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1. Foramen spinosum transmits the 7. Trauma to this marked area usually

following: results in what type of hemorrhage?
a. Meningeal branch of the mandibular
nerve , middle meningeal artery
b. Superior ophthalmic vein from the
cavernous sinus
c. Both A &B of the above
d. None of the above
2. Adductor of the vocal cord is:
a. Epidural hemorrhage
a. Posterior cricoarytenoid and Lateral b. Sub duralhemorrhage
cricoarytenoid c. Sub arachnoid hemorrhage
b. Lateral cricoarytenoid and transverse d. None of the above
arytenoid 8. Muscles not affected in 3rd nerve palsy:
c. Lateral cricoarytenoid and crico a. Medial rectus
arytenoid b. Dilator pupillae
c. Ciliaris muscle
d. cricothyroid and transverse
d. Sphincter pupillae
arytenoid 9. Which of the following external carotid
3. The distant metastasis of bone can be artery branch is not present in carotid
best detected by: triangle?
a. MRI a. Superior thyroid
b. Bone scan b. Ascending pharyngeal
c. Lingual artery
c. CT
d. Maxillary artery
d. Intravenous venogram
10. Not correct match:
4. Onset of post spinal headache is usually at a. Nerve of first arch – Maxillary nerve
……… hours after spinal anesthesia: b. Nerve of second arch – Facial nerve
a. 0-6 c. Nerve of third arch –
b. 6-12 Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. 12-72 d. Nerve of fourth arch – Superior
laryngeal nerve
d. 72-96
11. Which of the following is true statement
5. Not cerebellar lesion: regarding cranial nerve facts?
a. Ataxia a. Trigeminal nerve is the
b. Hypertonia longest nerve
c. Intentional tremors b. Cranial nerve decussate
d. Nystagmus before reaching target –
6. Matched correctly about the Brodmann Trochlear nerve
area: c. Longest extra cranial course –
a. Frontal eye field – inferior frontal Facial nerve
d. Smallest nerve – Olfactory
gyrus
nerve
b. Broca s area – middle frontal
12. Example of hinge joint are all except:
gyrus a. Elbow joint
c. Auditory cortex – superior b. Inter-phalangeal joint
temporal gyrus c. Knee joint
d. Wernicke s area – middle d. Shoulder joint
temporal gyrus 13. The branch arising from the main trunk of
mandibular nerve is:
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a. Nerve to medial pterygoid
b. Nerve to lateral pterygoid 21. Monomer units in maltose are:
c. Buccal nerve a. Glucose only
d. Auriculotemporal nerve b. Glucose and fructose
14. Klumpke's paralysis involves the nerve c. Glucose and galactose
roots of: d. Glucose and glucuronic acid
a. C6,C7,C8,T1 22. Which of the following statements is NOT
b. C8, T1 TRUE about glycogen metabolism?
c. T1, T2 a. Glycogen Synthase forms α
d. C5, C6 1,4 glycosidic bond
15. Which of the following nucleus controls b. Glycogen Synthase forms α
the circadian rhythm? 1,6 glycosidic bond
a) Supraoptic nucleus c. Glycogen Phosphorylase
b) Paraventricular nucleus hydrolyses α 1,4 glycosidic
c) Suprachiasmatic nucleus bond
d) Premamillary nucleus d. Debranching enzyme
hydrolyses α 1,6 glycosidic
16. Wernicke’s area is located in: bond
a) Inferior frontal gyrus
b) Superior temporal gyrus 23. Enzyme ‘lipoprotein lipase (LPL)’ is
c) Inferior temporal gyrus responsible for hydrolysis of triglycerides
d) Cingulate gyrus present in VLDL and chylomicrons.
