Latihan Soal

Latihan Soal
CERTIFICATE IN PROJECT MANAGEMENT REVIEWER

(1)
1. You are managing a software project. Your QA manager tells you that you need to plan to
have her team start their test planning activity so that it finishes just before testing begins.
But other than that, she says it can start as late in the project as necessary. What’s the
relationship between the test planning activity and the testing activity?
A. Start-to-Start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Finish-to-Start (FS)
D. Finish-to-Finish (FF)
2. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used in Estimate Activity Durations?
A. SWAG Estimation
B. Parametric Estimation
C. Analogous Estimation
D. Three-Point Estimation
3. A project manager is having trouble securing programmers for her project. Every time she
asks the programming manager for resources for her project, he says they’re all assigned to
other work. So she is constanly having to go over his head to overrule him. Which type of
organixation is she working for ?
A. Functional
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Projectized
4. What’s the correct order og the time management planning processes?

A. Sequence Activities, Define Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity
Durations, Develop Schedule
B. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule, Estimate Activity Resources,
Estimate Activity Durations
C. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity
D. Develop Schedule, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, , Estimate Activity Resources,
5. You’re working on a project that has an EV of $7362 and a PV (BCWS) of $8232 what’s your
SV?
A. -$870
B. $870
C. 0.89
D. Not enough information to tell
Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

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6. You’re a project manager working in a weak matrix organization. Which of the following is
NOT true?
A. Your team members report to functional managers
B. You are not in directly charge of resources
C. Functional managers make decisions that can affect your projects
D. You have sole responsibility for the success or failure of the project
7. You’re on the project selection committee. You’re reviewing a document that describes the
strategic value of a potential project and its benefits to the company. What’s this document
called?
A. Project Charter
B. Business Case
C. Benefit measurement method
D. Contract
8. What is the output of Direct and Manage Execution?

A. Approved change requests
B. Project management processes
C. Deliverables
D. Forecasts
9. Which of the following is NOT an example of operational work?

A. Building a purchase order system for accounts payable
B. Submitting weekly purchase orders through a purchase order system
C. Deploying weekly anti-virus software updates
D. Yearly staff performance evaluations
10. You’re a project manager for a construction project. You’ve just finished creating a list of all of
the people who will be directly affected by the project. What process group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring & Controlling
11. Stakeholders can be indetified in which project management process groups?

A. Initiating, planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling
B. Initiating and planning
C. Planning and monitoring and controling
D. Monitoring and controling and closing
12. You’re managing a project to remodel a kitchen. You use earned value calculations to figure out
that you’re going to run $500 over budget if your project continues at the current rate. Which
of the following core characteristics of a project manager are you using to find the problem?
A. Knowledge
B. Performance
C. Personal
D. There is no correct answer.
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13. Which process group contains the Develop Project Charter process and the Identify
Stakeholders process?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
14. You are working on a project with a PV of $56,733 and an SPI of 1.2. What’s the Earned Value
of your project?
A. $68,733
B. $68,079.60
C. 47,277.50
D. 72
15. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a project manager?

A. Managing stakejolder expectations
B. Managing project contraints
C. Gathering product requirements
D. Sponsoring the project
16. Which of the following BEST describes defect repair review?

A. Reviewing the repaired defect whit the stakeholder to make sure it’s acceptable
B. Reviewing the repaired defect defect whit the team to make sure they document lessons
learned
C. Reviewing the repaired defect to make sure it was fixed properly
D. Reviewing the repaired defect to make sure it’s within the control limits
17. Project managers spend what percentage of their time in communicating?

A. 90
B. 85
C. 75
D. 50
18. What are decision models?

A. Project selection criteria
B. Project selection methods
C. Project selection committees
D. Project resource and budget selection methods
19. You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software programs
that teach basic reading and math skills. You’re performing cost estimates for your project and
don’t have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use?
A. Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses
historical information from similar projects.

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B. Bottom-up estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses
C. Monte Carlo analysis, because this is a modeling technique that uses simulation to
determine estimates.
D. Parametric modeling, because this is a form of simulation used to determine estimates
20. You know that PV= 470, AC= 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What about for VAC?
A. 70
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
21. What’s the difference between perform quality control and perform quality assurance?
A. Perform Quality Control involves charts like histograms and control charts, while
Perform Quality Asuurance doesn’t use those charts
B. Perform Quality Control and Perform Quality Asuurance mean the same thing
C. Perform Quality Control means inspecting for defects in deliverables, while Perform
Quality Asuurance means auditing a project to check the overall process
D. Perform Quality Control means looking for defects in deliverables, while Perform Quality
Control means auditing a project to check the overall process
22. Which is NOT an output of a scope management process?

