LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

1. It refers to the field of management which involves planning, and controlling the efforts of a
group of individuals toward achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and minimum
use of administrative resources.
A. Administation
B. Personnel Management
C. Organization
D. Police Organization
2. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon City. It was named after the 1st
Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
A. Antonio Torres
B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Rafael Crame
D. Lamberto Javalera
3. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years old then. What year can Eugene
retire if he wants to avail the mandatory retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023
4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and serious treats to
national security?
A. The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily responsible on matters
involving insurgency and other serious treats to national security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other serious treats to
national security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these
5. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and
by men in the field operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation
refers to:
A. Field Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Headquarters procedure
6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period ______?
A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
7. The law that empowered the police commission to conduct entrance and promotional
examination for police members refers to:
A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
B. RA 157 D. PD 765

8. The theory of police service which states those police officers are servants of the people or the
community refers to:
 A. Old
B. Home rule
C. Modern
D. Continental

9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National Police. What
would be his initial rank upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE
10. The following are functions in a police organization, EXCEPT:
A. primary functions
B. administrative functions
C. secondary functions
D. auxiliary functions
11. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next
procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
12. He is known as the father of modern policing system?
A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare Lombroso
13. When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or found explosives, what
immediate actions should the patrol officer will do?
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to happen.
C. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper procedure to be followed, after
investigating the item.
14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is
his equivalent rank in the PNP?
A. Inspector C. Senior Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent
15. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
16. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
A. Four star general C. Director
B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General

17. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?

A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
B. 1:500 D. 1:7
18. What kind of force is needed during armed confrontation?
A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force
 B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded Force
19. The largest organic unit within a large department.
A. Bureau C. Section
B. Division D. Unit
20. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word _______, which means government of
the city.
A. politia C. politeia
B. polis D. Policy
21. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the objectives of the organization will be
attained.
A. planning C. Advancement
B. police planning D. Development
22. It is the premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and
continuing education of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
A. PPSC C. RTS
B. PNPA D. NPC

23. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
A. IAS C. PNP
B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
24. The following are the grounds for Patrol officers to execute spot checks.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your superior;
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police officer;
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the suspect’s prior criminal record; and
e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect is carrying a pyrotechnics.
A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e

25. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a list of _____ eligible’s
recommended by the PNP regional director:
A. six C. five
B. Three D. four
26. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or locality to prevent and deter
criminal activity and to provide day-to-day services to the community.
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol

27. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ____________?

A. Director General C. Solicitor General
B. Inspector General D. IAS General

28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how many PLEB for every 500 police
personnel?
A. one (1) C. more than one
B. at least one D. less than one
29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the immediate things to do when accident
occur?
A. Cordon the area
B. Go away and call your superior
C. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
30. The following are the upgraded general qualifications for appointment in the Philippine
National Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five (5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably discharged from military services or civilian
position in the government; and
e. Applicant must be eligible.

A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e

31. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected
members of the community
B. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
C. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of
barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
32. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for establishing
such organization. They must identify the organization’s _________:
A. strategy C. Goal
B. Tactic D. objective
33. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
34. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person tends to:
A. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as between
individual subordinate increases
B. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
C. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line supervisory level to
the management level
D. All of the above

35. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of command from
top to bottom of organization:
A. Audit C. Coordination
B. Monitoring D. Authority
36. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases or promotion
C. Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel
D. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work
performance of personnel
37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for _______:
A. Administrative control
B. Administration and control
C. Operational supervision
D. Policy and program coordination
38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. This is the principle of
__________:
A. delegation of authority
B. span of control
C. unity of command
D. chain of command
39. Who has the authority to promote Insp Jhack T. Khole?
A. President C. Chief, PNP
B.CA D. Regional Director
40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
A. Standard operation procedures
B. Special operation procedures
C. Standard operating procedures
D. Special operating procedures
41. The following are the characteristics of a good plan, EXCEPT:
A. flexibility C. specific
B. clear D. expensive

