were left
with three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more
realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands
d. let the hostages killed
67. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is:

a. to accept their beliefs as being true

b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. to try to bluff or trick them
68. The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to negotiate, except:
a. fears of police assault and punishment
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
69. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
70. P/SSupt. Coronel is the highest ranking PNP officer who first arrive in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he
serves now as a groun commander on the said crisis. Having decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the
objectives are as follows, except one:
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed, and set free.
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the demands of the hostage takers.
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
71. In a hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, it is a “cardinal rule”:
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker face-to-face
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated agreement
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage taker
72. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” , which means:
a. the truth will prevail c. kill the hostage-taker
b. to save lives d. save the hostages
73. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a hostage negotiation.
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
 d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker
74. Last option in hostage crisis:
a. a. crowd control c. negotiation
b. traffic control d. assault
75. It is any incident in which people are being held by another person or persons against their will, usually by
force or coercion, and demands are being made by the perpetrator.
a. kidnapping c. crisis management
b. hostage incident d. abduction
76. The following are the priorities in hostage taking situation, except:
a. preservation of life
b. arrest of the hostage-taker
c. inclusion of the media
d. successfully negotiate
77. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take hostages:
a. by reason of mental illness
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and problems
c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief
78. This is an assault team responsible in carrying out assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
a. medical team c. negotiation team
b. tactical team d. snipers
79. In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used is_____?
A. Kidnapping C. Bombing
B. Assassination D. Extortion
80. In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for death is called;
A. eros C. animus- female/ anima-male
B. thanatos D. lupus

END