Physics: 1. Measurements and Units

Multiple Choice Questions:
PHYSICS 1. Which sets of quantities have same dimensions or same

dimensional formula?
a) Frequency & velocity gradient
b) Energy & energy gradient
1. MEASUREMENTS AND UNITS c) Thermal capacity & specific heat capacity
d) Angular velocity & velocity
 Magnitude of physical quantity is always positive.
2. Unit of thrust is:
 The unit of physical quantity is the standard amount of that
a) Newton b) Nm-2
quantity either defined conventionally or on basis of mathematical
c) Dyne cm b) None
relation.
3. On the moon atmospheric pressure is:
 Basic units are unit of mass, length, time, temperature, electric a) Zero
current, luminous intensity and quantity of matter. b) 1 Pascal
 Derived units can be expressed in term of fundamental units. c) Above 760 mm of Hg
d) None
Basic units: 4. A kilo watt hour is a unit of :
S.N. Physical quantity Unit a) Energy b) Power
1. Length M c) Electric charge d) Electric current
2. Mass Kg 5. Which of the following is not unit of energy?
3. Time s a) Nm b) J
4. Temperature K c) Wh d) KW
5. Electric current A 6. The dimension formula of gravitational constant is:
6. Luminous intensity Cd a) [MoL3T-2] b) [M1L3T-2]
-1 3 -2
7. Quantity of matter mol c) [M L T ] d) [M2L3T-2]
7. One day equals to:
Conversion factors: a) 8.64 ×104 sec b) 86.4 ×104 sec
4
1 litre = 10-3 m3 c) 1.44 ×10 sec d) 3.6 ×104 sec
1g/cm3 = 103kg/m3 8. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?
1N = 105 dyne a) Watt-sec b) kg m sec-1
1 atm = 1.01 × 105 N/m2 c) Newton m d) Joule
1 hp = 746 W 9. One nanometer is equal to:
1 cal = 4.2 J a) 109 mm b) 10-5 mm
-7
1 kwh = 3.6 × 106 J c) 10 cm d) 10-9 cm
10. Which of the following is derived units?
 Work, energy,quantity of heat, quantity of light, internal energy, a) Mass b) Minute
torque each has dimensional formula ML2T-2(kgm2/s2). c) Second d) All of the above
 Velocity, speed, distance covered in nth second have same 11. Which of the following is fundamental units?
dimensional fourmula MoLT-1 (m/s). a) Micron b) Mole
 Pure numbers are dimensionless. c) m/s d) Newton
12. Which of the following is not the unit of length?
a) Radian b) Angstrom
c) Light year d) Micron
INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-1 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-2
13. In SI system, the unit of density is: c) may have dimension
a) kgm3 b) gmm3 d) none of the above
c) kg/m3 d) none of the above 27. Which is the dimension of linear momentum?
14. Which of the following is not a unit of time? a) MLT-2 b) MLT-1
-1 1
a) Leap year b) Micro second c) ML T d) ML2T2
c) Lunar month d) Light year 28. Which unit is the same in all the three systems of measurement?
15. How many quintal equal to one metric ton? a) mass b) length
a) 10q b) 100q c) time d) temperature
c) 1000q d) 1q 29. Light Year is the measurement of:
16. 10000cc equals to: a) time b) distance
a) 1000 litre b) 1 litre c) velocity d) acceleration
c) 1000 m3 d) all of the above 30. What are the units for moment and momentum?
17. How many cc equals to 1 ml? a) Kgm/s & Nm b) Nm2 & kgm/s
a) 1000cc b) 100cc c) J/kg m/s d) Nm & kgm/s
c) 10cc d) 1cc 31. If muscle = power × time, then the unit for muscle is:
18. How many litres equal to one cubic meter? a) Joule b) Newton
a) 1 lit. b) 10 lit. c) Dyne d) oC
c) 100 lit d) 1000 lit. 32. The kilowatt- hour is a unit of:
19. 1 light year equals to: a) Charge b) Energy
a) 9.46x1015km b) 9.46x1012m c) Power d) Voltage
15
c) 9.46x10 m d) All of the above 33. What should be used to measure the diameter of a steel ball
20. What is the actual relation between cubic meter and cubic centimeter? bearing as accurately as possible?
a) 1m3 = 1cc b) 1m3 = 10cc a) measuring cylinder
3 6
c) 1m = 10 cc d) 106m3 = 106cc b) micrometer screw gauge
21. 1 horse power is equal to: c) rule
a) 20 watt b) 750 watt d) vernier calipers
c) 730 watt d) 710 watt 34. In an experiment to find the density of a material, a student
22. The unit for Pressure is: measures the mass and volume and then does a calculation.
a) Jm-2 b) Nm-2 Which of the following is the correct unit for density?
-1
c) Nm d) pgh a) kg/m2 b) m3/kg
23. Newton-meter is the unit of c) Pa d) Kg/m3
a) Momentum b) Power 35. 1 calorie is equal to:
c) Work d) Gravitational Intensity a) 4.2J b) 2.4J
24. 1 microgram is equal to: c) 42J d) 4200J
a) 10-9kg b) 10-6kg 36. When two vectors of game magnitude are antiplarallel to each
-3
c) 10 kg d) 106 gm other then resultant of these two vectors is:
25. S. I. unit of temperature is: a) 0 b) 1
a) C b) F c) Twice of magnitude d) None
c) K d) R 37. Of the following which is not a scalar quantity?
26. The proportionality constant: a) time b) momentum
a) always has dimension c) volume d) density
b) never have dimension
38. A hollow ball is released from the bottom of a pool. After a short Let → →
a = (a1, a2) and b = (b1, b2) be any two plane vectors, then the
time it rises at a constant speed. Which statement best describes
the resultant force then acting on the ball? scalar product of two vectors → → → →
a and b denoted by a . b is defined
a) Upwards and equal to the ball’s weight by → →
a . b = a1b1 + a2b2.
b) Upwards and greater than the ball’s weight
c) Upwards and less than the ball’s weight If again → →
a = (a1, a2, a3) and b = (b1, b2, b3) are two space vectors then
d) Zero → . → = a1b1 + a2b2 + a3b3
a b
Alternatively,
2. VECTOR → . → = ab cos where a and b are the magnitudes of → and → and
a b a b
 Vectors are quantities having magnitude and direction.  is the angle between the two vectors.
Eg. velocity, acceleration, force, weight.
 Scalars are the quantities having magnitude but no direction. Physical meaning
Eg. time, temperature, mass. The scalar product of two vectors is a product of magnitude of one of
 Equal vectors have equal magnitude and same direction. the vectors and the projection of the second vector on the first.
 Like vectors having same direction while unlike vectors have  If two vectors are perpendicular then their scalar product is zero.
different directions i.e exactly opposite.  → → → →
a . b = b . a
 Null vector has zero magnitude.  (→ → 2 2 → → 2
a + b ) =a +2a .b +b
 Unit vector has magnitude unity.
 (→ → 2 2 → →
a - b ) =a -2a .b +b
2
Any vector → a divided by its magnitude gives unit vector in
 (→ → → →
a + b )(a - b )=a –b
2 2
direction of →a .
â = Error!  → →
a . b =a
2
 For points A(x1,y1), B(x2,y2) Table for scalar product of unit vectors
Magnitude of → 2
AB = (x2-x1) + (y2-y1)
2
 → → →
x component of → →
AB = (x2 – x1) y component of AB = (y2 – y1)
i j k
→ 1 0 0
 If position vectors joining two points A and B are i
r1 = x1i + y1j + z1k, r2 = x2i + y2j + z2k → 0 1 0
j
then →AB = r2 – r1 = (x2-x1)i + (y2-y1)j + (z2-z1)k → 0 0 1
k
(x2-x1)i + (y2-y1)j + (z2-z1)k
So unit vector along → AB = (x2-x1)2 + (y2-y1)2 + (z2-z1)2
 Cos = Error! = Error!
Where → = (a1, a2)
The unit vector i, j and k a
→ = (1, 0) or (1, 0, 0) → = (b1, b2)
i b
→ = (0, 1) or
j (0, 1, 0) If a = (a1, a2, a3) and →
→
b = (b1, b2, b3)
→ = (0, 0, 1) a1b1 + a2b2 + a3b3
z  Cos =
Scalar product of two vectors (Dot product) a12+a22+a32 b12+b22+b32
 The projection of → →
a upon b is Error!

 The projection of → →
b upon a is Error! →
k
→
j -→
i 0
 All physical quantities having direction are not vector. Eg. The
Cross product of vector electric current possesses direction but it is scalar quantity because
For → → →
a = (a1, a2) and b = (b1, b ) the vector product denoted by it can not be added or multiplied according to rules of vector
→ ×→ is defined as (a1b2 – b1a2) × → , where k is the unit vector algebra.
a b k  Division of vectors is not defined.
perpendicular to the plane containing the two vectors.  Following quantities are neither vectors nor scalars:
Relative density, density, viscosity, frequency, pressure, stress
Alternatively, resistance, specific heat, moment of inersia, refractive index,
→ ×→ = ab sin conductivity etc.
a b
 a ×b →
→ → →  A vector can have only two rectangular component in place and
b ×a
only three rectangular components in space.
 If → →
a = (a1, a2, a3) and b = (b1, b2, b3)  A vector can have anynumber, even infinite components (minimum
i j k 2 components).
 Minimum number of coplanar vector whose resultant can be 0 is 3.
then → →
a × b = a1 a2 a3  Minimum no of collinear vectors whose resultant is zero is 2.
b1 b2 b  The rectangular components cannot have magnitude greater than
that of vector itself.
or, → →
a × b = (a2b3 – a3b2, a3b1 – a1b3, a1b2 – a2b1)  The components of a vector can have magnitude greater that of
vector itself.
Physical meaning
The vector product of → →
a and b gives the area of parallelogram whose
adjacent sides are → →
a and b . 39. Two forces act together on an object. The magnitude of their
 → → → → → →
i × i = j × j = k ×k =0 resultant is least when the angle between the forces is:
→ a) 0° b) 45°
j
 → × → = → but → × → = -→ c) 90° d) 180°
i j k j i k 40. Which diagram correctly shows the addition of 4N and 3N
→
i forces?
 → × → = → but k × j = -→ a) b) c) d)
j k i i
→ × → = → but I × k = -→ → 5N 5N 5N 5N
 k i j j k 3N 3N 3N 3N
4N 4N 4N 4N
41. A cart is pulled by a rope making an angle 60° to the horizontal.
Table for cross product of unit vectors
If 100N of force is applied to the rope, the horizontal component
X → → → is:
i j k
→ 0 → -→ a) 50N b) 71N
i k j c) 80N d) 100N
→ →
- k 0 → 42. Which is Scalar Quantity?
j i
a) Weight b) force : kinetic energy
b) Pressure c) momentum : velocity
c) Magnetic moment d) power : speed
d) Torque 52. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
 ^ ^ a) Force b) Electric current
43. Give P = PCos i + PSin j which of the following vector is c) Torque d) Displacement
perpendicular to P? 53. Which one of the following pairs has one vector quantity and one
^ ^ ^ scalar quantity?
a) QSini + QCos j b) QSin i - QCos j
^ ^ ^ a) speed and power
c) QCosI + QSin j d) QCos i - QSin j b) displacement and acceleration
44. The minimum no. of vectors of unequal magnitude required to c) potential energy and work
produce zero resultant is: d) force and kinetic energy
a) two b) three 54. Identity the scalar quantity:
c) four d) more than four a) Force b) Work
45. Which of the following is a vector? c) Displacement d) Acceleration
a) pressure b) work 55. Identify the vector quantity:
c) current density d) electric current a) Time b) Heat
46. If there are two vectors 5 N and 10 N which cannot be the c) Work d) Acceleration
answer to the resultant of two vectors?
a) 15 N b) 5 N
c) 11.18 N d) 16 N
47. Which of the following operations between the two vectors can 3. KINEMATICS
yield a vector perpendicular to either of them?
For one dimensional motion, where symbols with usual meanings
a) Addition b) Multiplication
1
c) Subtraction d) Division s = ut + 2 at2
48. A vector changes:
a) if it is rotated v = u + at
b) if co-ordinate axes are changed v2 – u2 = 2as
u+v
c) if it is shifted translation wise Average velocity =
d) in all 2
49. Which of the following pairs of displacement can’t be added to a
Distance covered in nth second Sn = u + (2n-1)
produce a resultant displacement of 2m? 2
a) 1m and 1m b) 1m and 2m  When particle starts from rest, its initial velocity u = 0.
c) 1m and 3m d) 1m and 4m  Acceleration a is +ve when particle speeds up and –ve when
particle retards.
50. A force of 3.0 N and a force of 4.0 N acts on an object at the  Suppose the particle covers distance x1 in time t1 with velocity v1 &
same time. Which of the following force cannot be the resultant then it covers distance x2 in timet2 with velocity v2.
force on the object? x1 + x2 v1t1 + v2t2 x1 + x2
Avg speed = t + t = t + t =x x
a) 0.5N b) 3.5N 1 2 1 2 1 2
c) 4.0 N d) 5.0 N v1 + v2
51. Which pair contains one vector and one scalar quantity?
a) displacement : acceleration

ce 
Distnce time (s – t) graph
1. For a particle at rest the s – t graph is straight line parallel to t axis. Acceleration time (a – t) graph
2. For a particle moving with constant speed s – t graph is straight line 1. The a – t graph for a particle moving with constant acceleration is
(s = at + c). straight line parallel to t-axis.
3. The slope of s – t graph at any initant gives instantaneous speed. 2. The area between a – t graph & t-axis gives change in velocity (+
Slope = tan, where  is angle made by tangent to graph with x- for acceleration & - for retardation).
axis.  Suppose a train of length l is crossing a bridge of length L with
4. Since distance covered is always positive. So s – t graph cannot be constant speed v, then the time taken by train to cross bridge will
below the time axis. l+L
be t = v
5. The s– t graph cannot be parallel to x-axis or perpendicular to t axis
because that represents infinite speed which is not possible.

