YLLANA BAY VIEW COLLEGE,INC.

PROFESSIONAL’S REFINERY
Balangasan, Pagadian City
==============================================================
REVALIDA EXAMINATION IN LEA

1. MNSA or Master’s in National Security in Administration is offered and

administered by this institution.
A. PPSC
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Defense College
2. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to
specific post or position.
A. Department rule
B. Code of Ethical Standard
C. Duty Manual
D. Code of Conduct
3. The staff directorate in charge of providing the necessary supplies and
materials to all PNP units is the
A. Research Development Office
B. Logistics Office
C. Plans
D. Comptrollership
4. In the history of our police force, who was the first Chief of the
Philippine Constabulary?
A. Capt. Henry T. Allen C. Gen. Rafael Crame
B. Col. Lamberto Javallera D. Capt. Nicholas Piatt
5. Among the following. he is known as the father of Modern Policing System.
A. William Norman C. King Henry III
B. Sir Robert Peel D. John Westminster
6. Japanese Military Police during the Japanese occupation in the Philippines
were known as
A. Kamikaze D. Okinana
B. Kempetai E. Hara Kiri
C. Konichiwa
7. How many years of satisfactory service must a PNP member renders before he
can apply for optional retirement?
A. 10 years C. 15 years
B. 20 years D. 25 years
8. Decision of the Chief, NP in administrative cases where the penalty is
dismissal, demotion and forced resignation may be appealed before the
A. Regional Appellate Body
B. Office of the President
C. National Appellate Board
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
9. In the physical environment of the patrol division, the shift that receives
most of the call of the public which are directly related to police function
are made on the;
A. Afternoon shift C. day shift
B. midnight shift D. A and C only

10. The statistical reports of patrol officers regarding the rate of crime,
types of crime an d places of crimes in each beat is very important in the
implementation of the;
A. preventive enforcement
B. selective enforcement
 C. traffic enforcement
D. emergency call for service
11. A patrol activity that is directed towards the elimination of hazards in
each respective beat is called
A. patrol and observation
B. called for service
C. attending to complaints
D. none of the above
12. According to the father of modern policing system, the soundest of all
criminological philosophies is
A. prevention of crime C. control of crime
B. elimination of crime D. suppression of crime
13. Patrol hazard would include the following except
A. Stress C. suspicious persons
B. Open manhole D. ordinances
14. In the history of patrol, the first recorded organized police that utilized
dog patrol was the so called _.
A. Medjays C. Ancient police
B. Vigiles D. Jacobians
15. The Chief magistrate at bow street in London that organized the Bow Street
Runners is
A. King Charles II of London
B. Henry Fielding of London
C. King Richard of London
D. none of the above
16. The responsibility of police that involves peacekeeping on community service
role or social services is referred to as
A. crime prevention
B. prevention of crime
C. order maintenance
D. crime investigation
17. The effort of reduction of elimination of desire and opportunity to commit
crime is known as
A. order maintenance C. prevention of crime
B. law enforcement D. arrest of criminals

18. In the history of patrol US, the first daytime and paid police service was
organized in
A. New York C. San Francisco
B. Boston D. Philadelphia

19. The government agency that issue license for private and government security
guard is __
A. the PNP SAGSD
B. Mayor’s Office
C. Security and Exchange Commission (SEC)
D. the Local Police Office
20. Which of the following is not a function of a Private Detective?
A. background investigation
B. locating missing persons
C. controlling traffic flow
D. surveillance work
21. It is a document issued by the chief PNP or his duly authorize
representative recognizing a person to be qualified to perform his duties as
security guard or detective?
A. Certificate of incorporation
B. License to Operate
 C. Warrant
D. None of these
22. Perimeter fence is what type of perimeter defense?
A. first line C. third line
B. second line D. None of these
23. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on vertical perimeter fences is
commonly called __
A. Hangover C. tower guard
B. guard control D. none of these
24. The attempt to determine whether there are parties with in the police
candidate’s family who might negatively influence performance of official
duties can be best verified by conducting:
A. Performance Evaluation
B. Character Investigation
C. Written Examination
D. Oral Interview
25. In cases of altered marital status in the police selection procedure,
careful investigation on matters upon which such alteration should be
conducted for purpose of
A. Promotion C. Disqualification
B. Appointment D. Dismissal from Service

26. The aspect of police selection can not be accurately assessed by other steps
in the selection process can be measured through the conduct of:
A. Polygraph Examination C. Oral Interview
B. Neigborhood Check D. Psychological Screening

27. To prevent hiatus (break in continuity) in the discharge of official police

function by authorizing a person to discharge the same pending the selection
of another appointee, is the main reason of:
A. Dismissal C. Temporary Appointment
B. Permanent Appointee D. Suspension

28. Verification of academic accomplishment, standardized exam and affiliation

with organization of police applicants are information required in the:
A. Written Examination Procedure
B. Character investigation procedures
C. Appointment Procedures
D. Eligibility Requirements
29. The following are information desired in verifying educational history of a
police applicant, except:
A. Courses Taken
B. Demonstrated Leadership
C. Debt, loans and savings
D. Anti – Social behaviors or Juvenile records.
30. The method by which testing procedures can be best insure job performance
predictability is through a process known as:
A. Test Validation C. Job Analysis
B. Job Performance D. Retesting

31. Physical and mental excellence is an essential quality for individuals who
are to be employed as police officers and this can only be determined by
administering rigid
A. Oral examination
B. Character Investigation
C. Vicinity Check
D. Medical Examination
32. Physical Test is designed to furnish data, which will indicate the extent to
which an applicant maybe able to perform required responsibilities.
Applicants maybe required climbing over a fence of 5 feet and 6 inches high
without the aid of another person. This physical test is called:
A. Body Drag C. Foot Pursuit
B. Obstacle Clearance D. Body Pull Ups
33. Planning is a management function concerned with the following, except:
A. visualizing future situations
B. making estimates concerning them
C. making money
D. identifying issues
34. Police administrators sometimes do not appreciate the importance of planning
because
A. of their pattern of career development
B. people do not admire them
C. influential politicians involved in planning
D. of positive view about planning
35. Police Planning is an integral element of good management and
A. Business administration C. prediction
B. good police decision-making D. performance

