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SOCIAL DEVELOPMENT
FINAL TESTS
On propedeutics of internal diseases
Medical faculty
Training Edition
Stavropol, 2009
Propaedeutics of internal diseases (Final tests)
The methodical publication for students of 3 course of medical faculty under the
general edition of Chair of propaedeutics of internal diseases of medical faculty,
D.M.S., professor Pavlenko V.V.Stavropol, StGMA, 2009, 82p.
Composers:
Final tasks are made including the tests, produced by the Volgograd state medical
university, having a signature stamp «UMO».
B )Marked cyanosis of lips, a nose tip, a chin, ears and cyanotic blush of cheeks is
observed
C) A face is deathly pale with a grayish shade, eyes are sunken, the nose is
pinched, and there are drops of profuse sweat on a forehead
D) A face is bloated, pale, there are swollen eyelids and edema under eyes ,the
eye-slits are narrow
E) A face is bloated, yellowish and pale with marked cyanotic shade, a mouth is
constantly half-opened, lips are cyanotic, eyes are sticking together and dim.
4. Choose the most correct conclusion for the data of a palpation – the expressed
cardiac beat and epigastric pulsation:
D) Hypersthenic chest
6. Explain the reason of decrease of the skin turgor, revealed at the general survey:
A)Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
D) Hypersthenic chest
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
A) a,c,d
B) b,d
C)c,d
D)a,b,c,d
E)a,b,d.
10. Specify the most typical changes of a thorax at the closed pheumothorax:
D) Hypersthenic chest
11.The patient has daily fluctuations of body temperature from 37,0C up to 39,0С.
Specify the type of temperature curve:
A) febris intermittens
B) febris remittens
C) febris hectica
D) febris continua
E) febris reccurens.
12. Explain the reason of concave nail, revealed at the general survey:
A)Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
A)A face is bloated, cyanotic;sharp swelling of the neck veins, marked cyanosis
and neckedema is observed
B)Marked cyanosis of lips,a nose tip, a chin, ears andcyanotic blush of cheeksis
observed
C)Aface is deathly pale with a grayish shade, eyes are sunken, the nose is pinched,
there are drops of profuse sweat on a forehead
D)A face is bloated, pale, there is edema under eyes and swollen eyelids, the eye-
slits are narrow
E)A face is bloated, yellowish and pale with markedcyanotic shade, a mouth is
constantly half-opened, lips are cyanotic, eyesare sticking together and dim.
14. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at narrowing of small
bronchi?
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
D) Hypersthenic chest
A)Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
17. What basic respiratory murmur is most often listened at initial stage of lobar
(croupous) pneumonia?
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
18. What kind of dyspnea is the most typical at spasms of small bronchi?
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
A)A face is bloated, cyanotic; sharp swelling of veins of the neck, marked cianosis
and neckedema is observed
C)Aface is deathly pale with a grayish shade, eyes are sunken, the nose is
pinched, there are drops of profuse sweat on a forehead
D)A face is bloated, pale, there are edemas under eyes and swollen eyelids,the
eye-slits are narrow
E)A face is bloated, yellowish and pale with markedcyanotic shade, a mouth is
constantly half-opened, lips are cyanotic, eyesare sticking together and dim.
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
А) febris intermittens
B) febris continua
C) febris remittens
D) febris reccurens
E) febrishectic.
D)Chronic cholangitis
E)Chronic hepatitis.
24.What is the reason of dry buzzing(humming) rales?
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
A) For days
B) In an hour
C) For a minute
E) In 1 ml of urine.
A)A face is bloated, cyanotic; sharp swelling of veins of the neck, marked
cianosis and neckedema is observed
B)Marked cyanosis of lips,a nose tip, a chin, ears andcyanotic blush of cheeksis
observed
C)Aface is deathly pale with a grayish shade, eyes are sunken, the nose is pinched,
there are drops of profuse sweat on a forehead.
D)A face is bloated, pale, there are edemas under eyes and swollen eyelids,the
eye-slits are narrow.
E)A face is bloated, yellowish and pale with markedcyanotic shade, a mouth is
constantly half-opened, lips are cyanotic, eyesare sticking together and dim.
A)a,c,d
B)b,d
C)c,d
D)a,b,c,d
E)a,b,d.
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
A)Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
35. Give the definition of the following murmur. The patient has a mitral stenosis
with signs of expressed pulmonary arterial hypertension, in II-IV intercostal space
the soft murmur is sounded to the left of breastbone beginning right after the II
heart sound.
A) Phlint’s murmur.
B) Murmur of whirligig
C) Kumb’s murmur
D) Graham-Stills murmur.
D) Hypersthenic chest.
38. What is the reason of splashing sound in epigastrium, revealed in 5-6 hours
after food taking:
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis)
E) There is an accumulation of liquid and gases inthe large intestine (for example,
when the patient has acute enteritis).
A)Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
41. Specify the most typical changes of thorax at the pulmonary emphysema:
D) Hypersthenic chest.
42. What cardiac defect reveals the following changes of borders of relative heart
dullness: the right border is 3 sm to the right of the sternum edge, the left is 1
smmedialto the left mid-clavicular line, the upper is along the upper edge of the II
rib.
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral incompetence
E) Norm
43.There are 7 most important factors, taking part in formation of heart sounds.
Choose those ones, thatare significant in the formation of II sound: a) Fluctuations
of ventricles’ walls at the moment of auricles’ systole. b)) Fluctuations of
ventricles’ walls at the moment of their rapid filling. c) The position of cusps of
AV- valves before isometric contraction. d) Fluctuations of semilunar valves of
aorta and pulmonary artery at their closing. e) Rapid isometric contraction of
ventricles.f) Fluctuations ofAV- valvesat their closing. g) Vibration of the aorta
walls and pulmonary artery after closingof semilunar valves.
A) b
B) b,c,e,f.
C)
D) c,e,f,g
E) d,g.
A) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B)Proctosigmoidoscopy
C)Laparoscopy
D)Bronchoscopy
E) Thoracoscopy.
48.What main respiratory murmur is most often sounded at fusion of the pleural
cavity?
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
49. Will the colour of skin change when the patient has severe right-ventricular
cardiac insufficiency with expressed anemia ( Hb is 50 gr/l)
D) Hypersthenic chest.
A)Ferritin
B)Hemosiderin
C)Transferrin
D)Catalase
E)Peroxidase
53.What kind of dyspnea is the most typical when there areobstacles in upper
respiratory tract?
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
59.What cardiac defect reveals the following changes of borders of relative heart
dullness: the right border is 1 sm to the right of the sternum edge, the left is 1 sm
medial to the left mid-clavicular line, the upper is along the upper edge of the III
rib.
