(AIIMS & NEET - Memory Based Questions) OPHTHALMOLOGY

“QUESTIONS”

OPHTHALMOLOGY (AIIMS & NEET - Recall Questions )

Anesthesia T&D
1. Sudden acute loss of vision with shallow anterior A. Night blindness and defective dark adaptation is
chamber is suggestive of: seen
A. Acute angle closure glaucoma B. It is associated with Usher's syndrome and
B. Acute iridocyclitis Refsum's disease
C. Open angle glaucoma C. Annular scotomas may be seen
D. Viral keratitis D. The readings of electroretinogram are very
highly elevated
2. Optic nerve glioma is associated with:
A. Sturge Weber Syndrome 8. Most common Foreign bodies in eye are:
B. Neurofibromatosis I A. Iron
C. VKH Syndrome B. Glass
D. Von Hippel Lindau Syndrome C. Stone pellets
D. Lead pellets
3. Normal axial length of eyeball at birth is:
A. 10mm 9. Type of vision loss in pituitary adenoma-
B. 16.5mm A. Bitemporal hemianopia
C. 20mm B. Homonymous hemianopia
D. 24.5mm C. Unilateral blindness
D. Qudranopia
4. Blowout fracture affects which orbital wall ?
A. Lateral wall 10. Blue sclera is seen in:
B. Posteromedial part of orbital floor A. Alkaptonuria
C. Superior wall B. Osteogenesis imperfect
D. Anterosuperior roof C. Down syndrome
D. Kawasaki syndrome
5. Power of cornea is:
A.30D B.44D 11. Jacksons cylinder is used for:
C. 55 D D. 60 D A. Detecting spherical power
B. Detecting cylindrical power
6. A 32 year old female presents with sudden C. Refining cylindrical power and axis
onset severe pain in the left eye after watching a D. None of the above
movie. The pain is severe and there is progressive
loss of vision. The ophthalmic surgeon notices 12. Characteristic feature of Herpes Simplex
ciliary injection and a shallow anterior chamber. Keratitis is:
Pupil is semi dilated and corneal appears A. Disciform keratitis
edematous. The probable diagnosis is: B. Dendritic Ulcer
A. Open angle glaucoma C. Haab's Striae
B. CRAO D. Band keratopathy
C. Acute angle closure glaucoma
D. CRVO 13. What will be the consequence if the left optic
nerve is cut:
7. Retinitis Pigmentosa- all of the following are true
except:

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A. Left eye complete blindness with loss of D. Stargardt's Disease

contralateral direct and ipsilateral consensual light 21. Point of entry of inferior division of oculomotor
reflex nerve in the orbit is:
B. Left eye complete blindness with loss of A. Inferior Orbital fissure
ipsilateral direct and contralateral consensual light B. Superior Orbital fissure
reflex C. Foramen Rotundum
C. Left eye complete blindness with no effect on light D. Foramen Lacerum
reflex
D. Bitemporal hemianopia 22. Farmer came back from farm with redness,
photophobia & lacrimation. Features are
14. Brodmann’s area of Visual Cortex: suggestive of which corneal ulcer?
A. Area 17 B. Area 41 A. Mycotic Corneal Ulcer
C. Area 1,2,3 D. Area 4 B. Bacterial corneal ulcer
C. Viral Corneal Ulcer
15. A 30 year old female wears contact lens for 2 D. Acanthamoeba Keratitis
months continuously. The symptoms she
experiences the rafter could be due to all except: 23. Asteroid Hyalosis bodies are composed of:
A. Giant Papillary conjunctivitis A. Iron
B. Microbial keratitis B. Calcium and phosphates
C. Increased sensitivity C. Cadmium and chloride
D. Open angle glaucoma D. None

16. Tertiary vitreous is represented by: 24. For Corneal transplant, maximum duration
A. Zonular system B. Ciliary body after death the eye can be harvested is:
C. Anterior uvea D. Lens A. 12 hours B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours D. 48 hours
17. Trabeculectomy for glaucoma leads to
formation of a channel between: 25. Salmon Patch Appearance is seen in:
A. Subconjunctival space and anterior chamber A. Subconjunctival Hemorrhage
B. Anterior chamber and Posterior chamber B. Interstitial Keratitis
C. Subconjunctival space and posterior chamber C. Retinitis Pigmentosa
D. None of the above D. Buphthalmos