36. According to Hudzik and Cordner, planning is

A. Visioning
B. All of these
C. thinking what is right and doing what is best
D. thinking about the future and what we need to do now to achieve it
37. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
A. Vulnerabilities C. Intelligence
B. Threats D. Win
38. What is the principle which states that subordinate should be under the
control of only one superior?
A. Principle of Chain of Command
B. Principle of unity of command
C. Span of Control Principle
D. Principle of Objectivity
39. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position is
called
A. Command and Control C. Order
B. Authority D. All of these
40. Which among the following is not included in the 6 Master Plans of the PNP
A. Sandigang-Milenyo C. Banat
B. Sandugo D. Pagpapala
41. It refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of
special activity and addresses immediate need which are specific.
A. Operational Plan C. Synoptic Plan
B. Strategic Plan D. Guideline
42. To properly achieve the administrative planning responsibility within in the
unit, the commander shall develop unit plans relating to, except
A. Policies or procedure
B. Tactics and operations
C. Extra-office activities
D. Interpersonal problems
43. SOP in police parlance means
A. Standard Operation Procedure
B. Special Operating Procedure
C. Standard Operating procedure
 D. Special Operation procedure
44. These are procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds
shall be outlined as a guide to officers and men in the field.
A. SOPs C. Field Procedures
B. HQ Procedures D. None of these
45. Strictly speaking, one of the following is not a police field operation
A. Patrol C. Intelligence
B. Investigation D. Traffic Operations

46. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to

A. Neutralization of wanted persons
B. Anti-illegal gambling
C. Anti-carnapping plan
D. None of the above
47. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What will be his
first action?
A. Arrest the pickpocket
B. Call for a criminal investigation
C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department
D. Just continue his beat
48. The police must endeavor to establish and impress upon the law abiding
citizens and would be criminals alike that the police are always available
to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around the
corner at all times. What does this situation indicate?
A. Police Omnipresence C. Police Control
B. Police Discretion D. Police Interaction
49. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for criminal
attack or for creating a clamor for police service is considered as
A. Patrol Hazards C. Police discretion
B. Patrol Effort D. None of these
50. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and
community interests into a working relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol C. Team policing
B. Community Relation D. Directed Patrol

Answer key LEA

1. D 18. D 35. B
2. C 19. A 36. B
3. B 20. C 37. A
4. A 21. D 38. B
5. B 22. A 39. B
6. B 23. D 40. D
7. B 24. B 41. A
8. C 25. C 42. D
9. A 26. C 43. C
10. B 27. C 44. C
11. A 28. D 45. C
12. A 29. A 46. A
13. D 30. C 47. A
14. A 31. D 48. A
15. B 32. A 49. A
16. C 33. C 50. C
17. C 34. C

YLLANA BAY VIEW COLLEGE,INC.

 PROFESSIONAL’S REFINERY
Balangasan, Pagadian City
==============================================================
REVALIDA EXAMINATION IN CRIMINALISTIC

1. In the strict sense of the word, forensic medicine means -

A. Application of medicine under legal jurisdiction
B. Application of medical sciences to elucidate legal problems
C. Knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine
D. Law and Medicine combined

2. In medico-legal practice, experts considered that brain death occurs when there is -
A. Deep irreversible coma
B. Absence of electrical brain activity
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Blood clot in the head

3. The accepted criteria used in determining death are the following, except -
A. Brain death C. Cardio-respiratory death
B. Cellular death D. None of the above

4. Study shows that in molecular or cellular death, there is death of individual cells within -
A. 3 – 6 minutes C. 3 – 6 hours
B. 20 – 30 minutes D. 20 – 24 hours

5. What is the kind of death characterized by a condition where there is a transient loss of
consciousness or temporary cessation of the vital function of the body?
A. Clinical death C. Somatic death
B. Molecular death D. Apparent death

6. What is the doctrine which states that “the greater the number of points of similarities and
dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater is the probability for the conclusion to be
correct is found”?
A. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification
B. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
C. Probability versus vulnerability
D. Doctrine of parallelism

7. In its strict sense, which of the following is not a scientific method of identification of person?
A. Finger printing and handwriting
B. Dental Identification
C. Analysis of the skeletal structure
D. Identification by close friend and relatives

8. In the study of wounds, the following are considered instances when the size of the entrance
wound is bigger than the caliber of the firearm used. One is not included.
A. Contact Fire
 B. Deformity of the bullet
C. Acute angular approach of the bullet
D. Fragmentation of the bullet

9. In personal identification, study shows that ___ is a characteristic of an individual that may not
easily be changed as compared to other characteristics.
A. Structure C. Mental Memory
B. Speech D. Gait

10. In medico legal practice, postmortem lividity maybe due to any of the following, except –
A. Sugilation C. Diffusion
B. Hypostasis D. Autolysis

11. The dissolution of the natural continuity of any tissues of the living body is known as –
A. Wound C. Physical injury
B. Vital reaction D. All of the Above

12. Appropriately, the identification of firearm or ballistics is important in firearm injury since it
helps in the -
A. Differentiation between entrance and exit of gunshot wounds
B. Determination of the distance from assailant to the victim
C. Determination of the relative position of the victim from the assailant
D. Identification of the weapon used

13. In the study of forensic ballistics, the following are products of combustion produced by firearms,
except -
A. Smudging C. Singeing
B. Tattooing D. Confusion collar

14. In the Philippines, the following government officials are authorized to make death investigation,
except -
A. Provincial or City prosecutors
B. Director of the National Bureau of Investigation
C. Judges of the Regional Trial Courts
D. Justices of the Supreme Court

15. When a person dies, what are the different changes that take place in the body after death?
A. Stage of primary flaccidity
B. Stage of postmortem flaccidity
C. Stage of secondary flaccidity
D. All of the above

16. In death investigation, which of the following has the medico-legal importance of giving the
approximate time of death?
A. Rigor mortis C. Muscular Contraction
B. Cadaveric spasm D. Dilation of the pupil

17. Expert noted that the unburned or partially burned powder grains embedded in the skin
surrounding the point of entry in gunshot wound usually produce -
 A. Tattooing C. Stippling
B. Peppering D. All of these

18. Which of the following is the kind of alcohol obtained from the destructive distillation of wood
which, according to studies, can cause blindness?
A. Isoprophyl alcohol C. Methyl alcohol
B. Ethyl alcohol D. Butanol

19. Among the following specimen, which one is given the highest level of importance and
considered the best evidentiary specimen that can be used for DNA analysis?
A. Saliva C. Urine
B. Semen D. Blood

20. The presence of invisible substances to the naked eye, like fluorescent powder and invisible
crayon, can be best seen in -
A. x-ray machine C. ultra violet light
B. visible light D. infrared rays

21. In forensic investigation, when the kind of soil found on suspect’s clothing is consistent with the
soil found at the crime scene, this would indicate that the -
A. suspect was in the crime scene
B. suspect has committed the alleged crime
C. suspect was in the area at the time of the crime
D. area where the suspect could not be ascertained