56. When an object is thrown from ground by making an angle 45o
with ground surface with velocity 20 m/s. Then maximum
horizontal range covered by body is:
a) 400 m b) 40 m
c) 8 m d) 4 m
57. An object is projected upwards with a velocity of 100 m/s. It will
strike the ground in about:
a) 5s b) 10s
c) 20s d) 15s
58. A stone is dropped from the window of a moving train, it will hit
Velocity time (v – t) graph the ground following a:
1. For a particle at rest v – t graph is t-axis itself. a) Straight path b) Parabolic path
2. The slope of v – t graph at any point gives instantaneous c) Hyperbolic path d) Circular path
acceleration. 59. A ball is projected upwards. As it rises, there is increase in its:
3. The area between v – t graph and t-axis gives distance (if sign not a) Momentum b) Retardation
considered) or gives displacement (if sign considered). c) Kinetic Energy d) Potential energy
4. v – t graph perpendicular to t-axis is not possible. 60. A weight dropped from a moving aeroplane:
a) will move with aeroplane
b) will go vertically upward

c) will fall vertically downward 2h h 2h v
d) will fall along a curved trajectory c) g +g d) g +h
61. Which is not a projectile? 69. A ball of mass 50gm is thrown upwards. It rise to a maximum height of
a) A body dropped from the top of a tower. 100m. At what height its kinetic energy will be reduced by 70%?
b) A bullet fired by gun. a) 30m b) 40m
c) A body dropped from an aeroplane.
c) 60m d) 70m
d) A balloon floating in air.
70. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which one of the following
62. Two bodies A and B are projected form the same velocity at angle
15o and 75o with the horizontal. Then:
quantities stays constant?
a) Body A will have maximum horizontal range a) displacement b) speed
b) Body B will have maximum horizontal range c) kinetic energy d) acceleration
c) Both A and B will have equal horizontal range 71. A ball is Project vertically upwards. Its acceleration at the
d) None of the above highest point is:
63. In a projectile motion, which remains constant? a) Zero b) can't be predicted
a) Speed b) Velocity c) directed upwards d) directed downwards
c) Kinetic energy d) Horizontal component of velocity 72. A ball is thrown vertically upwards in air. If air resistance cannot be
64. A bomb is dropped from an airplane moving horizontally with a neglected then the acceleration of the ball at the highest point is:
speed of 200km/h. If the air resistance is negligible, the bomb will a) g b) >g
reach the ground is 5s, when the altitude is: c) <g d) 0
a) 125m b) 75m 73. A bomb is released from a horizontally flying aeroplane. The
c) 50m d) 25m trajectory of the bomb is:
65. A body is projected vertically upward with initial velocity of 19.6 a) Straight line b) hyperbola
m/s. It comes back to surface of Earth in: c) parabola d) circle
a) 2 secs b) 4 secs 74. Two bodies, one lighter and other heavy, have equal kinetic
c) 6 secs d) 8 secs energies, which of them has greater momentum?
66. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m and rebounds with a a) the heavy one b) the lighter one
velocity which is ½ of velocity with which it hits the ground. To c) both have same momenta d) none of above
what height will it rise on rebounding? 75. A ball takes t sec to fall from height h1 and 2t sec to fall from
a) 1.25 m b) 1.125m
height h2. The ratio of height h1:h2 is:
c) 1m d) 2.25m
a) 1:2 b) 2:1
67. A stone ‘A’ is dropped from a cliff of height h and another stone ‘B’
c) 1:4 d) 4:1
if same mass is thrown horizontally with u at same instant. Which
of following is true? 76. The numerical value of average velocity to average speed is:
a) A will reach ground first a) always less than one b) always greater than one
b) B will reach ground first c) always equal to one d) equal or less than one
c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ reach ground at same time 77. Newton’s first law of motion gives the concept of:
d) ‘A’ or ‘B’ depending up on value of u a) energy b) work
68. A stone is dropped into a well in which level of water is h below c) inertia d) momentum
the top of well. If V be the speed of sound, the time T after 78. An object is projected upwards with a velocity of 100 m/s. It will
which the splash is heard is given by: strike the ground in about:
2h 2h h a) 5s b) 10s
a) b) + c) 20s d) 15s
v g v

79. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released a) Newton's first law of motion
from the same height h in vacuum. The time taken by both of b) Newton's second law of motion
them to reach the ground are: c) Newton's third law of motion
a) roughly equal b) zero d) laws of inertia
c) exactly equal d) unequal 89. The impulse is equal to:
80. When the resultant force on a body is not zero it produces: a) linear momentum b) angular acceleration
a) linear acceleration b) angular acceleration c) constant velocity d) inertia
c) constant velocity d) inertia 90. When a constant force is applied to a body, it moves with
81. A rocket works on the principle of: uniform:
a) conservation of mass a) acceleration b) velocity
b) conservation of energy c) speed d) momentum
c) conservation of linear momentum 91. A vehicle is moving on a rough road in a straight line with
d) conservation of angular momentum uniform velocity.
82. A stone dropped from a bridge reaches the bottom in 4s. The a) No force is acting on the vehicle
height of the bridge is: b) A force must act on the vehicle
a) 78.4 m b) 64 ft c) No work is being done on the vehicle
c) 2000 cm d) 260 m d) An acceleration is being produced in the vehicle
83. A ball drawn vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 19.6 92. Inertia is the property by virtue of which the body is:
m/s returns in 4s. The maximum height attained by the ball is: a) unable to change by itself the state of rest only
a) 19.6m b) 26.7m b) unable to change by itself the state of uniform motion only
c) 9.8m d) none c) unable to change by itself the direction of the motion only
84. The formula of velocity ratio of lever is: d) unable to change by itself the state of rest and of uniform
a) Load/Effort motion.
b) Load arm/Effort arm 93. If the velocity of car increases from 5ms-1 to 25ms-1in 10 second,
c) Distance traveled by effort/Distance traveled by load the acceleration of the car is:
d) Distance moved by load/Distance moved by effort a) 1m/s b) 2m/sec2
2
85. Which of the following statement is false? c) 3m/sec d) 4m/sec2
a) A body can have a constant velocity with a varying speed. 94. A car of mass 1000 kg accelerate with 5m/s2 --- is the resultant
b) A body can have a constant velocity and a constant speed. force.
c) A body can have a constant speed with a varying velocity. a) 100N b) 1000N
d) The direction of velocity of a body can change when its c) 5000N d) 200N
acceleration is constant. 95. Newton’s second law of motion gives a measure of:
86. Newton’s second law of motion supplies the definition of: a) acceleration b) force
a) force b) velocity c) momentum d) work
c) acceleration d) momentum 96. Two balls at same temperature collide. What is conserved?
87. If a stone is dropped from a height of 3.2 m, it reaches the a) Temperature b) Kinetic Energy
surface of the moon in 2 sec. Find the acceleration due to gravity c) Momentum d) Velocity
at the moon’s surface.
a) 1.6 ms-2 b) 2.6 ms-2 97. A train is 100m long and is moving with uniform velocity of
c) 9.8 ms-2 d) 5.6 ms-2 45km/hr. The time it will take to cross the bridge 1km long is:
88. "A fully loaded truck can not accelerate its speed as much as an a) 10s b) 20s
empty one". This statement can be explained by: c) 40s d) 88s
98. A man is running towards a mirror at 5m/s .At what speed his 108. A body moves on a quarter circle of radius r. What are the values
image running towards him. of displacement and distance traveled by it?
a) 5m/s b) 10m/s a) displacement = r distance = r
c) 15m/s d) 0m/s b) displacement = r 2 distance = r/2
99. The action and reaction referred to in Newton's third law of c) displacement = r/2 distance = 2 2 r
motion. d) displacement = zero distance = r/2
a) need not be a equal in magnitude 109. A car travels along a straight line with speed V1 from A to B and
b) must act on different bodies return back from B to A with V2. The average speed of the car is:
c) must act on the same body 2V1V2
d) need not have same line of action a) (V1+V2)/2 b) V +V
1 2
100. When the velocity of a body is doubled, it’s KE increased by ---
V1V2
time. c) d) V1V2
V1+V2
a) double b) fourth
c) treble d) unchanged 110. Two moving bodies of masses M and 4M have equal linear
101. Newton's 1st law of motion gives the concept of: momentum. What is the ratio of their Kinetic energies?
a) Energy b) Work a) 1:4 b) 1:2
c) Inertia d) Momentum. c) 2:1 d) 4:1
102. What must be changing when a body is accelerating uniformly? 111. The displacement of the body in 5 sec is:
a) the force acting on the body a) 2m
b) the mass of the body
c) the speed of the body b) 3m
d) the velocity of the body
103. A cricket ball of mass 100g moving with velocity 20 m/s is c) 4m
brought to rest in 0.5 sec. The average force is:
a) 20N b) 4N d) 5m
c) 10N d) 12N 112. A ball is thrown vertically upward. Which of the following
104. A rock is dropped from a high bridge. At the end of 3 sec of free graphs, represent velocity time graph of ball during its flight,
fall, the speed of rock in cm/sec is: ignoring air resistance?
a) 30 b) 100
c) 3000 d) 1000
105. If the speed of an object is tripled, its kinetic energy is:
1 1
a) 9 b) 3
c) 3 d) 9 a) b) c) d)
106. Two similar cricket balls are released from a 20m and 10m high. 113. The velocity ‘u’ of a body moving along a straight line with
Which quantity is same for both balls? constant retardation ‘a’ reduces by 75% in time ‘t’. What is the
a) acceleration b) final speed time taken in doing so?
c) increase in velocity d) time of travel u 3u
107. The distance covered by the body in time t is proportional to a) 4a b) 4a
square of the time t. the acceleration of the body is: 4u u
a) increasing b) decreasing c) 3a d) 3a
c) zero d) constant
114. A body covers x meter at constant velocity V1 and next x meter 122. A hammer weighing 1kg moving at a speed of 10m/s strikes the
at constant velocity V2 in case first. In 2nd case, body travel with head of nail driving it 10cm into the wall. If mass of nail be
constant velocity V1 for t hours and with velocity V2 for next negligible, find acceleration during impact?
hours. Then respective average velocities are: a) -500 m/s2 b) +500 m/s2
2
V1+V2 2V1 V2 2V1 V2 V1 + V2 c) -200 m/s d) +200 m/s2
a) 2 and V +V b) V +V and 2 123. Two bodies of masses m and 4m have equal kinetic energy. The
1 2 1 2
V1+V2 V1 + V2 2V1 V2 2V1 V2 ratio of their speeds will be:
c) 2 and 2 d) V + V and V + V a) 2:1 b) 1:2
1 2 1 2
115. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb are dropped from two c) 1:1 d) 4:1
different height a and b. The ratio of time taken by the two to 124. A machine gun fires 10g bullet at rate of 10 bullets/sec with
drop through these distance is: speed of 500m/s. Force required to hold the gun is:
a) a:b b) b:c a) 5000 N b) 500 N
2 2
c) a :b d) a : b c) 50 N d) 150 N
116. A car moves half way with the speed of 60 km/hr and in the rest 125. A car can be stopped over a distance x when its momentum is P.
of the way it moves by 40 km/hr. Average speed of the car is: What will be the stopping distance when the momentum is 2p?
a) 100 km/hr b) 48km/hr a) x b) 2x
c) 50 km/hr d) 60 km/hr c) 4x d) 8x
117. A book lying on the table remains there till eternity. This is: 126. A block of mass M is pulled along a smooth horizontal surface
a) 3rd law of motion b) 2nd law of motion with a rope of mass m. The acceleration of the block will be:
st
c) 1 law of motion d) Lenz’s law F F
a) b)
118. A bullet is dropped from the same height while another bullet is M m
fried horizontally, they will hit the ground: F F
c) d)
a) one after the another b) simultaneously M+m M-m
c) depends on the observer d) none of the above 127. Speed
119. A bullet when fired at a target has its velocity decreased to 50%
after penetrating 30 cm into it. Then the additional thickness it Car X
will penetrates in cm before coming to rest is:
a) 10 cm b) 10 cm Car Y
c) 40 cm d) 60 cm
120. The inertial mass of body has following properties except:
a) independent of shape, size and state of body
b) conserved during chemical and physical combination
c) not affected by presence of other bodies near it
d) not affected by speed of the body Time
121. A body starts from rest and moves at constant acceleration in a From the information in the graph, which statement is correct?
straight line. The time taken to reach the equal distance intervals a) Car X accelerates at the same rate as car Y
from starting are in ratio of: b) Car X and car Y always travel at constant speed.
a. 1: 1: 1:…….:n b) 1: 2 : 3 : 4 :…….: n c) Car X is more powerful than car Y
d) Car X starts at a faster speed than car Y.
c) 1: 2: 3: 4: ….:n d) 1: 3 : 5 :…….: 2n -1
128. If the displacements of a particle is zero, then what can we say
about the distance covered?
a) It must be zero b) It cannot be zero passes one post, it has a speed of 10 m s-1 and, when it passes the
c) It is negative d) It may or may not be zero next one, its speed is 20 m s-1.
129. The angular velocity of a second hand of a watch is: What is the car’s acceleration?
a) 180o/sec b) 360o/sec a) 0.67 m s-2 b) 1.5 m s-2
o
c) 60 /sec d) 6o/sec c) 2.5 m s -2
d) 6.0 m s-2
130. The diagram shows a light rod with two weighs hanging from it. 134. A truck takes 20s to travel the first 80m, and another 10 s to
travel a further 70m. What is the average speed?
0.6m 1.3m a) 0.20 b) 2.3
c) 4.0 d) 5.0
135. A skier is traveling downhill. The acceleration on hard snow is
4m/s2 and on soft snow is 2m/s2.Which graph shows the motion
of the skier when moving from hard snow to soft snow?(x- axis :
time in seconds and y axis : speed in meter per second)
5.5N 1N a) b) c) d)
A third weight is to be added to bring the system into

equilibrium so that the rod is balanced. What weight is required
and where should it be placed?
Weight Position
a) 1N 2m to the left of the pivot 136. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Neglecting air resistance,
b) 1N 3m to the right of the pivot which statement is correct?
c) 2N 1m to the left of the pivot a) The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at the greatest
d) 2N 1m to the right of the pivot height attained.
b) By the principle of conservation of energy, the total energy
131. A lorry has high inertia. of the ball is constant throughout its motion.
How difficult is it to start it moving and to stop it moving? c) By the principle of conservation of momentum, the
momentum of the ball is constant throughout its motion.
To start To stop d) The potential energy of the ball increases uniformly with
a) Difficult Difficult time during the ascent.
b) Difficult Easy 137. Starting from rest, a car of mass 1000 kg accelerates to 20 m/s in
c) Easy Difficult 10 s. The average power developed in that time period is
d) Easy Easy a) 5 KW b) 10 KW
132. Which is a statement of Newton’s third law of motion? c) 20 KW d) 40 KW
a) Every force causes a reaction. 138. A man is at rest in the middle of a pond on perfectly smooth ice.
b) If there is no resultant force on a body then there is no He can get himself to the shore by making use of Newton's:
acceleration. a) First law b) Second low
c) The forces acting on a body are always equal and opposite. c) Third law d) All the laws
d) To every action there is an equal but opposite reaction.
139. At what height above the ground must an object of mass 5 kg be
133. A car is travelling with uniform acceleration along a straight placed so that it has the potential energy equal to the kinetic
road. The road has marker posts every 100 m. When the car

energy of another object of mass 5 kg and moving with the 146. If the normal force is doubled, the coefficient of friction is:
velocity of 10 ms-1? a) not changed b) halved
a) 1m b) 5m c) doubled d) tripled
c) 10m d) 50 m 147. The average frictional force, F, of the road on the car is:
140. A car traveling at speed of 30 kmh-1 is brought at rest in 8m by a) 600N b) 500N
applying brakes. If the same car is traveling at 60kmh-1 it can be c) 100N d) 1100N
brought to rest with same braking power in:
a) 32 m b) 24 m
c) 16 m d) 28 m 4. WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
141. An athlete runs some distance before taking a long jump  
because:  Work is scalar product of force f and displacement dr
a) he gains energy to take him through long distance  
b) it helps to apply large force i.e dw = f . dr
c) by running action and reaction force increase  Work is scalar quantity with unit Joule (kgm2/s2).
d) by running he gives himself larger inertia of motion  
 If the angle  between f and dr lies between -90o and +90o, then
142. Displacement time graph of a particle moving with uniform
w is +ve and if  lies between 90o and 270o,then w is –ve.
velocity is:
 For  = 90o or 270o, w = 0.
a) a point b) parabola
c) circle d) Straight line  Power is time rate of doing work.
143. The frictional force and normal reaction of a body resting on the dw
P = dt
surface are respectively:
a) scalar and scalar b) vector and scalar  Power = force × velocity.
c) scalar and vector d) vector and vector 1
 Kinetic energy k = 2 Mv2.
144. It is easier to pull a lawn roller the to push it because pulling:
a) involves sliding friction  Kinetic energy k and momentum p are related as
b) involves dry friction 1 1 Mv2 p2
k = 2 Mv2 = 2 M = 2M
c) increase the effective weight
d) decreases normal reaction  Potential energy is +ve when forces involved are repulsive. Eg. PE
145. A person exerts a horizontal force of 500 N on a box, which also of two similar charges.
experiences a friction force of 100 N.  Potential energy is –ve when forces involved are attractive. Eg.
Gravitational potential energy, PE of two opposite charges.
500 N
100N Energy and Momentum
Consider two bodies of masses m1 and m2.
1. If two bodies have equal momenta, then their kinetic energies are
inversely proportional to their respective masses.
3m i.e if m1v1 = m2v2
k1
How much work is done against friction when the box moves a then, = Error! = Error!
k2
horizontal distance of 3m?
2. If two bodies of equal kinetic energy then their momenta are
a) 300 J b) 1200 J
directly proportional to square root of respective masses.
c) 1500 J d)1800 J

1 1 154. Find the density of a copper ball which has a volume of 6m3 and
i.e if 2 m1v12 = 2 m2v22 mass of 36,000 kg.
p1 m1v1 m1 a) 60,000 gm / cm3 b) 6,000 gm / cm3
then, p = m v = m2 c) 600 gm / cm 3
d) 6 gm / cm3
2 2 2
3. If two bodies have equal kinetic energies, their velocities are 155. A man pushes a wall but fails to displace it. He does:
inversely proportional to square root of respective masses. a) negligible positive work.
1 1 b) negligible negative work.
i.e if m1v2 = m2v22 c) no work.
2 2
d) negative work.
v1 m2
then, = 156. The density of water is lg/cc. Which is measured in ---- system.
v2 m1 a) CGS system b) MKS system
kinetic energy c) FPS system d) All of the above
Stopping distance for a moving body = stopping force
157. A moving ball posses:
a) kinetic energy b) gravitational potential energy
c) electric potential energy d) binding energy
Multiple Choice Questions: 158. If a body of mass 400g is moving with the velocity 0ms,
148. A man pushes a wall but fail to displace it. He does: calculate the K.E.
a) Negative work a) 400J b) 200J
b) Maximum +ve work c) 800J d) 0J
c) +ve work but not maximum 159. A body at rest may have:
d) No work a) energy b) momentum
149. The formula of power is: c) speed d) velocity
a) Fu b) Fu2 160. Which of the following is a form of energy?
c) Fa d) None a) pressure b) Momentum
150. Mechanical advantage in a machine where a resistance W is c) Light d) Power
overcomed by applying an effort P is: 161. Of the following the one possessing kinetic energy is:
a) W × P b) W/P a) stretched rubber hand b) a bullet in flight
c) P/W d) P-W c) the air in bicycle pump d )water stored in dam
151. Choose the correct statement: 162. A bent bow used for shooting an arrow posses:
a) Pressure of air increases with increases in altitude a) kinetic energy b) potential energy
b) Pressure of air increases with decrease in altitude c) electric energy d) pressure energy
c) Pressure of air will not change with altitude 163. A crane can lift 5000 kg mass to the height of 10m in 10 second
d) None of above what is it’s power?
152. Atmospheric pressure is measured by using: a) 5000 watt b) 50,000 watt
a) hydrometer b) thermometer c) 5,00,000 watt d) none of the above
c) calorimeter d) barometer
153. Sometimes a cycle with well inflate tyres left in the sun has its 164. If the mass of a body is reduced to half and its velocity is
tubes burst open, why? doubled, it’s kinetic energy is:
a) because the volume of air inside the tube increases a) remains unchanged b) double
b) because pressure of air inside the tube increases c) increases four time d) is halved
c) because the tube melts 165. How much work is done when a coolie pushes a cart using a
d) because the volume and pressure of the air increases force of 500N to a distance of 50m?
a) 500J b) 50J a) PE → Kinetic Energy → Sound.
c) 25000J d) no work is done b) Electric → Sound → Chemical.
166. Calculate the work done by a man who lift 50 litre of water from c) Chemical→ Electrical→ Sound.
a well 10m deep. d) Electrical → Chemical → Sound.
a) 50J b) 500J 177. The mass of body decreases by half whereas it's velocity
c) 5000J d) No work is done increases by two times. How does the kinetic Energy change?
167. Find the potential energy of the body of mass 2 kg on the surface a) Increases two times b) Increases four times
of the earth? c) Decreases four times d) Decreases two times
a) 20J b) 10J 178. An electric motor lifts a weight of 2N through a height of 5m in
c) 200J d) 0J 45sec. What is the power developed?
168. The K.E. of a body varies with velocity v directly as: a) 1.6W b) 2.5W
a) vo b) v c) 10W d) 40W
c) v2 d) v-1 179. In which of the following is the greatest pressure exerted?
169. In single fixed pulley V.R. is: a) A bare footed person standing.
a) one b) two b) Brick on the ground.
c) infinite d) less than one c) An elephant standing on the ground.
170. 200N effort is used to lift 300N load by using wheel pulley d) A knife cutting a piece of meat.
system. What is it’s M.A.? 180. A 70 kg man carrying a 10 kg suit case climbing a ladder of 5 m
a) 0.15 b) 1.5 in two minute, power developed by the man is (g=10 m/s2 ).
c) 6 d) 15 a) 4.16 W b) 29.16W
171. A rod of mass M and length L lying on a horizontal table, work c) 52.6 W d) 33.33 W
done in making it stand on one end will be: 181. Two small masses, when 10cm apart, attract each other with a
a) mgl b) mgl/2. force of F Newton. When 5 cm apart, these masses will attract,
c) mgl/4 d) 2mgl with force, in Newton:
172. A ball of mass 50g is thrown upward. It rises to max. height of a) F/2 b) F/4
100m. At what height its KE will be reduced to 70%? c) 4F d) 2F
a) 30m b) 40m. 182. An object whose mass is 100g starts, from rest and moves with
c) 60m d) 70m constant acceleration of 20cm/s2. At the end of 8s, its momentum
173. A light and heavy body have equal KE .which one has greater in gcm/s.
momentum? a) 500 b) 16,000
a) The heavy body b) both have equal momentum c) 8000 d) 64,000
c) the light body d) Data incomplete 183. Which is not standard atmospheric pressure?
174. If the momentum of body is doubled, the kinetic energy is: a) 1 atmosphere b) 760 cm of mercury
a) halved b) unchanged c) 76 cm of mercury d) 101 KPa
c) doubled. d) increased four times.
175. If a force F applied on a body moves it with a velocity v, then 184. Greatest pressure is there in:
power will be: a) man standing on beach
a) F/v b) fv b) a brick resting on the ground
c) Work x time d) Fa c) an elephant standing on the ground
176. When one switches on a Radio using battery the transfer of d) a knife cutting a piece of meat
energy are:
185. Calculate the power of the motor which is capable of rising d) when a positive charge is moved towards another positive
1000m3 of water in 10 min from a well 50m deep (g = 98m/s2). charge
a) 8.2×105W. b) 1W. 194. Calculate the power of engine required to lift 90 metric tons of
c) 14W. d) 8.2×10-5W. coal per hour from a mine whose depth is 200m. Given that g =
186. In a particular system, the unit of length, mass and time are 9.8 m/s2 and 1 metric ton = 1000 kg
chosen to be 10cm, 10gm and 0.1s respectively, the unit of force a) 4.9 kw b) 49 kw
in this system will be equivalent to: c) 0.49 kw d) 490 kw
a) 0.1N b) 1N 10
195. About 410 kg of matter per second is converted into energy in
c) 10N d) 100N sun. What is power of sun?
187. A body of mass 20kg initially at rest is falling down a tower. a) 3.6  1026 w b) 36 1028 w
After 5 sec, at a point the K.E was equal to P.E, what is height c) 3.6  10 w27
d) 3.6 1025w
of the point? 196. The principle of moment is followed by:
a) 100m b) 125m a) First class lever b) Second class lever
c) 140m d) 200m c) Third class lever d) All
188. For which action, more force is necessary? 197. Work needed to be done to generate heat equal to 1 kcal is:
a) to pull the body b) to push the body a) 4.2 J b) 4.2×103J
c) both require equal force d) dpend on condition c) 4.2×10 J7
d) None of them
189. The water is falling on the blades of a turbine from a height of 198. A lever suitable for raising a block of 800N through a vertical
50m. 100 kg of water pours on the blade in one second. distance of 6 cm with a velocity ratio of 10. Given that the
Assuming that whole of the energy is transferred to the turbine, efficiency is 80%. Calculate the effort applied.
what is the power delivered to the turbine? a) 100 N b) 200 N
a) 100 kw b) 50kw c) 150 N d) 50 N
c) 25 kw d) 10kw 199. Two bodies one light and other heavy have equal kinetic
190. In a block and tackle of 4 pulley system, a load of 800N is energies, which of the them has greater momentum?
overcome. If M.A. is 3 calculate efficiency. a) heavy one
a) 25% b) 50% b) lighter one
c) 75% d) 100% c) both have same momenta
191. If momentum of a body is increased by 50%, then its K.E. d) none
increases by: 200. A gun of mass 1 kg fires a bullet of mass 20kg. If kinetic energy
a) 25% b) 50% of bullet is 100J, with what kinetic energy does the gun recoil?
c) 100% d) 125% a) 5J b) 20J
192. A balloon has 5 gm of air. A small bole is pierced into it. The air c) 2J d) None of these
escapes at a uniform rate with a velocity of 4 cm/sec. If the 201. A trough full of water is placed on a spring balance. If we put
balloon shrinks completely in 2.5 seconds, then the mean force our hand in water without touching the trough how will be
acting on the balloon is: reading of the balance change?
a) 2 dynes b) 50 dynes a) Decrease b) Increase
c) 8 dynes d) 8 Newton c) Remain changed d) It is not possible to predict
193. In which of following case, the work-done is negative? 202. A balloon field with be hydrogen gas bursts on reaching high
a) A coolie travels on platform with load on his head altitude because:
b) when body is moved along a circular path with a string a) hydrogen catches fire
c) when a body falls freely under gravitational pull b) pressure inside balloon is less then atmospheric pressure
c) pressure inside balloon is greater then atmospheric pressure
d) stormy winds blow in the upper region
203. A machine of valocity ratio 5 is used to raise a load of 200N. The
effort required is 250N. What is the efficiency of the machine?
a) 50% b) 60%
c) 75% d) 16%
204. A body of mass10 kg is moving of 2m with uniform speed of
2ms-1. Its total energy is:
a)196J b)216J
c) 20J d) 316J 211. Planet X is twice the radius of planet Y and is of material of same
205. The mass of a particle at the centre of the earth is: density. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at he surface of x
a) zero b) slightly more than at the poles to that at surface of Y is:
c) infinite d) same as at the poles a) 1:4 b) 1:2
206. The diagram shows a curved track. A ball is released at point A. c) 2:1 d) 8:1
At which point does the ball have the maximum gravitational 212. The value of g on the moon is 1/6th than that on earth. A body 60
potential energy? kg on earth has the mass on the moon is:
a) 10 kg b) 360 kg
Ba c) 60kg d) 15 kg
l 213. The force of attraction between two unit masses placed at unit
A l distance in (SI Unit) is numerically equal to:
a) 6.67 × 10-11 b) 1
D
c) 6.67 × 10-10 d) 6.67 × 10+10
B 214. Which one of the following would a hydrogen balloon find
C
easiest to lift?
207. The kinetic energy of a moving body varies with mass (m) a) 1 kg of steel
directly as: b) 1 kg of lightly packed feather
a) mo b) m c) 1 kg of water
c) m2 d) m-1 d) all the same
208. Weakest Force is: 215. The weightlessness is experienced while orbiting the earth in a
a) centripetal force b) mechanical force spaceship is the result of:
c) gravitational force d) electrical a) centripetal acceleration
209. A crane lifts a load of 6000N through a vertical distance of 15m b) zero acceleration due to gravity
in 30s. What is the average power during this operation? c) inertia
a) 200W b) 400 W d) none
c) 3000W d) 12000W 216. Which physical quantity has constant value in different place?
a) density b) mass
c) time d) temperature
210. Which one of the pulley system doesn’t have M.A. equal to 2?
a) b) c) d) None 5. GRAVITATION
Gravitational force due to earth.

GMeM  
F= r2  If a body rises with acceleration a , then apparent weight is M( g
Where G is gravitationa constant (G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2). 
- a ). It increases.
 
Acceleration due to gravity:  For free falling g = a , apparent weight is zero.
At height h above earth  Spring balance measures apparent weight of body.
GMe  Value of g is more at poles than equator.
gh = (R+h)2
 Escape velocity Ves = 2Rg × 11.2 km/s.
Where R = radius of earth.
On surface: Multiple Choice Questions:
GMe 218. Newton’s law of gravitation is applicable to:
gs = 2 = g
R a) bodies in the solar system only
At depth d: b) bodies on earth only
GMe d c) planets only
gd = R2 (1 - R )
d) all bodies in the universe.
Also, 219. The value of g depends upon:
2h a) the mass of the bodies
gh = gs(1 – R )
b) the medium between the bodies
d c) the temperature of the bodies
and gd = gs(1 - R ) d) none of the above
 Value of g also varies with latitude. 220. The value of g is maximum:
 All bodies fall freely with same acceleration. a) at the pole of earth b) at the equator of earth
 The acceleration of falling bodies doesnot depend upon mass. c) under the earth d) at a high hill.
 Gravitation is central force acting along the line joining particle. 221. The ----- of a body is the amount of matter contained in
 Gravitation is a conservative force whose workdone is independent a) weight b) mass
of path followed. c) force d) velocity
222. The weight of an object depends on:
 Gravitation is the weakest force in nature. It is 1038 times and 1036
a) G b) g
times smaller than nuclear & electric force respectively.
c) both a and b d) none of the above
 Gravitation is independent of present of other bodies in
223. The atmosphere is held to the earth by:
surrounding.
a) gravity b) the sun
gearth
 gmoon = and gsun = 27gearth c) clouds d) the rotation of the earth
6 224. The mass of a particle at the center of the earth is:
 The g decreases both when we go above the surface or below the a) zero
surface. Its value is maximum on surface of earth. b) infinite
 If earth stops rotating about its own axis, the value of g at poles c) slightly more than at the poles
remain unchanged but that at equador will decrease by about d) same as at other places
0.35%. 225. The mass of a body is 12kg on the earth. If it is taken to the
 moon, its mass will be:
 If a body moves with acceleration a then apparent weight of body
a) 12kg b) 6kg
 
of mass M is M( g - a ). Same in the case when a body falls from c) 2kg d) 72kg
height. The apparent weight decreases. 226. Which relation is correct for the variation of 'g' with Altitude?
a) g1 = g 1 - R 
2h c) Its weight on the moon is zero
b) g1 = g(1 - h/R)
  d) Its weight on the earth is 10 N
c) g1 = g  R - 1
2h 235. An airtight glass cage with a parrot sitting in it is suspended from
d) g1 = g (h/R-1)
  a spring balance. The parrot starts flying inside the cage. Then
227. If the earth stops rotating, the value of ‘g’ at the equator will: the reading in spring balance will
a) increase b) remain same a) increase b) decrease
c) decrease d) none c) not changed d) be zero
228. A man can jump 2 meters in earth. If the acceleration due to 236. Gravitational force is:
gravity on moon is (1/6)th times that of earth. How high can the a) weaker then the electric, magnetic and nuclear force
man jump? b) weaker then the nuclear force but stronger then the electric or
a) 6m b) 12m magnetic force
c) 9m d) 8m c) stronger then the electric, magnetic and nuclear force
229. There is no atmosphere on the moon because: d) none of them
a) It is closer to earth. 237. Which one of the following is the fundamental unit of universal
b) It revolves round the earth. gravitational constant?
c) It gets light from sun. a) Nkg-2m2 b) kg-1m3s-3
-1 3 -1
d) The escape velocity of gas molecule is lesser than their root c) kg m s d) kg-1m-3s-1
mean square velocity. 238. Consider a planet X that has a mass double the mass of the earth
230. At what depth below the earth surface the acceleration due to and density equal to the average density of earth. An object
gravity is same as that the height 2km above surface. weighing W on the earth will weight at the planet X:
a) 1km b) 2km a) W b) 2W
2
c) 4 km d) None of these c) W d) W3
231. Two planets of radii r1 and r2 made from same material. The ratio 239. The escape velocity of a projectile from the earth is
acceleration of gravity g1/g2 at the surface of two planets is: approximately:
r1 r2 a) 7 km/s b) 11.2 km/s
a) r b) r c) 1.1 km/s d)11.2 m/s
2 1
240. The time of swing of pendulum depends on:
c) r  d) r 
r 1 2 r2 2
 2  1 a) shape of the bob b) density of the bob
232. The mean distance of sun from the earth is 1.5×108 km the time c) length of the pendulum d) weight of the bob
taken by the light to reach earth from the sun is: 241. A piece of wood floats in water, what happens if it floats in
a) 0.12 min b) 8.33 min Kerosene?
c) 12.5 min d) 6.25min a) Sinks more b) Sink less
233. What is the mass of the body at the moon if its mass is 36N in c) Floats at same level d) First Sink than rises
earth? 242. A boat full of scrap iron is floating on water in a lake. If all the
a) 6N b) 12N iron is dropped into water the water level will:
c) 18N d) 36N a) go up b) remain the same
c) rise very high d) fall down
234. The acceleration of free fall on the Moon is 1.6 m/s2. The 243. Water reservoirs are made thicker at the bottom rather than at the
acceleration of free fall on the Earth is 10m/s2. A rock has a mass top because:
of 10 kg on the earth. Which statement about the rock is correct? a) Water is denser at the bottom
a) Its mass on the moon is 1.6 kg b) Pressure is greater at the bottom
b) Its mass on the moon is 10 kg c) P.E. of water is greater at the bottom
d) K.E. of water is greater at the bottom 253. The force of buoyancy depends upon:
244. The most characteristic property of a liquid is: a) the shape of the body
a) elasticity b) fluidity b) the mass of the body
c) formlessness d) volume conservation c) the weight of liquid displaced
245. Pressure exerted by a liquid depends upon: d) the depth to which body is immersed
a) density b) surface tension 254. A body is floating in a liquid, the upthrust on the body is:
c) viscosity d) buoyancy a) Equal to weight of liquid displaced
246. Principle of transmission of pressure is stated by: b) less than the weight of liquid displaced
a) Charle’s law b) Newton’s law c) Wt. of body minus wt. of liquid displaced
d) zero
c) Pascal’s law d) Boyle’s law
255. For a body floating in water, the apparent weight is:
247. A piece of ice is floating in jar containing water. When the ice
a) actual wt. of body
melts then the level of water: b) weight of liquid displaced
a) rises c) wt. of body – wt. of liquid displaced
b) falls d) zero
c) remains unchanged 256. Density of water is 103 kg/m3. The water pressure on a submarine is
d) rises or falls depending on the mass of the ice 2 × 107 N/m2. The depth of the submarine below the surface of
248. A conical vessel of vertical height h filled with a liquid of water, in meters is:
density d rests on its base. If g is the acceleration due of gravity, a) 2000 b) 200
the pressure at the point on the base is: c) 20 d) 20,000
a) 1/3 dgh b) 1/2 dgh 257. A tank 3m long, 1m wide and, 0.5m deep is filled with oil which
c) 2/3 dgh d) dgh weighs 12,000N. What is the pressure on the base of the tank due to
249. A wooden cube just floats inside the water when a 200 gm mass the oil?
is placed on it. When the mass is removed the cube is 2 cm a) 4000 pa b) 18000 Pa
above the water level. The side of the cube is: c) 6000 Pa d) 8000 Pa
a) 5 cm b) 10 cm 258. A cube of side 3cm is on a measuring cylinder. 125cm3 of water is
c) 15 cm d) 20 cm added to it and the cube remains at the bottom. New reading is:
250. The force on a hydraulic press is 2000N. If the area of the piston a) 128cm3 b) 131 cm3
c) 134 cm 3 d) 152 cm3
is 100cm2, then the pressure in N/cm2 is:
a) 20 b) 200 259. Ball pen functions on the principle of:
c) 2000 d) 10 a) viscosity b) Boyle’s law
c) gravitational force d) surface tension
251. A body of volume 100 cc immersed completely in water
260. A wooden block if floating in a trough of water. If the trough falls
contained in a jar. The weight of water and jar before immersion
freely, the upward thrust on the wooden block will be:
of the body was 700 gm. After immersion, the weight of water a) Same as before
and jar will be: b) More than earlier
a) 500 gm b) 700 gm c) Zero
c) 100 gm d) 800 gm d) Equal to weight of block in air
252. Small liquid drops assume spherical shape because of: 261. A man is boating in a pond. When he reaches the middle of the
a) force of adhesion pond, he decides to stop the boat and fish. So he throws an iron
b) the gravitational force anchor to the water in the pond. What happens to the level of the
c) the pressure from all side
water?
d) the liquid tends to have min. surface area due to surface tension
a) The level of water increases.
b) the level of water decreases. c) Decreased Increased
c) the level of water remains same. d) Increased Decreased
d) the anchor floats in the water. 269. An object, immersed in a liquid in a tank, experiences an
262. If detergent is added to water, it facilitates cleansing action by: upthrust. What is the physical reason for this upthrust?
a) cohesive force increment a) The density of the body differs from that of the liquid.
b) surface tension decrement b) The density of the liquid increases with depth.
c) increasing the temperature of water slightly c) The pressure in the liquid increases with depth.
d) adhesive force increment d) The value of g in the liquid increases with depth.
263. A block of wood floats in a liquid with four-fifth of its volume 270. Two insoluble objects seem to lose the same weight when
submerged. If the density of the wood is 800 kg/m3, find the completely submerged in a liquid. the objects must have the
density of the liquid. same.
a) 1000 b) 500 a) weight is air b) weight is liquid
c) 2000 d) 1500 c) volume d) density
264. A body floats in water on the earth with 90% inside the water. 271. An object weights 30 g in air and 25 g when totally immerged in
What fraction of the body will be inside the water on Jupiter? water. Density of the object is:
a) 90% b) 80% a) 4 g/cm3 b) 5 g/cm3
c) 70% d) 60% c) 6 g/cm 3
d) 8 g/cm3
265. A man was boating in a pond. When he realized that the water in 272. A stone of mass 1 kg falls from the top of a vertical cliff. After
his water bottle was dirty, he threw the water in the pond. What falling for 3sec it reaches the foot of cliff and penetrates 25 cm
happened to the level of the water in the pond? into the sand. Find the upward force exerted on the stone.
a) increased b) remained same a) 1600 N b) 1700 N
c) decreased d) none of the above c) 1800 N d) 1850 N
266. A circular well has depth 5m. water level is below 2m from the 273. Some gas is trapped in a cylinder which is sealed with an air
upper face of the wall. What is the pressure at its base? tight piston.
a) 2.94 × 104 pa b) 29.4 pa
Force F on piston
c) 4.9 × 104 pa d) 1.9 × 104 pa
267. A body fully immersed in a fluid experience on upward thrust
which depends on:
a) the density of the body Gas
b) the volume of the body pressur
c) the weight of the body eG
d) none
268. Hovercraft is a vehicle which moves over an air cushion. A
hovercraft was kept on a huge battleship. While the hovercraft
was taking off from the battleship, what happened to the level of Surface area S of piston
the immersed portion of the battleship? The gas pressure G exerts a force F on the piston of surface area
S. Which is the correct relationship between G, F and S?
When the hovercraft had When the hovercraft a) F × S = G b) G × S = F
risen just above the had left the ship c) S/F = G d) S/G = F
ship 274. The height of the column of mercury in a mercury barometer on
a) Decreased Increased a particular day is measured at 75 cm. What is the value of the
b) Remained same Decreased
atmospheric pressure? (Density of mercury = 13600kg/m3, g =  Electronic charge may be defined as that property of matter by
10N/kg) which electrons repell each others, the protons repell each other
a) 1810 Pa b) 10200 Pa and a force of attraction exists between the electrons and protons.
c) 102000 Pa d) 181000 Pa  The charge on electron is -1.6 × 10-19 C & that on proton is + 1.6 ×
275. A car is traveling at constant speed along a road and drives over 10-19 C.
a large patch of oil. The driver applies the brakes to stop the car.  Electric charge is conserved i.e the sum of +ve and –ve charges
Compared to braking on a dry road, what may happen? present on an isolated system remaining constant. It is wrong to say
a) The car slows down more quickly because of the greater that according to the law of conservation, the charge can neither be
friction between the tyres and the road. created nor destroyed. In fact, equal and opposite charges can be
b) The car speeds up at first because of the reduced friction created or destroyed simultaneously so that the sum of the charges
between the tyres and the road. is always unchanged.
c) The car takes longer to slow down because of the reduced  Two types of sources of electric current are:
friction between the tyres and the road. i) Chemical sources. Eg. Cell or battery.
d) The car takes longer to slow down because the thinking ii) Electromagnetic sources. Eg. Dnamo or generator.
distance of the driver is greater.  Electromotive force (emf) is the potential difference across the
276. A hot-air balloon moving upwards has a total weight of 200 N terminals of a cell, when no current is drawn from it (open circuit).
and volume of 20 m3. Assuming the air density as 1.2 kgm-3, the  The emf of different cells are:
net upward force on the balloon is: i) Voltaic cell = 1.08V
a) 24N b) 40N ii) Daniel cell = 1.08V
c) 176N d) 240N iii) Leclanche cell = 1.5V
277. A horseshoe can be made from a piece of metal by heating and iv) Dry cell = 1.5V
then hammering the metal. Which property of the metal changes  Unit of current is ampere A i.e C/s.
during the hammering action? v
a) Density b) Mass  Ohms law I = R
c) Shape d) Volume
1
278. The graph shows the movement of a car over a period of 50 s.  Inverse of resistance (R) is called conductance (G) i.e G = R .
A
 Measure is Siemens (s) or .
v
 The resisance of a conductor is equal to the slope tan of
V – Igraph.
 The conductors are called ohmic if V – I graph is a straightline &
non ohmic is v – I is a curcve.
ρl
What was the distance traveled by the car while its speed was  Resistance R = A .
increasing?
a) 10 m b) 20 m Variation of resistance on stretching a wire
c) 100 m d) 200 m Let us consider a wire of length l1, area of cross section A1, volume V,
6. ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM density d and mass M. it is stretched to length l2 and area of crossection
 Electric charge exists on electrons and protons. A2. However volume, density and mass remains unchanged. Let R2 be
resistance of wire after stretching. Then following relations exists.

R2 A12 l22 r14 a) Volt b) NmS-1A-1
R1 = A22 = l12 = r24 2 -3 -1
c) Kgm S A d) All
 If n resistors each of resistance R are connected in series, then their 280. The specific resistance of wire:
equivalent resistance Rs = nR. And when connected in parallel, a) varies with its length b) varies with cross section
R c) both a and b d) None of the above
their equivalent resistance Rp = n . 281. If the heater coil is divided into n-equal parts and only one part
 For series combination equivalent resistance is greater than the is connected to same source, what is relation between new heat
greatest of the individual resistance. For parallel combination and new power?
equivalent resistance is lesser than the least of the individual a) new heat < former heat and new power < former Power
resistance. b) new heat > former heat and new power > former power
 Ammeter is connected in series while voltmeter is connected in c) new heat < former heat and new power > former power
parallel. d) new heat > former heat and new power < former power
 When a current I is set up in a conductor across which a potential 282. Which of the statement about an alpha particle (fast-moving
difference v is applied, the energy dissipated in time t is given by w helium nucleus) is not true?
= VIt. a) It can be deflected by a magnetic field.
w v2 b) It can be deflected by an electric field.
Power (p) = t = IV = I2R = R c) It has two neutrons.
d) It travels at the speed of light in vacuum.
 1kwh = 3.6 × 106 J.
283. A wire of resistance 10 is stretched to double its length. What
 If electric devices of powers P1, P2, P3, --- are connected in series,
will be its new resistance?
1 1 1 1
then their equivalent power is given by = + + + --- 10
Ps P1 P2 P3 a) 4  b) 20
 When combined in parallel,
c) 40 d) 80
Pp = P1 + P2 + P3 + ---
284. Which of the following quantities can be written in SI units in kg
 Fuse wire is made of an alloy of lead and tin. m2A-2s-3.
 Transformer works in ac current only. a) Resistance b) Inductance
Np Vp 1
 For transformer, Is/Ip= = = c) Capacitance d) None of above
Ns Vs k 285. An ideal voltmeter has resistance:
Ns a) Infinite b) Zero
 N = k (transformer ratio or turn ratio)
p c) Very large d) Same as that of an ideal ammeter
 For step up transformer k>1 & for step down k<1. 286. Resistance of 1KW heater for 220 V supply is:
 For step up transformer Ns > Np; therefore Es > Ep. and for step a) 484  b) 48.4 
down transformer Ns < Np; therefore Es < Ep. c) 4.84  d) 0.484 
EsIs 287. When the length of wire is increased five times its resistance
 Efficiency of transformer  = V I .
p p becomes 50. What is its original resistance?
 Electrolysis cannot be done using ac current. a) 2 b) 24
c) 10 d) 5
288. Three identical resistances are connected in parallel if their

equivalent resistance is 18 then the individual resistance is:
Multiple Choice Questions: a) 36 b) 54
279. The unit of potential difference is:
c) 6 d) 2 299. If a heater of 1000 w is connected to 220v line, which type of fuse
289. Demagnetization of magnets is affected by: should be used?
a) rough handling a) 6A b) 2A
b) heating c) 5A d) 9A
c) magnetizing in the opposite direction 300. Ammeter is connected in ----- with the resistance.
d) all of above a) series
290. A bulb is marked 110W-220V. The resistance of the filament is: b) parallel
c) sometimes in series and sometimes in parallel
a) 110 ohm b) 220 ohm
d) all of the above
c) 440 ohm d) 2 ohm
301. Graphite's are ------ of electricity.
291. Which of the following is best conductor of electricity:
a) good conductor b) conductor
a) zinc b) copper c) poor conductor d) insulator
c) gold d) silver 302. When the cells are connected in series:
292. The specific resistance of a wire: a) P.d increases b) P.d decreases
a) varies with its mass c) current increases d) (a) and (b) both
b) varies with its length 303. A 4v lead acid cell is connected to a resister of resistance 40Ω, what
c) varies with its cross section current flows in the circuit?
d) does not depend on its length, cross section and mass a) 10 Amp b) 1 Amp
293. If two parallel conductor wire carry current in the same direction c) 0.1 Amp d) 160 Amp
then they: 304. The two resister of 6 Ω and 10 Ω are connected in series are
a) attract one another supplied with P.d of 10 volt, find the total resistance.
b) repel one another a) 60 Ω b) 10 Ω
c) get rotated to be perpendicular to each other c) 16 Ω d) 8 Ω
d) do not exert any force on each other 305. When is electrical device is supplied with P.d of 250 volts, 0.4. A
294. Ampere hour is a unit of: electric current is flows through the device, what is its power?
a) quantity of electricity b) strength of current a) 625 watt b) 100 watt
c) power d) energy c) 200 watt d) 0.016 watt
295. A cell of emf 2V drives a current through a resistor of resistance 306. During electroplating the metal to be coated should be made:
40 ohm. What is the current? a) anode b) cathode
c) electron d) battery
a) 80 A b) 20 A
c) 0.05 A d) 0.5 A 307. A metallic wire of resistance 40 is stretched twice its length. Its
new resistance would be:
296. Voltmeter is connected in ----- with the resistance
a) 20 b) 80
a) series
b) parallel c) 160 d) 320
308. Which gas is used in electric bulb?
c) sometimes in series and sometimes in parallel
a) Oxygen b) Argon
d) all of the above
c) Chlorine d) Bromine
297. The electric current is due to the flow of: 309. Fleming's left Hand Rule gives the direction of
a) positive charge only b) negative charge only a) Current b) Field
c) both a and b d) natural particles only c) Force d) Thumb
298. Electric current is a: 310. Which uses the concept of Electromagnetic induction?
a) positive charges only b) negative charges only a) Charging of a storage cell.
c) both a and b d) neutral particles only
b) Magnetizing an iron piece with a bar magnet.
c) Generation of hydroelectricity. c) 6 d) 8
d) None 320. There are 4000 turns in the secondary and the current is 5A, then the
311. During electrolysis, the spoon which is to be coated gold should current through 400 turns in the primary is:
be made: a) 50A b) 0.5A
a) Anode b) Cathode c) 5A d) 40A
c) Electrolyte d) All three 321. A tape-recorder is rated at 12W, 2A. How many 1.5V batteries are
312. What kind of magnet is used in loudspeaker? needed in the tape-recorder?
a) Temporary b) Permanent a) 2 b) 6
c) Electromagnet d) None c) 4 d) 8
322. There are 2000 turns in secondary and 500 in the primary coils. If
313. What is the angle of dip at the equator?
240v is across primary, what is the voltage across secondary?
a) 90° b) 0°
a) 60V b) 500V
c) 45° d) 180° c) 960V d) 2000V
314. Four resistors of each 2Ω are connected in the form of a square. 323. A battery drives 50c of charge round a circuit. The work done is
The effective resistance across the opposite ends are 750J. What is the electromotive force of the battery?
(diagonally): a) 0.07V b) 700V
a) 2Ω b) 2Ω c) 15V d) 800V
c) 4Ω d) 6Ω 324. The heater element in an electric iron is made of:
315. A man has ten 1/10 ohm resistor. What is the max. resistance he a) nichrome b) iron
can make with them? c) constantan d) tungsten
a) 10Ω b) 5Ω 325. Which of the following proves that a piece of metal is already a magnet?
c) 1Ω d) 2Ω a) A magnet is attracted to it
316. What is the correct order of steps when replacing a fuse safely? b) Both ends of compass needle are attracted to it.
a) Find switch repair fault, suited off, replace fuse, switch on. c) Copper wire is attracted to it.
b) Replace free, switch off, find repair fault, switch on. d) One end of a compasses needle is repelled by it.
c) Switch off, find and repair fault, replace fuse, switch on. 326. The resistance of two wires X and Y are in the ratio 2:1, their
d) Switch off, replaces fuse, switch on, finds repair fault. lengths, in the ratio 1:2 and their diameters are also in the ratio 1:2.
317. Which is correct for Domestic lighting circuits? The ratio of the resistivities of X and Y are then.
Circuits Fuse Switch a) 1:2 b) 1:1
a) parallel live c) 2:1 d) 1:4
b) parallel neutral neutral 327. In case of liquids Ohm’s law is:
a) Fully obeyed
c) series live
b) Partially obeyed
d) series neutral neutral
c) No relation between current and pd.
318. Which statement about magnetism is correct? d) None of these.
a) A magnet attracts, small pieces of Aluminium. 328. Electric power is transmitted over long distance through conduction
b) There is no limit to the magnetic strength of a magnet made wire at high voltage because:
from a steel bar. a) It reduces the possibility of theft of wire.
c) Two poles of a magnet attract one another. b) Less power loss.
d) Steel makes a better permanent magnet than iron does. c) Generators produce energy at high voltages.
d) High voltage travels faster.
319. A tape recorder is rated 12W, 2A. How many 1.5V batteries are 329. Two parallel conductors carrying current in opposite direction:
needed in the recorder? a) Repel each other b) Attract each other
a) 2 b) 4 c) Cancel each other d) No effect
330. Which of the following shows that the earth behaves as magnet?
a) Repulsion between like poles
b) Attraction between unlike poles a) 3R b) 2R
c) Null points in the magnetic field of a bar magnet c) R d) 0
d) No existence of isolated magnetic poles. 336. In the graph of V vs I, for conductor A, slope = tanx, and for
331. If the length of the conductor is increased 4 times the original conductor B, slope = tany. If y>x, which of the following is
length of the conductor and if original resistance be R, the final correct?
resistance will be: a) resistance of A > resistance of B
a) 4R b) 8R b) resistance of A < resistance of B
R c) resistance of A = resistance of B
c) 16R d) 4 d) None
Ns 337. Calculate the output in a transformer if input voltage is 220v,
332. The k factor of a transformer is where Ns is no. of secondary ratio of the number of turns in secondary to the primary coil is
Np
coil and NP is no. of primary coil. For a step up and step down 0.25.
transformer, respectively, what will be value of k? a) 55V b) 60V
a) k<1, k>1 b) k>1, K = 1 c) 45V d) 50V
c) k>1, k>1 d) k>1, k<1 338. A conductor of resistance R is bent into a circle. The resistance
333. The path of alternating current is given by Sine function I = I0 across any of its diameter will be:
sinA, the correct graph is: a) R b) R/2
a) b) c) R/4 d) 2 R
339. Which of the following has greatest resistance?
a) 100 watt bulb b) 60 watt bulb
c) 20 watt bulb d) 10 watt bulb
340. Two bulbs of 25W, 100W have ratio of resistances:
c) d) a) 1:4 b) 4:1
c) 16:1 d) 1:16
341. Electrolysis is possible only in:
a) AC b) DC
c) both d) none
342. A wire of resistance 20 is stretched such that its radius become
334. When the resistances are joined in series the net resistance is half, what will be new resistance?
greater than the greatest resistance when resistances are joined in a) 40 b) 80
parallel: c) 16 d) 320
a) Net resistance > greatest resistance 343. If the resistance of a circuit having 20V source is increased by
b) Net resistance = any resistance 5ohm, the current in the circuit drops to 0.4 ampere. Calculate
c) Net resistance > least resistance the original resistance of the circuit.
d) Net resistance < least resistance a) 45ohm b)50ohm
c) 55ohm d) 60ohm
335. In the figure net resistance = ? 344. What is the resultant of the resistance across point X and Y if all
individual resistances equal?
R
R R
R
INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-49 R INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-50
351. Which statement about a transformer is true?
a) it will only work if a.c. is used.
b) it will work with either a.c. or d.c
c) it is always used to increase voltage.
d) it should give out more energy than it receives.
352. Look at the diagram below very carefully.
V3
a) 2R/3 b) 3R/2 V1
R3
c) R d) None
345. Which of following is true?
a) angle of dip is zero at magnetic pole R1 R2
b) horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field at magnetic
pole is zero V2
R4
c) vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is zero at
magnetic pole
d) at magnetic equator, vertical component of earth’s magnetic
field is zero V4
346. You are given three equal resistors. How many groups of resistances What is the p.d. supplied by the battery?
can be obtained by joining them in series and parallel grouping? a) V1+V2 b) V1+V2+V3
a) 2 b) 3 c) V1+V2+V3+V4 d) V1+V2+1/V3+1/V4
c) 4 d) 6 353. Which of the following doubles the resistance of a wire?
347. Which of the following is Ohm’s law?
VA I Cross sectional area Length
a) l = b) l = VA
I a) Double Double
IA I b) Double No change
c)  = Vl d) V = R
c) Halve Halve
348. The resistance of a wire is doubled if: d) Halve No change
a) its radius & length both are doubled. 354. Let a wire have a resistance of “R”. If this wire is stretched to
b) its radius is, doubled & length doubled. double its length, then the new resistance will be:
c) radius halved & length doubled. a) R b) 2R
d) radius & length both halved. R
349. Distance between two poles of a magnet is known as the: c) 2 d) 4R
a) geometrical length of a magnet 355. In one coulomb charge there are:
b) magnetic length of a magnet a) 6 × 1012 electrons b) 6 × 1018 electrons
c) field of magnet 11
c) 6 × 10 electrons d) (a) and (b) both
d) none of the above 356. Identical cells are used in both of the circuits shown. The current
350. The ultimate source of magnetic energy is: is the same in each circuit.
a) Neutrons b) molecular magnet
c) rotating electrons d) atomic magnet
d) 20 W, 5A
360. On which factor does the resistance do not depend?
a) current flowing through the resistance
b) temperature
c) length
d) cross sectional area
361. Which two resistor combinations have the same resistance
What is the resistance of the resistor R? between X and Y?
a) 1 Ω b) 1.5Ω
c) 5Ω d) 6Ω
357. What is the resultant resistance of the following circuit across X
and Y?
a) P and Q b) P and S
c) Q and R d) R and S
R R R
X
Y 362. End X of a metal rod attracts the N pole of a compass needle.
What does this show about the rod?
a) it could be made of copper but unmagnetised
b) it could be made of copper with a south pole at X
a) R b) R/3 c) it could be made of steel but unmagnetised
c) 3R d) 3R/2 d) it could be made of steel with N pole at X
363. In order to turn off both lamps, which is the safest switch
358. The diagram shows two resistors connected in series with a cell. position?
Which statement defines the potential difference across XY?

a) the power needed to drive a unit charge through the cell
b) the power needed to drive a unit charge between X and Y
c) the work done in driving a unit charge through the cell
d) the work done in driving a unit charge between X and Y 364. The diagram shows a beam of electrons entering a magnetic
359. Which of the following ratings give the highest value of field.
resistance?
a) 100 W, 220 V
b) 10W, 220 V
c) 10 Ω/m (resistivity), 5m length and 0.001m diameter
372. Which one of the following electromagnetic radiations has the
smallest wavelength?
What is the effect of the magnetic field on the electrons? a) ultra-violet waves b) Microwaves
a) They are deflected into the plane of the diagram. c) X-rays d) -Rays
b) They are deflected out of the plane of the diagram. 373. Iron is preferred to steel for the use as a core of an electromagnet
c) They are deflected towards the bottom of the diagram. because:
d) They are deflected towards the top of the diagram. a) Iron retains magnetism better once it is magnetized.
365. A step-down transformer changes 240 V a.c. to 12 V a.c. There b) Steel retains magnetism better once it is magnetized.
are 600 turns on the primary coil. How many turns are on the c) Iron gains and loses magnetism easily.
secondary coil? d) Iron is a better electrical conductor.
a) 20 b) 30 374. Which one of the following rules is applicable to find the
c) 600 d) 12000 direction of induced current in a straight conductor moving in a
366. Why are high voltages and low currents used to transmit magnetic field?
electrical energy over long distances? a) Fleming’s left hand rule b) Fleming’s right hand rule
a) to increase the electromagnetic radiation c) Right hand thumb rule d) Maxwell’s cork screw rule
b) to increase the speed at which electrons move 375. The instrument which measures the potential difference across
c) to reduce heat loss from the power line by two points in a circuit is called:
d) to reduce the resistance of the power line a) ammeter b) voltameter
367 An electrical heater supplies 320 J in 1 minute to a 4.00  c) galvanometer d) none of above
resister. The steady current flowing is then: 376. Why is a positively charged object made neutral (discharged) by
a) 1.2 A b) 0.67 A someone touching it?
c) 0.34A d) 0.16A a) Electrons flow on to the objects
368. Tungsten obeys Ohm's law because: b) Electrons flow from the object
a) The resistance becomes hot when the current flows c) Protons flow on to the object
b) The resistance is proportional to the temperature d) Protons flow form the object
c) The current is proportional to p. d. at constant temperature
d) The current is proportional to the number of charge carriers
369. Terminal potential difference is measured by:
a) Ammeter b) Galvanometer
c) Voltameter d) None
370. A piece of copper wire is stretched so that its diameter reduces to
half of its original value. If the original resistance was 1, what
is its new resistance?
1 1
a)  b) 
16 4
c) 4 d) 16
371. Which one of the following bulbs offers the least resistance
when connected across a 220V a.c. supply?
a) A bulb of power rating 25W
b) A bulb of power rating 40W
c) A bulb of power rating 60 W
d) A bulb of power rating 100W
7. HEAT AND TEMPERATURE Multiple Choice Questions:
 Different types of temperature scales: 378. Specific heat is defined as the heat required to raise the temperature
Scale Symbol LFP UFP Divisions of 1kg substance through 1 Kelvin. The unit of specific heat in SI is:
Reaumur o
R 0oC 80oC 80 a) Jkg k b) Jkg-1
-1
c) Jkg k -1 d) J-1 kg k
o
Celsius C 0oC 100oC 100
o 379. What is the unit of the specific heat capacity?
Fahrenheit F 32oF 212oF 180 c) J b) J/g
Rankine Ra 460 Ra 672 Ra 212 c) J/oCd) J/(KgoC)
Kelvin K 273 k 373 k 100 380. The volume of water is least at:
a) 0oC b) 4oC
 Relation between temperatures on different scales: c) 1oC d) 100oC
R-O C-O F - 32 Ra - 460 k - 273 381. An iron cube floats in a vessel containing mercury at 20ºC. If the
= = = = temp is increased by 100ºC, the cube will float:
80 - 0 100 - 0 212 - 32 672 - 460 100
Or, a) lower
R C k - 32 Ra - 460 k - 273 b) higher
80 = 100 = 180 = 212 = 100 c) at same level
d) lower or higher depending on mass of cube.
 The zero of kelvin scale is called obsolute zero or -273.16oC.
382. A large ice-berg melts at the base but not at the top because:
 Different temperature scales have same reading as: a) The base remains in warmer surrounding.
1. Celsium and Fahrenheit at -40oC = -40oF. b) Ice at base contains impurities.
2. Fahrenheit and Kelvin at 574.25oF = 574.25 k. c) Due to high pressure at base which lowers melting point.
3. Fahrenheit and Reaumur at -25.6oF = -25.6oR. d) Ice at top is of different kind.
4. Reaumur and Celsius at 0oR = 0oC. 383. A thin string can be passed through the block of ice without
5. At no temperature the Celsius scales can have the same reading breaking the ice cube block into two pieces. It can be possible by
as the Kelvin scale. principle of:
Isothermal process: Temperature of system remains constant. a) Ebullition b) Regelation
Adiabatic process: Heat content of system remains constant. c) Fusion d) Latent heat
Isobaric process: Pressure of system remains constant. 384. A piece of ice is floating in a jar containing water. When the ice
Isochoric process: Volume of system remains constant. melts, then the level of water:
 Heat transmission occurs by conduction, convection and radiation. a) rises
 Specific heat of hydrogen is largest among liquids & gases. b) falls
 Specific heat of water is the largest among solids & liquids. c) remains unchanged
d) rises of falls depending on the mass of the ice
 Evaporation causes cooling and it can occur at any temperatures.
385. A bottle of water at 0oC is opened on the surface of moon which of
 The boiling point of liquids increases with increase in pressure the following correctly expresses the behaviour of water in it?
while melting point of water decreases with increase in pressure. a) It will freeze b) It will decompose into H2 & O2
 When heat is absorbed by a body but its temperature doesnot c) It will boil d) None of the above
change, only the intermolecular potential energy of the system 386. A calorimeter is made up of copper because it:
changes. This is the case with melting and boiling. a) is cheap
 The study of low temperature is called cryogenics. b) looks good
 Hygrometer is the device to measure the amount of water vapour in c) is good conductor of heat
the air or relative humidity. d) does not get rusted

387. A piece of ice at 0oC is dropped in water at 0oC. The ice will: 397. A closed bottle containing water at 30 oC is carried to the moon
a) Melt b) Not melt in a spacecraft. If it is placed on the surface of the moon what
c) Partially melt d) Can't be predicted will happen to the water as soon as the lid is opened?
388. Two thermometers are spherical and other cylindrical; which one a) water will boil
will respond more quickly to temperature changes? b) water will freeze
a) Cylindrical b) Spherical c) nothing will happen to it
c) Both d) None d) it will decompose into H2 and O2
389. At what temperature reading on Fahrenheit scale is three times as 398. Mercury is used in liquid thermometers because it has:
that on Celsius scale: a) high specific heat and high conductivity
a) 60oC b) 80oC b) high specific heat and low conductivity
o
c) 80 F d) (80/3)oF c) low specific heat and low conductivity
390. The internal energy of a gas molecule of an ideal gas depends on: d) low specific heat and high conductivity
a) pressure alone b) volume alone 399. What is the boiling point of mercury?
c) temperature alone d) none a) –39oC b) 100oC
o
391. Which is used in measurement of high temperature? c) 212 C d) 357oC
a) mercury thermometer 400. How much heat is necessary to raise the temperature of copper
b) platinum resistance thermometer with mass 2kg from 30oC to 40oC? (Sp. Heat of copper is
c) thermo electric pyrometers 380J/kg 0C)
d) none a) 380J b) 760J
392. The thermal capacity of 40gm of aluminum of specific heat 0.2 c) 7600J d) all of the above
cal/gm0C is: 401. At what temperature does the Celsius and Fahrenheit scale
a) 0.4 cal/oC b) 160 cal/oC coincide?
o
c) 8 cal/ C d) 4000 cal/oC a) -40oC b) 4oC
o
393. Mercury thermometer can be used to measure temperature up to: c) -4 C d) 40oC
a) 360 oC b) 500 oC 402. What is the boiling point of alcohol?
o
c) 212 C d) 100 oC a) -39oC b) 0oC
o
394. If a bimetallic strip is heated it will c) -115 C d) 78oC
a) twist itself into a helix 403. What is the freezing point of alcohol?
b) not bend at all a) -39oC b) 0oC
o
c) bend towards the metal with higher thermal coefficient of c) -115 C d) 78oC
expansion 404. The fastest mode of heat transfer is:
d) bend towards the metal with lower thermal coefficient of a) conduction b) convention
expansion c) radiation d) all of the above
395. When 20 gm of water is heated from 10 oC to 15 oC , the 405. The water is heated by the process of:
required energy in joule is: a) conduction b) convection
a) 420 b) 22 c) radiation d) all of the above
c) 44 d) 1000 406. A thermometric liquid which can be used to measure temperature
396. At absolute zero temperature: between -40oC to +40oC is:
a) the molecular energy is minimum and not zero a) water b) alcohol
b) all the molecules come to rest and have zero energy c) mercury d) phenol
c) P. E. is zero
d) Molecules travel faster
407. The temperature of a substance increases by 27oC on Kelvin a) Density b) Mass
scale this increases is equal to: c) Molecular spacing d) pressure
a) 300k b) 240k 418. Neither heat enters nor leaves the system. There is change in
c) 27k d) 7k volume, pressure and temperature in a perfectly non-conducting
408. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 1kg of the wall and the process is performed suddenly such a process is:
water through 1oC is: a) Isothermal b) Adiabatic
a) 4200J b) 1000J c) Internal energy d) None
c) 4.2J d) 1J 419. A solar heater uses energy from the sun to heat water. The panels
409. A glass jug is to be made which will not break when boiling of the heater are painted black. Why is this?
water is poured into it: a) to improve absorption of radiation.
a) Using thick glass. b) to improve emission of radiation.
b) Using thin glass. c) to improve the conducting property of the panel.
c) Using glass which expands very much. d) to make the panels less noticeable.
d) Using glass which expands very little. 420. How can the sensitivity of a liquid glass thermometer be
410. A iron rod is heated by the process of: increased?
a) conduction b) convention a) use a liquid with better conductor of heat.
c) radiation d) none of the above b) use a thinner-walled bulb.
411. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 10kg of c) use a longer tube.
water at 30oC to 60oC? d) use a tube with narrower bore.
a) 42000kJ b) 1260kJ 421. The law which gives the relation between the volume and the
c) 126000kJ d) all of the above temperature keeping the pressure constant of a gas is:
412. How from the sun is heat is received? V1 T 2
a) Sublimation b) Radiation a) P1V1 = P2V2 b) =
T 1 V2
c) Conduction d) Convection P1V1 P2V1 V1 V2
413. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature by 1°c c) T = T d) T = T
1 2 1 2
for 1 gm of water is: 422. The point in the phase diagram which represents, the values of
a) 4.2 cals b) 2.4 cals temperature and pressure at which the solid, liquid and vapour
c) 1 cals d) 2 cals state of a substance can co-exist is called:
414. Fastest mode of heat transfer is: a) Dew point b) Triple point
a) Conduction b) Convection c) Melting point d) Action point
c) Radiation d) None 423. Which is the following nuclear reactions, releases, thermal
415. 12000J of heat energy raises the temperature of a 2kg block of a energy in the sun and in nuclear power stations?
metal from 20°C to 30°C. What is the specific heat capacity of
The sun Nuclear power station
the metal?
a) fission fission
a) 200 J/kg°C b) 300 J/kg°C b) fission fusion
c) 400 J/kg°C d) 600 J/kg°C c) fusion fission
416. Which property of a block of metal remains constant when the d) fusion fusion
metal is heated?
424. Which is the poorest conductor of heat energy?
a) Density b) Length a) air b) brass
c) Mass d) Volume c) wool d) vacuum
417. Some gas trapped in a cylinder is compressed at constant
temperature by a piston. Which of the following will not change?
425. Which instrument, can give a reading of 24°C? 434. If 200ml of tea at 90oC is mixed with 10ml of milk at 15oC, what
a) Ammeter b) Thermometer will be the final temperature of the mixture?
c) Barometer d) Voltameter Assume that the specific heat capacity of milk equals that of tea.(
426. The volume of a given mass of gas is doubled without changing mass of 1ml milk = mass of 1ml tea = 1g)
its temperature. As a result, the density of the gas: a) 80oC b) 86.4oC
o
a) is halved b) remains unchanged c) 90 C d) 100oC
c) is doubled d) is quadrupled 435. If the Bi-metallic strip will be heated, the metal with larger linear
427. Which property of a block of metal remains constant when the expansivity:
metal is heated? a) becomes convex side b) becomes the concave side
a) Density b) Mass c) it cannot be predicted d) remains straight
c) Volume d) Surface area 436. The Fahrenheit thermometer and Raumer thermometer shows the
428. When water is heated steadily, it's temperature will stop rising equal reading at:
when the water starts to: a) 25 b) 25.6
a) boil b) condense c) 24.6 d) 24.7
c) freeze d) melt 437. At what temperature the Kelvin scale will be double of that on
429. How can the sensitivity of a liquid in glass thermometer be increased? Fahrenheit scale?
a) use liquid with better conductor of heat. a) 176.69o F b) 189.72o F
o
b) use a thinner -walled bulls. c) 215.2 F d) 312.5o F
c) use a liquid of higher boiling point. 438. If graph is plotted between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales, what
d) use a tube with a narrower bore. will be slope of the graph?
430. The unit of specific heat capacity is J/KgC. which system of a) 1/5 b) 5/3
unit of temperature can be used in place of C, so that it does not c) 9/5 d) 5/9
affect the unit? 439. Good absorber are:
a) F b) K a) good reflector b) reflector
c) R d) Ra c) good emitter d) bad emitter
431. Which of the following is correct order as per heat content for 440. Cubical expansivity of a metal is 6x10-5K-1, its superficial
same mass of water being boiled? expansivity is:
a) Water boiled at Gosainkunda > water boiled at sea level > a) 6 ×10-5K-1 b) 4 ×10-5K-1
-5 -1
water boiled at pressure cooker. c) 3 ×10 K d) 2 ×10-5K-1
b) Water boiled at pressure cooker > water boiled at 441. Metal which shows anomalous behavior as water is:
Gosainkunda > water boiled at sea level. a) Invar b) Steel
c) Water boiled at Gosainkunda < water boiled at pressure c) anitimony d) copper
cooker < water boiled at sea level. 442. A substance having more specific heat:
d) Water boiled at pressure cooker > water at sea level > water a) gets heated slowly and store long time
boiled at Gosainkunda. b) gets heated quickly and store long time
432. The Fahrenheit thermometer and Kelvin scale thermometer c) gets heated slowly and store short time
would show equal reading at: d) gets heated quickly and store short time
a) 574.25 b) 500 443. What are the essential requirements for the heater filament?
c) 25.6 d) 635.3 a) high resistivity, low melting point
433. Which of the following detects the heat radiation? b) low resistivity, low melting point
a) Mercury thermometer b) Thermopile c) high resitivity, high melting point
c) Bolometer d) All d) low resistivity, high melting point
444. There is a hole in a metal sheet, on heating the diameter of the hole 453. Boiling water is changing into steam. Under this condition the
will specific heat capacity of water is
a) increase b) decrease a) zero b) 1J/ kgoC
c) no change d) disappear c) 4200 J/kg Co
d) Infinity
445. Which of the following has highest specific heat? 454. If the temperature scale is changed from 0C to K, the numerical
a) aluminium b) copper value of specifioc heat capacity of any object will:
c) water d) silver a) increase. b) decrease.
446. Which of the following at 1000C produces most severe burn? c) remains unchanged. d) increase by 273.
a) Hot air b) water
455. The unit of  in the equation E =  T4 , where E is energy
c) Steam d) Oil
447. What is heat?
radiated per Unit area per unit time and T is temperature, is:
a) kinetic energy of molecules a) Wm-2 K-4 b) Calorie m-2 K-4
-2 -2
b) potential and kinetic energy of vibrating molecules c) m K d) Jm-2 K-4
c) energy translation 456. Temperature of a substance increases by 500C. What will be
d) work done on the system increase in temperature on Kelvin scale?
448. A beaker is completely filled with water at 40C . It will overflow: a) 323 K b) 223 K
a) when heated but not cooled c) 50 K d) 35K
b) when cooled but not when heated 457. Unit of specific heat capacity of material is:
c) both when heated and cooled a) JkgoC b) J/kgoC
o
d) neither heating nor cooling c) Jkg/ C d) JoC /kg
449. Heat capacity of a substance is infinite, It means: 458. At what temperature the Kelvin Scale will be double of that of
a) heat is give out Fahrenheit Scale?
b) heat is taken in a) 176.69oF b) 189.72oF
c) no change in temperature whether heat is taken in or given out c) 215.2 Fo
d) 312.5oF
d) all of these 459. A cold coke bottle is left open on the pan of a balance and its
450. There is water at 4oC on a glass till the top. On heating or cooling weight observed from time to time. The weight:
the water level will: a) increases
a) decrease and increase b) increase b) decreases
c) decrease d) increase and decrease c) increases, reaches a maximum and then starts decreasing
451. P and Q are two blocks of different metals. They have the same
d) remains stationary
volume but P has twice the mass of Q. When given identical
quantities of energy, their temperatures rise by the same amount.
460.
Which one of the following statement is true?
a) The density of P is half that of Q X
Y
b) The density of P is the same as that of Q
c) The specific heat capacity of P is half that of Q
d) The specific heat capacity of P is the same as that of Q
452. A substance consists of particles that are close together and moving Equal quantities of heat are supplied to two well- insulated
past each other at random. The average speed of the particles is blocks, X and Y of different metals. The masses of X an Y are in
gradually increasing. What best describes the substance? the ratio 1:2. The specific heat capacities of X and Y are in the
a) a liquid being boiled to form a gas ratio 1:2. The ratio of temperature rise experienced by X and Y
b) a liquid being heated will then be:
c) a solid being heated a) 1:4 b) 1:2
d) a solid being melted to form a liquid c) 1:1 d) 4:1
8. SOUND AND WAVES 3) Ultrasonics frequency: greater than 20000Hz. They are not avdible
 The wave is a disturbance, that transmits energy from one place to to human ear.
another without the journey of particles between two places.  It is found that the sensation of sound once received by our ear
 The wave suggests broad distribution of energy filling the space 1
persists for about 10 th of a second called persistence of hearing.
through which the wave passes and transmits energy.
 For echo to be heard abstacle should be at a distance about 17m.
Classification based on need for material medium  If C be velocity of sound in air then,
a) Mechanical waves or elastic waves. 1
In this class of waves the particles of the medium oscillate about C
Density
their mean positions and transmit energy to their next neighbour.
C  Temperature
 Velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure because due to
pressure change, the density of gas also changes keeping
b) Electromagnetic waves:
For this class of waves no material medium is required. The energy Pressure
is transmitted as the electric and magnetic field oscillations. Eg. Density factor constant.
Light waves, r-rays, x-rays, radiowaves.  Csolid > Cliquid > Cgases
 Musical sound has characteristics of pitch, loudness & quality.
Classification based on velocity of oscillation & propagation  Threshold of hearing is taken as 10-12 w/m2 for a pure note of
a) Longitudinal waves: frequency of 1 KHz.

In these waves the velocity of oscillation ( v ) is either parallel or
 Multiple Choice Questions:
untiparallel to the velocity of propagation ( c )
461. The unit of loudness is:
   
i.e v  c or v  c a) Bel b) Decibel
b) Transverse wave: c) Phone d) All of the above
 462. Velocity of sound in vacuum is:
In these waves the velocity of oscillation ( v ) is perpendicular to a) 340 m/s b) 3 × 108 m/s
   c)  d) 0
the velocity of propagation ( c ) of the wave i.e v  c .
463. Choose the correct statement:
a) Sound can travel through vacuum
Classification based on net transmission of energy
b) Sound wave produced in air are transverse in nature
a) Progressive wave: In these wave there is a net transmission of
c) Sound travels faster in metals than in air
energy between two points in space.
d) The speed of sound is independent of temperature
b) Stationary wave: In these wave these is no net transmission of
464. Which one of the following characteristic of the sound is affected
energy between points in space.
by the change in temperature?
a) Wavelength b) Intensity
Sound waves are the mechanical longitudinal waves in air that travel
c) Amplitude d) Frequency
with a speed of 332 m/s at NTP. The sound waves can be further
465. The distance between a crest and next trough in a periodic wave
divided as:
is:
1) Infrasonics: Frequency less than 20Hz. They cannot be heared by
human ear. a) 2 b) 
2) Avdible sound: 20Hz to 20000Hz. c) /2 d) /4

466. Sound energy is converted into electrical energy in a: 476. The factor that helps to recognize a person by his voice is:
a) loud speaker b) microphone a) loudness b) pitch
c) sonometer d) earphone c) intensity d) quality
467. The velocity of electromagnetic wave is: 477. Decibel is the unit of:
a) 2 ×108m/s b) 3 ×1011cm/s a) light intensity b) sound intensity
c) 332m/s d) 3 ×108m/s c) heat intensity d) none of above
468. The velocity of sound is largest in: 478. What causes reverberation?
a) air b) water a) reflection b) refraction
c) steel rod d) kerosene oil c) interference d) absorption
469. The walls of the music concert halls: 479. In an empty hall, we hear sounds louder than in a hall packed
a) amplify sound b) refract sound with people. It is because of:
c) produce reverberation d) absorb sound a) less absorption of sound b) doppler effect
470. Sound when a tuning fork vibrates the waves produced in the c) refraction of sound d) change in speed of sound
fork are: 480. Decibel is:
a) longitudinal b) transverse a) wavelength of noise b) a musical instrument
c) progressive d) stationary c) a measure of sound level d) none
471. Which one of the following characteristics of the sound is 481. The frequency of radio wave corresponding to a wavelength of
affected by the change in temperature? 10 m is:
a) wavelength b) amplitude a) 3.4 ×10-7 Hz b) 3 ×109 Hz
7
c) intensity d) frequency c) 3 ×10 Hz d) 3.3 ×10-8 Hz
472. When water waves passes from deep water into shallow water. 482. Sound waves above the frequency of 20,000 Hz are called:
How do the frequency, wavelength and speed charge? a) infrasonic b) ultrasonic
c) hypersonic d) supersonic
frequency wavelength speed 483. Sound waves below the frequency of 20 Hz are called:
a) increases decreases no change a) infrasonic b) ultrasonic
b) increases no change increase c) hypersonic d) supersonic
c) no change decreases decreases 484. Speed which is greater than the speed of sound is called:
d) no change no change decreases a) infrasonic b) ultrasonic
473. A man is standing between the two cliffs. On clapping his hands c) hypersonic d) supersonic
a series of echoes are heard at the intervals of 1.5 sec. If the 485. The audible frequency range for a normal human ear is:
speed of sound is 350 m/s the distance between two cliffs is: a) 20 – 20,000 Hz b) 15 – 50,000 Hz
a) 175 m b) 350 m c) 1000 – 120,000 Hz d) none
c) 525 m d) 700 m 486. Light waves are:
474. The distinction between the voice of a man and that of woman is a) longitudinal
possible because of difference between: b) transverse
a) loudness of two sounds b) intensity of two sounds c) partly longitudinal and partly transverse
c) pitch of two sounds d) quality of two sounds d) sometimes transverse and sometimes longitudinal
475. The speed of sound in air is 350 m/s. The frequency of the tuning 487. The velocity of radio wave is:
fork that produces sound wave of wavelength 7x10-3 m in air is: a) same as that of sound
a) 4000 Hz b) 4200 Hz b) same as that of electric wave
c) 4500 Hz d) 50000 Hz c) same as that of light
d) more than light
488. In which medium sound has highest velocity? 497. What would a drummer do to make the sound of a drum give a
a) solid b) liquid note of lower pitch?
c) gas d) vacuum a) hit the drum with larger force
489. Energy is not transferred by: b) hit the drum with smaller force
a) Transverse Progressive wave c) loosen the drum skin
b) longitudinal progressive wave d) tighten the drum skin
c) Stationary wave 498. A man stand in a narrow steep sided valley. When he fires bullet
d) Electromagnetic wave he hears 2 echoes, one after 1 sec and other after 2 sec. If
490. The frequencies of: velocity of sound is 330 m/s, find the width of the valley?
a) male sound is low while that of girls is high a) 330m b) 495m
b) male sound is high while that of girls is low c) 660m d) 990m
c) both male and female are low 499. When a spring is compressed and released, the wave formed is:
d) both male and female are equal. a) Longitudinal b) Transverse
491. A wave source of frequency 1000 HZ emits waves of wavelength c) None d) Transverse + Longitudinal
0.1m, How long does it take for the waves travel 2500m? 500. A man stands between two sound reflecting board when he claps
a) 45s b) 40s he hears 2 echoes, one after 1 sec and other after 3 sec. If
c) 25s d) 100s velocity of sound is 330 m/s, what is the distance of boards?
492. The loudness of sound depends upon: a) 640 m b) 650 m
a) wavelength b) frequency c) 660 m d) 670 m
c) amplitude d) overtones 501. Loudness of sound in normal conversation is:
493. The distance between a crest and the next trough in a periodic a) 50 dB b)60 dB
wave is: c) 70 dB d) 80 dB
a) λ b) λ/2 502. Colour of light is characteristic of:
λ a) amplitude b) frequency
c) 4 d) 2 λ c) wavelength d) speed
494. Which correctly describes the nature of sound, light and radio 503. Velocity of sound in vacuum is:
waves? a) 340m/s b) 3  108m/s
Sound Light Radio c)  d) 0
a) longitudinal transverse longitudinal 504. When source of sound moves towards a stationary observer, the
b) longitudinal transverse transverse apparent pitch of sound is:
c) transverse longitudinal longitudinal a) lowered b) increased
d) transverse longitudinal transverse c) unchanged d) none
495. A student stands 330m from a tall cliff which is 990m from 505. A source produces 20 crests and 20 troughs in 4 seconds. The
another tall cliff. If the speed of sound between the cliffs is crest is 3cm away from the first. The speed of wave is:
330m/s, what is the interval between the first and second echo? a) 15m/s b) 0.15m/s
a) 1.0S b) 2.0S c) 0.12m/s d) 12m/s
c) 3.0S d) 6.0S 506. The frequency of man’s voice is 300 Hz. If velocity of sound
496. A surf-board moves at 5m/s on the crest of a wave. The distance waves is 336 m/s, the wavelength of the sound is:
between wave crests is 10m. the frequency of the wave motion a) 300/336 m b) 300×336 m
is: c) 1.12 m d) None of above
a) 0.5 Hz b) 5Hz
c) 1Hz d) 10Hz
507. The velocity of sound is air increases with: 515. Which one of the following is the property of transverse wave
a) the increase in temp. of air only?
b) the decrease in temp. of the air a) Reflection b) Refraction
c) the increase atm. Pressure c) Interference d) polarization
d) the decrease of atm Pressure 516. What happens to a sound wave when the note heard gets louder?
508. A bomb explodes on the moon. How long will it take for the a) Its amplitude increases b) Its frequency increases
sound to reach the earth? c) Its wavelength increases d) Its speed increases
a) 10s b) 1000 s 517. Light waves are traveling from medium A to medium B. They
c) 1 day d) None of the above make an angle of 45o with the normal in medium A and an angle
509. What is the frequency of Earth? of 300 with the normal in medium B. If the speed of the waves in
a) 1.16×10-5Hz b) 24Hz medium A is 8.49 107 m/s, what is their speed in medium B?
c) 86400sec d) 86400Hz a) 6.00  107 ms-1 b) 6.93  107 ms-1
510. Which of the following is transmitted by a wave? c) 1.04  108 ms-1 d) 1.28  108 ms-1
a) velocity b) momentum 518. When air pressure increases, the speed of sound in air:
c) energy d) amplitude a) increases.
511. Which set of information about sound wave is correct? b) decreases.
c) remains the same.
Nature of wave Speed in glass /(m/s) d) fluctuates randomly.
a) Longitudinal 5000 519. The threshold frequency of normal human hearing is:
b) Longitudinal 30000 a) 20000Hz b) 20Hz
c) Transverse 5000 c) more than 20000Hz d) Less than 20Hz
d) Transverse 30000 520. Decibel is:
512. A child plays a note on a trumpet. She then plays a louder note of a) Musical instrument
higher pitch. How do the amplitude and frequency of the second b) Musical note
sound compare with the first? c) Measure of sound level
Amplitude of second Frequency of second d) Wavelength of noise
sound sound 521. The speed of sound of frequency 200Hz in air is 340m/s. The
a) Larger Larger wavelength of the wave is:
b) Larger Smaller a) 59 cm b) 170cm
c) 1.7 cm d) 34 cm
c) Smaller Larger
522. Ultrasonic , infrasonic and audible waves, travel through a
d) Smaller Smaller
medium with speed u, i and a then:
513. What is a property of all electromagnetic waves?
a) u = i= a b) u > a > i
a) They are deflected by magnets
c) u < a < i d) a < u = I
b) They are positively charged.
523. Sound waves in air are:
c) They travel at the speed of sound.
a) transverse wave b) longitudinal wave
d) They travel through a vacuum.
c) may be both types d) none
514. Sound travels faster in:
524. By what process does the smell of a gas spread to fill a room?
a) air b) water
a) diffraction b) reflection
c) vacuum d) solid
c) diffusion d) evaporation

 The rays of light converge to a real image or virtual object. And
9. OPTICS they diverge from virtual image or real object.
 Wave optics treats light as electromagnetic transverse waves. Nature of image of real object Mirror
 The wavelength of light waves lies between 400nm to 800 nm. Virtual, erect, same size Plane
Color λ(nm) Virtual, erect, diminished Convex
Violet 400 – 500 Virtual, erect, magnified Concave
Blue 450 – 500 Real, inverted, magnified/Diminished Concave
Green 500 – 550 sin i velocity of light in vacuum
 Refractive index  = sin r = velocity of light in medium
Yellow 550 – 600
Orange 600 – 650 λvaccum
=λ
Red 650 - 800 medium
  is independes of I but depends on λ.
 The em radiations of wavelength immediately below violet are   increases with temperature increase.
ultraviolet (5nm to 400nm) and above red are infra red (800 nm to Real depth 1
106 nm)   = Apparent depth = sinC
 Our eye is most sensitive to yellow green light.   for air is about 1 and is maximum for diamond 2.4.
 Frequency of light waves is maximum for violet & minimum for  For total internal reflection i = critical angle and r = 90o.
red color.  Critical angle for red ray is more than that for blue i.e Cr > Cb.
 Larger the wavelength higher will be velocity (v  λ). v f f-v
  Magnification m = I/O = = = f
When light goes from one medium to other its frequency remains  f+
unchanged but both speed and wavelength change. Where  and v are substituted with proper signs.
 Color of light depends on frequency but not on wavelength. Nature of of image
Location of Location of
 LASER is short from of Light Amplification by Stimulated Lens Magni Real or Erect or
object image
Emission of Radiation. ficaiton virtual inverted
 Polarisation confirms the transverse nature of light. = V = f i.e at
m<1 Real Inverted
 In interference of light, the energy is redistributed in space with no (At infinity) focus
Away from 2f
loss or gain of energy. f <  > 2f m<1 Real Inverted
i.e ( > 2f)
 Diffraction is the phenomenon of bending of waves around the
At 2f
corners of obstacles or aperture. Convex v = 2f m=1 Real Inverted
i.e ( = 2f)
 The branch of optics that deals with the study and measurement of f <  < 2f u > 2f m>1 Real Inverted
light energy is called photometry. At focus
 The photometer is a device to compare the illuminance of two v= m= Real Inverted
i.e ( =f)
sources. <f v> m>1 Virtual Erect
 Focal length of planne mirror is infinity and its power is zero. v=f
 Minimum size of plane mirror required to see full image of oneself = m<1 Virtual Erect
i.e at focus
= half the height of observer. Concave
Anywhere Between
 Minimum size of plane mirror required to be fixed on a wall of a between  optical
m<1 Virtual Erect
room, so that an observer in the middle of the room can see full and optical center &
image of wall behind him is one third of the height of the wall. center focus