A. Business Case
B. WBS Dictionary
C. Requested changes
D. Accepted deliverables
23. Which of the following is NOT one of the top sources of conflict on projects?
A. Resources
B. Technical opinions
C. Salaries
D. Priorities
24. hich of the following statements is true regarding the Project Management Knowledge
Areas?
A. They include Initiation, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
B. They consist of nine areas that bring together processes that have things in common
C. They consist of five processes that bring together phases of projects that have things in
common.
D. They include Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling processes because
these three processes are commonly interlinked.
25. The business need, product scope description, and strategic plan together describe elements
of which of the following?
A. Organizational process assets
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B. Tools and techniques of the initiating processes
C. The project statement of work
D. The project charter
26. Which of the following is NOT true about overlapping phases?

A. Each phase is typically done by a separate team
B. There’s an increased risk of delays when a later phase can’t start until an earlier one ends
C. There’s an increased risk to the project due to potential for rework
D. Every phase must go through all five process groups
27. What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?
A. Negotiation skills
B. Influencing skills
C. Communication skills
D. Problem-solving skills
28. Which of the following is NOT a part of quality?

A. Fitness for use
B. Conformance to requirements
C. Value to the sponsor
D. Customer satisfaction
29. Risks that are caused by the response to another risk are called
A. Residual risks
B. Secondary risks
C. Cumulative risks
D. Mitigated risks
30. What’s the difference between management reserves and contingency reserves?
A. Management reserves are used to handle unknown unknowns, while contigency
reservesare used to handle known unknowns
B. Management reserves are used to handle known unknowns, while contigency reservesare
are used to handle unknown unknowns
C. Management reserves are used to handle high-priority risks, while contigency reservesare
used to handle low-priority risks
D. Management reserves are used to handle low-priority risks, while contigency reservesare
are used to handle high-priority risks
31. What’s the difference between Quality Control and Verify Scope?
A. Quality Control is done at the end of the project, while Verify Scope is done throughout
the project
B. Quality Control means looking for defects in deliverables, while Verify Scope means
verifying that the product is acceptable to the stakeholders
C. Quality Control is performed by the project manager, while Verify Scope is done by the
sponsor
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D. Quality Control is performed by the sponsor, while Verify Scope is done by the project
manager
32. Which performance measurement tells you the cost of the work that has been authorized and
budgeted for a WBS component?
A. PV
B. EV
C. AC
D. BCWP
33. What is the “halo effect”?

A. When a project manager is good, the team is good, to
B. The tendency to promote people who are good at technical jobs into managerialpositions
C. When a project manager picks a star on the team and always rewards that person
D. When a technical person does such a good job that no one can find fault with them
34. Which of the following are tools and techniques of the identify stakeholder process?
A. Stakeholder analysis and expert judgment
B. Stakeholder analysis, expert judgment, and stakeholder register
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis, stakeholder management strategy, and expert judgment
35. Which risk analysis tool is used to model your risks by running simulations that calculate
random outcomes and probabilities?
A. Delphi technique
B. EMV analysis
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Monte Carlo analysis
36. What’s the main output of the risk management processes?

A. The risk management plan
B. The risk breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. Work performance information
37. Which of the following is not an example of cost of quality?

A. Having team members spend extra time reviewing requirements whit the stakeholders
B. Hiring extra inspectors to look for defects
C. Paying extra programmers to help meet a deadline
D. Sending a crew to repair a defective product that was delivered to thw client
38. Which of the following BEST describes risk audits?

A. The project manager reviews each risk on the risk register with the team
B. An external auditor reviews the risk response strategies for each risk
C. A senior manager audits your work and decides whether you’re doing a good job
D. An external auditor reviews the project work to make sure the team isn’t introducing
new risk

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39. Which of the following is an example of noise?
A. An email that’s sent to the wrong person
B. A project manager who doesn’t notice an important clause in a contract
C. Garbled text and smudges that make a fax of a photocopy hard to read
D. When the team is not paying attention during a status meeting
40. You are using an RBS to manage your risk categories. What process are you performing?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
41. You’ve consulted your earned value calculations to find out the EAC and ETC of your project.
Which of the following is the BEST place to put that informations?
A. Work performance informations
B. Quality control measurements
C. Forecasts
D. Lessons learned
42. You want to know specifically which business goal a group of project and programs are goin
to accomplish. Which of the following is the BEST place to put that informations?
A. Project Plan
B. Project Charter
C. Portfolio Charter
D. Program Charter
43. Which communications process is in the monitoring & controling process group?
A. Distribute Infomation
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Report performance
D. Plancommunications
44. You’ve just received a change request. This means:

A. The project charter is complete, but the work cannot begin yet because you need to make
a change to the scope baseline
B. You are in the Direct and Manage Execution process, and you can implement the change
now
C. The change needs to be approved before it can be implemented
D. There is a defect in a deliverable that must be repaired
45. Which of the following is NOT an output of Direct and Manage project Execution?
A. Work performance information
B. Deliverables
C. Implemented change requests
D. Forecasts
46. Which of the following is NOT an input to the Plan Communications process?
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A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational process assets
C. Information gathering techniques
D. Project scope statement
47. Two project managers have just realized that they are in a weak matrix organization and that
their power as project managers is quite limited. One figures out that he is really a project
expediter, and the other realizes he is really a project coordinator.
How is a project expediter different from a project coordinator?
A. The project expediter cannot make decisions
B. The project expediter can make more decisions
C. The project expediter reports to a higher-level manager
D. The project expediter has some authority
48. In a projectized organizations, the project team:

A. Will not always have a “home”
B. Reports to the functional manager
C. Has no loyalty to the project
D. Reports to many bosses
49. A project manager trying to complete a software development project , but cannot get anough
attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process related work, and the
project has little authority to assign resources. What from of organization must the project
manager be working in?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Expediter
D. Coodinator
50. What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says, “ I cannot deal
with this issue now!”
A. Withdrawal
B. Compromising
C. Forcing
D. Problem solving

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(2)
A. Start-to-Start (SS)
C. Finish-to-Start (FS)
D. Finish-to-Finish (FF)
A. SWAG Estimation
B. Parametric Estimation
C. Analogous Estimation
D. Three-Point Estimation
3. What is the critical path in the activity list to the right?
Name Predecessor Duration

Start - -
A Start 6
B A 4
C B 8
D A 1
E D 1
F E 2
G Start 3
H G 3
I H 2
J B.I 3
Finish F.J.C -
A. Start-A-B-C-Finish
B. Start-A-D-E-F-Finish
C. Start-G-H-I-J-Finish
D. Start-A-B-J-Finish
other work. So she is constanly having to go over his head to overrule him. Which type of
organixation is she working for ?
A. Functional
B. Strong Matrix
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C. Weak Matrix
D. Projectized
5. What’s the correct order og the time management planning processes?

A. Sequence Activities, Define Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity
B. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule, Estimate Activity Resources,
C. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity
D. Develop Schedule, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, , Estimate Activity Resources,
6. You’re working on a project that has an EV of $7362 and a PV (BCWS) of $8232 what’s your
SV?
A. -$870
B. $870
C. 0.89
D. Not enough information to tell
7. Given this portion of the notwork diagram to the right, what’s the ES of activity F?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13
8. Given this portion of the Given this portion of the notwork diagram to the right, what’s the LF
of activity F?

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A. 10
B. 11
C. 16
D. 17
NOT true?
A. Your team members report to functional managers
B. You are not in directly charge of resources
C. Functional managers make decisions that can affect your projects
D. You have sole responsibility for the success or failure of the project
called?
A Project Charter
B Business Case
C Benefit measurement method
D Contract

A. Approved change requests
B. Project management processes
C. Deliverables
D. Forecasts
12. Which of the following is NOT an example of operational work?

A. Building a purchase order system for accounts payable
B. Submitting weekly purchase orders through a purchase order system
C. Deploying weekly anti-virus software updates
D. Yearly staff performance evaluations
13. You’re a project manager for a construction project. You’ve just finished creating a list of all
of the people who will be directly affected by the project. What process group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
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14. What is the float for activity F in the activity list to the right?
Name Predecessor Duration
Start - -
A Start 6
B A 4
C B 8
D A 1
E D 1
F E 2
G Start 3
H G 3
I H 2
J B.I 3
Finish F.J.C -
A. Zero
B. Sevem
C. Eight
D. Ten
15. You’re managing a project to remodel a kitchen. You use earned value calculations to figure out
that you’re going to run $500 over budget if your project continues at the current rate. Which
of the following core characteristics of a project manager are you using to find the problem?
A. Knowledge
B. Performance
C. Personal
D. There is no correct answer.
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
17. Given the network diagram below, what’s the critical path?

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A. Start-A-B-C-End
B. Start-A-D-C-End
C. Start-E-D-C-End
D. Start-E-F-G-End
18. You are working on a project with a PV of $56,733 and an SPI of 1.2. What’s the Earned
Value of your project?
A. $68,733
B. $68,079.60
C. 47,277.50
D. 72
19. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a project manager?

A. Managing stakejolder expectations
B. Managing project contraints
C. Gathering product requirements
D. Sponsoring the project
20. Which of the following BEST describes defect repair review?

A. Reviewing the repaired defect whit the stakeholder to make sure it’s acceptable
B. Reviewing the repaired defect defect whit the team to make sure they document lessons
learned
C. Reviewing the repaired defect to make sure it was fixed properly
D. Reviewing the repaired defect to make sure it’s within the control limits

A. 90
B. 85
C. 75
D. 50

B. Project selection methods
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C. Project selection committees
D. Project resource and budget selection methods
23. You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software
programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You’re performing cost estimates for your
project and don’t have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use?
A. Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses
B. Bottom-up estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses
C. Monte Carlo analysis, because this is a modeling technique that uses simulation to
D. Parametric modeling, because this is a form of simulation used to determine estimates
24. You know that PV= 470, AC= 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What about for VAC?
A. 70
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
25. What’s the difference between perform quality control and perform quality assurance?
A. Perform Quality Control involves charts like histograms and control charts, while
Perform Quality Asuurance doesn’t use those charts
B. Perform Quality Control and Perform Quality Asuurance mean the same thing
C. Perform Quality Control means inspecting for defects in deliverables, while Perform
Quality Asuurance means auditing a project to check the overall process
D. Perform Quality Control means looking for defects in deliverables, while Perform Quality
Control means auditing a project to check the overall process