22. Which of the following technique is used to compare trace elements found in soil?
A. macroscopic examination C. density analysis
B. spectrographic analysis D. enzyme analysis

23. What non-destructive instrumental test used to determine the crystalline structure of chemical
compound in paints?
A. x-ray diffraction
B. infra-red spectography
C. emission spectography
D. phyrolysis-gas chromatography

24. The instrument that criminalists use most often in metal detection and identification is the -
A. Mass Spectrometer C. Spectrograph
B. Newton activation analysis D. infra-red spectrophotograph

25. Chemists suggested that the most suitable material for making foot mark cast in soil is -
A. plaster of paris C. shellac
B. paraffin wax D. candle wax

26. What is called the science of drugs that deals with their preparatory, used and effects?
A. Pharmacology C. Drug therapy
B. Therapeutics D. Toxicology

27. In narcotics investigation, the test used to distinguish heroin found in morphine is -
 A. Marquis test C. Ferric Chloride test
B. Froede’s test D. Simon’s test

28. The prescription of drugs is commonly shown by the symbol

A. RX C. TM
B. PH D. TX

29. In the study of metals, experts suggested that all types of serial number on metal can be restored
by acid through -
A. acid etching C. benzidine test
B. density gradient method D. metal polish

30. “Shabu” is the street name of chemical compound belonging to the amphethamine group of
drugs specifically known as –
A. mephoridne C. methamphetamine
B. methaqualome D. All of the above

31. The botanical name of marijuana plant which is a source of narcotic drug is –
A. Bhang ganja C. Cannabis sativa
B. Hashish D. Lima fingeria

32. When comparing soil samples by microscopic examination, the number one consideration should
be -
A. observed the color and granularity C. sampling method
B. determine the density D. specification of microscope

33. The instrumental analysis that is most useful for identification of synthetic fiber found at the
crime scene is -
A. x-ray defraction and gas chromatograph
B. mass spectrometry and emission spectrography
C. pyrolysis and atomic absorption spectrophotometry
D. infra-red spectrophotometry & gas chromatography

34. In the study of blood, the ABO system divides the human race into four blood types, the lowest
percentage is –
A. O type C. B type
B. A type D. AB type

35. Among the following blood cells, which one is the white blood cell?
A. thrombocytes C. erythcocytes
B. leukocytes D. None of these

36. The study of the identification and characterization of body fluids such as semen, blood and
saliva is called -
A. Semenology C. Posology
B. Serology D. Biology

37. In questioned document examination, what is referred to as the degree of writing inclinations? It is
also sometimes known as the slope of writing.
 A. Slant C. Proportion
B. Baseline D. Alignment

38. It is an illustration of the basic letter design which is the fundamentals of the writing system. Which
one of the following is referred to?
A. Writing system C. Writing movement
B. Copybook form D. Line quality

39. The study of writing specimen in which the letters are joined together is called cursive writing. What
a specimen of writing is illustrated in a disconnected style?
A. Pen lift C. Hand lettering
B. Hiatus D. Broken lines

40. Which of the following refers to the factors relative to the execution of the writing or the
circumstances under which writing was prepared?
A. Writing condition C. Writing forms
B. Line quality D. Natural variation

41. Photographers suggested that ___ is the type of examination designed to show minute details of a
small object.
A. Microscope examination
B. Oblique Light examination
C. Photomicrography
D. Transmitted light examination

42. What kind of paper, in document examination, which has been treated in such a way as to minimize
the change of successful forgery by erasures, whether mechanical or chemical?
A. Chemical paper C. Polyethylene Coated paper
B. Tested Paper D. Safety paper

43. In the study of forgery cases, the forged signature which resembles the genuine signature made by
free hand movement and constant practice is known as -
A. Traced forgery C. Simulated forgery
B. Simple forgery D. Spurious signature

44. Which of the following type of pen is a modern pen which contains a reservoir of ink in a specially
designed chamber?
A. Fountain pen C. Ink master pen
B. Ball point pen D. Reynold’s pen

45. In dealing with handwriting, what is called that interruption in a stroke, caused by sudden removal
of the writing instrument from the paper surface?
A. Tremor C. Retouching
B. Pen lift D. Hiatus

46. What do you call that introductory backward stroke found in some small letters?
A. Hitch C. Beard
B. Humps D. Buckle knot
47. According to experts in questioned document examination, the first step in the procurement of
typewriting exemplars should be -
A. Procurement of the suspected typewriter
B. Acquisition of typewriting exemplars
C. Study of the questioned typewriting
D. Checking the price of typewriters in the market

48. A stroke which goes back over another writing strokes in which is slightly to occur due to lack of
movement control is termed as -
A. Retouching C. Retracing
B. Shading D. Patching

49. As a rule in QD examination, it is easier to determine whether or not a signature is forged, but it is
difficult on the other hand to established who committed the forgery because -
A. The forger might be a left handed
B. Imitations one of the most effective means to disguise one’s handwriting
C. Study of the questioned typewriting
D. There should be no sufficient standards available.

50. Among the following, when the hammer pushes the firing pin, what initiates the combustion of the
gunpowder in a shell?
A. Bullet C. Trigger
B. Primer D. Push over
 SUGGESTED KEY ANSWER

CRIMINALISTICS

1. B 26. A
2. C 27. C
3. B 28. A
4. B 29. A
5. D 30. C
6. A 31. C
7. D 32. A
8. D 33. D
9. A 34. D
10. D 35. B
11. A 36. B
12. D 37. A
13. D 38. B
14. D 39. C
15. D 40. A
16. A 41. A
17. D 42. D
18. C 43. C
19. D 44. A
20. C 45. B
21. A 46. A
22. B 47. C
23. A 48. C
24. C 49. B
25. A 50. B

YLLANA BAY VIEW COLLEGE,INC.