Presence of which Apoprotein is
17. Which of the following nerve is most likely necessary for this activity of LPL?
to be injured while giving intramuscular
injection in gluteal region if proper site is a. Apo A I
not selected? b. Apo B 100
a. Superior gluteal nerve c. Apo B 48
b. Inferior gluteal nerve d. Apo C II
c. Femoral nerve
d. Obturator nerve 24. Thermogenin:
18. Doesn’t occur in mitochondria: a. Inhibits electron transport and ATP
syntheses
a. Fatty acid synthesis
b. Allows electron transport to proceed
b. Beta oxidation without ATP synthesis
c. DNA synthesis c. Inhibits electrons transport without
impairment of ATP synthesis
d. Protein synthesis
d. Specifically inhibits cytochrome b
19. HbS is a result of:
25. High Anion Gap Acidosis is seen in all
a. Silent mutation
EXCEPT:
b. Unacceptable missense mutation
a. Diabetic Ketaoacidosis
c. Non sense mutation
b. Lactic acidosis
d. Partially acceptable missense
c. Renal Tubular Acidosis
mutation
d. Methanol poisoning
20. Satiety center is located at:
26. Vitamins involved in TCA cycle are all
a. Ventromedial nucleus of
except:
hypothalamus
b. Dorsomedial nucleus of
a. Vit B5
hypothalamus
c. Peritrigonal areaof hypothalamus b. Vit B12
d. Lateral nucleusof hypothalamus c. Vit B1
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d. Vit B2 b. Apo C-I inhibits cholesteryl ester
transfer protein
27. Heme breakdown produces all except: c. Apo A-I inhibits lecithin: cholesterol
a. Ferric ion acyltransferase
b. CO
d. apo B-100 and apo E are ligands for
c. CO2 the LDL receptor
d. Biliverdin 34. Choose the false statement regarding
28. Ninhydrin is a reagent used in detection of drug absorption:
a. Ketone bodies a. First pass metabolism increases
b. Blood sugar
bioavailability
c. Blood urea b. unionized molecule are absorbed
d. α- amino acids c. heparin not absorbed due to its large
29. Basis of hemoglobin electrophoresis is size
a. Molecular weight
d. most common method of drug
b. Charge absorption is by passive diffusion
c. Solubility 35. A drug having very low volume of
d. Calorimetric properties distribution, which is true?
30. Identify the correct pair of enzyme and a. Dialysis not possible
vitamin co-enzyme.
b. It has high plasma protein binding
a. Biotin Aspartate c. More of its drug present in tissues
transaminase d. Is more lipid soluble
b. Vitamin B1 Pyruvate 36. Which of the following statement defines
dehydrogenase prodrug?
c. Niacin Acetyl CoA
a. Active drug to inactive metabolite
carboxylase b. Active drug to active metabolite
d. Pyridoxine Poly ADP ribose c. Inactive drug to Active metabolite
polymerase d. Inactive metabolite to Active drug
31. The amino acid which serves as a carrier 37. Sodium bicarbonate diuresis is done for
of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver
treatment of poisoning due to:
is: a. Morphine
a. Glutamine b. Amphetamine
b. Alanine c. Acetyl salicylic acid
c. Methionine
d. Atropine
d. Arginine 38. All the following are enzyme inducers
32. Pyruvate can be converted directly to all except:
of the following except:
a. PEP a. Phenytoin
b. Alanine b. Phenobarbitone
c. Acetyl CoA c. Cimetidine
d. Lactate d. Rifampicin
33. All of the following are true about
apolipoproteins except: 39. First order kinetics means:
a. Apo C-II activates lipoprotein lipase a. A constant fraction of the drug in the
body is eliminated per unit time
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b. The fraction of the administered dose a. Efficacy
that reaches the systemic circulation b. potency
c. The effect that can be increased by c. safety
giving a second agent that boosts the d. toxicity
effect ot the liver’s enzyme system
d. A constant amount of drug is 47. Hemicholinium acts through:
eliminated per unit time \ a. inhibition of acetylcholine release
b. Direct action on acetylcholine
40. Agonist has: esterase
a. Intrinsic activity of 0.8 c. Direct action on muscarinic receptors
b. Intrinsic activity of 1 d. inhibition of choline uptake
c. Intrinsic activity of -1
d. Intrinsic activity of 0 48. Earliest sign of fetal death:
a. Spalding sign
41. Which of the following receptor is a
b. Robert’s sign
tyrosine kinase Receptor? c. Ball sign
a. GABA A receptor d. Adipocere formation
b. Nicotinic receptor 49. Gun powder on body and clothing can be
c. Muscarinic receptor visualized by:
d. Insulin receptor a. Harrison and Gilroy test
b. Neutron activation analysis
42. Human healthy volunteers are involved in
c. Dermal nitrate test
which phase of clinical trail? d. All of the above
a. Phase I 50. Rigor mortis occurs due to:
b. Phase II a. Breakdown of enzymes in the body