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral incompetence
E) Norm
60. What is the purpose of additional method at the pulmonary auscultation (the
forced exhalation)?
63. Specify the most typical changes of arterial pulse at the mitral stenosis:
А) pulsus dificiens
B) pulsus filiformis
C) pulsus differens
D) pulsus plenus
E) pulsusdurus
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis)
E) There is an accumulation of liquid and gases inthe large intestine (for example,
when the patient has acute enteritis).
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
69.During heart palpation there reveals a tremor at apex, which doesn’t coincide
with pulsation of a.carotis. For what cardiac defect is it typical?
A) Aortal incompetence
B)Mitral incompetence
C)Aortal stenosis
D) Mitral stenosis
70.Specify the most typical signs of the arterial pulse “pulsus filifornis”:
D)The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery is less than the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
72. There are 7 most important factors, taking part in formation of heart sounds.
Choose those ones, that are significant in the formation of III sound: a)
Fluctuations of ventricles’ walls at the moment of auricles’ systole. b))
Fluctuations of ventricles’ walls at the moment of their rapid filling. c) The
position of cusps of AV- valves before isometric contraction. d) Fluctuations of
semilunar valves of aorta and pulmonary artery at their closing. e) Rapid isometric
contraction of ventricles.f) Fluctuations ofAV- valvesat their closing. g) Vibration
of the aorta walls and pulmonary artery at the very beginning of the sphygmic
interval .
A) b
B) b,c,e,f
C) a
D) c,e,f,g
E) d.
73. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at the occurrenceof
cavity, linking with bronchus( less than 5 sm in diameter) ?
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
75.What cardiac defect reveals the following changes of borders of relative heart
dullness: the right border is 1 sm to the right of the sternum edge, the left is 2 sm
entoectad to the left mid-clavicular line, the upper is along the upper edge of the II
rib.
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral incompetence
E) Norm.
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
78.There are 7 most important factors, taking part in formation of heart sounds.
Choose those ones, that are significant in the formation of IV sound: a)
Fluctuations of ventricles’ walls at the moment of auricles’ systole. b))
Fluctuations of ventricles’ walls at the moment of their rapid filling. c) The
position of cusps of AV- valves before isometric contraction. d) Fluctuations of
semilunar valves of aorta and pulmonary artery at their closing. e) Rapid isometric
contraction of ventricles.f) Fluctuations ofAV- valvesat their closing. g) Vibration
of the aorta walls and pulmonary artery after at the very begining of the sphygmic
interval .
A) b
B) b,c,e,f.
C) a
D) b,e,f,g.
E) d.
79.Specify the main mechanism of occurrence of rough respiration:
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
81. What changes, revealed during heart percussion, are most typical for mitral
configuration of heart?
C)Removal of the left border to the left with an expressed “waist” of the heart
D)Removal of the upper border upwards and deletionof “waist” of the heart
E)Removal of the left border to the left and the right border to the right.
82.What is the reason of moist coarse bubbling rales?
83. Choose the symptoms and syndroms for the acute nephritic syndrome:a)
Arterial hypertension; b) Acute intensive back pains; c) Edematous syndrome;
h) Proteinuria is more than 3 gr/l; i)Proteinuria is less than 3 gr/l; j) Hyaline and
granular casts; k) Hyperlipidemia:
A) a,c,e,i,j
B) b,c,d,e,h,j,k
C)b,d,f,g,h,j
D)a,b,c,d,f,h,j
E)a,c,d,e,h,j.
A) b,d,f
B) b,d,g
C) a,e,f
D) b,e,f
E) b,c,d.
85. Choose the signs, that are most typical for the syndrome of hypersplenism: a)
Anemia; b) Leukocytosis; c) Leukopenia; d) Lymphocytosis; e) Lymphopenia; f)
Thrombocytosis; g) Thrombocytopenia:
A) a,d,g
B) a,b,e,g
C) a,c,d,f
D) a,b,g
E) a,c,g.
86. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at the occurrenceof
smoothwalled cavity, linking with bronchus( more than 5 sm in diameter) ?
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
A) a,c,d
B) b,d
C) c,d
D) a,b,c,d
E) a,b,d.
89. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at exsudative pleurisy?
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
A) a,c,d
B) b,d
C) c,d
D) a,b,c,d
E) a,b,d.
A)Lying on a back
E)Squatting
94.Choose the most correct conclusion for the data of a palpation –diffuse (dome-
shaped) apex beat in VI intercostal space, which is 2 sm entoectad to the mid-
clavicular line:
E) Vascular tones.
98. Left borders of absolute and relative heart dullnesscan coinside at:
A)Aortal stenosis
B)Aortal incompetence
C)Mitral stenosis
D)Mitral incompetence
99.Choose the most correct conclusion for the data of a palpation –negative apex
beat (systolic retraction):
101.Specify the most typical signs of the arterial pulse “pulsus dificiens”:
D)The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery is less than the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
A) Right auricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left ventricle
D) Ear of the right auricle and conus pulmonalis
A) Phlint’s murmur.
B) Murmur of whirligig
C) Kumb’s murmur
D) Graham-Stills murmur.
104. What reveals the inflammatory process in the lower portion of small intestine:
A) Constipation
D) Abdominal distension
E) Tenesmus.
105. Explain the origin of the following symptom, caused during examination and
palpation of abdomen ( Local moderate intensification of abdominal wall in the
area of projection of the affected organ):
A) Right auricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left ventricle
A) Thyroid hyperplasia
B) Thyroid hypoplasia
C) The size of gland doesn’t matter.
108. What symptom is not typical for the syndrome of portal hypertension?
A) Splenomegaly
B) Ascites
C) Varicose dilatation of esophageal veins.
D) Tenesmus
E) Hemorrhoidal bleedings.
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
111. The admissible excretion of erythrocytes for days by Nechiporenko’s test is:
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
A) Right auricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left ventricle
113.What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the syndrome of portal hypertension?
114.What cardiac defect reveals the following changes of borders of relative heart
dullness: the right border is 1 sm to the right of the right sternum edge, the left is
along the front axillary line, the upper is along the III rib.
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral incompetence
E) Norm.
115. What methods of research allow to diagnose chronic gastritismore correctly?
A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Urolithiasis
C) Chronic glomerulonephritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Diabetic glomerulonephritis.
117.What changes are typical for obturation by calculus of common bile duct?
A)Enlarged, painless, elastic and mobile gallbladder when the patient has a
mechanical icterus.
118. Specify the most typical change for arterial pulse at the following heart
disease: cardiac fibrillation or frequent extrasystole:
А) pulsus dificiens
Б) pulsus filiformis
В) pulsus differens
Г) pulsus plenus
Д) pulsus durus
A)Enlarged, painless, elastic and mobile gallbladder when the patient has a
mechanical icterus.