PROFESSIONAL’S REFINERY
 Balangasan, Pagadian City
==============================================================
REVALIDA EXAMINATION IN CRIM. SOC

1. In the study of biological criminology, what is the well-known "criminal family" studied by Richard
Dugdale?
A. The Simpsom Family C. The Kallikak’s Family
B. The Juke’s Family D. The Jacob’s Family

2. According to Lombroso, the physical characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the general
population and are throwbacks to animals or primitive people is called –
A. Criminoloids C. Parasitism
B. Abnormal Behaviors D. Atavistic Anomalies

3. One of the following is an emotional disturbance in which moods alternate between periods of wild
elation and deep depression.
A. Schizoid personality C. Active-aggressive personality
B. Bipolar disorder D. Borderline Behavior

4. A house of prostitution, typically run by a madam who sets prices and handles "business"
arrangements. Appropriately, referring to the place is called –
A. Brothel C. Hotel
B. Motel D. Den

5. The idea that low female crime and delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency with which po -
lice in treating female offenders. This kind of belief is called -
A. Paranoid Reaction C. Index crime hypothesis
B. Chivalry hypothesis D. None of these

6. In the study of human disorders, what is the psychological disorder in which a child shows
developmentally inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity, and lack of attention?
A. Mongoloidism D. Attention Deficit Hyperactive
B. Special Children Syndrome Disorder
C. KSP Child

7. What developmental theory which attribute deviant and criminal behavior to imbalances between
the amount of control that the individual has over others and that others have over him or her?
A. Social Reactionism C. Strain Theory
B. Control Balance Theory D. Social Conflict Theory

8. The use of physical chastisement, such as whipping or maiming, to punish criminals is a pervasive
practice of ___ during the 17th century.
A. Corporal punishment C. Banishment
B. Capital punishment D. Traditional punishment

9. In general term, the physical attack that includes hitting, punching, slapping, or other offensive
touching of a victim is called –
A. Physical Injury C. Physical Deformation
B. Physical Abuse D. Battery
10. The act of reducing the penalty for a criminal act but not actually legalizing it is called –
A. Victimization C. Penalization
B. Decriminalization D. Degrading of penalty

11. If a person believes that social forces operating in urban areas causes criminal interactions such as a
neighborhood become natural areas for crime, then he is an advocate of –
A. Social ecology theory C. Urban warfare
B. Migration and disintegration D. Broken Window theory

12. What part of the personality, developed in early childhood that helps control the id and keep
people's actions within the boundaries of social convention?
A. Super Id C. Ego
B. Super Ego D. Mixed personality

13. The psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits of victims and their inability to
respond effectively to repeated physical and psychological violence among women is called –
A. Rape trauma syndrome C. Comfort women syndrome
B. Battered women syndrome D. London syndrome

14. Any disorder marked by disturbed electrical rhythms of the central nervous system and typically
manifested by convulsive attacks usually with clouding of consciousness is considered –
A. Epilepsy C. Alevosia
B. CNS Disorder D. Reflex Disorder

15. Traits such as feeblemindedness, epilepsy, insanity, and defective social instinct, which Charles
Goring believed had a significant relationship to criminal behavior is now known as –
A. Defective Intelligence C. Personal Deformity
B. Disability D. Incapacitation

16. The medical doctor deliberately put to death painlessly his patient who was suffering from an
incurable disease. In this situation, the doctor committed –
A. Alevosia C. Amnesia
B. Euthanesia D. Legal Killing

17. The term criminology is derived from the Latin word crīmen, which means –
A. criminal conduct C. violation of legal order
B. an accusation D. societal misconduct

18. Who was the Italian professor that pioneered the word criminology in 1885?
A. Alphonse Bertillion C. Paul Topinard
B. Raffaele Garofalo D. Cesare Lombroso

19. If the study is focused on the physical characteristics of an individual offender with non-offenders in
the attempt to discover differences covering criminal behavior, then such study falls under –
A. Physiological Approach C. Anthropological Approach
B. Medical Approach D. Biological Approach
20. A ___ is any system of ideas arranged in rational order that produce general principles which
increase ones understanding and explanations of his or her surroundings. 
A. Intuition C. Premonition
B. Assumption D. Theory

21. What is another term for expulsion?

A. Abetment C. Ejectment
B. Concealment D. Conviction
E.

22. Most Classical theories of crime causation make certain basic assumptions. Among them are, except
–
A. Criminals, are also human beings, and should be treated with reformative measures
B. Human beings are fundamentally rational, and most human behavior is the result of free will
coupled with rational choice.
C. Pain and pleasure are the two central determinants of human behavior.
D. Punishment, a necessary evil, is sometimes required to deter law violators and to serve as an
example to others who would also violate the law.

23. ____ means that all individuals rationally look out for their own personal satisfaction. According to
the classical school of thought, this is the key to the relationship between laws and crime.
A. Positivism C. Generality
B. Rationality D. Expressiveness

24. What is the philosophy which states that a moral act is one which produces the greatest happiness
for the greatest number of people?
A. Free will Theory C. Marxist Philosophy
B. Theory of Utilitarianism D. None of these

25. It holds that people are more often deterred from committing a crime when it is more certain that
they will be caught, rather than due to the severity of the punishment. What school of thought is
being described?
A. Classical School C. Positivist School
B. Neoclassical School D. Modernist School

26. What theory holds that crime resulted not from what criminals have in common with others in
society, but from their distinctive physical or mental defects?
A. Darwin’s theory C. Lombroso’s theory
B. Gorings’s theory D. Durkheim’s Theory

27. Cesare Lombroso’s idea of the born criminal concept was actually an influence from the suggestions
of his colleague in the person of –
A. Raffaele Garofalo C. Jeremy Bentham
B. Enrico Ferri D. Benito Mussolini

28. According to psychoanalytical principles, what is the only component of personality that is present
from birth?
A. Super Ego C. Id
B. Ego D. 6th sense
29. In the field of criminology, who was famous for his work on the “Anomie Theory”?
A. Frederick Anomie C. Walter Reckless
B. Emile Durkheim D. Robert Agnew

30. He was referred to as “the most important criminologist of the twentieth century” because his
contribution to the field about crime and criminal behavior. Who was he?
A. Robert Merton C. Walter Reckless
B. Edwin Sutherland D. Emile Durkheim

31. He was a physical anthropologist and although not a criminologist, he was popularly known in the
field of criminology for his Criminal Physical Inferiority Theory. Who was he?
A. Ernest Burgess C. Robert Merton
B. Ernest Hooton D. William Sheldon

32. According to the somatotyping theory, what type of body physique is masculine?
A. Mesomorphic type C. Ectomorphic type
B. Endomorphic type D. Pycnic type

33. The ____ is a broad analysis of the relationship between personal and social controls. This theory is a
form of control, which suggests that a series of both internal and external factors contributes to
criminal behavior.
A. Anomie Theory C. Containment Theory
B. Strain Theory D. Differential Association Theory

34. Among the following statement, which best describe the findings of Charles Goring after analysing
3,000 English convicts?
A. Crime prone people can be seen through their features
B. There is no such thing as anthropological criminal type
C. There were no significant physical or mental abnormalities among the criminals
D. Criminals are born

35. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented before the court, he is considered -
A. convicted C. acquitted
B. suspended D. legally charged