Multiple Choice Questions: a) 10o b) 20o
o
525. If the velocity of light in vacuum is c m/s the velocity of light in a c) 40 d) 140o
medium of refractive index 1.5 is: 536. The refractive index of medium in which the total internal reflection
a) c/1.5 m/s b) 1.5c m/s just begins to take place at an angle of 45o is:
c) c m/s d) can have any velocity a) 1.3 b) 1.4
526. The velocity of mean light in water is nearly: c) 1.5 d) 1.6
a) 4 ×108 m/s b) 3 ×108 m/s 537. When we see an object, the image of the object formed at retina is:
8 a) Real & inverted b) Erect & virtual
c) 2.25 × 10 m/s d) none
527. When incident ray is rotated by 10o then reflected is ray rotated by: c) Erect & real d) Inverted & virtual
a) 10o b) 20o 538. Which of the following can't form virtual image?
c) 40o d) 5o a) Plane mirror b) Concave mirror
528. Which of the following can not form virtual image? c) Convex mirror d) All can form virtual image
a) Plane mirror 539. The rear view mirror in a car is:
b) Concave mirror a) plane mirror b) concave mirror
c) Convex mirror c) convex mirror d) None
d) All can form virtual image 540. Total internal reflection can occur when light passes from:
529. If two plane mirrors are inclined at 60o, how many images will be a) a denser to rarer medium
formed? b) a rarer to denser medium
a) 6 b) 7 c) one medium to another of equal refractive index
c) 5 d) 4 d) medium to another of equal absorption coefficient
530. A person can see object at distance only nearest than 1m. He is 541. A convex mirror gives an image which is:
suffering from: a) real and inverted b) virtual and inverted
a) Hypermetropia b) Myopia c) virtual and erected d) virtual and magnified
c) Astigmatism d) Presbyopia 542. Rising and setting sun appears to be reddish because:
531. A convex lens form a real image of an object placed at a distance u a) the sun is colder at sunrise or at sunset
from the lens, at a distance v from it. The focal length of lens is: b) diffraction sends red rays to the earth
a) u>f>v c) refraction is responsible due to dust particles and air molecules
b) less than u and as well as v d) of more scattering of other colour rays by dust particles and air
c) v>f>u molecules
d) more than u as well as v 543. If a red rose is observed in a background with red light it will
532. If a red rose is observed in a background with red light it will appear:
appear: a) greenish yellow b) blue
a) Greenish yellow b) Blue c) red d) invisible
c) Red d) Invisible 544. Which of the following light travels with minimum speed in glass?
533. When light incident normally on a plane mirror then: a) red b) violet
a) Angle of incidence is 90o c) green d) yellow
b) Angle of reflection is 0o 545. The focal length of a lens is 50 cm. Its power is:
c) Angle of deviation is 0o a) 50 dioptre b) 20 dioptre
d) Both a and c c) 2 dioptre d) 0.2 dioptre
534. The focal length of a plane mirror is: 546. Which thing is not related to human eye?
a) Zero b)  a) cornea b) illuminator
c) Finite but positive d) None c) sclerotic d) optic nerve
535. If the incident ray on a fixed plane mirror is rotated through 20o, the 547. When an object is placed on the point 2F of a concave lens, the
reflected ray rotate through: image formed is:
a) real, inverted and diminished 556. Light pipe work on the principle of:
b) virtual, erected and diminished a) critical angle
c) real, inverted and of same size as the object b) dispersion of light
d) real, inverted and magnified c) total internal reflection of light
548. Myopia is a defect in which: d) none of the above
a) image of near object forms in front of the retina. 557. The imaginary perpendicular line drawn through the pole of the
b) image of far object forms in front of the retina. concave mirror is called:
c) image of near object forms behind of the retina. a) focus b) center of curvature
d) image of near object forms behind of the retina. c) principal axis d) focal length
549. The field of view is maximum for: 558. Mirage in observed in deserts due to ----- of light.
a) plane mirror b) concave mirror a) double reflection b) dispersion
c) convex mirror d) cylindrical mirror c) total internal reflection d) critical angle.
550. When light passes from one medium to another medium there is a 559. Optical fibers are based on the principle of:
change in: a) dispersion b) total internal reflection
a) frequency and wavelength c) refraction d) all of above
b) velocity and wavelength 560. The near point of a normal eye is:
c) velocity and frequency a) 25 cm b) 50cm
d) frequency, velocity and wavelength c) 1m d) α
551. A person sitting in front of a mirror finds his erect image larger than 561. In desert mirage is observed because:
himself. This implies that mirror is: a) refractive index of air decreases with height
a) plane mirror b) concave mirror b) refractive index of air increases with height
c) convex mirror d) all of the above c) refractive index does not change with height
552. Height of mirror required to see one’s full image across the end of a d) all of the above
room is: 562. A prism causes:
a) half of his height a) dispersion only b) deviation only
b) double of his height c) both a and b d) none of the above
c) same as his height 563. Grass appears green because of:
d) does not depends upon height of person a) grass absorbs green colour only and reflects all other
553. What is the nature of the image when the object is placed at the b) grass reflect green colour only and absorbs all other
center of curvature (C) of the concave mirror? c) grass reflects all colour equally
a) Virtual erect and same size d) grass absorbs all colour equally
b) Real, erect and same size 564. We wear black cloths in winter season because it:
c) Real, inverted and same size a) reflect the light
d) Virtual, inverted and same size b) it absorbs light
554. When the object is in between focus and pole of the concave mirror, c) neither reflect nor absorbs light
the image is: d) none of the above
a) real and erect b) virtual and inverted 565. The cover of a book appears black when seen through a piece of red
c) real and inverted d) virtual and erect glass, then the cover may be of:
555. We see rainbow when it rains in presence of sunlight: a) red colour b) white colour
a) due to reflection of light c) green colour d) red or white
b) due to refraction of light 566. The blue colour of the sky is due to:
c) due to dispersion of light a) scattering of light b) dispersion of light
d) due to total internal reflection of light c) reflection of light d) all of the above

567. In a room fitted with a green bulb, a red cloth will appear to be: 578. The image formed is always, virtual in case of a:
a) yellow b) orange a) Convex mirror b) Concave mirror
c) black d) blue c) Both concave d) Neither concave nor convex
568. The far point of a normal eye is: 579. When a convergent beam of light in incident on a plane mirror, the
a) 25cm b) 50cm image formed is:
c) 1km d) α a) Inverted & real b) Erect & Real
569. Each concave or convex lens has at least ----- center of curvature. c) Erect & virtual d) Inverted & virtual
a) two b) one 580. Correction for hypermetropia is use a
c) many d) none a) Concave lens b) convex lens
570. The image of a distant object formed by a long sighted person is: c) Plano concave d) Plano Convex.
a) at the retina b) behind retina 581. If a boy runs, towards a plane mirror at a speed of 2 ms-1 find the
c) in-front of retina d) none image is formed speed at which his image in the mirror moves towards him.
571. The image of a nearer object formed by a long sighted person is: a) 2 m/s b) -2 m/s
a) at the retina b) behind retina c) 1 m/s d) 4 m/s
c) in-front of retina d) no image is formed 582. What changes the focal length of the lens at the eye?
572. An image is seen in desert when: a) Iris b) Cornea
a) The refractive index is uniform throughout the different layers. c) Aqueous humour d) Ciliary muscles.
b) Refractive index of the upper layer of air is more than of the 583. If a light ray does not undergo refraction at the boundary between
lower layer. two media, what is the angle of incidence?
c) Refractive index of the lower layer in more than that at upper a) 0° b) 45°
layer. c) 60° d) 90°
d) None 584. Deviation of reflected ray when the mirror is rotated by θ is:
573. A convex lens of glass is immersed in water. Compared to power in a) 3 θ b) 2.5 θ
air, its power in water will: c) 2 θ d) 0.5 θ
a) Diminish for red & increase for light 585. What is the lateral shift for a ray incident at angle i and of thickness
b) No change t?
c) Increase t t sin (i - r)
a) cos(i - r) b)
d) Diminish Decrease sinr cosr
574. In myopia image is formed: t sin (r - i) t cos (i - 4)
a) at the retina b) in-front of retina c) d)
cosi sin i
c) behind the retina d) no image is formed 586. A liquid of refraction index 1.5 and thickness 3 cm. Find the
575. When coverging lens is placed in water its focal length in water is: displacement.
a) equal to that in air a) 1 cm b) 2 cm
b) less than that of air c) 1.5 cm d) 0.75 cm
c) greater than that in air 587. Two plane mirrors are inclined at 60°. How many images are
d) one half of that of air formed?
576. A person wearing a Green Spectacle see a purple flower. The flower a) 1 b) 5
appears: c) 6 d) 3
a) Black b) Blue 588. The image produced by a compound microscope is:
c) White d) Yellow a) real and erect b) virtual and inverted
577. What changes the focal length of the eye? c) real and inverted d) real and magnified
a) Cornea b) Retina 589. Coin at the bottom of a bowl appears raised because of:
c) Iris d) Ciliary muscle a) reflection. b) refraction.
c) total internal reflection. d) interference.
590. What type of image is produced at the back of the eye? -f-v f
a) real, erect, diminished. a) m = b) m =
f f-v
b) real, inverted, diminished. f+v -f
c) virtual, erect, diminished. c) m = - d) m =
f v-f
d) virtual, inverted, diminished. 598. At sunrise and sunset the sun looks above horizon, because:
591. Real images formed by single convex lens are always: a) The sun is hottest at these times.
a) on the same side of the lens as the object. b) Of the scattering of light.
b) inverted c) Of the effects of refraction.
c) erect d) Of the effects of diffraction.
d) larger than the object 599. What is the minimum distance between an object and its real image
592. Relation between the angle of prism, minimum deviation and the formed by a convex lens?
refractive index in a prism is: a) 0 b) f
sin 
A + Dm c) 2f d) 4f
 2  sin A/2 600. A child looking into a small polished hemispherical bowl sees an
a) μ = b) μ =
sin 
sin A/2 A + Dm erect image of himself 21cm from the bowl. He turns the bowl over
 2  and sees a further erect image of himself 7cm from the bowl. What
cos 
A + Dm is the focal length of the bowl?
 2  cos A/2 a) 7cm b) 21cm
c) μ = d) μ = c) 14cm d) none
cos 
cos A/2 A + Dm
 2  601. The intensity of two light sources can be measured by:
593. The rainbow is produced by: a) photometer b) optometer
a) Refraction of light only. c) intensity meter d) lactometer
b) Total reflection of light only. 602. If the symbols have usual meanings, the magnification(m) is related
c) Both total internal reflection and refraction. to (f) and (u) by relation
d) Diffraction of light. a) (f-u)/f b) –f/(u+f)
594. An air bubble in water behaves as: c) m = (u-f)/f d) m = -f/(f-u)
a) convex lens b) concave lens 603. The two points on the principal axis that if object is placed at one of
c) plano-convex lens d) plano concave lens two points, the image is formed at next point are called:
595. Two plane mirror are at right angles to each other. A man stands a) conjugate points b) parallel points
between them and combs his hair with right hand. In how many of c) corresponding point d) point of achromatism
the image will be see be seen using his right hand. 604. A concave mirror of focal length 20cm forms an image double the
a) None b) 1 size of object. The position of object form pole of mirror is:
c) 2 d) 3 a) 15cm b) 20cm
596. A meter scale is placed along the axis of convex mirror focal length c) 30cm d) 60cm
25cm, its nearer end being at a distance of 50cm. calculate the size 605. For simple microscope, object should be placed between:
of image formed. a) focus and center of curvature
a) 4.76cm b) focus and twice focus
c) beyond twice focus
b) 7.46cm d) at focus
c) 4cm 606. The focal length of a concave lens is 30m. Where should an
object be placed so that its image may be 1/10th of its own size?
d) 50cm a) 200cm b) 250cm
597. The magnification (m) the image distance (v) focal length (f) are c) 270cm d) 80/3 cm
related to one another by the relation
607. A block hung on a wall has marks instead of numerals in its dial. 617. A person sitting in front of a mirror finds his erect image larger
On the adjoining wall, there is a plane mirror and the image of than himself. This implies that mirror is:
the clock in the mirror indicated the time 4.20. Then the time on a) plane b) concave
the clock is: c) convex d) none
a) 7:40 b) 4:20 618. Red light is used as a sign of danger because:
c) 2:40 d) 4:07 a) it is cheaper to produce red ray then any other rays
608. A fish looks straight upward through a water-air interface and b) the scattering of red light is least compared to other colors
sees a fly 40mm directly above. At what point should the fish c) the eye is most sensitive to red rays then any other color of
aim in order to catch the fly. light
a) 20mm b) 30mm d) none of the above
c) 40mm d) 50mm 619. The view finder of a motor car is a:
609. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world in a a) cylindrical mirror b) concave mirror
circular horizon. If fish is 10 m below surface, radius of circle is: c) convex mirror d) plane mirror
a) 10 × 3 3 b) 10 × 3 7 620. Which type of image is produced by a converging lens on a
5 (10 × 3) screen?
c) 10 × 3 d) a) inverted and real b) inverted and virtual
7
c) upright and real d) upright and virtual
610. Out of following which colour a single wavelength beam can’t
621. If the angle between the incident and reflected ray is 80o, then
be obtained?
find the angle of incidence?
a) Red b) Green
a) 40 b) 50
c) White d) Blue
c) 80 d) 100
611 A well cut diamond appears bright because:
622. Light rays of different colors travel in air with:
a. It emits light b) Of large density
a) Same velocity b) Velocity of air
c) It is a crystal d) Of total internal reflection
c) Different velocity d) Velocity of sound
612. Ability of the eye to see objects at all distance is called:
623. An optician's card is fixed 80 cm behind the eyes of a patient,
a) Binocular vision b) Myopia
who looks into a plane mirror 300cm in front of him as shown in
c) Hypermetropia d) Accommodation
the figure. The distance from his eyes to the image of the card is:
613. In normal incidence of light ray, the angle between incident ray
a) 300cm
and normal at the point of incidence is:
a) 00 b) 900 b) 380cm
c) 1800 d) 600
c) 680cm
614. A person inside a pond, will see a tree outside:
a) taller b) shorter d) 760cm
c) same size d) no
624. The final image formed by a compound Microscope is:
615. A person is running towards a convex Mirror. How will his
a) Real, inverted, magnified. b) Inverted, diminish, virtual.
move with respect to him:
c) Virtual, magnified, erect. d) Virtual, magnified, inverted.
a) slower b) faster
625. The speed of light in a certain transparent substance is 2/5 of its
c) very fast d) no effect
speed in air. The index of refraction is:
616. Same size of image as that of the object is given by:
a) 0.4 b) 2
a) convex mirror b) concave & plane mirror
c) 2.5 d) 5.0
c) plane mirror d) none


Physics: 1. Measurements and Units

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Physics: 1. Measurements and Units

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Multiple Choice Questions:

PHYSICS 1. Which sets of quantities have same dimensions or same

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-5 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-6

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-9 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-10

Multiple Choice Questions:

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-11 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-12

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-13 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-14

A third weight is to be added to bring the system into

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-21 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-22

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-23 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-24

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-31 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-32

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-41 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-42

288. Three identical resistances are connected in parallel if their

Which statement defines the potential difference across XY?

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-57 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-58

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-67 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-68

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-73 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-74

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-75 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-76

INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-79 INTEL Bridge Course/Objective Physics-80

You might also like