120. Specify the most typical signs of the arterial pulse “pulsus differens”:
D)The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery is less than the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
122.Specify the most typical change for arterial pulse at the following heart
disease: shock, collapse:
А) pulsus dificiens
Б) pulsus filiformis
В) pulsus differens
Г) pulsus plenus
Д) pulsus durus.
123. When the patient has an ulcerative disease of the pyloric portion of the
stomach, the pains are most often located in epigastric area:
124. What is not typical for the portal cirrhosis of the liver:
D) “Caput Medusae”
E) Ascites.
125.What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the pyloric stenosis?
126.Specify the most typical change for arterial pulse at the following heart
disease: compression of the large arterial trunks by the aortic aneurysm, by
mediastinum tumor, by enlarged left auricle:
А) pulsus dificiens
Б) pulsus filiformis
В) pulsus differens
Г) pulsus plenus
Д) pulsus durus.
127. What is not typical for diarrhea as result of the disease of colon distal
portions:
128.There are 7 most important factors, taking part in formation of heart sounds.
Choose those ones, that are significant in the formation of I sound: a) Fluctuations
of ventricles’ walls at the moment of auricles’ systole. b)) Fluctuations of
ventricles’ walls at the moment of their rapid filling. c) The position of cusps of
AV- valves before isometric contraction. d) Fluctuations of semilunar valves of
aorta and pulmonary artery at their closing. e) Rapid isometric contraction of
ventricles.f) Fluctuations ofAV- valvesat their closing. g) Vibration of the aorta
walls and pulmonary artery after at the very begining of the sphygmic interval.
A) b
B) b,c,e,f
C) a
D) c,e,f,g
E) d.
E) Vascular tones.
B) Heartbeating
C) Obesity
D) Bleeding
E) Chilliness
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
133.What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the peritonitis?
134. How will the II heart sound be changed at pressure rising in the pulmonary
artery and expressed hypertrophy of the right ventricle?
135.The enlarged, dense, painless liver, with the pinched edge, is palpated at:
A) Hepatitis
B) Cardiac insufficiency
C) Cancer of liver
D) Cirrhosis of liver
D) Cholecystitis.
136. Can the sudden tension of muscles of anterior abdominal wall and positive
rebound tenderness symptom be revealed at the ulcerative disease:
A) No, it can’t
B) If “yes”, thenin the exacerbation phase
C) During the bleeding
D) During the malignancy
E) During the perforation.
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis)
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis)
142.Hepatic smell out of the mouth at liver diseases is the symptom of:
143.Give the definition of the following murmur. The patient with an expressed
anemia (Hb is 50 gr/l) has a murmur, that is sounded on the jugular vein during
systole and diastole ( it is louder during diastole):
A) Phlint’s murmur.
B) Murmur of whirligig
C) Kumb’s murmur
D) Graham-Stills murmur.
A) Staphylococcus
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
146.What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the mechanical obstruction of large intestine ?
148. Enlarged, dense (often painless) lymph nodes are revealed at:
C) Lymphogranulomatosis
D) Erythremia.
149. What complication of the ulcerative disease causes late splashing sound and
increased peristalsis in epigastrium?
A) The bleeding
B) Perforation
C) Penetration
D) Pyloric stenosis
E) Malignancy
150. What is the reason of positive wave symptom (fluctuation) during bimanual
percutory palpation of abdomen?
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis )
E) There is an accumulation of liquid and gases inthe large intestine (for example,
when the patient has acute enteritis).
151. For what purpose is Zimnitsky’s test prescribed?
152.Explain the origin of the following symptom, caused during examination and
palpation of abdomen (an expressed diffuse muscular tension of abdominal wall):
153. The patient has a threat of hepatic coma. What should belimited in a diet?
A) Fats
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrates
D) Fluid
E) Salt.
154. Choose the symptoms and syndroms for the nephrotic syndrome:a) Arterial
hypertension; b) Dull aching back pains; c) Diffuse edemas on the face, trunk,
upper and lower extremity;d) Small edemas under eyes and swollen eyelids, a face
is bloated, absence of other swellings; e) Hypoalbuminemia; f) Microhematuria; g)
Strangury; h) Pollakisuria; i) Proteinuria is more than 3 gr/l; j)Proteinuria is less
than 3 gr/l; k) Hyperlipidemia;l) Hyaline and granular casts; m)Hyaline, granular
and waxy casts:
A) a,b,c,e,i,k,l
B) b,d,e,f,j,l
C) c,e,f,g,i,m
D) a,c,i,h,j,k,m
E) c,e,i,k,m.
A) Increase of ESR
B) Hyperenzymemia
C) Potassemia
D) Hyperbilirubinemia.
156. Choose the signs, that are most typical for the mechanical icterus: a) Increase
of combined (direct) blood bilirubin; b) Increase of free (indirect)blood bilirubin;
c) Presence of bilirubin in urine; d) Absence ofbilirubin in urine; e) Presence of
urobilin in urine; f)Absence ofurobilin in urine; g) Absence ofstercobilin in feces;
h)Presenceofstercobilin in feces;
A) b,d,i,h
B) a,c,f,g
C) b,c,e,g
D) a,c,e,h
E) a,b,c,e,h.
157. To diagnose the lesion of pancreas, it is necessary to examine the feces for:
A) Stercobilin
B) Occult blood
C) Kreatorrhea
D) Bilirubin.
A) Acute gastritis
E) Vascular tones.
A)Myxedema
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Rheumatic fever
E) Chronic cholecystitis.
A) Concave nail.
B) “Parchment-like skin”
C) “Vascularasterisks”
D) ”Hepar palms”
E) Xanthelasmas.
163.What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the meteorism?
165.Choose the signs, that are most typical for the parenchimatous icterus: a)
Increase of combined (direct) blood bilirubin; b) Increase of free (indirect)blood
bilirubin; c) Presence of bilirubin in urine; d) Absence ofbilirubin in urine; e)
Presence of urobilin in urine; f)Absence ofurobilin in urine; g) Absence
ofstercobilin in feces; h)Presenceofstercobilin in feces;
A) b,d,i,h
B) a,c,f,g
C) b,c,e,g
D) a,c,e,h
E) a,b,c,e,h.
E) Vascular tones.
167. To diagnose the lesion of pancreas, it is necessary to examine the feces for:
A) Stercobilin
B) Occult blood
C) Kreatorrhea, Steatorrhea
D) Bilirubin.
168.What symptom is not typical for cirrhosis of the liver with portal hypertension:
A) “Parchment-like skin”
B) Hepatosplenomegaly
C) “Caput Medusae”
D) Ascites
E) Dysphagia.
