REVIEW QUESTION ON LEA 1 : LAW ENFORCEMENT ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION

PREPARED BY: JOHN CHRISTOPHER A. PERAZ BLCCK-A

1. It refers to the field of management which involves planning, and controlling the efforts of a group of individuals
toward achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Administration B. Personnel Management
C. Organization D. Police Organization

2. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon City. It was named after the 1st Filipino Chief of the
Philippine Constabulary.
A. Antonio Torres B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Rafael Crame D. Lamberto Javalera

3. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996. He was 29 years old then. What year can Eugene retire if he wants to avail
the mandatory retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023

4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national security?
A. The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily responsible on matters involving
insurgency and other serious treats to national security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other serious treats to national security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these

5. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the field
operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to:
A. Field Procedure B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan D. Headquarters procedure

6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period ______?
A. Not exceeding four (5) years. B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years. D. Not exceeding three (6) years.

7. The law that empowered the police commission to conduct entrance and promotional examination for police
members refers to:
A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
B. RA 157 D. PD 765

8. The theory of police service which states those police officers are servants of the people or the community refers to:
A. Old B. Home rule C. Modern D. Continental

9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National Police. What would be his initial rank upon
entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE

10. The following are functions in a police organization, EXCEPT:

A. primary functions B. administrative functions
C. secondary functions D. auxiliary functions

11. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search. B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made. D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.

12. He is known as the father of modern policing system?

A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare Lombroso

13. When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or found explosives, what immediate actions
should the patrol officer will do?
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to happen.
C. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.

14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in
the PNP?
A. Inspector C. Senior Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent

15. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

16. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.

A. Four star general C. Director
B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General

17. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?

A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
B. 1:500 D. 1:7

18. What kind of force is needed during armed confrontation?

A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded Force

19. The largest organic unit within a large department.

A. Bureau C. Section
B. Division D. Unit

20. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word _______, which means government of the city.
A. politia C. politeia
B. polis D. Policy

21. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the objectives of the organization will be attained.
A. planning C. Advancement
B. police planning D. Development

22. It is the premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing education
of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
A. PPSC C. RTS
B. PNPA D. NPC

23. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
A. IAS C. PNP
B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM

24. The following are the grounds for Patrol officers to execute spot checks.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your superior;
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police officer;
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the suspect’s prior criminal record; and
e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect is carrying a pyrotechnics.

A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e

25. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by the PNP
regional director:
A. six C. five
B. Three D. four

26. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to
provide day-to-day services to the community.
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol

27. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ____________?

A. Director General C. Solicitor General
B. Inspector General D. IAS General

28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
A. one (1) C. more than one
B. at least one D. less than one

29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the immediate things to do when accident occur?
A. Cordon the area B. Go away and call your superior
C. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him

30. The following are the upgraded general qualifications for appointment in the Philippine National Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five (5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably discharged from military services or civilian position in the
government; and e. Applicant must be eligible.

A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e

31. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the
community
B. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
C. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
32. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for establishing such organization. They
must identify the organization’s _________:
A. strategy C. Goal
B. Tactic D. objective

33. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:

A. establish objectives and standards B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work D. define authority and responsibility

34. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person tends to:
A. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as between individual subordinate
increases
B. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
C. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line supervisory level to the management level
D. All of the above

35. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom of
organization:
A. Audit C. Coordination
B. Monitoring D. Authority

36. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases or promotion
C. Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel
D. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work performance of personnel

37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for _______:

A. Administrative control B. Administration and control
C. Operational supervision D. Policy and program coordination

38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
A. delegation of authority B. span of control
C. unity of command D. chain of command

39. Who has the authority to promote Insp Jhack T. Khole?

A. President C. Chief, PNP
B.CA D. Regional Director

40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?

A. Standard operation procedures B.Special operation procedures
C. Standard operating procedures D.Special operating procedures

41. The following are the characteristics of a good plan, EXCEPT:

A. flexibility C. specific
B. clear D. expensive

42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many of the annual quota is allocated for women?
A. 10% C. 120
B. 100 D. 200

43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived in the following order:
A. age, height, weight & education B. age, weight, height & education
C. height, education, weight & age D. in any order

44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis provided by law.

A. attrition C. Specialization
B. promotion D. retirement

45. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum
age requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry program is ____.
A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
B. 30 years old D. 31 years old

46. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required for permanency of their appointment. Who
among the following is exempted to undergo the Field Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector after graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and First Place in the Examination.

47. Planning as a management function is to be done in the various levels of PNP organization. Broad policy based from
laws directives, policies and needs in general is the responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP D. Dep. Dir. For Administration

48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy Director General in the Armed Forces of the Philippines?
A. Lt. General C. Major General
B. Brigade General D. General

49. The Philippine National Police will recruit 300 new policemen on March 2012 to fill up its quota. Who among the
following applicants is qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978 B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993 D. Migz who was born on August 10, 1991

50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine National Police on October 5, 1988. Nevertheless, he want to pursue his
career as embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP
which he served with extreme commitment and loyalty. When does Bruno can retire?
A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6, 1999
B. September 5, 2010 D. September 5, 2008

51. Which of the following administrative penalties is immediately executory?

A. Dismissal C. Forfeiture of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty

52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be promoted to SPOIV?

A. Officers Candidate Course B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course D.Public Safety Basic Recruit Course

53. The head of the National Capital Regional Police Office shall assume the position of NCR director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Superintendent D. C/Inspector

54. Under the waiver program, who among the following PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in college B. Renz who is under height
C. Justine who is underweight D. Philip who is overage
55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known as____________.
A. Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
D. Department of the Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990

56. The following are the component agencies that compose the Philippine National Police (Sec. 23, RA 6975). a.
NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and
e. National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking.

A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e

57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00 base pay since he was promoted. After five years from promotion,
what would be his monthly base pay after adding his longevity pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37, 690.00
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31, 549.00

58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to the__________:

A. Regional Appellate Board B. National Appellate Board
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Police Commission

59. Who shall administer the entrance and promotional examinations for police officers on the basis of the standards
set by the Commission as amended by RA 8551?
A. PLEB C. CSC
B.PRC D. NAPOLCOM

60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted, if he is promoted who has the appointing authority?
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for the national headquarters personnel attested by the Civil Service
Commission.
B. Chief PNP, recommended by immediate superiors and attested by the Civil Service Commission.
C. President, upon recommendation of Chief PNP, endorsed by the Civil Service and subject to confirmation by the
Commission of Appointment.
D. President from among the senior officers down to the rank of Chief Superintendent, subject to the confirmation
of the Commission on Appointment.

61. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.

A. R.A. 4864 C. Act 255
B. Act 175 D. Act 183

62.________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his life above
and beyond the call of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position B. Meritorious Promotion
C.Regular Promotion D. On-the-Spot Promotion

63. PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements can re-apply
to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No

64. The reason why police officer appears in court as a witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his respect
to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B. Profession D. Comrades

65. One having supervisory responsibilities over officers to the lower rank, whether temporary or permanent.
A. None C. Superior officer
B. Ranking D. Sworn officer

66. Law that created the Manila Police Department, enacted on July 31.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175

67. The performance evaluation system is conducted:

A. thrice a year C. Every 6 months
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly

68. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical disability in the performance of his duty and unable to further
perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime pension equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary D. 80% of his last salary

69.How many successive annual rating periods before a police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance?
A. 2 C. 4
B.3 D. 1

70. Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper escort,
preferably aided by a police woman. The statement is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False

71. In this theory, management assumes employees may be ambitious and selfmotivated and exercise self-control.
It is believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B. X theory D. Y theory

72. The theory X and Y is a human motivation created and developed by?
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Henry A. Landsberger D. Douglas McGregor

73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be promoted to Senior Superintendent.
A. Officers Senior Executive Course B. Officers Advance Course
C. Officers Basic Course D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety

74. Who among the following have summary dismissal powers?

A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All of these

75. If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s
complaint against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
A. Office of the chief of police B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office D. any of them

76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of 20
years active service
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 2.5% D. 55%

77. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan B. Time Specific plan
C. Functional Plan D. time bound operational plan

78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field operations and some special operations
A. Extra Departmental plan B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan D. policy or procedural plan

79. What kind of appointment when the applicant is under the waiver program due to weight requirements pending
satisfaction of the requirement waived.
A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special

80. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a police officer is

A. A ground for dismissal B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss D. Not a bar to promotion

81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the
offenders to justice
A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D. Employment

82. What is the first step in making a plan?

A. Frame of reference B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data D. Selling the plan

83. It identify the role of police in the community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning D. Incremental Planning

84. The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.

A. Line C. Staff
B. Functional D. Line and staff

85. It is the process of developing methods or procedure or an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
accomplishment of a definite objective.
A. Management C. Functioning
B. Budgeting D. Planning

86. Refers to any offense committed by a member of the PNP involving and affecting order and discipline within the
police organization.
A. Breech of Internal Discipline B. Citizens Complaint
C. Minor Offense D. Any of these

87. Which of the following is NOT a function of police personnel unit?

A. Preparing policy statements and standard operating Procedures relating to all areas of the administration of
human resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials regarding personnel matters
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to identify, and subsequently correct, unsatisfactory working
conditions
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks

88. It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating undesirable applicants that do not meet the organization’s
selection criteria
A. Promotion C. Recruitment
B. Transfer D. Selection

89. It is recognized as the best method of filing

A. Pigeon Hole B. Retrieval operation
C. Records Management D. Chain of custody

90. It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it provides positive identification of the criminal
A. Arrest and booking report B. Miscellaneous Records
C. Identification records D. Fingerprint Records

91. The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of
how many months?
A. 1 year C. 2 months
B. 30 Days D. 12 months

92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of hours of classroom training should be required for
newly promoted supervisory personnel
A. 72 hours C. 80 hours
B. 75 hours D. 85 hours

93. It should be proactive, people oriented, based on individual need, and delivered in such a way as to motivate
the experienced officer to a higher degree of professionalism/professionalization
A. Recruit Training B. Specialized training
C. In Service D. Field Training

94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing the entire mandatory and other consideration in
promotion, is what kind of promotion?
A. Promotion by Virtue of Position B. Regular Promotion
C. Meritorious Promotion D. Promotion

95. It involves assistance and action by non police agencies such as Local Safety
Council for Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster
Preparedness plans and Civil defense plans
A. Management Plans B. Procedural plan
C. Tactical Plans D. Extra departmental plan

96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an award:
A. Medal C. Awards
B. Decorations D. Ribbons
97. For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member:
A. Six C. Four
B. Five D. Three

98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive use of authority:
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty
B. Incompetency D. Oppression

99. The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police
forces for civil disturbance control, counterinsurgency, hostage taking, rescue operations and other special operations:
A. NARCOM C. SAF
B. SWAT D. SOCO

100. The primary objective of Philippine National Police:

A. Law Enforcement C. Peace and Order
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime Prevention

101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of
lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number of
security guards.
A. 50% C. 20%
B. 30% D. 10%

102. The vault door should be made of steel at least __________ in thickness?
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches
B. 6 inches D. 20 feet or more

103.An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive to a breach of the protection system, or that, could
result to loss.
A. Hazards C. Human Hazards
B. Natural Hazards D. Security Hazards

104. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to
determines person suitability for appointment or access to classified matter.
A. Local Agency check B. Background Investigation
C. National Agency Check D. Personnel Security Investigation

105. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy security.
A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative program
B. Relative criticality D. Relative security

106. Private security agencies have to be registered with the:

A. SEC C. DTI
B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD

107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be constructed.
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
B. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences

108. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be
issued with a-
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail Order
B. Mission Order D. None of These
109. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
B. 72 Hours D. 300 Hours

110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff:

A. Detachment Commander B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge D. Security Supervisor 1

111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an equal
part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than ___ high excluding the top guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B. 7 feet D. 6 feet

112. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to security guards.
A. Any of these B. Secretary, DILG
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM D. C/PNP

113. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. Vibration Detection

114. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with establishment security policies
and procedures?
A. Security Education C. Security Inspection
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey

115. What is the last phase of Security Education?

A. Initial Interview C. Conference
B. Dissemination D. Security promotion

116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a building, room
container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items without the consent of the owner
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination Locks

117. A type of protective alarm system where the protective alarm located outside the installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary

118. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas issued to an employees who keeps it in
the possession until his authorization is change or until he terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange system
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass System

119. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to
engage the activation bar
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze Button

120. These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the approaches to
the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights C. Floodlights
B. Street Lights D. Search lights

121. The following Firearms are allowed to be issued to a private security guard under normal condition:
I. Cal .50; II. Cal .45;
III. Cal .38; IV. Magnum .22; and
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.

A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V

B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V

122. What is the required capital investment for organization of private security agency?
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000

123. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain?
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic pilferer

124. The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an office or installation refers to:
A. Safe C. File room
B. Vault D. None of these

125. Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material excluding the top guard?
A. Seven feet C. Four feet
B. Six feet D. Five feet

126. The following things are used as barrier, which serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial
Complex, EXCEPT:
A. Human C. Doors
B. Fences D. NONE

127. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
A. 3 hours C. 6 hours
B. 24 hours D. 12 hours

128. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by
utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
A. None C. Card Operated Locks
B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler locks

129. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___ units.
A. 30 C. 500
B. 70 D. 1000

130. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
A. Sodium vapor lamp B. Mercury vapor lamp
C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp D. Quartz lamp

131. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business enterprises where personnel, processes,
properties and operations are safeguarded?
A. Personal security C. Operational security
B. industrial security D. bank security
132. The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:
A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D. Intelligence requires continuous security measures.

133. For a Security agency, how much is the registration fee for each security guard?
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo Php

134. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared to access and
classify matters at appropriate levels.
Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 4 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years

135. The term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers and penetrators of restricted areas or room.
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
B. Thug D. Peterpan

136. The tenure of a security guard is:

A. Six Months B. Co-terminus with the service contract
C. Two years D. Contractual

137. Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence, except:
A. It allows visual access to the installation which aids the intruder in planning
B. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the movements of persons in the installation.
C. It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of the intruder.
D. None of these

138. Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond which shall answer for any valid and legal claims against
such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000

139. What type of investigation involves all aspect and details about the circumstances of a person?
A. partial background investigation B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation D. national agency check

140. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security Education
B. Security Orientation D. Security Survey

141. It is under physical security which provides sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness.
A. Protective Lighting C. Standby Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable Lighting

142. In order to be qualified as a Security Consultant, you must have ____ year/s experience in the operation and
management of security business.
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10 years
B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years
143. What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed firearm is needed after operating for six months.
A. 1:3 C. 1:2
B. 1:5 D. 1:1

144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects predominate?
A. Mercury vapor lamp B. Sodium vapor Lamp
C. Quartz lamp D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp

145. What is an act governing the organization and management of private security agency, company guard force
and government security forces?
A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487

146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina. Chain link are for ______.
A. Solid structure B. Permanent structure
C. Least permanent structure D. Semi- permanent structure

147. It is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough and complete
investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is conducted?
A. Personnel Security Investigation B. Background Investigation
C. Partial Background Investigation D. Complete Background Investigation

148. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel area
to afford better observation of the installation refers to:
A. Clear zone C .Complimentary zone
B. Open zone D. Free zone

149. The extension period for a license to operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of
guards is:
A. 1 month C. 6 months
B. 2 years D. 1 year

150. Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car doors?
A. Warded lock C. Lever lock
B. Disc tumbler lock D. Combination lock

151. Which among the following aspects of Security is the weakest of them all?
A. Physical security
B. Personnel security
C. Personal Security
D. Document and information security

152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-

A. Partially Correct C. Partially Wrong
B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely Wrong

153. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an
installation.
A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier
B. Barrier D. Energy Barrier
154. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards
on a full time basis.
A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
B. Tower Guard D. Control Stations

155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or uniform member of the PNP honorably discharged/separated or
retired from the service are exempted from the requirements of a private detective. The statement is-
A. False C. Absolutely True
B. Partially True D. Maybe False

156. The following are the areas to be lighted:

a. Parking Areas;
b. Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and
e. Susceptible Areas.

A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e

157. An additional overhead of barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences fencing upwards and outward with a
45* angle with three to four strands of barbed wires spread 6” apart.
A. Top guard C. Fence Top
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these

158. When are security guards deputized by the PNP Chief or local mayor to have police authority within their
assigned area of responsibility?
A. When there is an employee’s strike
B. When the company is in retrenchment
C. During times of emergency
D. When there is a crime committed inside the establishment

159. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of this record does not have the same value as the original.
A. Vital Documents B. Important Documents
C. Useful Documents D. Non- Essential Documents

160. It is the importance of firm with reference to the national economy and security.
A. Relative Operation B. Relative Security
C. Relative Vulnerability D. aRelative Criticality of Operation

161. A new Private security agency that has been issued a temporary license to operate is good for how many years?
A. One C. Two
B. Three D. Four

162. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
A. Segregation C. Declassify
B. Reclassify D. Exclusion

163. The form of security that employs cryptography to protect information refers to:
A. Document and information security B. Operational security
C. Communication security D. Industrial security

164. The following are exempted from Pre-licensing training.

1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws
2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science in Criminology;
3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or any PNP training school;
4. Veterans and retired military/police personnel; and
5. Honorably discharged military/police personnel.

A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

165. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old
B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old

166. The following are the categories of automatic alarm system, EXCEPT:
A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye Device
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps

167. Which of the following is NOT a false key?

A. picklock or similar tool . B. A duplicate key of the owner.
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner. D. Any key other than those intended by the owner.

168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:

A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs.
B. 1000 lbs. D. 600 lbs.

169. The minimum number of guards required for a company security force is:
A. 1000 C. 30
B. 100 D. 200

170. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby keys can open a group of locks.
A. Key Control C. Master Keying
B. Change Key D. Grand Master Key

171. PADPAO stands for:

A. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective Associations Operators, Inc.

172. It refers to a protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by various methods and device.
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter Security
B. Operational Security D. Security

173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a security officer.

A. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training Course. B. Holder of Masters Degree.
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. D. Physically or mentally fit.

174. These provides access within the perimeter barrier and should be locked and guarded.
A. Gates and Doors B. Side-Walk Elevator
C. Utilities Opening D. Clear Zones

175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security, with the
corresponding recommendation is:
A. security inspection C. security education
B. security training D. security survey

176. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license for private security personnel?
A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD

177. What is the most common type of human hazard?

A. Sabotage C. Pilferage
B. Theft D. Subversion

178. What is the security force maintained and operated by any private company/ corporation for its own security
requirements?
A. GSU C. CSF
B. PSA D. PD

179. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of security?

A. Limited C. Restricted
B. Special D. Exclusive

180. File room is a cubicle in a building constructed a little lighter than a vault but bigger size. One of the
specifications of file room should be ___feet high.
A. 12 C. 36
B. 24 D. 48

181. Concertina wire should be ______ feet long and 3 feet diameter.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
B. 30 feet D. 50 feet

182. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the guard remains in the comparative darkness?
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection

183. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object,
person and matter being protected?
A. Communication security B. Document security
C. Physical security D. Barrier

184. The following are the purposes of Security Survey, EXCEPT:

A. To ascertain the present economic status B. To determine the protection needed
C. To make recommendations to improve the overall security D. none of these

185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate document which is issued by ____________ authorizing a
person to engage in employing security guard or detective, or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage or
operate a private detective agency.
A. Secretary of DILG B. Chief, PNP
C. Security and Exchange Commission D. President

186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that the distances between strands will not exceed
_______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and midway between posts.
A. 3 inches C. 6 inches
B. 4 inches D. 7 inches
187. Clear Zone of _______ must be established between the perimeter barrier and structure within the protected
areas.
A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or more
B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet or more

188. Which among the following statements is FALSE?

A. Protective Lighting diminish visibility so that intruders can be seen, identified or apprehend.
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for guards to identify employees during night time.
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological fear, which serves as a deterrent.
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the number of stationary guards.