42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many of the annual quota is allocated for
women?
A. 10% C. 120
B. 100 D. 200
43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived in the following order:
A. age, height, weight & education
B. age, weight, height & education
C. height, education, weight & age
D. in any order
44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis provided by law.
A. attrition C. Specialization
B. promotion D. retirement
45. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be less than twenty-one (21) years of
age. The Maximum age requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry program is ____.
A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
B. 30 years old D. 31 years old
46. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required for permanency of their
appointment. Who among the following is exempted to undergo the Field Training Program and
issued a permanent appointment?
A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector after graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and First Place in the Examination.
47. Planning as a management function is to be done in the various levels of PNP organization.
Broad policy based from laws directives, policies and needs in general is the responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans
B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP
D. Dep. Dir. For Administration
48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
A. Lt. General C. Major General
B. Brigade General D. General
49. The Philippine National Police will recruit 300 new policemen on March 2012 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D. Migz who was born on August 10, 1991
50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine National Police on October 5, 1988. Nevertheless, he
want to pursue his career as embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so that he could
enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP which he served with extreme commitment and loyalty.
When does Bruno can retire?
A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6, 1999
B. September 5, 2010 D. September 5, 2008

51. Which of the following administrative penalties is immediately executory?

A. Dismissal C. Forfeiture of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty

52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be promoted to SPOIV?

A. Officers Candidate Course
B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course
D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
53. The head of the National Capital Regional Police Office shall assume the position of NCR
director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
54. Under the waiver program, who among the following PNP applicants is the least priority for
appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in college
 B. Renz who is under height
C. Justine who is underweight
D. Philip who is overage
55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known as____________.
A. Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
D. Department of the Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
56. The following are the component agencies that compose the Philippine National Police (Sec.
23, RA 6975).
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and
e. National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e

57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00 base pay since he was promoted. After five years
from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after adding his longevity pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37, 690.00
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31, 549.00

58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to the__________:

A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Police Commission
59. Who shall administer the entrance and promotional examinations for police officers on the
basis of the standards set by the Commission as amended by RA 8551?
A. PLEB C. CSC
B.PRC D. NAPOLCOM

60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted, if he is promoted who has the appointing
authority?
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for the national headquarters personnel attested by
the Civil Service Commission.
B. Chief PNP, recommended by immediate superiors and attested by the Civil Service
Commission.
C. President, upon recommendation of Chief PNP, endorsed by the Civil Service and
subject to confirmation by the Commission of Appointment.
D. President from among the senior officers down to the rank of Chief Superintendent,
subject to the confirmation of the Commission on Appointment.
61. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
A. R.A. 4864 C. Act 255
B. Act 175 D. Act 183
62.________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at
the risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position
B. Meritorious Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
63. PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed for failure to comply with the
requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No
64. The reason why police officer appears in court as a witness has to be in complete uniform is
to show his respect to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B. Profession D. Comrades
65. One having supervisory responsibilities over officers to the lower rank, whether temporary or
permanent.
A. None C. Superior officer
B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
66. Law that created the Manila Police Department, enacted on July 31.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175
67. The performance evaluation system is conducted:
A. thrice a year C. Every 6 months
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
68. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical disability in the performance of his duty
and unable to further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime pension equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary
D. 80% of his last salary
69. How many successive annual rating periods before a police officer may be separated due to
inefficiency or poor performance?
A. 2 C. 4
B.3 D. 1
70. Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and
proper escort, preferably aided by a police woman. The statement is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False
71. In this theory, management assumes employees may be ambitious and self-motivated and
exercise self-control. It is believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B. X theory D. Y theory
72. The theory X and Y is a human motivation created and developed by?
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino
B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Henry A. Landsberger
 D. Douglas McGregor

73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be promoted to Senior Superintendent.
A. Officers Senior Executive Course
B. Officers Advance Course
C. Officers Basic Course
D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
74. Who among the following have summary dismissal powers?
A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All of these

75. If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days,
the citizen’s complaint against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
A. Office of the chief of police
B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office
D. any of them
76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the base pay and longevity pay of the
retired grade in case of 20 years active service
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 2.5% D. 55%
77. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug crackdown, crime prevention
program, or neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the objective is accomplished
or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Functional Plan
D. time bound operational plan
78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field operations and some
special operations
A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. policy or procedural plan
79. What kind of appointment when the applicant is under the waiver program due to weight
requirements pending satisfaction of the requirement waived.
A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special
80. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a police officer is
A. A ground for dismissal
B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss
D. Not a bar to promotion
81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of protection of
lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes,
arrest of criminals and bringing the offenders to justice
A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D. Employment
82. What is the first step in making a plan?
A. Frame of reference
B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Selling the plan