A) Suprahepatic icterus
B) Hepatic icterus
C) Subhepatic icterus
D) All is correct.
171.The patient has a threat of hepatic coma. What should belimited in a diet?
A) Fats
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrates
D) Fluid
E) Salt.
A) b,d,h
B) a,c,f,g
C) b,c,e,g
D) a,c,e,g
E) a,b,c,e,h.
A)Chronic cholecystitis
B)Proctosigmoidoscopy
C)Roentgenography of the stomach
D)Colonoscopy
E)Cholecystography
A) “Vascular asterisks”
B)Hepatic palms
C)Gynecomastia
A) Virus hepatitis
B) Chronic cholecystitis
E) Cholelithiasis.
179. What endoscopic method allows to examineall the portions of large intestine:
A) Laparoscopy
B) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
C) Proctosigmoidoscopy
D) Colonoscopy
180.When the patient has cirrhosisof the liver, the paracentesis at ascites should be
carried out:
181. Which of the following syndroms most early occurs at the biliary cirrhosis of
liver?
A) Dyspeptic
B) Asthenic
C) Portal hypertension
D) Cholestasis
E) Hepaticinsufficiency.
A) Virus hepatitis
B) Chronic cholecystitis
E) Cholelithiasis.
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
A) Level of albumins
B) Level of bilirubin
C) Thymol turbidity test
D) Level of transaminases
E) Nothing is correct.
189. Choose the signs that are most typical for the syndrome of hepatocellular
insufficiency: a) Hepatic encephalopathy; b) Syndrome of the portal hypertension;
A) Staphylococcus
C) Pneumococcus.
191. During the examination of the patient, there were the hyperemia of palms,
tongue, “vascular astericks” revealed. Define the disease:
A) Chronic cholecystitis
B) Echinococcus of the liver
C) Alcoholic hepatosis
D) Cirrhosis of the liver
E) Ulcerative disease of the stomach.
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
194.When the patient has an ulcerative disease of duodenum, the pains are
most often localized in epigastric area:
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
197.At what icterus is the free and combined blood bilirubinsimultaneously
increased?
A) Suprahepatic icterus
B) Hepatic icterus
C) Subhepatic icterus
D) All is correct.
A)Leukocytosis
B)Level of aminotransferases
E)Hyperglycemia
A)Positivesublimate test
B)Diarrhea
C)Cachexia
D)Anemia
E)Hyperstenuria
A)Acuteposthemorrhagic anemia
D) Hemolytic anemia
E) Vakez’s disease.
A) For days
B) In an hour
C) For a minute
E) In 1 ml of urine
205. The patient takes recumbent position on stomach and genucubital position at
the following disease:
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Nephrolithiasis
C) Pancreas cancer
D) Hepatic colic
A) b,d,f,g
B)b,d,f,h
C) b,c,f,h,i
D) a,b,f,g
E) b,c,e.h.
A) Secondary aldosteronism
B) Hypoalbuminemia and depression of oncotic pressure of a blood plasma
C) Portal hypertension
D) Everything is correct
E) Nothing is correct.
A) Oliguria
B) Proteinuria
C) Hematuria
D) Leukocyturia
E) Cylindruria.
C) Hemophilia
D) Agranulocytosis
E) Symptomatic hyperglobulia.
210. What is not typical for the cirrhosis of the liver:
A) Palmar erythema
B) Teleangiectasias on the skin
C) “Lion’s face”
D) Parchment-like skin
E) “Caput Medusae”.
211. What signs are typical for hypertonic variant of chronic nephritis?
A) Urinary syndrome
B) Hypertonic syndrome
C) Edematous syndrome.
212. What is the most reliable sign of the chronic renal insufficiency:
A) Arterial hypertension
B) Potassemia
C) Increase of the level of blood creatinine
D) Oliguria
E) Anemia.
213.What does the urine analysis represent according toKakovsky-Addis?
Definition of quantity of leucocytes, erythrocytes and casts, excreted with urine:
A) In an hour
B)In 1 ml of urine
D) For days.
A) Scleroderma
B) Myasthenia
C) Rheumatism
D) Stomach cancer
E) Cirrhosis of the liver.
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
A) Hyposthenuria
B) Granular casts
C) Edemata
D) Hypoproteinosis
E) Hypocholesterinemia.
220. What symptom is the most typical for the glomerulonephritis?
A) Abdominal pain
B) Edemata
C) Joint pain
D) Chills
E) Constipations.
A) Acute leukosis
B) Chronic lymphoid leukosis
C) Myelosis
D) Lymphogranulomatosis
E) Thrombocytopenic purpura (Werlhof's disease)
222.What index is not significant for defining the gravity level of functional renal
insufficiency:
E)Expression of anemia.
223. What nutrition is necessary for asiderotic anemia:
C) Liver of animals
E) Meat.
224. What syndrome is characterized by the following signs: edemas, high level of
proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, disproteinemia, hyperlipidemia?
A) Nephrotic syndrome
B) Urinary syndrome
C) Hypertensive syndrome
225. The slightly yellowish (waxy) skin colour is the symptom of:
A) B12-deficient anemia
B) Juvenilechlorosis
C) Chronic lymphoid leukosis
D) Erythremia
E) Myelosis.
226. What is anerythropenia?
A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Urolithiasis
C) Chronic pyelonephritis
D) Coma
228. What are the main and typical changes of marrow that are observed atacute
leukosis:
A) Leukocytosis
B) Leukopenia
C) Thrombocytosis
D) Thrombocytopenia
F) The marrow.
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Hydronephrosis
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Kidney amyloidosis.
C) The line, that is 4 sm more lateral than linia costoarticularis sinistra( the line,
linking the sternal-clavicular union with the free end of XI rib)
A) Myelosis
C) Acute leukosis
E) Depression of total number of erythrocytes and (or) hemoglobin level in the unit
of volume due to their general reduction in the organism.
235.What systems are mainly
A) Circulation
B) Hemopoiesis
C) Digestion
D) Excretorion
E) Nervous.
B) Nervousness
C) Sweating
D) Heartbeat
E) Drowsiness.
B)В12-deficient anemia
D) Hemolytic anemia
E) Erythremia.
A) 2,55-4,5 mmol/l
B) 3,88-4,9 mmol/l
C) 3,3-5,5 mmol/l.
A) Proteinuria
B) Leukocyturia
C) Glucosuria.
A) Acute leukosis
B) Myelosis
D)Addison-Birmer’s anemia
E) Lymphogranulomatosis.