18. Wesley’s ring is seen in: 26. SRK formula is used to calculate:
A. Mycotic Corneal Ulcer A. Power of intraocular lens
B. Bacterial corneal Ulcer B. Corneal curvature
C. Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus C. Corneal endothelial cell count
D. Herpes Simplex keratitis D. Extent of retinal detachment

19. Outer nuclear layer of retina contains: 27. What is the most serious cause of conjunctivitis
A. Nuclei of rods and cones that cause blindness in children:
B. Ganglion cells A. N. Gonococcus
C. Axons of ganglion cells B. Streptococus
D. Retinal pigment epithelium C. Staphylococcus
D. Chlamydia
20. Circinate retinopathy is seen in:
A. Diabetic Retinopathy 28. Action of superior rectus muscle:
B. Hypertensive Retinopathy A. Abduction B. Adduction
C. Best Disease C. Elevation D. Depression

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29. Anisocoria in horners syndrome is due to: C. Acute retinal necrosis

A. Oculo sympathetic palsy D. Central serous retinopathy
B. Oculo parasympathetic palsy
C. Oculomotor nerve palsy 38. Condition where subhyaloid hemorrhage is
D. Abducens nerve palsy associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
A. Posner-Schlossman syndrome
30. With accommodation at rest, total refractory B. Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome
power of crystalline lens is: C. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome
A. 14D B. 16D D. Terson's syndrome
C. 18D D. 20D
39. A 30 year old male came with complains of
31. Muscle not paralyzed in retrobulbar block: unilateral blurred vision with floaters since 15 days.
A. Superior oblique B. Lateral rectus On examination, AC flare and cells were seen with
C. Superior rectus D. Medial rectus 'headlight in fog' appearance on indirect
ophthalmoscopy. Also, a single inflammatory focus
32. A child has esotropia. What corrective surgery of fluffy retinochoroiditis lesion is seen. What is the
is to be performed: diagnosis?
A. Medial rectus resection A. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
B. Lateral rectus recession B. Toxoplasmosis chorioretinitis
C. Medial rectus recession C. Toxocariasis
D. All of the above D. Sarcoidosis

33. Condition in which lid is adhered to conjunctiva 40. In complicated cataract opacity develops in:
is: A. Anterior capsule
A. Ankyloblepharon B. Nucleus
B. Symblepharon C. Posterior subcapsular
C. Trichiasis D. Cortical
D. Madarosis
41. Vossius ring is seen in:
34. Internal hordeolum is inflammation of: A. Cornea I B. Lens
A. Hair follicles C. Vitreous D. Retina
B. Moll glands
C. Meibomian gland 42. Swimmer after coming out from swimming
D. Zeiss glands pool presents with redness and mucopurulent
discharge. There is no history of contact lens wear.
35. Volume of orbit is: On examination, no corneal involvement seen.
A.19ml B. 29ml Probable diagnosis is:
C. 39 ml D. 49 ml A. Acanthamoeba keratitis
B. Adult inclusion conjunctivitis
36. Most common method of anterior C. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
capsulotomy in phacoemulsification: D. Angular conjunctivitis
A. Can-opener capsulotomy
B. Interscapular capsulotomy 43. Most common wall of Orbit involved in a
C. Capsulorhexis blowout Fracture is:
D. Envelop capsulotomy A. Medial
B. Floor
37. Smoke stake pattern is characteristic of? C. Lateral
A. Sickle cell retinopathy D. Roof
B. Sarcoidosis

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44. MC cause of neonatal eye infection is?

A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococus
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. Chlamydia