c. Phase IV b. Depletion of ATP
d. Phase III c. Accumulation of blood in dependent
43. HCl and antacid action is: areas
d. Loss of heat
a. physical antagonism 51. Crural index is used for:
b. competitive antagonism a. Cephalic index
c. chemical antagonism b. Stature
c. Race
d. physiological antagonism
d. Age
44. Parallel rightward shift of agonist Dose 52. Strychnine poisoning mimics:
Response Curve is seen in a. LSD
b. Tetanus
a. competitive antagonism c. Morphine
b. non competitive antagonism d. Amphetamine
c. competitive agonism 53. Wrong about Dhatura seed is:
d. non competitive agonism a. Small numerous depressions
b. Kidney shaped
45. The following is TYPE B Adverse Drug c. Bitter
Reaction d. Pale yellow
a. side effects 54. Viper bite resembles poisoning by:
b. secondary effects a. Semicarpusanacardium
c. drug allergy b. Abrusprecatorius
d. drug toxicity c. Ricinuscommunis
46. ED50 is a measure of drug d. Capsicum annum
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55. Which of the following acts as the major b. It is strictly aerobic
neurotransmitter in Substantia Nigra? c. It may cause peritonitis
a. Dopamine d. Presence in stool indicates need for
b. Noradrenaline
treatment
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin 63. CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4
56. Falanga is: counts fall below:
a. Suspension by wrist a. 50
b. Beating of feet b. 100
c. Placing electric wires in vagina c. 200
d. Clamping of things between d. 150
bamboos
64. Which of the following is true regarding
57. Hatter’s shake is seen in:
a. Phosphorus poisoning globi in a patient with lepromatous
b. Mercury poisoning leprosy:
c. Arsenic poisoning a. Consists of lipid laden macrophages
d. Lead poisoning b. Consists of macrophages filled with
58. Ricochet bullet is AFB
a. Bullet producing a key hole entry c. Consists neutrophils filled with
wound
bacteria
b. Bullet with nose tip chiseled off
c. Deviation in the direction or path of d. Consists of activated lymphocytes
bullet 65. Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood
d. Bullet containing igniting material in which stage of filariasis:
59. Neonatal thymectomy leads to: a. Tropical eosinophilia
a. Decreased size of germinal center b. Early elephantiasis
b. Decreased size of paracortical areas c. Early adenolymphangitis stage
c. Increased antibody production by B d. None of the above
cells 66. In primary tuberculosis, all of the
d. Increased bone marrow production following may be seen except:
of lymphocytes a. Cavitation
b. Caseation
60. Satiety center is located at:
c. Calcification
a. Ventromedial nucleus of
hypothalamus d. Langerhan giany cell
b. Dorsomedial nucleus of hypothalamus 67. Macrophages containing large quantities
c. Peritrigonal areaof hypothalamus of undigested and partial digested
d. Lateral nucleusof hypothalamus bacteria in Intestine are seen in:
a. Whipple disease
b. Amyloidosis
61. Which of the following is transmitted by
c. Immunoproliferative small instetinal
rat urine?
disease
a. Leptospira
d. Vibrio cholarae infection
b. Listeria
68. Crescent formation is characteristic of the
c. Legionella
following glomerular disease:
d. Mycoplasma
a. Minimal change disease
62. Which of the statement is true about
b. Rapidly progressive
Bacteroides:
glomerulonephritis
a. It is gram positive
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c. Focal and segmental d. H leaving RBC for each CO2 that
glomerulosclerosis enters
d. Rapidly non progressive 76. Indole ring is present in:
glomerlonephritis a. Tryptophan
69. Na -2Cl-K+ symporter is present in:
+
b. Valine
a. PCT c. Methionine
b. Descending limb of Henle d. Histidine
c. Thick Ascending limb of Henle
77. Embreyonic hemoglobin is mainly
d. Collecting Tubule
70. Bicarbonate is maximally reabsorbed in: composed of:
a. PCT a. Alpha and beta chains
b. DCT b. Epsilon and gamma chains
c. Thick ascending loop of Henle c. Beta and gamma chains
d. Collecting duct d. Zeta and epsilon chains
71. Which of the following carries fast pain? 78. The enzyme marker of electron transport
a. Aδ Fibers
system is:
b. Aβ Fibers
c. Aα Fibers a. Cytochrome reductase
d. C Fibers b. Fumarase
72. Weber Fechner law is related with: c. Pyruvate
a. Amplitude d. Malate dehydrogenase
b. Surface area 79. Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by:
c. Number of sensory fiber a. Cyanide
involvement
b. Aluminium phophide
d. Stimulus discrimination
73. Intensity of sensory stimulation is directly c. Phenobarbitone
related: d. Carbon monoxide
a. Duration of action potential 80. Which of the following pair is not correct?