B)Bradycardia
C)Tachycardia
B)Addison-Birmer’s anemia
C) Hemolitic anemia
D)Lymphogranulomatosis
E)Acute leukosis
B)Increase of ESR
D)Decrease of T3,T4
A)Giddiness
C)Dyspnea
D)Rise in temperature
E)Dryness in mouth
B)Systolic murmur
C)Arrhythmia
D)Bradycardia
A)Scanning of thyroid
C)Lymphography
D)Everything is correct
253.Necessity of keeping in secret by the doctor the data about the patient and
character of his/her disease is one of the demands of:
A)Professional ethics
B)Medical deontology
C)Medical psychology
A)Medical duty
B)Medical deontology
C)Medical ethics
A)A sign
B)A coincidence
A)A symptom
B)A syndrome
A)Subjective symptoms
B)Objective symptoms
258.The reveal of icterus,dermal rashes andenlargement of liver indicates that the
patient has:
A)Subjective symptoms
B)Objective symptoms
A)A sign
A)A syndrome
B)A disease
A)Consciousness is clear
B)Stupor
C)Sopor
D)Coma
A)Consciousness is clear
B)Stupor
C)Sopor
D)Coma
A)Consciousness is clear
B)Stupor
C)Sopor
D)Coma
A)Bronchopneumonia
B)Cholecystitis
C)Cardiac asthma
D)Cholelithiasis
E)Gastritis
265.The bronze coloring of skin and mucosas, especially of open body parts , and
also in the places ,exposed to friction, on palmar lines, in postoperative cicatrixes
is observed at:
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Hepatitis
C)Adrenal insufficiency
B)Congenital syphilis
C)Hydrocephaly
D)Acromegalia
B)Addison-Birmer's anemia
C)Leprosy
D)Cardiac insufficiency
E)Tetanus
B)Addison-Birmer's anemia
C)Leprosy
E)Tetanus
B)Addison-Birmer's anemia
C)Leprosy
D)Cardiac insufficiency
E)Tetanus
270. Facies Hyppocratica (the deathly-pale face with a cyanotic shade, sharply
pointed features,deeply sunk down suffering eyesand drops of cold sweat on a
forehead) can be observed at:
B)Addison-Birmer's anemia
C)Leprosy
D)Cardiac insufficiency
E)Tetanus
A) apnoe
B) orthopnoe
C) dyspnoe
D) dysphonia
E) obstipatio
F) ileus.
A) Exudative pleuritis
C) Cardiac asthma
D) Bronchoectatic disease.
A) vomitus
B) icterus
C) rubeosis
D) tussis
E)pyrosis
F) nausea.
276.Dry coughis most typical for:
D) Laryngitis.
B) Dry pleuritis
A) haematemesis
B) haemathoma
C) haemothorax
D) haemophilia
E) haemoptoe .
A) Dry pleuritis
B) Bronchoectatic disease
C) Lung abscess
D) Chronic bronchitis.
A)At inhalation
B)At exhalation
B)Axillary areas
A)Rough
B) Interrupted
C)Amphoric
A)Air whirls in larynx and trachea at transition through a true glottis when
breathing in and out
A)At inhalation
B)At exhalation
D)Above larynx
A)Bronchial obstruction
B)Pulmonary atelectasis
C)Pulmonary emphysema
D)Pulmonary cancer
E)Extensive pneumocirrhosis
F)Pulmonary infarct
D)Witholigosymptomatic course
A)Coughing
B)Dyspnea
C)Diffusive cyanosis
D)Rise in temperature
296.What data is not usually observed at the examination of the patient with
focal pneumonia:
A)Staphilococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Pneumococcus
D)Klebsiella
E)Viruses
A)Bronchogenic
B)Hematogenic
C)Lymphogenous
A)Inflow stage
B)Stage of red hepatization
D)Resolutionstage
A)Lung abscess
B)Acute pneumonia
C)Bronchial asthma
D)Acute pleuritis
C)Reduction of
A)Coughing
B)Pneumorrhagia
C)Chest pains
A)Smoking
B)Atmospheric pollutants
C)Infectious agents
C)Genetic factors
D)Everything is correct
B)Coughing with sputum not less than 3 months in a year during last two
years
D)Obliteration of alveolus
E)Lung cavity
A)Pulmonary abscess
E)Bronchoectatic disease
313.What condition is not necessary for clinical revealing of the lung cavity
syndrome:
B)Deep location
C)Superficial location
B)Remission of bronchophony
F)Increase of bronchophony
e)Lung cavity
A)Asymmetry of thorax
A)Dry
B)Moist
C)Is absent
319.During the first period of the lung abscess at its superficial location,a
percussion sound at a comparative percussion is:
A)Clear pulmonary
B)Bandbox
C)Tympanic
D)Blunted
A)Dry
B)Moist
C)Is absent.
A) Coughing
B) Pneumorrhagia
C) Dyspnea
D) Chest pains
E) Weakness.
324. What sign, revealed at the general survey, is typical for the disturbance of
external respiration:
C) Cyanosis
D) Facial hyperemia
E)Erythematic eruption.
325.The typical change of blood content at respiratory insufficiency is:
В) Hyperlipidemia.
A) > 50 gr/l
B) > 40 gr/l
C) > 30 gr/l
D) > 20 gr/l.
A) Diffusion
B) Ash-gray shade of the skin
C) Cold skin to the touch
D) Warm skin to the touch.
A)Suffocation attack
B) Position in orthopnee
C) Occurrence or increase of moist coarse bubbling rales in the back-lower
portions of lungs
D) Occurrence of rapidly spreading edema.
332. The complaints of coughing, dispnea, sometimes like suffocation,
pneumorrhagia are the symptoms of:
A) Coronaritis
B) Pericarditis
C) Arrhythmias
D) Arterial hypertonia
E) Congestion in lesser circulation
F) Congestion in greater circulation.
333. Which is not the important sign of chronic systolic dysfunction of the left
ventricle:
A)Capillary pulse
B) Coughing
C) Sometimes pneumorrhagia
D) Dyspnea.
A) cardialgia
B) palpitatio cordis
C) asthma cardiale
D) hepatomegalia.
B) Cardiac asthma
C) Acrocyanosis, enlargement of liver, edema on legs, a cardiomegaly
A) Cyanosis
B) Edema
E) Enlargement of liver.
B)Radiation under the left scapula,to the left arm,to the neck
A) The atrial
B) The valval
C) The muscular
D) The vascular.
A) The atrial
B) The valval
C) The vascular.
343. Which valve is projected in the area of III rib attachment (to the left
of the breastbone):
A) Aortal
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Pulmonary.
344.Which valve is projected in the II intercostal space on the left near the
breastbone edge:
A) Aortal
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Pulmonary.