A. Business Case
B. WBS Dictionary
C. Requested changes
D. Accepted deliverables
A. Resources
B. Technical opinions
C. Salaries
D. Priorities
28. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Project Management Knowledge
Areas?
A. They include Initiation, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
B. They consist of nine areas that bring together processes that have things in common
C. They consist of five processes that bring together phases of projects that have things in
common.
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D. They include Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling processes because
29. The business need, product scope description, and strategic plan together describe elements
of which of the following?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Tools and techniques of the initiating processes
C. The project statement of work
D. The project charte
A. Each phase is typically done by a separate team
B. There’s an increased risk of delays when a later phase can’t start until an earlier one ends
C. There’s an increased risk to the project due to potential for rework
D. Every phase must go through all five process groups
A. Negotiation skills
C. Communication skills
D. Problem-solving skills

A. Fitness for use
B. Conformance to requirements
D. Customer satisfaction
A. Residual risks
B. Secondary risks
C. Cumulative risks
D. Mitigated risks
A. Management reserves are used to handle unknown unknowns, while contigency
reservesare used to handle known unknowns
B. Management reserves are used to handle known unknowns, while contigency
reservesare are used to handle unknown unknowns
C. Management reserves are used to handle high-priority risks, while contigency
reservesare used to handle low-priority risks
D. Management reserves are used to handle low-priority risks, while contigency reservesare
are used to handle high-priority risks
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A. Quality Control is done at the end of the project, while Verify Scope is done throughout
the project
B. Quality Control means looking for defects in deliverables, while Verify Scope means
C. Quality Control is performed by the project manager, while Verify Scope is done by the
sponsor
manager
36. Which performance measurement tells you the cost of the work that has been authorized
and budgeted for a WBS component?
A. PV
B. EV
C. AC
D. BCWP

A. When a project manager is good, the team is good, to
B. The tendency to promote people who are good at technical jobs into managerialpositions
C. When a project manager picks a star on the team and always rewards that person
D. When a technical person does such a good job that no one can find fault with them
38. Which of the following are tools and techniques of the identify stakeholder process?
A. Stakeholder analysis and expert judgment
B. Stakeholder analysis, expert judgment, and stakeholder register
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis, stakeholder management strategy, and expert judgment
A. Delphi technique
B. EMV analysis
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Monte Carlo analysis
40. What’s the main output of the risk management processes?

A. The risk management plan
B. The risk breakdown structure
C. The risk register
41. Which of the following is not an example of cost of quality?

A. Having team members spend extra time reviewing requirements whit the stakeholders
B. Hiring extra inspectors to look for defects
C. Paying extra programmers to help meet a deadline
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D. Sending a crew to repair a defective product that was delivered to thw client

A. The project manager reviews each risk on the risk register with the team
B. An external auditor reviews the risk response strategies for each risk
C. A senior manager audits your work and decides whether you’re doing a good job
D. An external auditor reviews the project work to make sure the team isn’t introducing
new risk

B. A project manager who doesn’t notice an important clause in a contract
C. Garbled text and smudges that make a fax of a photocopy hard to read
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
45. You’ve consulted your earned value calculations to find out the EAC and ETC of your project.
Which of the following is the BEST place to put that informations?
A. Work performance informations
B. Quality control measurements
C. Forecasts
D. Lessons learned
46. Accomplish which is the best place to look for this information?
A. Project plan
B. Project charter
C. Portfolio charter
D. Program charter
47. Which communications process is in the monitoring & controling process group?
A. Distribute Infomation
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Report performance
D. Plancommunications

B. You are in the Direct and Manage Execution process, and you can implement the change
now
C. The change needs to be approved before it can be implemented
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D. There is a defect in a deliverable that must be repaired
49. Which of the following is NOT an output of Direct and Manage project Execution?
A. Work performance information
B. Deliverables
C. Implemented change requests
D. Forecasts
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational process assets
C. Information gathering techniques

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CERTIFICATE IN PROJECT MANAGEMENT
REVIEWER
(3)

A. The tendency to promote people who are good at technical jobs into managerial positions
B. When a technical person does such a good job that no one can find fault with them
C. When a project manager is good, the team is good, too
D. When a project manager picks a star on the team and always rewards that person
A. Technical opinions
B. Salaries
C. Resources
D. Priorities

A. Forecasts
B. Deliverables
C. Project management processes
D. Approved change requests

A. An external auditor reviews the risk response strategies for each risk
B. A senior manager audits your work and decides whether you’re doing a good job
C. An external auditor reviews the project work to make sure the team isn’t introducing new
risk
D. The project manager reviews each risk on the risk register with the team
5. Stakeholders can be identified in which project management process groups?