83. It identify the role of police in the community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans
B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning
D. Incremental Planning
84. The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.
A. Line C. Staff
B. Functional D. Line and staff
85. It is the process of developing methods or procedure or an arrangement of parts intended to
facilitate the accomplishment of a definite objective.
A. Management C. Functioning
B. Budgeting D. Planning

86. Refers to any offense committed by a member of the PNP involving and affecting order and
discipline within the police organization.
A. Breech of Internal Discipline
B. Citizens Complaint
C. Minor Offense
D. Any of these
87. Which of the following is NOT a function of police personnel unit?
A. Preparing policy statements and standard operating Procedures relating to all areas of the
administration of human resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials regarding personnel matters
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to identify, and subsequently correct,
unsatisfactory working conditions
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks

88. It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating undesirable applicants that do not meet
the organization’s selection criteria
A. Promotion C. Recruitment
B. Transfer D. Selection
89. It is recognized as the best method of filing
A. Pigeon Hole
B. Retrieval operation
C. Records Management
D. Chain of custody
90. It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it provides positive identification
of the criminal
 A. Arrest and booking report
B. Miscellaneous Records
C. Identification records
D. Fingerprint Records
91. The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for the heirs
is for a maximum of how many months?
A. 1 year C. 2 months
B. 30 Days D. 12 months
92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of hours of classroom training should
be required for newly promoted supervisory personnel
A. 72 hours C. 80 hours
B. 75 hours D. 85 hours
93. It should be proactive, people oriented, based on individual need, and delivered in such a way
as to motivate the experienced officer to a higher degree of professionalism/professionalization
A. Recruit Training
B. Specialized training
C. In Service
D. Field Training
94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing the entire mandatory and other
consideration in promotion, is what kind of promotion?
A. Promotion by Virtue of Position
B. Regular Promotion
C. Meritorious Promotion
D. Promotion
95. It involves assistance and action by non police agencies such as Local Safety Council for
Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans and
Civil defense plans
A. Management Plans
B. Procedural plan
C. Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan

96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible
evidence of an award:
A. Medal C. Awards
B. Decorations D. Ribbons
97. For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay
PNP member:
A. Six C. Four
B. Five D. Three

98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive use of
authority:
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty
B. Incompetency D. Oppression
99. The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a mobile strike force or reaction
unit to augment police forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, hostage taking,
rescue operations and other special operations:
A. NARCOM C. SAF
B. SWAT D. SOCO

100. The primary objective of Philippine National Police:

A. Law Enforcement C. Peace and Order
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime Prevention

101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not allowed to possess except when there is
an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper authority, but shall not exceed
______ of the total number of security guards.
A. 50% C. 20%
B. 30% D. 10%

102. The vault door should be made of steel at least __________ in thickness?
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches
B. 6 inches D. 20 feet or more

103. An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive to a breach of the protection
system, or that, could result to loss.
A. Hazards C. Human Hazards
B. Natural Hazards D. Security Hazards
104. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an
individual in order to determines person suitability for appointment or access to classified matter.
A. Local Agency check
B. Background Investigation
C. National Agency Check
D. Personnel Security Investigation
105. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy security.
A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative program
B. Relative criticality D. Relative security
106. Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
A. SEC C. DTI
B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD
107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be constructed.
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
B. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences
108. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash outside his area
of jurisdiction shall be issued with a-
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail Order
B. Mission Order D. None of These
109. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
B. 72 Hours D. 300 Hours
110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff:
A. Detachment Commander
B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1
111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point
barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than ___ high excluding the
top guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B. 7 feet D. 6 feet
112. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to security guards.
A. Any of these
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
D. C/PNP
113. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. Vibration Detection
114. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with
establishment security policies and procedures?
A. Security Education C. Security Inspection
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey
115. What is the last phase of Security Education?
A. Initial Interview C. Conference
B. Dissemination D. Security promotion
116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a
building, room container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items without the
consent of the owner
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination Locks
117. A type of protective alarm system where the protective alarm located outside the
installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
118. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas issued to an
employees who keeps it in the possession until his authorization is change or until he terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange system
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass System
119. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may activate the alarm by placing the
front of their foot to engage the activation bar
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze Button
120. These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips to
protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to
30 degrees in the vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights C. Floodlights
 B. Street Lights D. Search lights
121. The following Firearms are allowed to be issued to a private security guard under normal
condition:
I. Cal .50;
II. Cal .45;
III. Cal .38;
IV. Magnum .22; and
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.