345.Which valve is projected in the middle between the place of attachment to the
breastbone theIII rib cartilage on the left and the Vrib cartilage on the right
A) Aortal
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Pulmonary.
346.Which valve is projected in the middle of the breastbone at the level of third
costal cartilages:
A) Aortal
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Pulmonary.
A)Areoften systolic
D) Are most often sounded over a pulmonary trunk and along the left edge of
breastbone
E)Aresoft, brief
A) The organic
B) The functional.
C) Change of bloodviscosity
A) Aortal stenosis
356. The murmur, occupying the whole time interval between I and II heart
sounds, is called:
A) The systolodiastolic
B) The pansystolic
C) The diastolic
D) The mid-systolic
E) The presystolic.
357. The murmur, occupying the whole time interval between II and I heart
sounds, is called:
A) The pansystolic
B) The systolodiastolic
C) The pandiastolic
D) The presystolic.
A) The presystolic
B )The protodiastolic
C)The mid-diastolic.
A) The presystolic
B) The protodiastolic
C) The mid-diastolic.
A) The presystolic
B) The protodiastolic
C) The mid-diastolic.
B) Conductivity
C) Excitability
D) Contractility
E) Tonicity
F) Refractoriness
G) Aberrantness
B) A-V-connection
C) Bundle of His
D) Venkebah's bundle
F) Purkinje's fibers
A) Yes
B) No.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) аVL
E) аVR
F) аVF.
368. The lead at the location of electrodes on the right hand and left leg is defined
as:
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) аVL
E) аVR
F) аVF.
369. The lead at the location of electrodes on the left hand and left leg is defined
as:
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) аVL
E) аVR
F) аVF.
370. Configuration of ECG ( form and amplitude of ECG waves) in different leads
depends on:
A) Food taking
B) Physical and emotional stress
C) Well-trained sportsmen in rest
D) Hyperthermia
E) Anemia
F) Arterial hypotension.
A) Food taking
B) Well-trained sportsmen in rest
C) Hypotension
D) Emotional stress.
A) Pulmonary hypertension
B) Tricuspid valve incompetence
C) Mitral valve incompetence.
A) Dyspnea
B) Dropped heart work
C) Heart pains
D) Orthopnea
E) Tachycardia.
384. Low cardiac output and decrease of compensatory abilities of heart are typical
for:
A) Dyspnea at exercises
B) Fatigability, reduction of tolerance to exercises
C) Edema
D) Night suffocation attacks
E) Orthopnea.
A)The output of right ventricle is more than the output of left ventricle
A)Right-ventricular
B)Left-ventricular
C)Total
A)Aurococcus
D)Koksaki’s virus
392.The latent period between the progress of streptococcal infection and the first
attack of rheumatism isoften:
B)About 18 days
B)Seldom backbone joints, coxofemoral,small joints of hands and feet are affected
A)1,2,4,7 is correct
B)1,3,5,6 is correct
C)2,3,4,5 is correct
D)2,4,6,7 is correct
4) Trinomial rhythm
A)1,2,4,5 is correct
B)1,3,5,6 is correct
C)2,3,4,6 is correct
D)2,4,5,6 is correct
397. What laboratory test doesn’t help to diagnose the activity of rheumatic
process:
A) meijopragia cordis
B) insufficientia cordis
C) angina pectoris
D) asthma cardiale
E) vitia cordis
F) gibbus cardiacus
1) Bacterial endocarditis
2) Trauma
3) Myocardial dystrophy
5) Myocardiopathy
6) Rheumatism
7) Atherosclerosis;
A)1,2,3,6 is correct
B)1,3,4,5 is correct
C)1,3,5,6 is correct
D)1,4,6,7 is correct.
C)Left ventricle
D)Right ventricle.
1) Aurococcus
2) White staphylococcus
3) α-hemolytic streptococcus
A) 1, 2 is correct
B) 1, 3 is correct
C) 1, 2, 3 is correct
D) 1, 2, 3, 4 is correct.
402. At the onset of a bacterial endocarditis, fever is called:
A) Remittent
B) Hectic
C) Of irregular type
D) Inverse
E) Subfebrile with periodic rises in the form of “candles”
F) Everything is correct.
A) Paleness
B) Icterus
C) Limited cyanotic blush
D) Focal pigmentation
E) Unilateral hyperemia of cheeks.
404. The sings of vasculitis atinfectious endocarditis are revealed in the following
test:
1) Pinch test
2) Positive Rumpel- Leede-Konchalovsky’stest
3) Positive Bittorf-Tushinsky’s test
A) 1, 2 is correct
B) 1,3 is correct
C) 2,3 is correct
D) 1, 2, 3 is correct.
A) 1,3,7 is correct
B) 2,4,5,6 is correct
C) 4,5,6 is correct
D) 1,4,5,6,7,8 is correct
E) 4,5,6,8 is correct
407. What valves are most often affected at the bacterial endocarditis:
A) Mitral valve
B) Aortic valve
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Aortic or (and) mitral valve with parietal endocarditis and lesion of
endothelium of aortic mouth.
408. Choose the most typical clinical criteria for the diagnosis of infectious
endocarditis:
A)Fever
2) Thromboembolic syndrome
3) Meningitis
A) 1,3,5,6 is correct
B) 1,2,7 is correct
C) 4,6,7 is correct
D) 2,4,5 is correct
E) 2,4,5,7is correct.
2) Aortic atherosclerosis
3)Infectious endocarditis
4) Rheumatic endocarditis.
A) 3, 4 is correct
B) 1,3,4 is correct
C) 2,3,4 is correct
D) 1,2,3,4 is correct.
410. What typical signs of aortal regurgitation are revealed at the general survey:
A) No typical signs
B) Cyanotic blush
C) Vascular asterisks
D) Inlargement of vasculature
E) Expressed paleness, “Carotid shudder”.
A) Of low density
C) Of high density
A) Of low density
B) Of very low density
C) Of high density
413. Which disease doesn’t refer to the group of illnesses of ischemic heart
disease:
A) Stenocardia
B) Myocarditis
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Cardiosclerosis.
A) Stenocardia
B) Myocarditis
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Cardiosclerosis.
A) Sense of fear
B) Weakness, increased sweating
C) Tachycardia, extrasystole
D) Rise of temperature
E) Rise of arterial pressure.
418. The form of ischemic heart disease, caused by occurrence of one or several
focuses of ischemic necrosis in cardiac muscle due to absolute or relative
insufficiency of coronary blood flow, is:
A) Cardiosclerosis
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Stenocardia.
1) Catecholamines
2) Angiotonin II
3) Bradykinin
4) Aldosterone
5) Aortic arch pressoreceptors
A) 1,2,3 is correct
B) 1,2,4 is correct
C) 2,4,5 is correct
D) 1,2,5 is correct.