A. Initiating, planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling.
B. Initiating and planning
C. Planning and monitoring and controlling
D. Monitoring and controlling and closing
6. You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software
programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You’re performing cost estimates for your
project and don’t have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use?
A. Bottom-up estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses
B. Parametric modeling, because this is a form of simulation used to determine estimates
C. Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses
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19
D. Monte Carlo analysis, because this is a modeling technique that uses simulation to
7. What’s the correct order of the Time Management planning processes?

A. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity
B. Develop Schedule, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity
Resources, Estimate, Activity Durations
C. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule, Estimate Activity Resources,
D. Sequence Activities, Define Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity
A. Problem-solving skills
C. Negotiation skills
D. Communication skills

A. Information gathering techniques
B. Project scope statement
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Garbled text and smudges that make a fax of a photocopy hard to read
C. A project manager who doesn’t notice an important clause in a contract

B. There is a defect in a deliverable that must be repaired
C. You are in the Direct and Manage Execution process, and you can implement
the change now
D. The change needs to be approved before it can be implemented
A. Analogous Estimation
B. Three-Point Estimation
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C. Parametric Estimation
D. SWAG Estimation
13. Which of the following is NOT an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Implemented change requests.
B. Deliverables
C. Forecasts.

A. There’s an increased risk of delays when a later phase can’t start until an earlier one
ends
B. There’s an increased risk to the project due to potential for rework
C. Every phase must go through all five process groups
D. Each phase is typically done by a separate team
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Initiating
16. Which communication process is in the Monitoring & Controlling process group?
A. Distribute Information
B. Report Performance
C. Plan Communications
D. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
17. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Project Management Knowledge
Areas?
A. They consist of five processes that bring together phases of projects that have things in
common.
B. They include Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling processes because
C. They include Initiation, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
D. They consist of nine areas that bring together processes that have things in common.
NOT true?
A. Functional managers make decisions that can affect your projects
B. You have sole responsibility for the success or failure of the project
C. You are not in directly charge of resources
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D. Your team members report to functional managers

A. 90
B. 85
C. 75
D. 50

B. Project resource and budget selection methods
C. Project selection methods
D. Project selection committees
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Delphi technique
C. Monte Carlo analysis
D. EMV analysis
22. Which performance measurement tells you the cost of the work that has been authorized
and budgeted for a WBS component?
A. EV
B. BCWP
C. PV
D. AC
A. Finish-to-Finish (FF)
C. Start-to-Start (SS)
D. Finish-to-Start (FS)
called?
A. Project Charter
B. Business Case
C. Benefit measurement method
D. Contract

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25. You are working on a project with a PV of $56,733 and an SPI of 1.2. What’s the Earned
Value of your project?
A. $68,733
B. $68,079.60
C. 47,277.50
D. 72
other work. So she is constantly having to go over his head to overrule him. Which type of
organization is she working for?
A. Projectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Functional
D. Weak Matrix
A. Residual risks
B. Secondary risks
C. Mitigated risks
D. Cumulative risks
A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

A. Business Case
B. WBS Dictionary
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requested changes
30. You want to know specifically which business goal a group of projects and programs are going
to accomplish, which is the best place to look for this information?
A. Project Charter
B. Project Plan
C. Portfolio Charter
D. Program Charter

Project Management
23
A. Management reserves are used to handle low-priority risks, while contingency reserves are
used to handle high-priority risks
B. Management reserves are used to handle known unknowns, while contingency reserves
are used to handle unknown unknowns
C. Management reserves are used to handle unknown unknowns, while contingency reserves
are used to handle known unknowns
D. Management reserves are used to handle high-priority risks, while contingency reserves are
used to handle low-priority risks
32. You’re managing a project to remodel a kitchen. You use earned value calculations to figure
out that you’re going to run $500 over budget if your project continues at the current rate.
Which of the following core characteristics of a project manager are you using to find the
problem?
A. Personal
B. Knowledge
C. There is no correct answer.
D. Performance
A. Quality Control is performed by the project manager, while Verify Scope is done by the
sponsor
B. Quality Control is done at the end of the project, while Verify Scope is done throughout
the project
C. Quality Control means looking for defects in deliverables, while Verify Scope means
manager

A. Fitness for use
B. Customer satisfaction
D. Conformance to requirements
35. You’re a project manager for a construction project. You’ve just finished creating a list of all
of the people who will be directly affected by the project. What process group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning

Project Management
24
(4)
1. Understanding the culture, policies, and procedures of the organization in which the project
is being performed is MOST challenging in:
A. Global Organizations
B. Manufacturing organizations
C. Small organizations
D. Agile organizations
2. In a projectized organization, the project team:

A. Reports to many bosses.
B. Has no loyalty to the project.
C. Reports to the functional manager.
D. Will not always have a "home."
3. A project manager is trying to complete a software development project, but cannot get
enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work,
and the project manager has little authority to assign resources. What form of organization
must the project manager be working in?
E. Functional
F. Matrix
G. Expediter
H. Coordinator
4. A project manager has very little project experience, bu t he has been assigned as the
project manager of a new project. Because he will be working in a matrix organization to
complete his project, he can expect communications to be:
A. Simple.
B. Open and accurate.
C. Complex.
D. Hard to automate.
5. A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that many
people are asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization, who has the
power to give direction to the team member?
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager
C. The team
D. The PMO

Project Management
25
6. Two project managers have just realized that they are in a weak matrix organization and that
their power as project managers is quite limited. One figures out that he is really a project
expediter, and the other realizes he is really a project coordinator. How is a project expediter
different from a project coordinator?
A. The project expediter cannot make decisions.
B. The project expediter can make more decisions.
C. The project expediter reports to a higher-level manager.
D. The project expediter has some authority.
7. Who has the MOST power in a projectized organization?
B. The functional manager
C. The team
D. They all share power
8. All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT:
A. It is temporary.
B. It has a definite beginning and end.
C. It has interrelated activities.
D. It repeats itself every month.
9. A framework for keeping an organization focused on its overall strategy is:
A. Organizational project management.
B. The PMBOK® Guide.
C. Project governance.
D. Portfolio management.
10. Which of the following BEST describes the major constraints on a project?
A. Scope, number of resources, and cost
B. Scope, cost, and time
C. Scope, time, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction
D. Time, cost, and number of changes
11. In which project management process group is the detailed project budget created?
A. Initiating
B. Before the project management process
C. Planning
D. Executing
12. The project charter is created in which project management process group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Intiating
13. The project team has just completed the initial project schedule and budget. The NEXT
thing to do is to:
A. Identify risks.
B. Begin iterations.
Project Management
26
C. Determine communications requirements.
D. Create a bar (Gantt) chart.
14. A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the:
A. Project budget.
B. Work breakdown structure.
C. Project management plan.
D. Detailed risk assessment.
15. The person who should be in control of the project during project planning is the:
A. Project manager.
B. Team member.
C. Functional manager.
D. Sponsor.
16. Which of the following is NOT an input to the initiating process group?
A. Company processes
B. Company culture
C. Historical WBSs
17. The project sponsor has just signed the project charter. What is the NEXT thing to do?
A. Begin to complete work packages.
B. Validate scope.
C. Start integrated change control.
D. Start to create management plans.
18. The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project
management process group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling
19. The WBS and WBS dictionary are completed. The project team has begun working on
identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the project manager, requesting that the responsibility
assignment matrix be issued. The project has a budget of US $100,000 and is taking place in
three countries using 14 human resources. There is little risk expected for the project, and the
project manager has managed many projects similar to this one. What is the NEXT thing to
do?
A. Understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects.
B. Create an activity list.
C. Make sure the project scope is defined.
Project Management
27
D. Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix
20. A project manager does not have much time to spend on planning before the mandatory
start date arrives. He therefore wants to move through planning as effectively as possible.
What advice would you offer?
A. Make sure you have a signed project charter and then start the WBS.
B. Create an activity list before creating a network diagram.
C. Document all the known risks before you document the high-level assumptions.
D. Finalize the quality management plan before you determine quality metrics.
21. The need for _______ is one of the major driving forces for communication in a project.
A. Optimization
B. Integrity
C. Integration
D. Differentiation
22. The customer has accepted the completed project scope. However, the lessons learned
required by the project management office have not been completed. What is the status of
the project?
A. The project is incomplete because it needs to be replanned.
B. The project is incomplete until all project and product deliverables are complete and
Accepted
C. The project is complete because the customer has accepted the deliverables.
D. The project is complete because it has reached its due date.
23. When it comes to changes, the project managers attention is BEST focused on:
A. Making changes.
B. Tracking and recording changes.
C. Informing the sponsor of changes.
D. Preventing unnecessary changes.
24. The customer on a project tells the project manager they have run out of money to pay for
the Uproject. What should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Shift more of the work to later in the schedule to allow time for the customer to get the
funds.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Stop work.
D. Release part of the project team
25. All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT:
A. Procedures.
B. Standards for reports.
C. Meetings.
E. Lessons learned.
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28
26. A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
27. A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility
to decide if these changes are necessary?
B. The project team
C. The sponsor
D. The stakeholder
28. Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:

A. The personal careers of the team members.
B. Timely updates to the project management plan.
C. Effective communication at key interface points.
D. Product control
29. Integration is done by the:

A. Project manager.
B. Team.
C. Sponsor.
D. Stakeholders.
30. Which of the following BEST describes the project managers role as an integrator?
A. Help team members become familiar with the project.
B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole.
C. Put all the pieces of a project into a program.
D. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole.
31. A work breakdown structure numbering system allows the project team to:
A. Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements.
B. Provide project justification.
C. Identify the level at which individual elements are found.
D. Use it in project management software.
32. The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of as an effective aid for
_____communications.
A. Team
B. Project manager