45. Organism that produces corneal ulcer

resembling fungal corneal ulcer
A. Klebsiella B. Nocardia A. Tonometry
C. Chlamydia D. Mycobacteria B. Laser interferometry
C. Pachymetry
46. Black deposits on the conjunctiva are noted D. Refractometer
with use of one of the following drugs used in
glaucoma 51. Which drug causes ocular hypotension with
A. Prostaglandins apnea in an infant?
B. Adrenergic agonists A. Latanoprost
C. Beta blockers B. Timolol
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors C. Brimonidine
D. Dorzolamide
47. A 33 year old man presents to AIIMS
ophthalmology OPD with pain and watering of 52. Chemotherapy agents for retinoblastoma:
eyes. On examination there was a 3X2 mm grayish A. Vincristine, carboplatin and etoposide
white corneal ulcer with indistinct elevated B. Vinblastine, etoposide and bleomycin
margins. The lesion is surrounded by feathery C. Vinblastine, vincristine and etoposide
finger like infiltration into the adjacent corneal D. Vinblastine, vincristine and cisplatin
stroma. Minimal hypopyon is also observed. Based
on the information provided the microbiological 53. Drug used in acute congestive glaucoma are:
investigation should be directed against A. Atropine B. Pilocarpine
A. Aspergillus spp. C. Acetazolamide D. Both B & C
B. Pseudomonas spp.
C. Herpes simplex virus 54. A child has ptosis and poor levator function.
D. Acanthamoeba spp. What surgery will you do?
A. Levator muscle resection
48. The angle in minutes subtended by the largest B. Muller ectomy
alphabet of Snellen’s chart is: C. Fasanella Servat surgery
A. 60 B. 5 D. None of the above
C. 1 D. 30
55. True statement about given condition of eye
49. Phenol red thread test dry eye, true is: except:
A. Colour change on contact with tears to assess the
volume of tears
B. Uses a pH meter for measurement and
interpretation
C. Measures ocular surface mucin deficiency if
thread colour changes to blue
D. Requires instillation of topical anesthesia before
the procedure

50. Identify the test shown below:

A. Arise from any part of conjunctiva
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B. Can cause Astigmatism C. Dexamethasone

C. Surgery is treatment of choice D. Lidocaine
D. UV exposure is risk factor
62. Which of the following is not an ocular
56. Identify the instrument: manifestation of Dengue virus infection?
A. Cataract
B. Maculopathy
C. Optic neuritis
D. Vitreous hemorrhage

63. Which of the following is the site of lesion of

internuclear ophthalmoplegia?
A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
A. Double Maddox rod B. 6th nerve nucleus
B. Maddox wing C. Pontine paramedian reticular formation
C. Maddox glass D. A and C
D. Red glass
64. Iris pearls are seen in uveitis due to:
57. What is against the rule correction in A. Tuberculosis
astigmatism: B. Syphilis
A. -1.25 cyl 90 C. Toxoplasma
B. -2 spherical 180 D. Leprosy
C. -3 cyl 180
D. +2 cyl 180 65. The treatment of congenital glaucoma is:
A. Essentially topical medications
58. Tylosis refers to: B. Trabeculoplasty
A. Hypertrophy and therowing of eyelid C. Trabeculectomy
B. Inversion of eyelid D. Goniotomy
C. Senile eversion of eyelid
D. Distortion of Cilia 66. Snellen's chart is used to test?
A. Visual acuity
59. A 21 years old female patient presented with B. Contrast sensitivity
glaucoma with bulging cornea. What is the most C. Visual fields
probable diagnosis of this case? D. Colour vision
A. Keratoconus
B. Keratomalacia 67. Grid laser photocoagulation is indicated in
C. Staphyloma which of the following conditions?
D. Granular dystrophy A. Diabetic Retinopathy
B. Macular edema
60. Stenopaic slit is used for all except: C. Macular ischemia
A. Fincham’s test D. Retinal detachment
B. Determine the axis of cylinder
C. Corneal tattooing 68. Which is not a feature of fungal corneal ulcer?
D. Iridectomy A. White dry
B. Immune ring
61. Which of the following is used as an adjuvant C. More symptomatic than bacterial ulcer
therapy for fungal corneal Ulcer? D. Non-sterile hypopyon
A. Atropine eye drops
B. Pilocarpine eye drops 69. Which of the following is not a part of uvea:

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A. Iris B. Ciliary body 79. Soemmering's ring is seen in:

C. Choroid D. Retina A. Posterior subcapsular cataract
B. After cataract
70. What is the primary action of inferior oblique C. Endophthalmitis
muscle? D. Fuchs Heterochromia iridis
A. Extorsion B. Depression
C. Elevation D. Intorsion 80. Subretinal hemorrhage at macula in myopia is
known as:
71. Floaters are seen in all except? A. Lacquer cracks
A. Vitreous hemorrhage B. Foster Fuchs spot
B. Retinal detachment C. Staphyloma
C. Vitritis D. Macular retinoschisis
D. Central retinal vein occlusion
81. Phacoemulsification uses:
72. Lesion in the optic chiasma causes: A. High frequency sound waves
A. Bitemporal hemianopia B. Infrared waves
B. Upper nasal C. Ultraviolet rays
C. Lower nasal D. None of these
D. Homonymous hemianopia
82. Which is an action of lateral rectus muscle?
73. Transport of ascorbic acid to the lens is done A. Abduction B. Adduction
by? C. Intorsion D. Extorsion
A. Active transport B. Passive diffusion
C. Ultrafiltration D. Neither of the above 83. Drug contraindicated in glaucoma in infant is?
A. Latanoprost
74. Iron deposition line at edge of pterygium on B. Dorzolamide
corneal epithelium is known as? C. Acetazolamide
A. Stocker's line B. KF Ring D. Brimonidine
C. Fleischer ring D. Ferry’s line
84. Topical steroid is contraindicated in which
75. How much is image magnification on direct ocular condition:
ophthalmoscope examination: A. Anterior uveitis
A. 5 times B. 10 times B. Posterior uveitis
C. 15 times D. 20 times C. Fungal Corneal ulcer
D. Mooren’s ulcer
76. What is the treatment of after cataract?
A. Surgical B. Laser 85. Onion peel appearance cataract is seen in
C. Medical D. None of these which of the following types?
A. Posterior subcapsular cataract
77. Gene for eye morphogenesis is: B. Anterior subcapsular cataract
A. Pax6 B. FBN-l C. Posterior polar cataract
C. ALK D. HBB D. Anterior polar cataract

78. Ocular findings in diabetes are all except: 86. Late onset endophthalmitis after cataract
A. Retinopathy surgery is caused by?
B. Early senile cataract A. Staphylococcus
C. Neovascular glaucoma B. Candida
D. Blepharophimosis C. Bacillus cereus
D. Propionibacterium acnes

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87. Mucin layer deficiency over cornea causes? 96. Which order neuron is optic nerve in the visual
A. Corneal ulcer pathway?
B. Corneal degeneration A. First order B. Second order
C. Corneal dystrophy C. Third order D. None of these
D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
97. Enophthalmos is due to palsy of:
88. Sudden loss of vision is seen in all except? A. Levator palpebrae superioris
A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Superior tarsal muscle
B. Retinal detachment C. Orbitalis muscle
C. Open angle glaucoma D. Tenon's capsule instability
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
98. Optic radiations arise from:
89. Painful eye movement is a feature of? A. Lateral Geniculate body
A. Optic neuritis B. Medial Geniculate Body
B. Papilloedema C. Superior colliculus
C. Optic atrophy D. Inferior colliculus
D. Optic nerve hypoplasia
90. Which intraocular muscle inserts closest to 99. What causes pseudo proptosis:
limbus: A. Hyperthyroidism
A. Lateral Rectus B. Medial Rectus B. Optic nerve glioma
C. Superior Rectus D. Inferior Rectus C. High myopia
D. Orbital pseudotumor
91. Mittendorf’s dot is found on:
A. Anterior capsule of lens 100. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is seen with:
B. Posterior capsule of lens A. Adenovirus B.
C. Vitreous Staphylococcal
D. Retina C. Pneumococcus D. Hemophilus

92. Foster Kennedy syndrome seen with: 101. Diuretic used in congestive glaucoma:
A. AI ON B. Retinal detachment A. Mannitol B. Acetazolamide
C. Frontal lobe tumor D. Macular C. Frusemide D. Spironolactone
edema
102. Most common site of bony metastases in
93. Most common malignant eyelid carcinoma in retinoblastoma:
India: A. Skull bones B. Hip bones
A. Basal cell carcinoma C. Ribs D. Vertebrae
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Keratoacanthoma 103. Capillary hemangioma is associated with
D. Sebaceous gland carcinoma which syndrome?
A. Vogt Koyanagi Harada Syndrome
B. Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
94. What is deposited in band keratopathy: C. Marfan's Syndrome
A. CaS04 B. CaP04 D. Von Hippel Lindau Syndrome
C. MgS04 D. MgP04

95. What is the length of optic nerve: 104. A 60-year-old with cataract surgery, post 1
A. 20 mm B. 30 mm year came with complaints of diminished vision.
C. 40 mm D. 50 mm And shows the following finding. Diagnosis?

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A. Suprachoroidal hemorrhage
A. Irvine-Gass syndrome B. Cyclodialysis of uvea
B. After cataract C. Corneal perforation
C. UGH syndrome D. Filtration site leak
D. Endophthalmitis
109. Aniseikonia is:
A. Difference in the axial length of the eyeballs
105. “Silent choroid” on FFA is feature of:
B. Difference in the size of corneas
A. Best’s disease
C. Difference in the size of pupils
B. Age related macular degeneration
D. Difference in the size of image formed by the two
C. Stargardt’s disease
eyes
D. Cystoid macular edema
110. Cell bodies of Muller's Cells are present in
106. Identify the below finding:
which layer of retina?
A. Inner limiting membrane
B. Outer nuclear layer
C. Retinal pigment epithelium
D. Ganglion Cell layer

111. All of the following are causes of retinal tear

except:
A. Trauma
B. Lattice degeneration
A. Ptosis of right eye
C. High Myopia
B. Entropion of right eye
D. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
C. Lagophthalmos right eye
D. Ectropion left eye
112. Inheritance of colour blindness is:
A. Y linked
107. Visual pathway defect at the level of optic
B. linked recessive
chiasma will result in:
C. Autosomal dominant
A. Binasal hemianopia
D. Autosomal recessive
B. Bitemporal hemianopia
C. Central scotoma
113. Nerve supply of superior oblique muscle is by:
D. Bilateral hemianopia
A. Trochlear nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
108. The following picture shows—(1) abrasion,
C. Abducens
(2) corneal ulcer, (3) corneal perforation and
D. Optic nerve
foreign body. Which of the following will not cause
hypotonic maculopathy?
114. Which of the following is true about signs of
angle closure glaucoma except:
A. Vertical semi dilated pupil
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B. Edematous cornea C. Trachoma

C. Multiple iris nodules D. Retinoblastoma
D. Edematous and hyperemic optic disc
123. Ankyloblepharon is defined as:
115. Retrolental fibroplasia - Which of the A. Adhesion of the-lid to the eyeballs
following is false: B. Adhesion of the lid margins to each other
A. Total retinal detachment is seen in Stage V C. Inturned eyelash
B. Treatment of threshold disease is laser D. Inflammation of the lid margin
photocoagulation
C. Demarcation line is first seen in Stage II 124. The globe is displaced to which side in
D. It may occur due to high exposure to oxygen in lacrimal gland tumour?
premature infants A. Inferotemporal
B. Inferonasal
116. Cherry red spot is seen in all of the following C. Superotemporal
except: D. Nasal
A. CRAO B. Commotio Retinae
C. Gaucher's Disease D. Hypertensive retinopathy 125. Most common protozoan causing keratitis is:
A. Plasmodium
117. Afferent pathway of corneal reflex is by: B. Acanthamoeba
A. Trigeminal nerve C. Toxoplasma
B. Facial nerve D. W. bancrofti
C. Oculomotor nerve 126. Loss of vision may occur due to occlusion of:
D. Abducens A. Optic artery
B. Superior Ophthalmic artery
118. Medial wall of orbit is formed by all except: C. Central Retinal artery
A. Ethmoid D. External carotid artery
B. Sphenoid
C. Frontal bone 127. Which of the following Carbonic anhydrase
D. Lacrimal bone inhibitor are used topically as anti glaucoma drops?
A. Acetazolamide B. Brinzolamide
119. Power of reduced eye is: C. Methazolamide D. Dichlorphenamide
A. SOD B. SSD
C. S8D D. 60D 128. A 50 year old male presents with cicatricial
Entropion of upper and lower eyelid. On eversion
120. Cobblestone conjunctivitis is seen in: of upper eyelid, linear conjunctival scars - Arlt line
A. Spring Cattarrh are seen. What is the diagnosis?
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis A. Trachoma
C. Inclusion conjunctivitis B. Spring catarrh
D. Giany papillary conjunctivitis C. Ligneous conjunctivitis
D. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome
121. Vitrectomy approach is most commonly via:
A. Pars plana 129. Schwalbe's line represents:
B. Cornea A. Junction of the choroid and retina
C. Equator of the eye B. Termination of corneal descemet’s membrane
D. None C. Division between bulbar and palpebral
conjunctiva
122. Pseudo gerontoxon is seen in: D. Upper limit of the macula
A. Vernal keratopathy
B. Choroidal melanoma

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130. In which of the following conditions Berlin's 138. Which of the following is false statement
edema is seen: about vitreous?
A. Open angle glaucoma A. Anatomically, vitreous is present in anterior
B. After cataract surgery segment
C. After concussional trauma B. Vitreous largely contain water and hyaluronic acid
D. Diabetic retinopathy C. Strongest attachment of vitreous base is at ora
serrata
131. Which of the following parasite infestation D. Vitreous is attached anteriorly to the lens
may be found in the extraocular eye muscles?
A. Ascariasis 139. Post operative complications of cataract are
B. Ankylostoma duodenale all except?
C. Cysticercosis A. After cataract B. Endophthalmitis
D. Trypanosomiasis C. Glaucoma D. Scleritis

132. 'D' shaped pupil is seen in: 140. Which of the following step is not done during
A. Glaucoma B. Dislocation of lens phacoemulsification surgery for cataract?
C. Iridodialysis D. Iridocyclitis A. Irrigation and drainage of cortex
B. Continuous curvilinear capsulorrhexis
133. Koeppe's nodules are seen in? C. Foldable IOL implantation
A. Granulomatous anterior uveitis D. Sclerocorneal tunnel
B. Bacterial corneal ulcer
C. Fungal hypopyon
D. Non Granulomatous anterior uveitis 141. What is the mode of transmission involved in
congenital cataract?
134. Pain is out of proportion to signs in which A. Autosomal recessive
corneal ulcer? B. X-linked recessive
A. Herpes simplex keratitis C. X-linked dominant
B. Acanthamoeba keratitis D. Autosomal dominant
C. Fungal keratitis
D. Pneumococcal keratitis
142. Hemeralopia is seen in:
135. Investigation of choice for optic neuritis is ? A. Retinal detachment
A. MRI Brain and orbit B. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Ct scan Brain and orbit C. Optic neuritis
C. Vitreous biopsy D. Subcapsular cataract
D. Electrooculogram
143. In a child with photophobia (as shown in the
136. Vision is not affected in? picture below), lacrimation is most likely to have:
A. Corneal ulcer B. Papilloedema
C. Optic atrophy D. Retinal Detachment

137. Which is the syndrome not associated with

lens dislocation?
A. Marfan's Syndrome
B. Weill-Marchesani syndrome
C. Aniridia
D. Usher syndrome A. Congenital glaucoma
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Megalocornea
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D. Congenital endothelial dystrophy 151. Oily layer of the tear film is formed by:
A. Meibomian glands
144. The pair of spectacles shown in the picture B. Conjunctival goblet cells
below are used in: C. Lacrimal glands
D. None

152. Lisch nodules in the iris are seen in:

A. VHK Syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis 1
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Retinoblastoma

A. Bifocal for adult aphakia 153. What is the type of Goldman tonometry?
B. Bifocal for presbyopia A. Applanation Tonometry
C. Progressive glasses for presbyopia B. Dynamic contour tonometry
D. Bifocal for pediatric pseudophakia C. Rebound tonometry
D. Impression tonometry
145. Argon Laser trabeculoplasty is used in:
A. Open angle glaucoma 154. Cycloplegic action of atropine lasts up to:
B. Angle closure glaucoma A. 6 hours B. 1 week
C. Buphthalmos C. 1 day D. 2 weeks
D. None 155. Miotics are used in the treatment of
A. Open angle glaucoma
146. Most common malignancy in the orbital and B. Angle closure glaucoma
periorbital region in children is: C. After cataract
A. Rhabdomyosarcoma D. Posterior uveitis
B. Melanoma
C. Retinoblastoma 156. Which of the following is complication of
D. Lymphoma prolonged use of corticosteroid eye drops?
A. Posterior Subcapsular cataract
147. Stereopsis is tested by all of the following B. Nuclear cataract
except: C. Capsular cataract
A. Titmus test B. Frisby test D. Cortical cataract
C. TNO test D. West test
157. Which of the following is a layer between
148. Laser iridotomy is done in: choroid and retina?
A. Open angle glaucoma A. Bruch's membrane
B. Angle closure glaucoma B. Descemet's membrane
C. Buphthalmos C. Photoreceptors
D. After cataract D. Ganglion cell layer

149. Spasm of accommodation mimics: 158. K F Ring is seen in:

A. Myopia B. Hypermetropia A. Chalcosis
C. Amblyopia D. Presbyopia B. Sarcoidosis
C. Tuberous Sclerosis
150. Which of the following is the drug of choice in D. VKH Syndrome
open angle glaucoma?
A. Timolol B. Latanoprost 159. Action of superior oblique muscle is:
C. Pilocarpine D. Mannitol A. Intorsion, Abduction and depression

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B. Adduction, intorsion and depression C. Diabetic retinopathy

C. Abduction, Extorsion and Depression D. Optic neuritis
D. Elevation, Intorsion and Adduction
168. Yoke muscle of right superior oblique is:
160. Homonymous Hemianopia is due to the A. Left superior rectus
affection of: B. Left inferior rectus
A. Optic tract C. Right superior rectus
B. Optic chiasma D. Left lateral rectus
C. Lateral geniculate body
D. Optic nerve 169. Retinoblastoma’s show all of the following
161. 100 day glaucoma is also known as: except:
A. CRVO A. Small round cells B. Necrosis
B. CRAO C. Pseudorosette D. Fleurette
C. Buphthalmos 170. Salt pepper fundus is seen in:
D. Age related macular degeneration A. Congenital Syphilis
B. CRVO
162. Keith Wagner classification is for: C. Retinopathy of prematurity
A. Hypertensive retinopathy D. Ethambutol intoxication
B. Diabetic maculopathy
C. CRVO 171. Herbert pits are seen in:
D. CRAO A. Trachoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
163. What is the drug of choice for acute C. Acute iridocyclitis
iridocyclitis? D. Posterior uveitis
A. Topical steroids B. Cycloplegic
C. Miotic D. Mannitol 172. Which of the following is most common visual
defect in papilledema?
164. Angioid streaks in the retina are seen in all of A. Amourosis fugax
the following except: B. Homonymous hemianopia
A. Ehlers Danlos Syndrome C. Homonymous quadrant opia
B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Glare
C. Paget's disease
D. Hypertensive retinopathy
173. What is the new advance in cataract surgery?
165. Ring scotoma is seen in all except: A. Femto second laser B. Neodymium Laser
A. High myopia C. Nanosecond laser D. Picoseconds Laser
B. Aphakic spectacle correction
C. Retinitis pigmentosa 174. Which of the following is classic in
D. Age related macular degeneration proliferative diabetic retinopathy:
A. Soft exudates
166. Soft exudates are found in all except: B. Hard exudates
A. Diabetic Retinopathy C. Neovascularization
B. Hypertensive retinopathy D. Papilloedema
C. CMV retinitis
D. Retinopathy of prematurity 175. What is the treatment of meibomianitis ?
A. Cleansing the lid edges
167. Marcus Gunn pupil is seen in: B. Application of moist heat
A. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Local antibiotics
B. Retinal detachment D. All of the above

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(AIIMS & NEET - Memory Based Questions) OPHTHALMOLOGY
“QUESTIONS”

A. Argon green laser

176. Blowout fracture of the floor of the orbit. B. Lens explantation
True is: C. Nd:YAG Laser
A. Waters view is recommended D. Diode laser
B. Proptosis is seen
C. Epistaxis is never seen 184. What is the angle subtended by the topmost
D. Double density sign is seen letter of Snellen’s chart at the nodal point of eye?
A. 5 min
177. Corneal epithelium develops from: B. 20 min
A. Surface ectoderm C. 50 min
B. Mesoderm D. 30 min
C. Endoderm
D. Neural crest 185. What is the ocular feature of Sturge–Weber
syndrome?
178. Most common cause of blindness in trachoma A. Glaucoma
is: B. Keratitis
A. Macular degeneration C. Uveitis
B. Conjunctival scarring D. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Corneal opacity
D. None 186. A patient presents with acute pain and
watering since 36 hours. There is an ulcer 3 x 2 mm
on cornea with feathery margins rolled out edges
179. Which of the following is true about divergent with minimal hypopyon:
squint: A. Bacterial B. Fungal
A. It is also called exotropia C. Acanthamoeba D. HSV II
B. It is more common than convergent squint
C. It is a feature of 6th nerve palsy 187. Below image signifies which of the following
D. All of the following condition?