36. What is the Latin term for - guilty by act?

A. Actus Reus C. Giltus reus
B. Actus Numbus D. Rea mensa
37. If physiological or psychological dependence on some chemical agent is obviously detected from a
person, he is in the state of -
A. dependency or addiction C. insanity
B. comatose D. metamorphosis

38. Which of the following behavior is described as a threatening behavior, which is either verbal or
physical, directed at other persons?
A. Abnormality C. Aggression
B. Dependency D. Violence
39. Which if the following aggressive behaviors include the emotional and cognitive components of
aggression such as anger and hostility?
A. Dynamic Aggression C. Directive Aggression
B. Interactive Aggression D. Covert Aggression

40. When there is an apparent, intentional, and physically aggressive act irrespective of severity against
another person, there is -
A. Battering C. Chaos
B. Assault D. Crisis

41. What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking, punching, deliberately throwing an object
and drawing a lethal weapon against someone?
A. Mental C. Sexual
B. Physical D. Verbal

42. Which of the following description best fit for the word “allege”?
A. Assert or make an accusation C. direct an act from doing
B. remove from its position D. intentional mutilation

43. What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used to deal with a young person alleged
to have committed an offense?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Alternative measures
C. Individual response against bad behavior
D. Extra judicial proceedings

44. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing, intentional destruction of property, and self
destructive behaviors?
A. Isolated Aggression C. Interactive Aggression
B. Covert Aggression D. Overt Aggression

45. An aging offender is -

A. a process of making an offender C. trusted offender
young D. juvenile delinquent
B. an elderly offender

46. What is the theory which holds that tumors and seizures are been associated with aggression and
violent behavior?
A. Brain lesion theory C. Neurotic Mind theory
B. Conspiracy theory D. Dementia praecox

47. When we say capital offense, it means -

A. a very serious crime, for which the death penalty is imposed
B. the highest penalty for selected offenses
C. total punishment of offender by incarceration
D. all of the above
48. At trial, the authenticity of an item as evidence is crucial. The item cannot be offered in court
without a testimonial sponsor who can vouch for its unaltered authenticity to the court and the jury.
To validate an items unaltered authenticity, a record must be kept of each and every time the item
changes hands. This refers to -
A. Records management C. Chain of custody
B. Presentation of evidence in court D. Laboratory analysis of items

49. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or caretaker under circumstances
indicating harm or threatened harm to the child's health or welfare is known as -
A. Child Abuse C. Child Dilemma
B. Child Neglect D. Child in conflict with the law

50. A clinical condition in young children who have received non-accidental, inexcusable violence or
injury, ranging from minimal to severe or fatal trauma, at the hand of an adult in a position of trust,
generally a parent or guardian. Which one of the following?
A. Battered Child Syndrome C. Abuse Trauma Syndrome
B. Incapacitated Child Syndrome D. None of these
 ANSWER KEY

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS, HUMAN RELATIONS

AND CRISIS MANAGEMENT

1. B 26. C
2. D 27. B
3. B 28. C
4. A 29. B
5. B 30. B
6. D 31. B
7. B 32. A
8. A 33. C
9. D 34. B
10. B 35. C
11. A 36. A
12. C 37. A
13. B 38. C
14. A 39. D
15. A 40. B
16. B 41. B
17. B 42. A
18. B 43. B
19. C 44. A
20. D 45. B
21. C 46. A
22. A 47. A
23. B 48. C
24. B 49. B
25. B 50. A

YLLANA BAY VIEW COLLEGE,INC.

PROFESSIONAL’S REFINERY
 Balangasan, Pagadian City
==============================================================
REVALIDA EXAMINATION IN CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

1. As a matter of procedure, the fourth pillar of the Criminal Justice System, Corrections Pillar, takes
over once the accused –
A. has been delivered to the New Bilibid Prison
B. received the order of the court
C. after having been found guilty, meted out the penalty for the crime he committed
D. has been arrested by the police and has been investigated of the crime

2. The Correctional System in the Philippines is under three distinct and separate departments of the
national government. They are the following, except –
A. The Department of National Defense
B. The Department of Justice
C. The Department of Interior and Local Government
D. The Department of Social Welfare and Development

3. Regional Rehabilitation Center for Youth (RRCY) in the country are established to provide care and
rehabilitation to juvenile in conflict with the law who are 9 - 17 years old. How many RRCY existing in
the Philippines?
A. Eight (8) C. Twelve (12)
B. Ten (10) D. Sixteen (16)

4. The central office of the BUCOR is located in ____, where the Director, the assistant directors and the
general administration staff are holding official functions.
A. Camp Crame, Quezon City
B. Camp Aquinaldo, Quezon City
C. New Bilibid Prison, Muntinlupa City
D. Maximum Security Prison

5. During the pre-colonial times, the informal prison system in the Philippines was –
A. barbaric and institutionalized
B. trial by ordeal
C. tribal and community-based
D. based on the Kalantiao Code

6. The formal prison system in the Philippines started only during the Spanish regime, where an
organized corrective service was made operational. Established in 1847 pursuant to Section 1708 of
the Revised Administrative Code and formally opened by Royal Decree in ____.
A. 1621 C. 1865
B. 1702 D. 1898

7. The Old Bilibid Prison was constructed as the main penitentiary in Oroquieta Street, Manila and
designed to house the prison population of the country. This prison became known as the –
A. Bilibid Prison I
B. Correctional de bilibid
C. Manila National Prison
 D. Carcel y Presidio Correccional

8. The Bureau of Corrections in the Philippines is an agency under the –

A. Department of Justice
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Office of the President
D. Office of the Provincial Governor

9. What is called the institutional record of an inmate which consists of his mittimus or commitment
order issued by the Court after conviction?
A. Carpeta C. File 201
B. Sentenced Mittimus D. None of these

10. It refers to shock incarceration regime for adults and juveniles, originated in America, which
emphasize discipline and physical training in a military-style environment. Which one of these?
A. Boot legs C. Mud Camps
B. Boot Camps D. Jamboree camps

11. The Borstal Institution founded by Sir Evelyn Ruggles-Brise was established in –
A. 1902 C. 1935
B. 1911 D. 1931

12. Which of the following records is not necessarily included in the carpeta of prisoners?
A. the prosecutor's information C. certificate of non-appeal
B. the decisions of the trial court D. the police investigation report

13. One of the following is not an Executive Clemency.

A. Reprieve C. Probation
B. Absolute Pardon D. Commutation of sentence
E.

14. When the San Ramon prison and penal farm in Zamboanga City was established?
A. October 16, 1974 C. June 04, 1801
B. August 21, 1869 D. March 16, 1621