b. Frequency of action potential a. RSV - Brochiolitis
c. Amplitude of action potential b. HHV5 - Infectious
d. All of the above
mononucleosis
74. Which of the following is correct about
breakdown of hemoglobin? c. Parvovirus - Exanthem subitum
a. Hb > heme > bilirubin > d. VZV - Chicken pox
urobilinogen 81. Which of the following is not an acid fast
b. Heme > Hb > biliverdin > organism?
urobilinogen a. Norcadia
c. Hb > heme > biliverdin > bilirubin > b. Spermatic head
urobilinogen c. Actinomyces
d. Hb > heme > bilirubin > d. Bacterial spores
urobilinogen > biliverdin 82. Active form of vitamin D is:
75. Bohr effect is: a. Cholecalciferol
a. Effect of Zn++ on carbonic b. 1,25 (OH)2 cholecalciferol
anhydrase activity c. 24,25 (OH)2 cholecalciferol
b. Effect of Pco2 on oxyhemoglobin d. 25 OH cholecalciferol
dissociation 83. FIGLU is a metabolite of :
c. HCO3 leaving the RBC in exchange a. Folic acid
of Cl b. Histidine
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c. Tyrosine
d. Alanine
84. Fetal cardiac monitoring is a type of:
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Primordial prevention
85. Iceberg phenomenon is not shown by:
a. Rabies
b. Tuberculosis
c. Hypertension
d. Ancylostomiasis
86. Which of the following is the most logical
sequence:
a. Impairment –Disease – Disability
– Handicap
b. Disease – Impairment – Disability
–Handicap
c. Disease – Impairment –
Handicap – Disability
d. Disease – Handicap –
Impairment – Disability
87. In a case of epidemic, 3 villages are
affected simultaneously with typhoid
case. Upon study it is found that one milk
man is going to all these 3 village. Identify
the type of epidemic:
a. Point source
b. Common source, propagative
c. Common source, single
exposure
d. Common source, continuous
exposure
88. All of the following are correct regarding
period of isolation, except:
a. Measles- Up to 3 days of onset
of rash
b. Chicken pox- up to 6 days of
onset of rash
c. Herpes zoster – up to 6 days of
onset of rash
d. Rubella – until 7 days after
appearance of rash
89. Quarantine period should be:
a. Minimum incubation period
b. Maximum incubation period
c. period of communicability
d. Median incubation period
90. Mid day meal scheme includes provision
of:
a. 1/3rd calories, 1/2 protein
b. 1/2nd calories, 1/3 protein
c. 1/2nd calories, 1/2 protein
d. 1/3rd calories, 1/3 protein
91. Vitamin ‘C’ prophylaxis is helpful in
preventing:
a. Flurosis
b. Neurolathyrism
c. Iodine deficiency
d. Botulism
92. Population growth is rated to be
‘explosive’ if the annual growth rate
exceeds:
a. 2.0%
b. 1.5%
c. 1.0%
d. 0.5
93. ESIC chairman is:
a. prime minister
b. Union Minister labor
c. Union Minister health and
family welfare
d. Union minister for human
Resource development
94. Ergonomics means:
a. Fitting the job to the worker
b. Fitting the worker to the job
c. Industrial hygiene
d. industrial health
95. Rajiv Gandhi Shramik Kalian Yojana is a
part of:
a. National Rural Employment
Guarantee Scheme
b. Employee’s State Insurance
Scheme
c. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan
Yojana
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d. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha
Bima Yojana
96. A method which compares benefits of a
program with the cost of the program is
called:
a. Cost benefits analysis
b. Cost effective analysis
c. Cost accounting
d. Input- output analysis
97. Community health center caters a
population of:
a. 10,000 to 20,000
b. 30,000 to 50,000
c. 50,000 to 80,000
d. 80,000 to 1,20,000
98. Medical etiquette is related to:
a. Legal responsibilities of
doctors
b. Rules to be followed by
doctors
c. Courtesy observed between
doctors
d. Moral principles followed by
doctors
99. Glass is sterilized by:
a. Incineration at 105oC for 5-10
minutes
b. Autoclaving at 121oC for 30-60
minutes
c. Hot air oven 160oC for 30-60
minutes
d. Hot air oven 121oC for 30-60
minutes
100. Which of the following regarding IQ is
not true:
a. Idiot : IQ of 0-24
b. Imbecile : IQ of 25-49
c. Moron : IQ of 50-69
d. Borderline : IQ of 71-90
101. Ratio of incidence of a disease among
the exposed to the incidence among
nonexposed is:
a. Odds ration
b. Relative risk
c. Absolute risk
d. Attributable risk
102. Framingham heart study is:
a. Cohort
b. Case control
c. Intervention
d. Cross sectional
103. Lead time is defined is as:
a. Time between diagnosis and
treatment
b. Time between point where
the diagnosis is made by
screening test to usual
diagnosis.