180. Oculomotor nerve palsy show all of the

following except:
A. Ptosis
B. Inability of lateral gaze
C. Paralysis of accommodation
D. Upward gaze not possible
A. Oculomotor nerve palsy
B. Trochlear nerve palsy
181. Shied ulcer is seen in:
C. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
A. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
D. Lateral rectus paralysis
B. Spring Cattarrh
C. Mycotic corneal ulcer
188. Most common fungal infection of eye in HIV?
D. Herpetic ulcer
A. Aspergillosis B. Candidiasis
C. Cryptococcus D. Coccidiosis
182. All of the following are components of Vogt's
triad except:
189. Key hole visual defect is seen in lesions
A. Glaukomflecken
involving?
B. Iris Atrophy
A. Optic chiasma
C. Dilated non reacting pupil
B. Lateral geniculate body
D. Edematous optic disc
C. Optic disc
D. Occipital lobe
183. Posterior capsule opacities are treated by
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(AIIMS & NEET - Memory Based Questions) OPHTHALMOLOGY
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190. In convergent strabismus, Which of the

following nerve injury is seen?

A. CME
B. Macular hole
C. Chloroquine toxicity
A. A B. B C. C D. D
D. Chronic choroiditis
191. A 55 year old male patient came to OPD with
195. A 15-year-oldboy presented with headache
the complaints of glare during night drive. He had and blurring of vision. On examination there was
underwent cataract surgery 1 year back. The best diplopia on looking towards left in the right eye.
corrected visual acuity is RE - 6/12 and LE - 6/9 No What is your diagnosis?
improvement with pinhole. What is the probable A. Tb meningitis
diagnosis? B. internuclear ophthalmoplegia
A. Cystoid macular edema C. Cranial neuritis
B. Pseudophakic bullous keratopathy D. Demyelination
C. ARMD
D. Posterior capsular opacification 196. Placido disc is used for assessing:
A. Corneal thickness
192. A 5 year old boy was brought with the B. Corneal curvature
complains of protrusion of the right eye – 10 days C. Curvature of the lens
with no h/o fever. CT - scan showed, well defined D. Corneal Sheen and surface
mass in the orbit with irregular border and adjacent
bony destruction. Biopsy showed small, round cells 197. Levator Palpebrae Superioris is supplied by
which is positive for Desmin in which nerve?
Immunohistochemistry. What is the probable A. Ophthalmic nerve
diagnosis? B. Oculomotor nerve
A. Retinoblastoma C. Abducens
B. Cavernous Hemangioma D. Trochlear nerve
C. Orbital cellulitis
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma 198. Phacodonesis is seen in all except:
A. Traumatic injury to the eye
193. In 3rd nerve palsy all seen except? B. Hypermature cataract
A. Pupil dilation C. Pseudoexfoliation
B. Ptosis D. Diabetes mellitus
C. Outward upward rolling of pupil
D. Impaired pupillary reflex 199. Which of the following is a good dye is used
for lens in cataract surgery?
194. A patient is taking drugs for rheumatoid A. Trypan Blue B. Fluorescein
arthritis and has a history of cataract surgery 1 year C. India ink D. None
back, the patient presented with sudden painless
loss of vision, probable diagnosis is?

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(AIIMS & NEET - Memory Based Questions) OPHTHALMOLOGY
“QUESTIONS”

200. Most common site of basal cell carcinoma of

the eye is:
A. Eyelid B. Conjunctiva
C. Cornea D. Lacrimal apparatus

201. Oldest fibres of the lens are:

A. In the nucleus
B. At the anterior pole
C. Cortical
D. None

202. All of the following are used in Treatment of

retinal detachment except:
A. Scleral buckling
B. Drainage of subretinal fluid
C. Encirclage
D. Transpupillary thermotherapy

203. Crossed eye fixation is positive in:

A. Esotropia B. Exotropia
C. Hypertropia D. Hypotropia

204. Partial ptosis is oculomotor nerve injury is

due to intact -
A. Supply from opposite oculomotor nerve
B. Sympathetic innervation
C. Parasympathetic innervation
D. Action of orbicularis oculi

205. Most common cause of unilateral proptosis in

adults is:
A. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Orbital blowout fracture
D. Orbital cellulitis

206. In which of the following, intraocular pressure

is very high and inflammation is minimum?
A. Glaucomatocyclic crisis
B. Acute iridocyclitis
C. Hypertensive uveitis
D. Angle closure glaucoma

207. Treatment of Mooren's Ulcer is:

A. Antibiotics
B. Immunosuppressive Agents
C. Thorough debridement
D. Antifungal drugs

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