15. Before the reconstruction of San Ramon Prison, the Americans established in 1904 a penal
settlement, which became known today as Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm. Which of these?
A. Guhit Settlement Farm C. Iguhit Settlement Farm
B. Iuhit Penal Settlement D. Ingunit Penal Settlement

16. The first RDC facility was created in Building No. 9 of the Maximum Security Compound and was
relocated to the Medium Security Compound of Camp Sampaguita. Historically, this statement is –
A. True C. Partially true
B. False D. Partially false

17. Under the BUCOR Manual of Operation, how long should an inmate stay at the RDC and he should
be due for transfer to the designated camp?
A. 30 days C. 90 days
B. 60 days D. 15 days
18. As per the organizational structure of the BUCOR and the given function of the office, under what
office the chief of the RDC directly reports?
A. The Director C. The Head of the Technical Division
B. The Deputy Director D. Secretary of Justice

19. Being the initial stop of every national male prisoner, the RDC greatly improved its rehabilitative
programs. By the adoption of the behavioral modification modality, a program for drug dependents,
the RDC was converted into a Therapeutic Community Camp on –
A. February 6, 2003 C. April 8, 2003
B. March 7, 2004 D. February 22, 1990

20. A prison model or theory which argues that an inmate’s mode of adaptation to prison is influenced
by factors external to the immediate context of the prisons, as well as the immediate conditions of
imprisonment. Which one of these?
A. Importation model C. Family Model
B. Exportation Model D. None of these

21. The Philippine Legislature during the American regime passed Act No. 1876 providing for the
establishment of a prison in _____. The prison was built for the prisoners of the province and insular
prisoners who were members of the non-Christian tribes of the Mountain Provinces and Nueva
Viscaya.
A. La Trinidad, Benguet C. Baguio Jail and Prison
B. Tiger Hill, Ifugao D. Bontoc, Mt. Province

22. Among the penal farms in the country, ____ is the largest operating institution under the BuCor
covering a total land area of more or less 28,000 hectares.
A. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm C. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
B. Davao Prison and Penal Farm D. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm

23. The San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm was established on August 13, 1870 as –
A. Correccional de San Ramon C. Ramon Blanco Colonia de Penal
B. Colonia Penal de San Ramon D. Espanyol Colonia de Penal

24. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology or BJMP was created to address the growing concerns
of jail management and penology. The law that created the BJMP was –
A. Republic Act 8551 C. Republic Act 4890
B. Republic Act 6425 D. Republic Act 6975

25. What theory of punishment proposes that sentencing can contribute towards reducing crime by
removing potential offenders from the community, so eliminating their capacity to commit offenses?
A. Retribution C. Atonement
B. Incapacitation D. Reformation

26. Primarily, its clients are detainees accused before a court who are temporarily confined in such jails
while undergoing investigation, awaiting final judgement and those who are serving sentence
promulgated by the court 3 years and below. Which one of the following?
A. The BJMP C. The CIW
B. The BUCOR D. All of the above
27. On January 2, 1991, the BJMP was created thru R.A. No. 6975 as a line Bureau under the –
A. Department of Justice C. Department of Interior and Local
B. Department of Social Welfare and Government
Development D. Office of the Vice President

28. The BJMP is the upgraded version of its forerunner, the Office of Jail Management and Penology of
the defunct PC/INP last headed by –
A. BRIG GEN Rafael Crame C. BRIG GEN Fabian Ver
B. BRIG GEN Arsenio Concepcion D. BRIG GEN Antonio Rodriquez

29. The first chief of the BJMP upon its creation was ____ who took his oath of office on July 1, 1991.
A. Director Charles Mondejar C. Director Charles Morrales
B. Director Charles Montalban D. Director Charles Mariano

30. R.A. No. 9263 provides that the BJMP shall be headed by a Chief who is assisted by 2 Deputy Chiefs,
and 1 Chief of Directorial Staff, all of whom are appointed by the President. What is R.A. No, 9263?
A. BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004
B. BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004
C. BFP Professionalization Act of 2004
D. Law Repealing RA 6975

31. The second officer in command of the BJMP is the ___ with the rank of Chief Superintendent. 
A. Deputy Chief for Administration C. Chief of the Directorial Staff
B. Deputy Chief for Operations D. Most senior Commissioned Officer

32. When the Americans took over in the 1900s, the Bureau of Prisons was created under the ____
known as Reorganization Act of 1905.
A. Act No. 1407 C. Act No. 2204
B. Act No. 1745 D. Act No. 1905

33. Provincial jails are under the management, administration and control of their respective provincial
governments. Inmates who are serving sentences from ___ are confined in these jails.
A. 3 years and above C. 1 day to 3 years
B. 1 day to 6 months D. 6 months, 1 day to 3 years

34. Under the law, the ___ refers to the Officer-In-Charge of the New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional
Institution for Women and the prison and penal farms of the Bureau of Corrections.
A. Penal Supervisor C. Penal Superintendent
B. Warden D. Director of Prison

35. It refers to the deferment of the implementation of the sentence for an interval of time; it does not
annul the sentence but merely postpones or suspends its execution. Which one of these?
A. Executive Clemency C. Petition
B. Reprieve D. Recognizance

36. In absolute pardon, there is total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is
granted without any condition. It also restores –
A. Political right only B. Civil rights only
 C. Civil and political rights D. Nothing

37. The Chief of the BJMP carries the rank of ___ and serves a tour of duty that must not exceed four (4)
years.
A. Director General C. Director
B. Deputy Director D. Warden

38. In every province, the BJMP operates and maintains a Provincial Jail Administrator’s Office headed
by a _____, to oversee the implementation of jail services of all district, city and municipal jails
within its territorial jurisdiction.
A. Provincial Director C. Provincial Deputy Director
B. Provincial Warden D. Provincial Administrator

39. The Board of Pardon and Parole may not consider the release on pardon/parole of a national
prisoner who is serving sentence in a municipal, city, district or provincial jail unless –
A. the confinement in said jail is in good faith or due to circumstances beyond the prisoner's
control
B. upon the request of the President
C. the prisoner is over 70 yrs of age
D. the jail which he is being committed is over crowded

40. Petitions for parole shall be addressed to the _____.

And the Board may consider cases for parole, commutation of sentence or conditional pardon of
deserving prisoners whenever the interest of justice will be served thereby.
A. Office of the President
B. Secretary of Justice
C. Chairman or Executive Director of the Board
D. Director of Bureau of Corrections

41. Upon receipt of a petition for absolute pardon, the Board should refer the petition to the Probation
and Parole Officer who should conduct an investigation within ___.
A. 10 days C. 20 days
B. 15 days D. 30 days