c. Time between disease onset
and outcome
d. Time between usual time of
diagnosis and outcome
104. NPV is given by the formula:
a. True positives/ (True
positives + False positives) x
100
b. True negatives/ (False
negatives + True negatives) x
100
c. True positives/ (True
positives + False negatives) x
100
d. True negatives/ (False
positives + True negatives) x
100
105. Vaccine not given at birth:
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. OPV
d. Hepatitis B
106. Period of communicability of measles
is:
a. 3 days before and 10 days
after appearance of rashes
b. 3 weeks after appearance of
rashes
c. 1 week before appearance of
rashes
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d. 4 days before and 5 days d. Diminution in field of vision to
after appearance of rashes 20o
113. All of the following facilities are
107. Objective of RNTCP is to achieve cure provided to pregnant women under
rate of: janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK),
a. 70% except:
b. 80% a. Free family planning kit
c. 85% b. Free blood if required
d. 100% c. Free diet up to 7 days for
108. Normal body mass index: caesarean section
a. 16.00- 18.49 d. Free transportation from home
b. 18.50 -24.99 to institution
c. 25.00 -29.99 114. Most common cause of maternal
d. 30.00 -34.99 death in India is:
109. Refractive errors are the second a. Infection
major cause of blindness in India after b. Eclampsia
cataract. Children, who are the c. Anaemia
particularly vulnerable, are screened d. Bleeding
under NPCB by school eye screening 115. Most abundant cytosolic protein is:
program. In the program, what is the cut a. Actin
off for abnormal vision? b. Myosin
c. Haemoglobin
a. 6/6
d. Collagen
b. 6/9 116. Most common type of metaplasia
c. 6/12 over all is:
d. 6/18 a. Squamous
110. Disease not includes in vision 2020, b. Columnar
India is: c. Paneth cell
a. Cataract d. Barret’s
117. Doctrine of Res Ipsa loquitur means:
b. Glaucoma
a. Fact speaks for itself
c. Diabetic retinopathy b. Medical maloccurrence
d. Onchocerciasis c. Common knowledge doctrine
111. Lowest court to give imprisonment up d. Mandatory oral evidence
to 10 years: 118. Stain used for staining bile is:
a. Chief Judicial magistrate a. Vonkossa
b. Additional session judge b. Congo red
c. Massonfontana
c. Assistant session judge
d. Hall’s stain
d. Chief Metropolitan judge 119. All are types of selectins except:
112. Not a criteria for diagnosis of a. e selectin
blindness under NPCB is: b. p selectin
a. Vision of < 6/60 with best c. l selectin
possible correction d. m selectin
120. Huntington disease mode of
b. Vision < 4/60 in better eye
inheritance is:
c. Inability to count fingers from a. AD
a distance of 20 feet b. AR
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c. XLD b. ELISA
d. XLR c. CD4
121. Most common leukemia in child with d. HIV PCR
trisomy 21 and associated with down 129. Most specific feature of Turner’s
syndrome is: syndrome:
a. ALL a. Coarctation of Aorta
b. AML b. Horse shoe kidney
c. CML c. PDA
d. CLL d. ASD
122. Hypercalcemia is seen in which lung 130. “Waxy fibrosis ” is characteristic foe
cancer: a. Intra-cellular debris
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinnoma b. Diffuse alveolar damage
c. Oat cell carcinoma c. Interstitial pulmonary edema
d. Mesothilioma
123. Which is called atypical type of d. Diffuse interstitial inflammation
Hodgkin lymohoma? 131. The method of choice for detecting
a. Mixed cellularity Cryptococcus in CSF is:
b. Nodular sclerosis a. Gram’s stain
c. Lymphocyte rich b. Indian ink preparation
d. Lymphocyte predominant c. Giemsa stain
124. Child complaint of headache poor d. Methanamine-silver stain
vision on brain MRI calcified mass was 132. Which parasite causes severe
found around sellaturcia region, what can malabsorption syndrome?