A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V

B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V

122. What is the required capital investment for organization of private security agency?
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000
123. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies
for economic gain?
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic pilferer
124. The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an office or
installation refers to:
A. Safe C. File room
B. Vault D. None of these
125. Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material excluding the top guard?
A. Seven feet C. Four feet
B. Six feet D. Five feet
126. The following things are used as barrier, which serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder
in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
A. Human C. Doors
B. Fences D. NONE
127. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
A. 3 hours C. 6 hours
B. 24 hours D. 12 hours
128. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it
is operated by utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
A. None C. Card Operated Locks
B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler locks
129. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___
units.
A. 30 C. 500
B. 70 D. 1000

130. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
A. Sodium vapor lamp
B. Mercury vapor lamp
C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp
 D. Quartz lamp
131. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business enterprises where
personnel, processes, properties and operations are safeguarded?
A. Personal security C. Operational security
B. industrial security D. bank security
132. The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:
A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D. Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
133. For a Security agency, how much is the registration fee for each security guard?
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo Php
134. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is
cleared to access and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain valid
for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 4 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years
135. The term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers and penetrators of restricted areas
or room.
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
B. Thug D. Peterpan
136. The tenure of a security guard is:
A. Six Months
B. Co-terminus with the service contract
C. Two years
D. Contractual
137. Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence, except:
A. It allows visual access to the installation which aids the intruder in planning
B. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the movements of persons in the
installation.
C. It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of the intruder.
D. None of these
138. Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond which shall answer for any valid
and legal claims against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety bond of
PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000
139. What type of investigation involves all aspect and details about the circumstances of a
person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
140. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security Education
B. Security Orientation D. Security Survey
141. It is under physical security which provides sufficient illumination to areas during hours of
darkness.
A. Protective Lighting C. Standby Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable Lighting
142. In order to be qualified as a Security Consultant, you must have ____ year/s experience in
the operation and management of security business.
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10 years
B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years
143. What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed firearm is needed after operating for
six months.
A. 1:3 C. 1:2
B. 1:5 D. 1:1
144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects predominate?
A. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Sodium vapor Lamp
C. Quartz lamp
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
145. What is an act governing the organization and management of private security agency,
company guard force and government security forces?
A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487
146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina. Chain link are for ______.
A. Solid structure
B. Permanent structure
C. Least permanent structure
D. Semi- permanent structure
147. It is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough and
complete investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is
conducted?
A. Personnel Security Investigation
B. Background Investigation
C. Partial Background Investigation
D. Complete Background Investigation
148. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and
interior parallel area to afford better observation of the installation refers to:
A. Clear zone C .Complimentary zone
B. Open zone D. Free zone

149. The extension period for a license to operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the required
minimum number of guards is:
A. 1 month C. 6 months
B. 2 years D. 1 year

150. Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car doors?
A. Warded lock C. Lever lock
 B. Disc tumbler lock D. Combination lock

151. Which among the following aspects of Security is the weakest of them all?
A. Physical security
B. Personnel security
C. Personal Security
D. Document and information security

152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-

A. Partially Correct C. Partially Wrong
B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely Wrong

153. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of restriction, deterring or delaying
illegal access to an installation.
A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier
B. Barrier D. Energy Barrier
154. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to secure areas located out of doors, and
manned by guards on a full time basis.
A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
B. Tower Guard D. Control Stations
155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or uniform member of the PNP honorably
discharged/separated or retired from the service are exempted from the requirements of a private
detective. The statement is-
A. False C. Absolutely True
B. Partially True D. Maybe False
156. The following are the areas to be lighted:
a. Parking Areas;
b. Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and
e. Susceptible Areas.

A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e

157. An additional overhead of barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences fencing upwards
and outward with a 45* angle with three to four strands of barbed wires spread 6” apart.
A. Top guard C. Fence Top
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these
158. When are security guards deputized by the PNP Chief or local mayor to have police
authority within their assigned area of responsibility?
A. When there is an employee’s strike
B. When the company is in retrenchment
C. During times of emergency
D. When there is a crime committed inside the establishment
159. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of this record does not have the same
value as the original.
A. Vital Documents
B. Important Documents
C. Useful Documents
D. Non- Essential Documents
160. It is the importance of firm with reference to the national economy and security.
A. Relative Operation
B. Relative Security
C. Relative Vulnerability
D. Relative Criticality of Operation
161. A new Private security agency that has been issued a temporary license to operate is good
for how many years?
A. One C. Two
B. Three D. Four
162. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
A. Segregation C. Declassify
B. Reclassify D. Exclusion
163. The form of security that employs cryptography to protect information refers to:
A. Document and information security
B. Operational security
C. Communication security
D. Industrial security
164. The following are exempted from Pre-licensing training.
1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws
2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science in Criminology;
3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or any PNP training school;
4. Veterans and retired military/police personnel; and
5. Honorably discharged military/police personnel.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

165. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old
B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
 18 years Old- minimum age qualification for SG.
 50 years Old – Maximum age qualification for SG.
166. The following are the categories of automatic alarm system, EXCEPT:
A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye Device
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps

167. Which of the following is NOT a false key?

 A. picklock or similar tool .
B. A duplicate key of the owner.
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
D. Any key other than those intended by the owner.
168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs.
B. 1000 lbs. D. 600 lbs.
169. The minimum number of guards required for a company security force is:
A. 1000 C. 30
B. 100 D. 200

170. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby keys can open a group of locks.
A. Key Control C. Master Keying
B. Change Key D. Grand Master Key
171. PADPAO stands for:
A. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective Associations Operators, Inc.
172. It refers to a protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by various
methods and device.
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter Security
B. Operational Security D. Security
173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a security officer.
A. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training Course.
B. Holder of Masters Degree.
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
D. Physically or mentally fit.
174. These provides access within the perimeter barrier and should be locked and guarded.
A. Gates and Doors
B. Side-Walk Elevator
C. Utilities Opening
D. Clear Zones
175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security,
with the corresponding recommendation is:
A. security inspection C. security education
B. security training D. security survey
176. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license for private security
personnel?
A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
177. What is the most common type of human hazard?
A. Sabotage C. Pilferage
B. Theft D. Subversion
178. What is the security force maintained and operated by any private company/ corporation for
its own security requirements?
 A. GSU C. CSF
B. PSA D. PD
179. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of security?
A. Limited C. Restricted
B. Special D. Exclusive
180. File room is a cubicle in a building constructed a little lighter than a vault but bigger size.
One of the specifications of file room should be ___feet high.
A. 12 C. 36
B. 24 D. 48
181. Concertina wire should be ______ feet long and 3 feet diameter.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
B. 30 feet D. 50 feet
182. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the guard remains in the
comparative darkness?
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection
183. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers placed between the potential intruder
and the object, person and matter being protected?
A. Communication security
B. Document security
C. Physical security
D. Barrier
184. The following are the purposes of Security Survey, EXCEPT:
A. To ascertain the present economic status
B. To determine the protection needed
C. To make recommendations to improve the overall security
D. None of these

185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate document which is issued by

____________ authorizing a person to engage in employing security guard or detective, or a
juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage or operate a private detective agency.
A. Secretary of DILG
B. Chief, PNP
C. Security and Exchange Commission
D. President
186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that the distances between strands will
not exceed _______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and midway between posts.
A. 3 inches C. 6 inches
B. 4 inches D. 7 inches
187. Clear Zone of _______ must be established between the perimeter barrier and structure
within the protected areas.
A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or more
B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet or more
188. Which among the following statements is FALSE?
A. Protective Lighting diminish visibility so that intruders can be seen, identified or
apprehend.
 B. Protective Lighting makes easier for guards to identify employees during night time.
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological fear, which serves as a deterrent.
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the number of stationary guards.
189. The highest rank in security agency organizational structure:
A. Security Executive Director
B. Chief Security Director
C. Security Staff Director
D. Security Staff Director
190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container usually a part of the building
structure use to keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables materials.
A. Vault C. Safe
B. File Room D. None of these
191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his
Firearm?
A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s Vault.
B. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
C. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards table.
192. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of restricting, deterring or
delaying illegal or unauthorized access.
A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier

193. A company owned protective alarm with unit in a nearest police station of fire department.
A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary Alarm
B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm
194. It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light rather than direction beam. They are
widely used in parking areas
A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights
195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses shall cease to operate, and with ____ days after
having been duly notified of such cease operation order, shall immediately deposit all its
firearms with the FEO.
A. 7 days C. 21 days
B. 3 days D. 30 days
196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in temperature will not cause the safe to
rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000 0F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it has
passed the test.
A. Fire Endurance Test
B. Fire and Impact Test
C. Burning Test
D. Explain Hazard Test
197. Services of any security personnel shall be terminated on the following grounds:
1. Expiration of contract;
2. Revocation of license to exercise profession;
3. Conviction of crime involving moral turpitude;
 4. Loss of trust and confidence; and
5. Physical and mental disability.

A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
198. For every security guard the basic load of their Firearm is-
A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds
B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited
199. The following are the specifications of a Vault:
I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick;
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of steel; and
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches.

A. I, III, IV C. I, II, III

B. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV
200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any activities to test its validity.
A. Practice C. Dry run
B. Rehearsal D. Trial
201. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty:
A. Post C. Beat
B. Area D. Route
202. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in order to catch criminals is known
as:
A. High visibility patrol C. Target Oriented patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Decoy patrol
203. Barangay Tanod is included in what component of Integrated Patrol System?
A. Fixed Component
B. Auxiliary Component
C. Secondary Component
D. Patrol Component
204. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the end of the line beat, and before
returning to the point of origin.
A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation Report
B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
205. The ideal police response time is:
A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
B. 7 minutes D. 10 minutes

206. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing a high potential for criminal attack
or for the creation of problem necessitating a demand for immediate police service:
A. Hazard C. Opportunity
B. Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard
207. The most expensive patrol method and gives the greatest opportunity to develop sources of
information is:
A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
 B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol
208. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen less
visible during the night. The primary purpose is:
A. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime
B. To have sufficient cover
C. To attract less attention
D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
209. The following are included in the cause and effect of team policing.
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.
A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e

210. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol
officers perform specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned systematic basis:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
211. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best penetrated by the police through.
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol

212. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to accomplish the police visibility program
of the PNP. The Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with
prescribed divisions of:
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B. 3 shifts D. every other day shift.

213. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent the desire of human being to
commit crime.
A. Preventive C. Proactive
B. Reactive D. High Visibility
214. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they can be
operated very quietly and without attracting attention.
A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
B. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
D. Mobility and stealth
215. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
216. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief of the
Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954
B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917
217. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons, places, buildings/ establishments and
vehicles especially during night-time, be prepared to use your service firearm and Flashlight
should be-
A. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a possible target.
B. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a possible target.
C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible adversary.
D. None of these
218. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
A. Arrest criminals C. Securing the area
B. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money
219. The following are the duties of Patrol Supervisors:
Make a patrol plan;
Designate and select the members of the patrol team/s;
Inspect the members of the patrol on the completeness;
Render hourly report of location and situation; and
Resolve conflicts/differences between neighbours.

A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV

B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,
220. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon, except when its occupants pose imminent
danger of causing death or injury to the police officer or any other person, and that the use of
firearm does not create a danger to the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use. In
firing upon a moving vehicle, the following parameters should be considered EXCEPT:

A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing suspect/s with the police officer and other
persons.
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to harm in certainty the police officer or other persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm the police officer or other p
D. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
221. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during pat-down search, a more secure
search position may be:
A. Standing position
B. Lying Face down Position
C. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet spread apart.
D. All of these
222. All except one are the types of specialized patrol method:
A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
B. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol
223. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged by his-
i. Knowledge of all problems in the community
ii. Residents developed good public relations
iii. Ability
iv. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
224. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?
A. True C. False
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No
225. In Police Radio System, What frequency is needed in the police department?
A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds
B. 30 – 300 MHz
C. Above 30 MHz
D. NONE
226. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?