42. Other penal colonies were established during the American regime. On November 27, 1929, the ____
was created under Act No. 3579.
A. Davao Penal Colony C. New Bilibid Prison
B. Correctional Institution for Women D. Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm

43. On November 15, 1940, all inmates of the Old Bilibid Prison in Manila were transferred to the new
site. The new institution was officially named as the New Bilibid Prison on _____.
A. January 22, 1941 C. March 22, 1943
B. February 22, 1942 D. April 22, 1945

44. In the 1980s, Camp Sampaguita was constructed and became today as –
A. Maximum Security Prison Camp C. Minimum Security Prison Camp
B. Medium Security Prison Camp D. The Bukang Liwayway Camp
45. Under Proclamation No. 72 issued on September 26, 1954, another prison facility was established in
Occidental Mindoro. Which one of these?
A. Iwahig Prison Penal Farm C. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
B. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm D. Davao Prison and Penal Farm

46. The Leyte Regional Prison was established on January 16, 1973 under -
A. Proclamation No. 1101 C. Proclamation No. 1103
B. Proclamation No. 1102 D. Proclamation No. 1104

47. Recognizing the need to properly orient newly committed prisoners to the Bureau of Corrections, the
Reception and Diagnostic Center (RDC) was created through Administrative Order No. 8, series of
1953 of the –
A. Department of Trade and Industry
B. Department of Health
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Justice

48. Under the rules, a petition for executive clemency should be referred by the Board to the _____ for
comment and recommendation if the crime committed by the petitioner is against national security
or public order or law of nations.
A. Secretary of National Defense C. Secretary of Justice
B. Chief Executive D. Director of the BUCOR

49. In case of an alien, the petition for executive clemency should be referred to the –
A. Bureau of Immigration C. Department of Foreign Affairs
B. Department of Justice D. Any of the above

50. Prisoners who escaped or evaded service of sentence are not eligible for executive clemency for a
period of ____ from the date of their last recommitment to prison or conviction for evasion of
service of sentence.
A. 2 years C. 1 year
B. 4 years D. 6 months
***

ANSWER KEY

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
1. C 26. A
2. A 27. C
3. B 28. B
4. C 29. A
5. C 30. B
6. C 31. A
7. D 32. A
8. A 33. D
9. A 34. C
10. B 35. B
11. A 36. C
12. D 37. C
13. C 38. D
14. B 39. A
15. B 40. C
16. A 41. B
17. B 42. B
18. A 43. A
19. A 44. B
20. A 45. B
21. D 46. A
22. D 47. D
23. B 48. A
24. D 49. C
25. B 50. C

YLLANA BAY VIEW COLLEGE,INC.

PROFESSIONAL’S REFINERY
Balangasan, Pagadian City
==============================================================
 REVALIDA EXAMINATION IN CRIMINAL DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

1. Global organized crime exists in almost every country worldwide and continues to
expand in size infiltrating new economies. Atrocities are being forced upon the
unfortunate victims of organized crime. Some of these affronts include, except –
A. Torture and violence C. Blackmail
B. Extortion D. Infiltration

2. Based on the Chinese Triad organizational structure, the highest official “shan chu” is
designated with number 489, responsible for –
A. Being the overall boss
B. Controller of finances
C. Management of all principal lodges
D. All of these

3. The numerical codes next to the titles of each Chinese Triad office represent the
numerological rank, with each one signifying –
A. location of base operation
B. a different level of responsibility
C. an incumbent position in the hierarchy
D. just an insignia

4. What case in the United States popularized the Poisonous Tree Doctrine?
A. Mapp vs. Ohio C. Miranda vs. Arizona
B. Lapp vs. Illinois D. The Jones Case

5. The Columbian Medellín Cartel was an organized network of "drug suppliers and

smugglers" originating in –
A. Colombo C. Golden Traingle
B. Mumbai India D. None of the above

6. The term use designated to disruptive computer programs that use computer networks
or the internet to self replicate and send themselves to other users, generally via e-mail,
without the aid of the operator.
A. Malware C. Worm
B. Virus D. Bug

7. The Cali Cartel was a drug cartel based in southern Colombia. It was founded by –

A. Rodríguez Orejuela brothers
B. Pancho Machete brothers
C. Juan Marquez Santacruz brothers
D. Fidel Castro brothers

8. The known earliest use of fire to mankind was for –

A. shaping of weapons and tools
B. changing clay to pottery
C. keeping them warm and furnish light
D. cooking their food
9. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic and/or sound in electronic form,
representing the identity of a person and attached to or logically associated with the
electronic data message or electronic document or any methodology or procedures
employed or adopted by a person and executed by such person with the intention of
authenticating or approving an electronic data message or electronic documents.
A. Electronic Data C. Electronic Signature
B. Avatar D. Information Security

10. Ignition temperature is similarly situated as –

A. Heat C. Flash point
B. Fire Point D. Heat stroke

11. In general terms, what is the heat and light that comes from the combustion of
substances?
A. Fire C. Heat
B. Flame D. Temperature

12. The combustion process is also the burning process know as –

A. Controlled Fire C. Pyrolysis
B. Free Radicals D. Vaporization

13. The intentional act committed by a person who, knowingly and without lawful
justification follows the woman or her child or places the woman or her child under
surveillance directly or indirectly is known as –
A. Tailing or shadowing C. Voyeurism
B. Stalking D. None of these

14. The fire triangle represents the glowing mode of fire while the fire tetrahedron
represents the ___ of fire.
A. Charring Mode C. Pyrolysis
B. Flaming Mode D. Thermal decomposition

15. The exporting and importing of human beings for purposes of exploitation where the
originating nation and the receiving nation are the main victims of the illicit trade
usually committed by organized criminals is known as –
A. Kidnapping
B. Human smuggling
C. Exploitation of women and children
D. Crimes against humanity

16. In the Cosa Nostra structure, Orders for any business venture and/or killing must
originate from at least as high as the –
A. Capo di mandamento C. Capo de capo
B. Capobastone D. Consigiere

17. How much percent of oxygen is needed to sustain combustion?

A. Approximately 16%
B. Must be more than 21%
C. At least 10%
D. Must not be less than 21%
18. Organized Crime thrives on the infiltration of legitimate business much like a parasite,
attaching itself and stealing from the host. This statement is
A. Absolutely true C. Partially true
B. Absolutely false D. Partially false

19. Mafia families have begun to implant themselves deep into multinational corporations in
order to generate massive revenues to bypass having to take on riskier investments
such as ___, except –
A. Narcotics trafficking C. Human Trafficking
B. Terrorism for political aim D. Market monopoly

20. A complete understanding of the functions of organized crime lies not in one discipline,
but in several, multi disciplinary approach. This statement describe –
A. The accumulation of knowledge and the eventual integration of the relevant
insights from several disciplines that gives the unique perspective of the
problem.
B. Planning the collection of information process for integration of anti-organized
crime measures
C. Interdisciplinary investigation of crimes
D. A more holistic understanding of the issue as well as means to a possible
solution.