189. The highest rank in security agency organizational structure:

A. Security Executive Director B. Chief Security Director
C. Security Staff Director D. Security Staff Director

190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container usually a part of the building structure use to keep,
and protect cash, documents and valuables materials.
A. Vault C. Safe
B. File Room D. None of these

191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm?
A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s Vault.
B. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
C. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards table.

192. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or
unauthorized access.
A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier

193. A company owned protective alarm with unit in a nearest police station of fire department.
A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary Alarm
B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm

194. It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light rather than direction beam. They are widely used in
parking areas
A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights

195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses shall cease to operate, and with ____ days after having been duly notified
of such cease operation order, shall immediately deposit all its firearms with the FEO.
A. 7 days C. 21 days
B. 3 days D. 30 days

196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe
can withstand 2000 0F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it has passed the test.
A. Fire Endurance Test B. Fire and Impact Test
C. Burning Test D. Explain Hazard Test

197. Services of any security personnel shall be terminated on the following grounds:
1. Expiration of contract;
2. Revocation of license to exercise profession;
3. Conviction of crime involving moral turpitude;
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and
5. Physical and mental disability.

A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

198. For every security guard the basic load of their Firearm is-
A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited

199. The following are the specifications of a Vault:

I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick;
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of steel; and
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches.

A .II, III, IV C. II, IV,

B. II, IV D. I, II, III, IV

200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any activities to test its validity.
A. Practice C. Dry run
B. Rehearsal D. Trial

LEA 1- Answers:
1.B 64.A 127.C 190.A
2.C 65.C 128.B 191.B
3.A 66.C 129.C 192.D
4.D 67.C 130.B 193.C
5.A 68.D 131.B 194.A
6.C 69.A 132.D 195.A
7.A 70.C 133.C 196.D
8.B 71.D 134.B 197.D
9.D 72.D 135.A 198.B
10.C 73.A 136.B 199.B
11.C 74.D 137.C 200.C
12.B 75.C 138.C
13.C 76.A 139.C
14.C 77.B 140.C
15.C 78.D 141.A
16.C 79.B 142.C
17.A 80.D 143.C
18.A 81.D 144.B
19.A 82.A 145.D
20.C 83.A 146.B
21.A 84.D 147.B
22.A 85.D 148.A
23.B 86.A 149.C
24.C 87.D 150.B
25.B 88.D 151.B
26.C 89.A 152.B
27.B 90.D 153.B
28.B 91.D 154.A
29.C 92.C 155.C
30.D 93.C 156.D
31.B 94.B 157.A
32.D 95.D 158.C
33.C 96.A 159.D
34.C 97.B 160.A
35.C 98.D 161.A
36.D 99.C 162.C
37.D 100.D 163.A
38.C 101.D 164.D
39.C 102.B 165.C
40.C 103.D 166.D
41.D 104.D 167.B
42.C 105.B 168.C
43.A 106.A 169.C
44.A 107.C 170.C
45.A 108.C 171.A
46.C 109.A 172.D
47.C 110.C 173.B
48.A 111.B 174.B
49.D 112.D 175.D
50.B 113.B 176.D
51.A 114.C 177.C
52.A 115.D 178.C
53.C 116.B 179.D
54.A 117.C 180.A
55.B 118.A 181.D
56.D 119.B 182.D
57.B 120.A 183.C
58.B 121.C 184.A
59.D 122.C 185.B
60.B 123.D 186.C
61.A 124.A 187.D
62.B 125.A 188.A
63.B 126.A 189.B