1) Angiotonin II
3)Aldosterone
5) Vasopressin
A) 1,2,3 is correct
B) 5,6 is correct
C) 2,4,6 is correct
D) 2,3,5 is correct
E) 1,3,4 is correct.
423. Criteria of arterial hypertension is:
A) 130-139 mm hg
B) 140-159 mm hg
C) 160-179 mm hg.
A)75-80 mm hg
B) 85-89 mm hg.
C) 90-99 mm hg.
A) Cardiac output
B) Peripheric resistance
C) By both factors.
A) Heredity
B) Smoking
C) Active way oflife
D) Obesity.
A) Back pain
B) Dysuria
C) Positive Pasternatsky’s symptom
D) Radiation of pain in the lower abdomen or inguinal area
E) Everything is correct.
432. Unilateral back pains are typical for:
A)For acute glomerulonephritis
B) For acute cystitis
C) For acute pyelonephritis
D) For amyloidosis of kidneys.
A) Back pain
B) Renal hypertension
C) Edematous syndrome
D) Azotemia
E) Anuria.
435. Normally what percent should makethe diurnal urine excretion from the
volume of the drunk liquid:
A) 45-60%
B) 65-75%
C) 80-95%.
436. How is adaily urinary output less than 500 ml defined?
A) Polyuria
B) Oliguria
C) Normal diuresis
D) Anuria.
A) Polyuria
B) Oliguria
C) Normal diuresis
D) Anuria.
A) 1005-1025
B) 1005-1010
C) 1026-1028
D) 1030-1040.
A) Urea
B) Residual nitrogen
C) Glucose
D) Protein.
A) Urea
B) Residual nitrogen
C) Glucose
D) Protein.
A) Nephrotic
B) Acute-nephritic
C) Acute renal insufficiency
D) Eclampsia.
A) Occurrence of the disease in 2-3 weeks after past infection, more often
streptococcal.
B) Manifestation of a disease by any sign of acute-nephritic syndrome (edema,
arterial hypertension, hematuria, proteinuria)
C) Absence of anamnestic data about changes in the urine analyses, rise in
pressure, edema.
D) Data about past diseases of kidneys, manifested in changes of urine.
446. What sign is not typical for the pathology of glomerular apparatus of kidneys:
A) Hematuria
B) Bacteriuria
C) Cylindruria
D) Proteinuria
E) Renal insufficiency of different degrees of expressiveness.
A) Latent
B) Nephrotic
C) Hematuric
D) Hypertensive
E) Mixed.
A) Latent
B) Nephrotic
C) Hematuric
D) Hypertensive
E) Mixed.
A) Latent
B) Nephrotic
C) Hematuric
D) Hypertensive
E) Mixed.
A)Esophagus
B)Subcardial portion of stomach
C)Stomach body
D)Pyloric part of stomach or duodemum
A)Subcardial portion
B)Stomach body
C)Pyloric portion
A)Esophagus
B)Subcardial portion of stomach
C)Stomach body
D)Pyloric part of stomach or duodemum
464.What kind of syndrome it is, if the basal acid production is 13 mEq / h, and
stimulated acid production is 36 mEq / h:
a) Syndromeof acid-peptic aggression
b)Achyliac syndrome
469.Pain occurrence in epigastric area in 10-15 min after food taking is the
symptom of:
A)Pangastrit
B)Gastritis of subcardial and cardial portions of stomach
C)Gastritis of stomach body
D)Gastritis of antral portion of stomach
470.Occurrence of painful sensations in the anticardium in 40-50 min after food
taking is typical for:
A)Pangastrit
B)Gastritis of subcardial and cardial portions of stomach
C)Gastritis of stomach body
D)Gastritis of antral portion of stomach
475. Polyfecalia, grey or yellow-green feces, oily, with rancid oil odour, alkaline
reaction,considerable amount ofneutral fat, muscular fibers of II and III digestion
degree, accumulation of extracellular starch,is observed at:
A)Gastrogenic dyspepsia
B)Hepatogenic dyspepsia
C)Pancreatogenicdyspepsia
D)Intestinal fermentative dyspepsia.
476. Normally what is observed at the X-ray film of small intestine with
suspension of barium sulfate :
A) Rectum
B) Rectum and sigmoid intestine
C) Rectum, sigmoid and descending transverse intestines
D) Any portion of a large intestine.
A) Exudative enteropathy
B) Syndrome of malabsorption
C) Maldigestive syndrome.
A) Hepatomegaly
B) Splenomegaly
C) Tenderness at palpation in the right hypochondrium
D) Ascites.
483. Paroxysmal pains in the right hypochondrium are most often observed at:
A) Cirrhosis of liver
B) Cholelithiasis
C) Hereditary benign hyperbilirubinemia
D) Abscess of liver.
484. What is not the reason of pains in right hypochondrium at cirrhosis of liver:
485. What changes of skin are not typical for cirrhosis of liver:
489. What is typical for the syndrome of cytolysis, progressing at virus hepatitis
and other acute injuries of liver:
A) High activity of AST, ALT, LDH, increase of activity of hepatic-specific
enzymes
B) Increase of activity of alkaline phosphatase, hypercholesterinemia,
hyperbilirubinemia
C) Reduction of level of albumin, thrombinogen, cholesterine, hyperbilirubinemia
D) Increase of level of gamma-globulines and immunoglobulins.
490. What laboratory tests don’t display the synthetic function of liver:
A) Painful syndrome
B) Dyspeptic syndrome
C) Asthenovegetative syndrome
D) Expressed syndrome of hepatocellular insufficiency
A) Skin pigmentation
B) Early lesion of CNS
C) Early progress of portal hypertension and late progress of icterus
D) Early progress oficterus and late progressof portal hypertension.
497. What early symptom is not typical for portal hypertension at cirrhosis of liver:
499. When the patient has cirrhosis of liver, the most reliable indexfor revealing
the syndrome of portal hypertension at the endoscopic examination of stomach and
esophagus is:
500. What is typical for the patient, who has encephalopathy at the background of
hepatocellular insufficiency:
504. What is the name of the symptom, observed as pain during effleurage along
the lower edge of right costal arch by palm edge:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E)Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom
F) Murphy’s symptom.
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E)Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom (“phrenic” symptom)
F) Murphy’s symptom.
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E)Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom
F) Murphy’s symptom.
507. Whatis the name of the symptom, observed as occurrence of pain during
effleurage or pressing in the projection of gallbladder area:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E)Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom (phrenic symptom)
F) Murphy’s symptom.
508.Whatis the name of the symptom, observed as occurrence of pain during
effleurage along the gallbladder area at inhalation:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E)Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom (phrenic symptom)
F) Murphy’s symptom.