21. Organized crime refers to any group having a corporate structure whose primary
objective is to obtain money through illegal activities, often surviving on fear and
corruption. This definition of organized crime is based on –
A. INTERPOL
B. United Nations
C. Philippine Anti Organized Crime Task Force
D. Military parlance

22. Organized crime commonly established division of labor designated for the commission
of crime. Thus, this characterized its being –
A. Monopolistic C. Exclusive membership
B. Hierarchical D. Unique subculture

23. What is produced when fire is in its supersonic speed mode?

A. Explosion C. Vaporization
B. Detonation D. High Voltage

24. What is also known as Pyrolysis?

A. Thermal decomposition of matter
B. The Burning Process
C. The Combustion Process
D. All of these

25. In the burning process, what are being burned are gasses or vapors known as free
radicals. Among the following, which is not or the least of free radicals?
A. Hydrogen gas
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Inert gas
26. Organized Crime as any group having some manner of a formalized structure and
whose primary objective is to obtain money through –
A. Natural events C. Illegal activities
B. Untoward incidents D. All of the above

27. The constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
atmospheric pressure is called –
A. Kindling/Ignition Temperature C. Fire point
B. Boiling Point D. Vapor density

28. What do we call, in the study of fires, changes whereby heat is absorbed before a
reaction takes place?
A. Endothermic C. Oxidation
B. Exothermic D. Flame

29. ___ are crimes committed in violation of the code of war. It is directed often to the
innocent civilian of protagonist nations.
A. POW C. Crimes against humanity
B. War Crimes D. Military crimes

30. ______ is energy in motion.

A. Thermal C. Flame
B. Oxidation D. Heat

31. Among the following, who was credited as the chief organizer of the Scotland Yard in
London?
A. Henry Fielding C. Robert Peel
B. Francis Glaton D. Queen Elizabeth

32. The kind of flame that is disturbed and thus produces rugged edges rather than being
smooth is called __.
A. Luminous Flame C. Turbulent Flame
B. Premixed Flame D. Diffused Flame

33. This refers to a condition of enforced, compulsory service induced by means of any
scheme, plan or pattern, intended to cause a person to believe that, if the person did not
enter into or continue in such condition, that person or another person would suffer
serious harm or other forms of abuse or physical restraint, or the abuse or threatened
abuse of the legal process. What is being defined?
A. Forced labor or slavery C. Maltreatment
B. Involuntary Servitude D. Threat against persons

34. The best reason why a luminous flame has orange-red color is due to ______.
A. incomplete combustion of matter
B. the chemical component of the burning material
C. carbon monoxide
D. slow input of oxygen

35. The fireman has noticed an accelerated burning process and estimated a temperature of
about 800-1000 °F at the base of fire in the burning house. This observation leads to
conclusion that the fire is in its __ stage.
A. Incipient B. Free Burning
 C. Smoldering D. Controlled

36. Which of the following does not fall under Class A fires?
A. None of these C. Burning nipa hut
B. Exploding gas depot D. Forest fire

37. What is the term used to refer to organic matters like wood, garbage and animal manure
that can be use to produce energy?
A. Plastic C. Coal
B. Biomass D. Fossils

38. What do we call plastic fuel that contains nitro cellulose?

A. Pyroxylin C. Pyrolyzed
B. Pyrolytic D. None of the above

39. What is the flash point of a liquid?

A. 82 degrees celcius C. 79 degrees celcius
B. 88 degrees celcius D. 69 degrees celcius

40. What kind of fuel has no definite shape or volume?

A. Liquid C. Solid
B. Gas D. All of the above

41. Which of the following is considered as the forerunner of the Federal Bureau of
Investigation in the United States?
A. Scotland Yard C. Los Angeles Police
B. The Texas Ranger Department
D. Boston Police

42. Air has approximately __ % of oxygen, which is also the needed amount to begin
reacting with fuel.
A. 28 C. 81
B. 16 D. 21

43. This refers to the extraction of work or services from any person by means of
enticement, violence, intimidation or threat, use of force or coercion, including
deprivation of freedom, abuse of authority or moral ascendancy, debt-bondage or
deception. What is being defined?
A. Forced Labor or Slavery C. Assault
B. Banishment D. Child Abuse

44. What is called the behavior of fire where fire ball maybe produces?
A. Backdraft C. Biteback
B. Flashover D. Flashfire

45. 100*C is equivalent to __ *F.

A. 212 degrees Fahrenheit C. 412 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 312 degrees Fahrenheit D. 122 degrees Fahrenheit

46. He was America’s most famous private investigator and founder of the first private
criminal investigation in the United States. He established the practice of handwriting
 examination in American courts and promoted a plan to centralize criminal
identification records. Who was he?
A. Laurence Lawton C. Charles Dekkins
B. Allan Pinkerton D. Thomas Byrnes

47. When the heat source which provided a destructive fire is from cooking appliances that
involves combustible cooking media such as vegetable or animal oil, the class of fire is
considered as _________.
A. Class K fire C. Class B fire
B. Class D fire D. No Class

48. Generally, the term use to refer to the act of inflicting physical harm upon a woman or
her child resulting to the physical and psychological or emotional distress is called –
A. Physical abuse C. Child and woman abuse
B. Battering D. Mauling

49. He was a criminal who turned Paris Investigator. He was a former convict who became a
notorious thief-catcher and was credited being the founder of La Surete - France’s
national detective organization. Who was he?
A. Eugene Vidocq C. Etchoneva Viera
B. Sherlock Wool D. Hendrick Lupin III

50. Which of these best describe conduction?

A. Heat transfer through liquid
B. Heat transfer through heat wave
C. Heat transfer through solid material
D. Heat transfer through air motion
 CRIMINAL DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

1. D 26. C
2. D 27. B
3. B 28. A
4. A 29. B
5. D 30. D
6. C 31. C
7. A 32. C
8. C 33. B
9. C 34. A
10. B 35. B
11. A 36. B
12. C 37. B
13. B 38. A
14. B 39. C
15. B 40. B
16. A 41. B
17. A 42. D
18. A 43. A
19. B 44. B
20. A 45. A
21. A 46. B
22. B 47. A
23. B 48. B
24. D 49. A
25. D 50. C