A. It is the backbone of the police department

B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated

227. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance, parades and special events.
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot Patrol
B. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat Patrol
228. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
229. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact with the members of the community
ideal in gaining the trust and confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
230. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing
happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
231. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:
A. It involves larger number of personnel
B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It promotes easier detection of crime
232. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as well as in smelling out drugs and
bombs. What do you call the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and keenest smell
among all dogs, formerly used for tracking purposes?
A. German shepherd C. Bloodhounds
B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
233. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:
A. Foot C. Automobile
 B. Bicycle D. Helicopter
234. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of number of:
A. Superiors to whom he reports
B. Superiors from whom he takes orders
C. Subordinates directly reporting to him
D. Any of these
235. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from becoming _______ with people,
hazards, and facilities on his beat.
A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
B. Energetic D. Unfamiliar

236. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise and before the counter-clockwise?
A. Straightway C. Crisscross
B. Sector D. Zigzag

237. The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase attack of police officer by militant,
dangerous section to be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the street.
A. Unnecessary C. Necessary
B. Voluntary D. Redundant
238. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System C. Detective Beat System
B. Comparative Police System D. Community Oriented Policing System
239. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the least likely to become completely a
function of automobile patrol is the checking of-
A. Security of business establishment.
B. Street light outrages.
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Illegal posting of signs and other advertisement.
240. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen in areas where police hazards are
serious is that, it usually-
A. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.D. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick
mobilization is needed.
241. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
A. Opportunity for graft.
B. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law.
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads.
242. Team Policing is said to be originated in________:
A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
B. Vienna, Austria D. London, England
243. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:
A. Egyptians C. English
B. Chinese D. American
244. Psychology of Omniprescense means______.
A. Low Visibility C. High Visibility
B . Reactive D. Proactive
245. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 13th floor building. Which of the following
should be the first thing to do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene?
A. Urge no to jump
B. Call nearest relative
C. Clear the area
D. Report immediately to Station
246. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle patrol over the other patrol methods?
A. Low cost C. Visibility
B. Speed D. Security
247. 1 Statement- The objectives of Patrol officers are different from ordinary Police Officer.
st

2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of Police Organization.

3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in determining the quality of justice to be served in a
community.
4 Statement- All police function had been vested to the patrol division.
th

A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct

B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
D. All statements are correct
248. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively implemented by police activity which-
A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to commit crime.C. Influences favorable
individual and group attitudes in routine daily associations with the police.
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of apprehension.
249. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and community
interests into a working relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of
peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol C. Community Relation
B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing
250. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-
and-rescue operations?
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
B. Helicopter D. Horse
251. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the
next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
252. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when demonstrators become unruly and
aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
A. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
B. Truncheon D. Shield
253. The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol officers to be deployed in
an area are the following:
a. Size of the area;
b. Topography;
c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered.

A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d

254. The patrol strategy which is best on populous areas such as markets, malls, and ports is:
A. Blending patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes patrol
255. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until reaching the point of
origin is following what pattern?
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag
B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross
256. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:
A. Can report regularly to the command center.
B. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
C. C. It is inexpensive to operate.
D. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.
257. The following are advantages of the use of Radio in Police Work:
I. Simple Installation Process;
II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down;
III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;
IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission of classified operational information.

A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV

B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
258. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing after patrol is-
A. To integrate the police and the community interest into a working relationship.B. To remind
the patrol on the strict observance of the PNP Operational Procedures.
C. To assess its conduct and make necessary corrective measures on defects noted.
D. All of the Above
259. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and assemble at the police unit headquarters at
least _______ before the start of their shift for accounting-
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes D. 15 minutes
260. The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze upon the law abiding citizens and
would be criminals alike that the police are always existing to respond to any situation at a
moment’s notice and he will just around the corner at all times. This statement refers to:
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Patrol
C. Police Discretion
D. Integrated Patrol
261. A patrol beat refers to a:
 A. Number of crimes to be solved
B. Location of police headquarters
C. Number of residence to be protected
D. Geographical area to be protected
262. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in a manner designed to help them blend
the neighborhood where they are deployed.
A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely True
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No

263. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:

A. One Man Patrol Car
B. Two Man Patrol Car
C. Foot Patrol
D. Canine Patrol
264. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of activities:
A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
B. Night Shift D. None of these

265. Time between the call of the Police to arrival at the scene of an incident:
A. Response Time C. Call Time
B. Duration Time D. Critical Time
 Response time - It refers to the running time of the dispatched patrol car from his position
where the assignment was received and the arrival at the scene.
266. The percentage of police officers assigned in patrol is:
A. 20% C. 40%
B. 25% D. 50%
267. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed and dangerous person or persons, aboard
a vehicle or on foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal means to accomplish such
end.
A. Dragnet Operation
B. Hasty Checkpoint
C. High-Risk Arrest
D. High Risk Stop
268. Which among the following activities during post-patrol or post-deployment phase is not
included?
A. Formation & Accounting
B. Inspection & recall of Equipment
C. Debriefing/Report Submission
D. Briefing
269. It refers to a computer that is installed inside a patrol car which allows patrol officer to have
an access from the Headquarters files and other Law Enforcement Agencies which are used in
order to expedite their operation.
A. Mobile Data Terminal
B. Vehicle-Mounted TV
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan
D. CCTV
270. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was formed in London. This patrol pattern
is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of
responsibility of the patrol?
A. Straight C. Crisscross
B. Clockwise D. Counter clockwise
271. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of an individual for weapons only.
A. Frisking C. Search
B. Spot Check D. Pat-down Search
272. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the beat not at random but with
definite target location where he knows his presence is necessary.
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag
B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross
273. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following are the advantages of Foot patrol,
EXCEPT:
A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken.
B. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable area
C. Inspire more Public confidence.
D. The officer can actually get to know the physical layout of his beat better.
274. The word Patrol was derived from the French word ________which means to go through
paddles.
A. Patroulier C. Patroul
B. Politeia D. Politia
275. The concept of Unity of command is:
A. No one should have more than one boss.
B. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
C. Number of subordinates that a Superior can effectively supervise.
D. Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities to subordinates.
276. Which among the following Patrol Method is appropriate when responding to quick
emergency call?
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. Automobile Patrol
B. Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol

277. The following are the advantages of Regular post.

I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly familiar with the various post conditions;
II. Patrol officer takes more pride and interest in improving the conditions on his post
resulting in better public relations and cooperation from the residents;
III. Favoritism will be lessened because of transitory assignments; and
IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced, since a steady post is an indication of public
acceptance of his work.
A. I, II and III C. I, II, and IV
B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV
278. Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing the field
of investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS?
A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo Pena
B. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
279. The type of Patrol which requires special skills and training:
 A. TV C. Air
B. Automobile D. Foot
280. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated on:
A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7, 1901
B. November 22, 1901 D. March 17, 1901
281. In police communication, 10-74 means:
A. Negative C. Need Assistance
B. Caution D. Unable to copy
282. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police omnipresence:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
283. Police Community Precincts are mandatorily led by an officer with the rank of _______
with a minimum of 30 personnel including the commander divided into 3 shifts.
A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent
B. Supt. To Sr. Supt.
C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt.
D. C/Insp. To Supt.
284. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times more sensitive than human’s sense of
smell?
A. One thousand times C. One hundred times
B. Ten thousand times D. Ten million times
285. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another through common medium and channel.
A. Information C. Communication
B. Police Communication D. Radio
286. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to
deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined Area
287. The advisable cruising speed in automobile patrol ranges from:
A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph
B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph

288. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations:

A. Crime Prevention
B. Preservation of Peace and Order
C. Law enforcement
D. All of these
289. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a patrol strategy called:
A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed Patrol
B. Preventive Patrol D. Proactive Patrol
290. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident faster but undetected, then the best
patrol method that he should employ is:
A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
 291. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a person that enables another to victimize
him:
A. Instrumentality C. Opportunity
B. Motive D. Capability

292. The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol officers to be deployed in
an area are the following, except:
A. Size of the area
B. Topography
C. Possible problems to be encountered
D. Neither of them
293. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the people together in a cooperative manner
in order to prevent crime:
A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
294. The theory in patrol which states that police officers should conduct overt police operations
in order to discourage people from committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low police visibility theory
C. Low profile theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory
295. The principle of patrol force organization which states that patrol officers should be under
the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command
D. Command responsibility
296. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit crime as a result of patrol.
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime intervention
C. Crime suppression
D. Crime deterrence
297. What type of Patrol method is appropriate when mobility is needed in small alleys?

A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV

B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
298. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary objective of patrol activity is:
A. To prevent commission of crime.
B. Integrate the police and the community
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. Visibility and Omniprescence.

299. The following are benevolent services performed by the Patrol officers:
I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.
II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;

A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV

B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV

300. All but one are the dogs best suited for police work except:
A. Askals C. Chihuahua
B. Rottweiler D. All of these