be the cause? a. Giardiasis
a. Adenoma b. Hook worm
b. Vitamin A deficiency c. Ascariasis
c. Craniopharyngioma d. Amoebiasis
d. Retinoblastoma 133. A 26-yrs-old man presents with
125. In Adipocere, color change seen is: numerous epidermal cysts of the skin.
a. Grayish white Work-up find a solitary osteoma of the
b. Black jaw and numerous adenomatous polyps
of the small and large intestines. Which of
c. Brown
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
d. Red a. Peutz- jeghers syndrome
126. Defect in nucleotide excision repair is:
a. HNPCC b. Familial adenomatous
b. Xeroderma pigmentosa polyposis
c. FAP c. Gardner’s syndrome
d. Fanconi’s anemia d. Lynch syndrome
127. Multistep carcinogenesis is best 134. A female with granumatous
demonstrated in: inflammation and crepts on ausculatation
a. Colon cancer in lung with lymphadenopathy and pleural
b. Prostate cancer effusion showing following rash in face.
c. Cervix cancer What is the diagnosis?
d. Burkitt’slymphoma
128. A patient presented with fever
,cervical lymphadenopathy and night
sweats four weeks after unprotected
sexual contact .Next investigation:
a. p24
 MOCK - 1
a. Schaumann body
b. Caseating body
c. Aschoff body
d. Psammoma body
138. Schistosomiasis causes which type of
bladder cancer ?
a. Transitional
b. Squamous
c. Both
a. SLE d. Adeno
b. Lupus vulgaris 139. Kimmelstein Wilson lesions seen in:
c. Sarcoidosis a. Nodular glomerulossclerosis
d. Scleroderma b. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
c. RPGN
d. MPGN
135. A baby with mother suffering from
140. Most common tumor of spleen:
some autoimmune disease is having
a. Lymphoma
following presentation,what is most
b. Sarcoma
sensitive antibody ?
c. Hemangioma
d. Metastasis
141. MC cause of primary
hyperparathyroidism:
a. Solitary adenoma
b. Multiple adenoma
c. Hyperplasia
d. Carcinoma
142. Anti LKM antibodies are found in:
a. SLE
b. Autoimmune hepatitis
c. CREST syndrome
d. None of the above
143. A 24 year old female has flaccid bullae
a. Antidnase
in the skin and persistent painful oral
b. Antismith
c. Anti ro erosions (palatal and vestibular lesions in
d. Anti u1rnp buccal mucosa). Histopathology shows
136. Polycystic kidney disease is intraepidermal acantholytic blisters. The
associated with all of the following most likely diagnosis is:
except: a. Bullous pemphigoid
a. Cerebral aneurysms
b. Erythema multiforme
b. Mitral valve prolaspse
c. Renal cell carcinoma c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Hepatic cyst d. Dermatitis herpetiformis
137. 30 year old presented with sever 144. Regarding lichen planus all are true ,
dyspnoe and fatigue.Xray shows left atrial except:
enlargement.Physician suspects patient of a. Hypopigmentation in most residual
having mitral stenosis.Histology reveals disease
circumscribed nodule of mixed
b. Lymphocytic infiltration in
mononuclear inflammatory cells with
associated necrosis.what it could be? supradermal layer
 MOCK - 1
c. Itchy polygonal purple papules b. Acts by invasion of intestinal
d. Skin, hair and oral mucosae are epithelial cells
normal c. Adults are commonly
145. A husband physically assaulting wife is affected
punishable under section IPC: d. Affects immunocompromised
a. 484 IPC host
b. 304 A IPC
c. 304 B IPC
d. 498 A IPC
146. An infant presented with
erythematous lesions on check, extensor
aspect of limbs, mother has history of
bronchial asthma, the probable diagnosis:
a. Air borne contact dermatitis
b. Atopic dermatitis
c. Seborrheic dermatitis
d. Infections eczemoid dermatitis
147. What is the color of entonox cylinder?
a. Black with white shoulders
b. Blue
c. Gary
d. Blue with blue and white shoulders
148. All agents can be given for induction
of anesthesia in children except:
a. Halothane
b. Sevoflurane
c. Morphine
d. N2O
149. Bracket calcification as shown on CT
head is seen in this condition:

a. Corpus callosum lipoma

b. Hellervordenspatz disease
c. Wilson disease
d. Calcification due to ageing
150. Which of the following is true about
Enteropathogenic E.coli?
a. Causes diarrhea in infants