509. Whatis the name of the symptom, observed in the case of obstruction of
common bile duct by tumor, when the gallbladder is palpated as the elastic pear-
shaped bag:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharjin's symptom
E)Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom (phrenic symptom)
F) Murphy’s symptom.
A) Aching pains in the right hypochondrium, occurring in 1-3 hours after food
taking
B) Dyspeptic disturbances
C) Tenderness during the palpation in gallbladder area
D) Thickening of gallbladder wall, revealed during ultrasonic and X-ray
examination
E) Everything is correct
F) A,B answers are correct
511. Specific changes of marrow are observed at:
A) Indirect hyperbilirubinemia
B) Increase of stercobilin excretion with feces, urobilinuria
C) Direct hyperbilirubinemia
D) Remission of osmotic resistance of erythrocytes
E) Reticulocytosis.
A) Skin itch
B) Fever
C) Asthenia
D) Increased bleeding.
A) Leukosis
B) Anemia
C) Hemophilia.
515. The reason of blood diseases, like colic, in the right hypochondrium is:
A) Hepatomegaly
B) Dyskinesia of biliary tracts
C) Pigmental stones in gallbladder.
517. What disease is characterized by plethoric cherry-red skin colour of face, neck
and hands, scleral injection, high hematocrit:
A)Lymphogranulomatosis
B) Erythremia
C) Hemolytic anemia.
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) B12-deficient anemia
C) Lymphogranulomatosis.
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Acute myeloleukemia
C) Chronic lymphoid leukosis
D) Lymphogranulomatosis.
520. What marrow cells are capable to renewal and maximal differentiation:
A) Cells of I class
B) Cells of II class
C) Cells of III class.
A)Polycythemia
B) Hyperglobulia
C) Anemia.
522. The increase of hemoglobin content in relation to the upper normal border is
not typical for:
A) True polycythemia
B) Inhabitants of high mountains
C) Pilots after high-rise flights
D) Leukosis.
B) 3,9-4,7 х1012 / l
C) 3,0-4,0 х1012 / l
D) 5,0-6,0 х1012 / l
A) 4,0-5,0 х1012 / l
B) 3,9-4,7 х1012 / l
C) 3,0-4,0 х1012 / l
D) 5,0-6,0 х1012 / l.
A) 120-140 gr/l
B) 130-160 gr/l
C) 150-170 gr/l.
A) Leukosis
B) Anemia
C) Compensatory hyperglobulias.
A)Aplastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Normochromic anemia
D) В12-deficient anemia
E) Asiderotic anemia.
528.What kind of anemia is characterized by reduction of colour index to less
than 0,8:
A)Aplastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Normochromic anemia
D) В12-deficient anemia
E) Asiderotic anemia.
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Leukosis
C) Chronic renal insufficiency
D) B12-defecient anemia.
A)Pneumonia
B) Carbuncle
C) Leukosis
D) Acute cholecystitis.
A)Bronchial asthma
B) Eczema
C) Purulent-septic process
D) Lambliasis.
534.The neutrophil leukocytosis with sudden deviation to the left is not typical for
the following disease:
A) Helminthic invasion
B) Acute gangrenous cholecystitis
C) Severe medicinal dermatitis
D) Peritonitis.
535. What disease is characterized by extensive, deep, painful hematoma in the
region of right hip after a slight contusion:
A) Hemorrhagic vasculitis
B) Verlhof’s disease
C) Hemophilia
D) Randu-Osler’s disease.
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Hemophilia
D) Shanlane-Genoh’s disease.
A)Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis
E) Diabetes mellitus.
A)Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypocorticoidism
D) Hypercorticoidism.
A)Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis.
A)Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis.
A)Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis
E) Diabetes mellitus.
A) Alpha-cells
B) Beta-cells
C) Delta-cells
D) Cells of acinuses.
A) Glucagon
B) Catecholamines
C) Vasopressin
D) Somatotrophic hormone
E) Glucocorticoids.
A) Polydipsia
B) Polyuria
C) Normoglyсemia on an empty stomach
D) Glucosuria.
A)Polydipsia
B) Polyuria
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Glycosuria
E) Increased appetite
F) Increasedappetite to salty food.
A) Hereditary predisposition
B) The onset of the disease is usually acute at young age
C) The onset of the disease is often occurred at advanced age with people with
obesity
D) Is occurred with expressed symptoms (thirst, polyuria, loss of weight).
557. Normally what level of glycemia is observed in 2 hours after glucose taking :
A) 4,6mmol/l
B) 5,5mmol/l
C) 6,4mmol/l
D) 11,1mmol/l.
A) 8 mmol/l
B) 9 mmol/l
C) 10 mmol/l.
A) Arterial hypertension
B) Macroangiopathy
C) Retinopathy
D) Neuropathy.
B) Progesterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
A) Testosterone
B) Estradiole
C) Aldosterone.
A)Cortisol
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
565. The production decrease of what hormone leads to the decrease of Na+,
HCO3-, Cl- content in blood and increase of К+ consistency:
A)Cortisol
B)Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
A)Cortisol
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
A)Cortisol
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
A)Aldosterone
B) Testosterone
C) Cortisolю
D) Hypophysial pathology
E) Everything is correct.
C) Hemolysis of erythrocytes
B) Tachycardia
E) Nothing is correct.
B) Oxygenotherapy
A) Antihistamine preparations
B) Glucocorticosteroid preparations
C) Diuretics
D) Vasopressors.
A) Edema of lips
B) Edema of larynx
C) Edema around eyes
D) Edema of lungs.
579. What is not the mediator of anaphylaxis, released at the activation ofmast
cells and basophyls:
A)Histamine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Leukotrienes
A) Obstruction of bronchi
B) Obstruction of the upper respiratory tracts
C) Arterial hypotension
D) Arterial hypertension.
581.Transmission ways of a HIV-infection are:
A) The parenteral
B) The sexual
D) Everything is correct.
A) Anemia
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Leukopenia
D) Lymphopenia
E) Everything is correct.
584. The most typical signs of AIDS are:
E) Everything is correct.
A)HIV-infection
B) Infectious mononucleosis
C) Malaria
D) Syphilis.
B) In blood
C) In urine
D) In saliva.
587. Storage of the biological material, taken for examination, must be:
A) Stored in the minimal quantities, in the capacities specially intended for this
purpose, marked "Attention -AIDS"
C) The biological material isn't stored and thrown away right after the
examination.
A) 5-6 hours
B) 3-4 weeks
590. In what period of time after contamination are the antibodies started to
produce:
A) In 2-3 days
B) In2-3 weeks
C) In 6-12 weeks and more.
Answers for final tests: