Classical Mechanics

Semester 01-2020 - Homework #1

Matı́as Montenegro
May 08

Problem 1
Find the shape of a chain that is suspended by its ends, under a uniform
gravitational field.(This curve is known as ”catenary”).
Hint: Work out the problem doing the potential energy of the chain be
stationary at fixed points: ya = y(xa ), yb = y(xa ), xa < xb . The potential
energy of a infinitesimal element of the chain with coordantes (x, y) (where
x and y are the horizontal and vertical axis (pointing up)) is possible to rep-
resent as dU (y) = gρ(y + C1 )ds, where ds2 = dx2 + dy 2 ,C1 is a constant, ρ is
Rb
the linear density of the chain. The chain has a fixed lenght l, a ds = l

Solution:
p I’m going
p to choose y as my dependent coordinate, and write
ds = dx2 + dy 2 = 1 + y 0 2 dx. Put this ds in the differential element dU
and integrate, we have the next functional
Z x2
0
p
U [y, y ] = gρ(y + C1 ) 1 + y 0 2 dx
x1
p
Where the Lagrangian is L[y, y] = gρ(y + C1 ) 1 + y 0 2 . Because the func-
tional does not depend of independent variable, the Hamiltonian is a constant
and we use the Hamiltonian formalism to work out the problem. We are go-
0 ∂L
ing to use L − y ∂y 0 = β where β is a constant. And because the left hand

side is linear with L we can absorb the constant gρ from the lagrangian in
β
β, and we define a new constant C2 = gρ . Now to the calculations.

1
 ∂L
To begin with, let me calculate ∂y 0
0
∂L y
0 = p
∂y 1 + y02

and put this in the Hamiltonian form

0
p 02 (y + C1 )y 2
(y + C1 )( 1 + y ) − p = C2
1 + y02
0 0
(y + C1 )(1 + y 2 ) (y + C1 )y 2
p − p = C2
1 + y02 02

1 + y
y + C1
p = C2
1 + y02
q 2
0 0
And we can resolve for y , y = (y+C C22
1)
− 1 and use the method of separable
variables Z Z
dy
q = dx = x + C3
(y+C1 )2
C2
− 1
2

Where C3 is a constant of integration. If we use the netx sustitution Cosh(µ) =

y+C1
C2
we can solve the integral in left hand side and the solution is
x + C3
µ=
C2
And applying Cosh in the last equation and equaling to Cosh(µ) = y+C C2
1
we
have just worked out the general problem and its general solution is
 
x + C3
y(x) = C2 Cosh − C1 (1)
C2
Now we are going to use the boundary condition in 1
 
−xa +C3
- y(−xa ) = 0 ⇒ C2 Cosh C2
= C1
 
- y(xa ) = 0 ⇒ C2 Cosh xaC+C
2
3
= C1

By properties of symmetry of the function Cosh(x) the only thing that

we can conclude is that both are correct if and only if C3 = 0. And then,

2
choose one of them (in our case we choose the condition with xa positive) we
have that
 
xa
C1 = C2 Cosh (2)
C2

And for the moment we have two of the three constant resolved and the
general solution is
    
x xa
y = C2 Cosh − Cosh (3)
C2 C2

with one constant to find out. To solve the problem forC2 is use the con-
Rx 0
straint of the lenght of the chain −xaa ds = l. y = Sinh Cx2 and put it in
the integral constraint then we came to the result that

s
Z xa   Z xa    
x x x  xa
l= 1 + Sinh2 dx = Cosh dx = C2 Sinh
C2 C2 C2 −xa

−xa −xa

And use the properties of Sinh we arrive to the last constant , and it is a
solution of a transcendental equation for C2
 
xa
l = 2 C2 Sinh (4)
C2
β
So, recovering the definition of C2 = gρ defined at the beginning of the
problem, we have resolved the problem and the answer is
    
β gρ gρ
y= Cosh x − Cosh xa (5)
gρ β β
 
2β gρxa
with l = Sinh
gρ β


3
Problem 2
Item a)
First of all, I would like to show an identity that we will use it. I am
going to calculate ~r˙ × B
~ using the fact that B
~ is solenoidal (this information
is given in the problem, with the definition of B ~ = ∇ × A).~ Working with
index formalism

~ = ijk ṙj Bk = ijk ṙj kmn ∂An

 
~r˙ × B
i ∂rm
Using the properties of two Levi-civita tensor where they share one index,
we have

~ = (δim δjn − δin δjm )ṙj ∂An = ṙj ∂Aj − ṙj ∂Ai
 
~r˙ × B
i ∂rm ∂ri ∂rj
 
~ = ṙj ∂Aj − ∂Ai
 
˙~r × B (6)
i ∂ri ∂rj
And this is the identity that I wished to show
Now we rewrite the lagrangian in a component form
1 q
L = mr˙i 2 − q ϕ(~r, t) + r˙j Ȧj (~r, t)
2 c
 
∂L d ∂L
Now we use the Euler-Lagrange equations ∂r i
= dt ∂ r˙i
,
∂L ∂ϕ q ∂Aj
= −q + r˙j (7)
∂ri ∂ri c ∂ri
And the other part
∂L q
= mr˙i + Ai
∂ r˙i c
   
d ∂L q ∂Ai ∂Ai
= mr¨i + r˙j + (8)
dt ∂ r˙i c ∂rj ∂t
equaling (7) and (8) and group terms, we have
   
∂ϕ q ∂Ai q ∂Aj ∂Ai
mr¨i = −q − + r˙j − (9)
∂ri c ∂t c ∂ri ∂xj

4
 ~ and the second
And we see that the first parenthesis in (9) is equal to q E,
parenthesis of (9) is just the same terms of the identity that I demonstrated
before in (6). And with this we have finished the part a), because
 
q 1
~ + (~r˙ × B)
m~r¨ = q E ~ =q E ~ + (~r˙ × B)
~
c c

Item b)
0 ∂λ
Let Ai = Ai + ∂ri
and put in the magnetic field
0
∂ 2λ
 
0 ∂Ak ∂ ∂λ ∂Ak
Bi = ijk = ijk Ak + = ijk + ijk
∂rj ∂rj ∂rk ∂rj ∂j ∂k
And we see that the last term is zero because the symmetry in the mixed
derivatives and the anti-symmetric in levi-civita tensor, that terms is zero
, and B~ 0 = B.
~ And on the other side, with ϕ0 = ϕ − 1 ∂λ putting in E ~ =
c ∂t
~
−∇ϕ − 1c ∂∂tA
0 ∂ϕ 1 ∂ 2 λ 1 ∂Ai 1 ∂ 2 λ ∂ϕ 1 ∂Ai
Ei = − − − + =− − = Ei
∂ri c ∂ri ∂t c ∂t c ∂ri ∂t ∂ri c ∂t
And they do not change when we transform in the manner we did it.

Item c)
Applying the gauge transformation
0 1 1 q
L = mr̈i2 − q(ϕ − ∂t λ) + r˙j (Aj + ∂j λ) (10)
2 c c
 
0 1 2 q q
L = mṙi − qϕ + ṙj Aj + (∂t λ + ṙj ∂j λ) (11)
2 c c
0 q dλ
L =L+ (12)
c dt
But we know when the Lagrangian differ from the other Lagrangian in a total
derivative of time of a funcion of the coordinate and time,so the variation
does not change, and therefore the equation of motion does not change too
2.

5
Problem 3
1
The Lagrangian of the problem is L[x, ẋ] = 12 m2 ẋ4 + mẋ2 V (x) − V 2 (x)
Let us apply the E-L equations
 
∂L 1 2 3 d ∂L dV (x)
= m ẋ + 2mẋV (x) ⇒ = m2 ẋ2 ẍ + 2mẍV (x) + 2mẋ
∂ ẋ 3 dt ∂ ẋ dt
 
d ∂L 0
= m2 ẋ2 ẍ + 2mẍV (x) + 2mẋ2 V (13)
dt ∂ ẋ
And the otherside
∂L 0 0
= mẋ2 V − 2V V (14)
∂x
And equaling (13) and (14)
0 0 0
m2 ẋ2 ẍ + 2mẍV (x) + 2mẋ2 V − mẋ2 V + 2V V = 0

This are the equation of motion, but we are going to group term and factorize
0
(mẋ2 + 2V )mẍ + (mẋ2 + 2V )V = 0
0
(mẍ + V )(mẋ2 + 2V ) = 0
0 1
(mẍ + V )( mẋ2 + V ) = 0 (15)
2
before to discuss this result, we are going to calculate the Hamiltonian, and
the result is  2
1 2 4 2 2 1 2
H = m ẋ + mẋ + V = mẋ + V (16)
4 2
Because H is an integral of motion(because the Lagrangian does not depend
of t) the term 21 mẋ2 + V is a constant. We won’t consider the solution with
the integral equal to zero, because is too particular, so we have obtained from
(15) that
0
mẍ + V = 0 (17)
And (17) is nothing more than the equation of motion of a system with
0 0
a Lagrangian L = 21 mẋ2 − V (x). Even though L and L are different, they
have the same equation o motion. Even, the Hamiltonian of L is the double
0
of hamiltonian of L 2

6
Problem 4
a)
Applying the lagrangian equation

δx : (aẍ + bÿ) + ω 2 (ax + by) = 0 (18)

δy : (bẍ + cÿ) + ω 2 (bx + cy) = 0 (19)
q
k
This are the equation of motion with ω := m .

b)
With a = c = 0

ẍ + ω 2 x = 0
ÿ + ω 2 y = 0

Where this equations are uncoupled, and they describe a 2-D isotropic har-
monic oscillator

c)
With b = 0 and c = −a we have the same equation that we got in b)

ẍ + ω 2 x = 0
ÿ + ω 2 y = 0

d)
If we look the equations (18) and (19) of the a) we can do the next
sustitution

β1 (x, y) = ax + by
β2 (x, y) = bx + cy

And the equations won’t couple anymore. This always work when b2 −
ac 6= 0 because this requirement, is needed to invert the relation of general-
ized coordinates(xi = xi (β1 , β2 )) in order to get a invariance on the equation

7
of motion (sometimes called the principle of the independence of coordinates).
But in the case that b2 − ac = 0 the transformation is no singular, and the
problem is 1-dimensional. We can see this if b2 − ac = 0, we can get that
β1 = ab β2 ( a constraint). If we multiply ab to β2 we get
a ac
β2 = ax + y = ax + by = β1
b b
where we use b = ac
b
from b2 − ac = 0 2

Problem 5
Working with the E-L equations
Z ẋ Z ẋ
∂L −(x 2 +( 2) −x2 −y 2 −(x 2+ 2) −x 2 2
e−y dy
ẋ
(  ẋ
(−2
=( ẋ)e + 2e e dy +  2ẋe = 2e
( ( (  
(( 
∂ ẋ 0 0
   Z ẋ 
d ∂L 2 2 2 2
= 2 (−2xẋ)e−x e−y dy + e−x e−ẋ ẍ
dt ∂ ẋ 0
  Z ẋ
d ∂L 2 2 2 2
= −4xẋe−x e−y dy + 2e−(x +ẋ ) ẍ (20)
dt ∂ ẋ 0

On the other hand

Z ẋ
∂L 2 2 2 2
= −2xe−(x +ẋ ) − 4xẋe−x e−y dy (21)
∂x 0

Equalling (21) to (20) and cancel some terms we get the equation of
motion

ẍ + x = 0 (22)
On the other hand we can compute the Euler Lagrange equations of
L 21 ẋ2 − 12 x2 and we get the same equation of (22), So this Lagrangian with
the Lagrangian of the problem are equivalent 2

8
Problem 6
With L = L(qi , q˙i , q¨i , t) and
R t δqi = δ q˙i = 0 in consideration, let us apply a
variation to the action S = t12 Ldt
Z t2 Z t2  
∂L ∂L ∂L
δS = δLdt = δqi + . δ q˙i + .. δ q¨i dt (23)
t1 t1 ∂qi ∂ qi ∂ qi

If we doing once integration by parts in the second term and twice in the
third, we have
0Z
 
Z t2   t t2  
∂L  ∂L  2>
d ∂L
δS = δqi dt +  . δq − δqi dt (24)

i
 .
t1 ∂q i

∂ q
 i t1 t1
dt ∂ q i

*0
 
t 0 
2
  Z t2 2   t2

 ∂L  > d ∂L  d ∂L 
+  .. δq˙i  −
  .. δqi  + 2 .. δq i dt=0

∂ q
 i t1 dt

∂
q i t1 t1 dt ∂ q i



t2
d2
Z     
∂L d ∂L ∂L
− . + 2 .. δqi dt = 0
t1 ∂qi dt ∂ qi dt ∂ qi
All inside the bracket is zero, so the solution is

d2 ∂L
   
∂L d ∂L
− . + 2 .. =0 (25)
∂qi dt ∂ qi dt ∂ qi

Now the general case,

Z t2
(n)
δS = δL(qi , q˙i , . . . , qi , t)dt (26)
t1
!
Z t2 X ∂L (n)
δS = (n)
δqi dt = 0 (27)
t1 n ∂qi

9
 0Z
 
Z t2   t
2
> t2  
∂L ∂L  d ∂L
δS = δqi dt +  . δq i − δqi dt
 
.
t1 ∂qi 
∂ qi  t1 t1 dt ∂ qi

0
 
t 0 *

2
  
 t Z t2 2  
 ∂L  > d ∂L 2 d ∂L 
+  .. δ q˙i  −
   .. δqi  + 2 .. δq i dt

∂ q
 i t1 dt

 ∂

q i t1 t1
dt ∂ q i



0
 
0
2 0 Z t2
t *   t
   t2
d2 ∂L d3
2
 
 ∂L  > d ∂L   :
 ∂L 
+  ... δq¨i  −
  ... δ q˙i  +  ... δqi  −

2  ∂q
  ... δqi dt

∂ q
 i t1
dt ∂ qi t1
dt i t1 t1 dt3 ∂ qi 


+ ...............

n lines like this we need to have, and all equal to zero. And at the ends one
get
d2 ∂L d3 ∂L
Z t2  
∂L d ∂L
− . + .. − ... + . . . δqi dt = 0 (28)
t1 ∂qi dt ∂ qi dt2 ∂ qi dt3 ∂ qi
And the final solution for the general case is
X dn  ∂L 
n (n)
(−1)n = 0 (29)
n=0
dt ∂q

Applying to L = − 21 mq q̈ − 21 kq 2 , the equation of motions are q̈ + ω 2 q = 0

and it nothing else than the harmonic oscillator 2

Problem 7
m 2
− k2 q 2 , and applying the E-L equations


We have L[q, q̇, t] = eγt 2
q̇

d ∂L ∂L
= mq̈eγt + mq̇γeγt ; = −kqeγt (30)
dt ∂ q̇ ∂x
And equaling we have
γ k
+ q=0q̈ + q̇ (31)
m m
this are the equation of motions of the Damped harmonic oscillator. Be-
cause the Lagrangian depends of time, the energy is not a conserved constant.

10
If we make the transformation s = eγt q we have the next Lagrangian
m −γt 2 s2 γ 2
   
0 γt k −γt 2
L =e e ṡ + − ṡsγ − e s (32)
2 4 2
1 mγ 2
 
0 m d  m 2
L = ṡ2 + s2 + − γs (33)
2 2 4 dt 2
So, a equivalent lagrangian L̂ is
mγ 2
 
m 1
L̂ = ṡ2 + s2 (34)
2 2 4
∂ L̂
From this new Lagrangian, ∂t
= 0, this has a conserved quantity, that is the
Hamiltonian.

Problem 8
The lagrangian of the problem is
1
L = m(ẋ2 + ẏ 2 ) − mgy − λ(y − αx2 ) (35)
2
where f (x, y) = y − αx2 = 0 is the constraint. Applying the EL equations,
we have
δx : mẍ − 2λαx = 0
δy : mÿ + mg + λ = 0
δλ : y − αx2 = 0
deriving and multiply by m to the δλ equation
mÿ − 2α(mẋ2 + mxẍ) = 0 (36)
and using the δx and δy and writing for λ we get
−(mg + 2αmẋ2 )
λ= (37)
1 + 4α2 x2
∂L
using the fact, that ∂t
= 0 and using the constraint we get
m 2
(ẋ + ẏ 2 ) = E − mgy (38)
2
11
On the other side, we derive the constrint wrt to the time, and raising to 2
we get ẏ 2 = 4α2 x2 ẋ2 .Replacing this in (38) and resolving for m2 ẋ2 , we have
m 2 E−mgy E−mgy
2
ẋ = 1+4α 2 x2 = 1+4αy . Replacing in (37) we have

−(mg + 4αE)
λ= (39)
(1 + 4αy)2

the absolute value of the reaction R = (2αλx, −λ) is

mg + 4αE
R = |R| =  (40)
1 + 4αy

Problem 9
To begin with, We are going to use spherical coordinates, so the constraint
of the problem is going to be in the coordinate θ. As the system livesina
inverted cone, θ = θ0 = cte and it is defined as θ0 = tan−1 ρz = tan−1 γ1 .

So, the constrained is θ − θ0 = 0 and the lagragian of the problem is the next
m 2 
L= ṙ + r2 θ̇2 + r2 sin2 (θ)φ̇2 − mgr cos(θ) − λ(θ − θ0 ) (41)
2

From the variation of λ we get θ̈ = θ̇ = 0. and with this in mind, the equation
of motion of the problem is

δr : mr̈ − mr sin2 (θ)φ̇2 + mg cos(θ) = 0 (42)

δφ : mr2 sin2 (θ)φ̇ = cte = Lz (43)
m
δθ : λ − r2 sin(2θ)φ̇2 − mgr sin(θ) = 0 (44)
2
and from δθ, the lagrange multiplier is
m 2
λ= r sin(2θ)φ̇2 + mgr sin(θ) (45)
2
1 L2z sin(2θ)
λ= + mgr sin(θ) (46)
2 mr2 sin4 (θ)

But this is the moment of force due to some reaction. But we know that this
reaction is normal to the surface where the particle is traveling, and because

12
the vector position will be always perpendicular with the reaction, the force
associated is nothing else that λr so

1 L2z sin(2θ)
R = |R| =| + mg sin(θ) | (47)
2 mr3 sin4 (θ)
Now, the lagrangian of the problem, without the λ and with the condition
that θ̇ = 0 and θ0 , we get
m 2 
L= ṙ + r2 sin2 (θ0 )φ̇2 − mgr cos(θ0 )
2
Now, let us calculate the Hamiltonian,
m 2  2 2 2

H = ṙ + r sin (θ0 )φ̇ + mgr cos(θ0 ) (48)
2
⇓
 
m 2  lz2 1 
H= ṙ + 2
 2m sin (θ) r2 + r mg cos(θ 0 ) (49)
2
|{z} | {z }
| {z } :=β
Kinetik energy :=α
| {z }
Uef f

So we came to a problem just for one variable, and there is specified which
is which energy now. So, we are going to work in the Uef f .
r
∂Uef f ∂ α  α 2α
= 2
+ βr = − 3 + β = 0 =⇒ r0 = 3 (50)
∂r ∂r r r β
And its second derivative
∂ 2 Uef f 6α
2
= 4 > 0 =⇒ r0 is a minimum (51)
∂r r
So this are stable orbit at r0 , because is a minimum in the Uef f . From
the effective potential energy theory we know that at the minimum point,
there exist circle orbits. But if I put the energy E = Uef f at the point r0 the
value of r cannot change, so ṙ = 0.
From the integral of motion, and using r0 we can get

mr02 sin2 (θ0 )φ̇ = Lz

13
 Lz
r0 sin(θ)φ̇ =
mr0 sin(θ0 )
Lz
vφ = (52)
mr0 sin(θ0 )
where vφ is the speed of the circle orbit, with r0 defined in (50)
s
Lz
r0 = 3 2 2 (53)
m g sin (θ0 ) cos(θ0 )

Problem 10
The lagrangian of the problem is
m
L = ẋ2 + F x (54)
2
And the equation of motion is
F
ẍ = (55)
m
And supposing that x(t) has the form x(t) = At2 + Bt + C, from the the
condition that x(0) = 0 → C = 0. From the condition x(τ ) = a = Aτ 2 +
2
Bτ → B = a−Aτ τ
, and from ẍ = 2A and (55)→ A = 2m F
. Then, the equation
of motion is !
F 2
F 2 a − 2m τ
x(t) = t + t (56)
2m τ


Problem 11
The lagrangian of the problem is
ml2 2
L= φ̇ (57)
2
The lagrangian has a integral of motion
∂L
= 0 =⇒ ml2 φ̇ = Lz = cte
∂φ

14
Then

ml2 2 ml2 φ̇ dφ
Z Z
S= φ̇ dt = dt
2 2 dt
Lz φf
Z
= dφ
2 0
Lz
S= φf
2
So

a)

Lz π
0<S<
2

b)

Lz π
−Lz π < S < −
2

c)
if n > 0
0 < S < Lz (π + 1)n
if n < 0
−Lz πn < S < 0


Problem 12
we have the next infinitesimals,

dx = dq cosh(λ) + dτ sinh(λ)

dt = dq sinh(λ) + dτ cosh(λ)

15
With this in mind, calculate the next term

(dx)2 −(dt)2 = (dq)2 (cosh2 (λ)−sinh2 (λ))−(dτ )2 (cosh2 (λ)−sinh2 (λ)) = (dq)2 −(dτ )2

So
(dx)2 − (dt)2 = (dq)2 − (dτ )2
Now, we are going to change variables
s  2 p
dx (dt)2 − (dx)2 p
L(ẋ)dt = − 1 − dt = − dt = − (dt)2 − (dx)2 =
dt dt
p s  2  
p 2
(dτ ) − (dq) 2 dq dq
2 2
= − (dτ ) − (dq) = − dτ = − 1 − dτ = L dτ
dτ dτ dτ
So, the transformation is

dq
L(ẋ) −→ L
dτ
s  2 s  2
dx dq
− 1− −→ − 1 −
dt dτ

Problem 13
To begin with, the differential dt can be written as
 
dx
dt = dτ + αdx = dτ 1 + α = dτ (1 + αx0 )
dτ

where x0 := dx
dτ
.By otherside, the velocity in terms of x0 can be expressed as

dx x0
=
dt 1 + αx0
So, the transformation of the lagrangian in terms of the local time is

x02
m  
 m
2
ẋ − U (x) dt −→ − U (x) (1 + αx0 )dτ (58)
2 2 (1 + αx0 )2

16
So, with x0 6= −α−1 the new lagrangian is

m x02
L̂ = L̂(x, x0 ) = − U (x)(1 + αx0 ) (59)
2 1 + αx0
Now, I am going to apply the E-L equation
∂ L̂ m ((2x0 (1 + αx0 )) − αx02 ) m (2x0 + x02 α)
= − αU (x) = − αU (x)
∂x0 2 (1 + αx02 )2 2 (1 + αx0 )2

!
m (2x00 + 2x0 x00 α)(1 + αx0 )2 − (2x0 + x02 α)2(1 + αx0 )αx00
 
d ∂ L̂ ∂U
= −αx0
dτ ∂x0 2 (1 + αx )0 4 ∂x
!
d ∂ L̂ x00 ∂U
0
= m 0 3
− αx0 (60)
dτ ∂x (1 + αx ) ∂x
And
∂ L̂ ∂U
=− (1 + αx0 ) (61)
∂x ∂x
And finally, equaling 60 and 61 we came to the equation of motion
∂U
mx00 = −(1 + αx0 )3 (62)
∂x


Problem 14
This problem is written by hand at the end of the work. I am sorry, but
the problem is too long and I did not have time to write it in latex, but I did
it.

Problem 15
We will use the form of integral of motion as
X ∂L
I= (q̇i X − Ψi ) − LX + Λ (63)
i
∂ q̇ i

So

17
time variation

δt =  , δxi = 0 , δλ = 0 =⇒ Ψi = 0 , X = 1 , Λ = 0
p2i
I = pi (qi · 1 − 0) − ·1+0
2m
⇓
p2i
I= = constant =E (64)
2m

Space translation

δt =  , δxi = 0 , δλ = 0 =⇒ Ψi = 0 , X = 1 , Λ = 0
p2i
I = pi (qi · 0 − 1) − ·0+0
2m
⇓
I = −pi = constant (65)
this is the conservation of linear momentum

Rotations
To begin with, we are going to express the Lagrangian in spherical coor-
dinates
m 2 
L= ṙ + r2 θ̇2 + r2 sin2 (θ)φ̇2 (66)
2
The variation is in the both angles, and everything else equal to zero. This
is

δφ = δθ =  δ(everything else) = 0 (67)

the corresponding generalized momentum are
∂L ∂L
= mr2 θ̇ , = mr2 sin(θ)φ̇ (68)
∂ θ̇ ∂ φ̇
The integral of motion is

18
 I = mr2 θ̇(θ̇ · 0 − 1) + mr2 sin(θ)φ̇(φ̇ · 0 − 1) − L · 0 + 0 (69)
I = −(mr2 θ̇ + mr2 sin(θ)φ̇) (70)
this is nothing else that the sum of the angular momentun in the z-
direction Lz , and the angular momentum in the (ẑ × θ̂)-direction, or the
angular momentum due to rotation in θ, Lθ . This can be easier to see, if we
calculate the integral of motion separately. Obviously, the θ̇ = φ̇ = 0 in the
free particle if the line of the path of the particle crosses the origin, and then
the angulars momentum are zero, constantes but zero.

Galileo’s boost

x0i (t) − xi (t) = δ ẋi t =⇒ Ψi = t

On the other side
m  d
δL = δ ẋ2i = mẋi δ(ẋi ) = (mxi )δ(ẋi ) =⇒ Λ = mxi
2 dt
And the integral of motion

I = pi (q˙i · 0 − t) − L · 0 + mxi = m(xi − ẋi t) (71)

Dilatation

δt = 2βt, , δxi = βxi , δλ = 0 =⇒ Ψi = xi , X = 2t , Λ = 0

p2
I = pi (q̇i (2t) − xi ) − (2t) + 0
2m
I = pi (ẋi t − xi ) = cte
This combine the integral of momentum and Galileo’s boost.

19
Conformal transformation
From the demonstration of the previous problem of the first Noether
theorem, let us calculate the next expression (this is the number (5) equation
of the problem 14 at the last of this homework )

d d d d
γt2


δ ẋi = (δxi ) − ẋi (δt) = (γxi t) − ẋi
dt dt dt dt
δ ẋi = γ(ẋi t + xi ) − 2γ ẋi t (72)

Now let us calculate δL

m 
δL = δ ẋ2i = mẋi δ(ẋi )
2
And using (72) in the last equation

δL = mγxi ẋi − mγ ẋ2 t (73)

Now, I am going to use the equation that appear in the problem δL +

d d
L dt δt = dt δλ( this equation can be seen from the quasi-invariant lagrangian)

d d
δL + L dt δt = dt
δλ
⇓

d d
mγxi ẋi − mγ ẋ2i t + m 2
γt2 =


ẋ
2 i
δλ
dt dt
d  m 2 d m
mγxi ẋi = γ x = δλ =⇒ Λ = x2i (74)
dt 2 i dt 2
So we get
m 2
X = t2 Ψi = xi t xΛ= (75)
2 i
If I put this function at (63) we get the next integral of motion

x2 x2i t2
I= + − xi ẋi t = cte (76)
2 2

20
Problem 16
We have the Lagrangian, is divide into a free particle and a potential
energy
m 2 eg
L (ṙ + r2 θ̇2 + r2 φ̇2 sin2 (θ)) + φ̇ cos(θ)
2 c
eg
U = − φ̇ cos(θ)
c
We can calculate the components of the generalized force for this La-
grangian and compare with the force from FB = ec ṙ × B .In order to do this,
we need the result of generalized forces to some velocity-dependent potential.
This is our case, U depend of φ̇. We use the result that appear on the book
Classical mechanics by goldstein, pag 22 (1.58) equation, 3th edition.
 
∂U d ∂U
Fi = − + (77)
∂xi dt ∂ ẋi
Then, applying to the potential(and do not forget the coefficient of the
gradient in spherical coordinates, in order to obtain in units of force, and
no in a moments of force), we can see, that for r all is zero and we only get
terms in the θ components and φ components contributes
  
1 ∂U d ∂U eg
Fθ = − + = − φ̇ sin(θ)
r ∂θ dt ∂ θ̇ cr
  
1 ∂U d ∂U eg
Fφ = − + = θ̇
r sin(θ) ∂φ dt ∂ φ̇ cr
So, the force is
eg eg
F= θ̇φ̂ − φ̇ sin(θ)θ̂ (78)
cr cr
On the other side, let us calculate the magnetic force with B = g rr3

e eg eg eg
F = ṙ × B = F = 3 (r2 θ̇φ̂ − r2 φ̇ sin(θ)θ̂) = θ̇φ̂ − φ̇ sin(θ)θ̂ (79)
c cr cr cr
we can see, that the (78) and (79) are equal, and then due to this the
equations of motions must be the same, so the lagragian describe the move-
ment of a charged particle in a magnetic field 

21
Problem 17
The action that we want to minimize, is
Z 2
ds
S = T ime(1 → 2) = (80)
1 v
where the start and end point are r1 = (0, 0) and r2 = (x2 , y2 ). the
system √
is in a gravitational field, so the velocity from elementary mechanic,
is v =p 2gy. We will work√ with y as independent variable. So, we have
2 2 02 0 dy
ds = (dx) + (dy) = x + 1dy where x := dx . Put all of this in (80),
we have
Z y2 s 02
1 x +1
S=√ dy (81)
2g 0 y
So, the Lagrangian of the problem is
s
x02 + 1
L = L(y, x0 ) = (82)
y
We can see, that the Lagrangian does not depend of the dependent vari-
∂L
able x, so we have that ∂x 0 is a constant. Calculating we get

∂L x02 1
= = constant = (83)
∂x0 y(1 + x02 ) 2a
And, like always, we named the constant like that just for future conve-
nience calculations. If we resolve to x0 we get
r
0 y
x = (84)
2a − y
and integrating that
Z r
y
x= dy (85)
2a − y
Let us play a little with the integrand. We make the next substitution
there

y = a(1 − cos(θ)) (86)

22
 r r
a(1 − cos θ) 1 − cos θ
r
y
dy = a sin θdθ = a sin θdθ
2a − y 2a − a + a cos θ 1 + cos θ
s
2 sin2 2θ θ
sin θdθ = 2 sin2 ( 2θ )dθ


= a sin θdθ = a tan 2
2 cos2 2θ
= (1 − cos θ)dθ

So, integrating

Z
x=a (1 − cos θ)dθ

= a(θ − sin(θ)) + cte (87)

We wrote that the initial point is in x = 0 and y = 0, so in (86) for

x = 0 → θ = 0, from this we have that the constant in (87) is equal to zero,
so, the equations of motion are

x = a(θ − sin(θ)) (88)

y = a(1 − cos(θ)) (89)

If we are on the end point, from (89) we have

 y2 
θ2 = arccos 1 − (90)
a
where θ2 is the value of the parameter on (x2 , y2 ). and replacing at (88)
we have
x2 x2
a= = y2

y2


(91)
θ2 − sin θ2 arccos 1 − a
− sin arccos 1 − a
And the equation (91) is the solution in a transcendental equation for the
constant a given (x2 , y2 )
Now, we are going to compare the time for different curves. But before,
let us calculate the action (81). Replace (84) in (81)
s
Z y2 y Z y2 r
1 2a−y
+1 1 2a
S=T = √ dy =√ dy (92)
2g 0 y 2g 0 2ay − y 2

23
 the solution by computer programs is (where T(or S) is the time it takes
to go from (0,0) to (x2 , y2 ))
r r 
a y2
S=T =2 arctan (93)
g 2a − y2
Now we will to calculate a particular example. We are going to choose
the next endpoint (x2 , y2 ) = π2 − 1, 1 , in order to have a = 1 from (91). So

the time to go to this point through the cycloid is

r !
2 1 π
Tcycloid = √ arctan = √ ≈ 0.501772[s] (94)
g 2−1 2 g
And by elementary mechanic, we can get the time through the straight
line, by
s
2(x22 + y22 )
TStraightline = ≈ 0.520166[s] (95)
gy2
So, we can see that from this particular example TStraightline > Tcycloid


Problem 18
To begin with, we are going to calculate the symbols of Christoffel. But
before, the metric in a matrix symbols and its inverse are
1   2 
y2
0 ab y 0
gab = g = (96)
0 y12 0 y2
Applying to the formula

g li
Γljk = (∂k (gij ) + ∂j (gik ) − ∂i (gjk ))
2
For example, to Γ112 , as l = 1, i must be 1

g 11 y 2 −2
 
1
Γ112 = (∂2 (g11 ) + ∂1 (g12 ) − ∂1 (g12 )) = 3
+0−0 =−
2 2 y y

24
We get
1 1
Γ112 = Γ121 = Γ222 = − Γ211 =
y2 y

Γ111 = Γ122 = Γ212 = Γ221 = 0

The equation of geodesics are

 
00 2 0 0
x − xy =0 (97)
y
1
y 00 + x02 − y 02 = 0


(98)
y
x00 2y 0
from (78) we can write as x
= y
and the integrate to get

y2
 
0 1 0
ln(x ) = 2 ln(y) + ln ⇒x = (99)
R R

Where ln R1 is a constant of integration

On the other side, we know if one choose the length as parameter, the
speed of the particle is equal to the unity, and remember we have a metric
02 02
different to Euclid, so one have x y+y2 = 1. Using this and assuming x0 6= 0
we have
 2
dy y 02 y2 R2 R2 − y 2
= 02 = 02 − 1 = 2 − 1 =
dx x x y y2
and and I used (99) in the third equality. Then I have the next
y dy
p = dx (100)
R2 − y 2
And integrating the last equation we came to
p
− R 2 − y 2 = x + x0

R2 = y 2 + (x + x0 )2 (101)
we see that the geodesics satisfying the equation of a circle, and due to y > 0
this curves need to be half circles centered at x0 

25
 Now suppose that x0 (s) = 0 for all s. So there must exist a constant α
such that x(s) = α. Now let us work with (98). We can see from

d y0 y 00 y − y 02 y 02
   
1 00
= = y − =0
ds y y2 y y
| {z }
=0
0
So, there must exist some constant β such that yy = β ⇒ y(s) = βeγs
where γ = cte. So we can see that the curve c of the geodesic are verticals
lines c(s) = (α, βeγs )


Problem 19
If we imagine the problem in a circle with radio l, we will use the angular
coordinate θ, where the θ = 0 is at the bottom of the circle. We are going to
choose the potential energy in the next form

U = mgl(1 − cos θ) (102)

in order to have the energy potential at the bottom θ = 0. So, with this, the
Lagrangian of the problem is

ml2 2
L= θ̇ − mgl(1 − cos θ) (103)
2
The Hamiltonian of the problem is

ml2
H=E= θ̇ + mgl(1 − cos θ) (104)
2
And is constant because ∂L
∂t
= 0. If we evaluate the energy at the top
θ = π and θ̇ = 0, we get

E = 2mgl (105)
And we denote for the speed necesary at the bottom θ̇ = ω0 to came at the
top θ̇ = 0. So evaluate the energy at this point we get

ml2 2
E= ω (106)
2 0

26
 And equaling (105) with (106), and resolving for ω0 we came to
r
g 4g
ω0 = 2 =⇒ ω02 = (107)
l l
Now having the energy equation for any point, we have that

ml2
2mgl = θ̇ + mgl(1 − cosθ) (108)
2
⇓

4g 2g
θ̇2 = − (1 − cos θ)
l l
ω2
= ω02 − 0 (1 − cos θ)
2
= ω02 − ω02 (sin2 2θ )
θ̇2 = ω02 cos2 θ
2

we came at the next equation, taking the square root with no fear(all is
allowed),

θ̇ − ω0 cos 2θ = 0 (109)
this is a separated equation, so we get
Z Z
dθ
= ω0 dt
cos 2θ

⇓
θ θ




2 ln sec 2
+ tan 2
= ω0 (t + c1 )
⇓
ω0
θ θ (t+c1 )



sec 2
+ tan 2
=e 2

⇓
θ ω0
1+sin (t+c1 )
2 =e 2
θ
cos
2

It is not difficult to see that c1 = 0, due to θ(t = 0) = 0. So the equation of

motion at the end are.

27
 1 + sin 2θ ω 
0
θ
= exp t (110)
cos 2 2
the equation of motion is a transcendental equation. From (110), we can
see, in the limit of θ → π, the term at LHS approaches to ∞. So the only
way to happen that is that the RHS of (110) approaches to ∞ as well as
t → ∞.


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