Project Management
29
C. Customer
D. Stakeholder
33. Which of the following is a KEY output of the Validate Scope process?
A. A more complete scope management plan
B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables
C. Improved schedule estimates
D. An improved project management information system
34. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not sure
what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents contains
detailed descriptions of work packages?
A. WBS dictionary
B. Activity list
C. Project scope statement
D. Scope management plan
35. During which part of the project management process is the project scope statement created?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling
36. The program was planned years ago, before there was a massive introduction of new
technology. While planning the next project in this program, the project manager has
expanded the scope management plan because, as a project becomes more complex, the level
of uncertainty in the scope:
A. Remains the same.
B. Decreases.
C. Decreases then increases.
D. Increases.
37. During a meeting with some of the project stakeholders, the project manager is asked to add
work to the project scope. The project manager had access to correspondence about the
project before the project charter was signed and remembers that the project sponsor
specifically denied funding for the scope mentioned by these stakeholders. The BEST thing
for the project manager to do is to:
A. Let the sponsor know of the stakeholders' request.
B. Evaluate the impact of adding the scope.
C. Tell the stakeholders the scope cannot be added.
D. Add the work if there is time available in the project schedule
38. A new project manager is being mentored by a more experienced PMP-certified project
manager. The new project manager is having difficulty finding enough time to manage the
project because the project scope is being progressively elaborated. The PMP-certified
Project Management
30
project manager advises that the basic tools for project management, such as a work
breakdown structure, can be used during project executing to assist the project manager. For
which of the following can a work breakdown structure be used?
A. Communicating with the customer
B. Showing calendar dates for each work package
C. Showing the functional managers for each team member
D. Showing the business need for the project
39. During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope that is
beyond the scope of the project charter. The project manager points out that the team needs
to concentrate on completing all the work and only the work required. This is an example of:
A. Change management process.
B. Scope management.
C. Quality analysis.
D. Scope decomposition.
40. When should the Validate Scope process be done?
A. At the end of the project
B. At the beginning of the project
C. At the end of each phase of the project
D. During the planning processes
41. To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project
duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of
scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using?
A. Critical path method
B. Flowchart
C. Precedence diagramming
D. Work breakdown structure
42. A dependency requiring that design be completed before manufacturing can start is an
example of a(n):
A. Discretionary dependency.
B. External dependency.
C. Mandatory dependency.
D. Scope dependency.
43. Which of the following are GENERALLY illustrated BETTER by bar charts than network
diagrams?
A. Logical relationships
B. Critical paths
C. Resource trade-offs
D. Progress or status

Project Management
31
44. If the optimistic estimate for an activity is 12 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 18 days, what
is the standard deviation of this activity?
A.1
B.13
C.6
D.3
45. A heuristic is BEST described as a:

A. Control tool.
B. Scheduling method
C. Planning tool.
D. Generally accepted rule.
46. Lag means:

A. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date.
B. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of
itssuccessor.
C. Waiting time.
D. The product of a forward and backward pass.
47. Which of the following is the BEST project management tool to use to determine the longest
time the project will take?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Network diagram
C. Bar chart
D. Project charter
48. Which of the following is CORRECT?

A. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take.
B. There can be only one critical path.
C. The network diagram will change every time the end date changes.
D. A project can never have negative float.
49. What is the duration of a milestone?
A. It is shorter than the duration of the longest activity.
B. It is shorter than the activity it represents.
C. It has no duration.
D. It is the same length as the activity it represents
50. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between standard deviation and risk?
A. There is no relationship.
B. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate.
C. Standard deviation tells you how uncertain the estimate is.
D. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate includes a pad.
51. One common way to compute estimate at completion (EAC) is to take the budget at
completion (BAG) and:
Project Management
32
A. Divide by SPI.
B. Multiply by SPI.
C. Multiply by CPI.
D. Divide by CPI.
52. Estimate at completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of.

A. The cost of work completed.
B. The value of work performed.
C. The anticipated total cost at project completion.
D. What it will cost to finish the project
53. If earned value (EV) = 350, actual cost (AC) = 400, and planned value (PV) = 325, what is
cost variance (CV)?
A. 350
B. -75
C. 400
D. -50
54. The customer responsible for overseeing your project asks you to provide a written cost
estimate that is 30 percent higher than your estimate of the project's cost. He explains that the
budgeting process requires managers to estimate pessimistically to ensure enough money is
allocated for projects. What is the BEST way to handle this?
A. Add the 30 percent as a lump sum contingency fund to handle project risks.
B. Add the 30 percent to your cost estimate by spreading it evenly across all project activities.
C. Create one cost baseline for budget allocation and a second one for the actual
projectmanagement plan.
D. Ask for information on risks that would cause your estimate to be too low.
55. Analogous estimating:

A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques.
B. Is used most frequently during project executing.
C. Uses top-down estimating techniques.
D. Calculates estimates using actual detailed historical costs.
56. All of the following are outputs of the Estimate Costs process EXCEPT:
A. An understanding of the cost risk in the work that has been estimated.
B. The prevention of inappropriate changes from being included in the cost baseline.
C. An indication of the range of possible costs for the project.
D. Documentation of any assumptions made during the Estimate Costs process
57. The main focus of life cycle costing is to:

A. Estimate installation costs.
B. Estimate the cost of operations and maintenance.
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33
C. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs.
D. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions
58. When a product or service completely meets a customer's requirements:

A. Quality is achieved.
B. The cost of quality is high.
C. The cost of quality is low.
D. The customer pays the minimum price.
59. To what does the following definition refer? "The point where the benefits or revenue to be
received from improving quality equals the incremental cost to achieve that quality."
A. Quality control analysis
B. Marginal analysis
C. Standard quality analysis
D. Conformance analysis
60. Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project?

A. The project engineer
B. The project manager
C. The quality manager
D. The team member
61. A project has faced major difficulties in the quality of its deliverables. Management now states
that quality is the most important project constraint. If another problem with quality were to
occur, what would be the BEST thing for the project manager to do?
A. Fix the problem as soon as possible.
B. Allow the schedule to slip by cutting cost.
C. Allow cost to increase by fixing the root cause of the problem.
D. Allow risk to increase by cutting cost.
62. A manager notices that a project manager is holding a meeting with some of the team and
some stakeholders to discuss the quality of the project. The project schedule has been
compressed, and the CPI is 1.1. They have worked hard on the project, the team has been
rewarded according to the reward system the project manager put in place, and there is a strong
sense of team. The manager suggests that the project manager does not have enough time to
hold meetings about quality when the schedule is so compressed. Which of the following
BEST describes why the manager is wrong?
A. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and
decreasedcost risk.
B. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness, and
increasedcost risk.

Project Management
34
C. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and
increasedcost risk
D. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness and
decreasedcost risk.
63. Quality is:
A. Meeting and exceeding the customers expectations.
B. Adding extras to make the customer happy.
C. The degree to which the project meets requirements.
D. Conformance to management's objectives.
64. All the following are tools of Control Quality EXCEPT:

A. Inspection.
B. Cost of quality.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Fishbone diagram.
65. All of the following are forms of power derived from the project manager's position EXCEPT:
A. Formal.
B. Reward.
C. Penalty.
D. Expert.
66. The highest point of Maslow s hierarchy of needs is:
A. Physiological satisfaction.
B. Attainment of survival.
C. Need for association.
D. Esteem.
67. The halo effect refers to the tendency to:

A. Promote from within.
B. Hire the best.
C. Move people into project management because they are good in their technical fields.
D. Move people into project management because they have had project management
training
68. The sponsors role on a project is BEST described as:

A. Helping to plan activities.
B. Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives.
C. Identifying unncessary project constrains.
D. Helping to develop the project management plan.
69. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques will generate the MOST lasting solution?
A. Forcing
B. Smoothing
C. Compromise
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35
D. Problem solving
70. The MOST common causes of conflict on a project are schedules, project priorities, and:
A. Personality.
B. Resources.
C. Cost.
D. Management.

Project Management
36

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CERTIFICATE IN PROJECT MANAGEMENT REVIEWER

4. What’s the correct order og the time management planning processes?

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

8. What is the output of Direct and Manage Execution?

9. Which of the following is NOT an example of operational work?

11. Stakeholders can be indetified in which project management process groups?

15. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a project manager?

16. Which of the following BEST describes defect repair review?

17. Project managers spend what percentage of their time in communicating?

18. What are decision models?

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

22. Which is NOT an output of a scope management process?

26. Which of the following is NOT true about overlapping phases?

28. Which of the following is NOT a part of quality?

33. What is the “halo effect”?

36. What’s the main output of the risk management processes?

37. Which of the following is not an example of cost of quality?

38. Which of the following BEST describes risk audits?

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

44. You’ve just received a change request. This means:

48. In a projectized organizations, the project team:

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

3. What is the critical path in the activity list to the right?

Name Predecessor Duration

5. What’s the correct order og the time management planning processes?

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

11. What is the output of Direct and Manage Execution?

12. Which of the following is NOT an example of operational work?

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

19. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a project manager?

20. Which of the following BEST describes defect repair review?

21. Project managers spend what percentage of their time in communicating?

22. What are decision models?

26. Which is NOT an output of a scope management process?

32. Which of the following is NOT a part of quality?

37. What is the “halo effect”?

40. What’s the main output of the risk management processes?

41. Which of the following is not an example of cost of quality?

42. Which of the following BEST describes risk audits?

43. Which of the following is an example of noise?

48. You’ve just received a change request. This means:

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

1. What is the “halo effect”?

3. What is the output of Direct and Manage Execution?

4. Which of the following BEST describes risk audits?

5. Stakeholders can be identified in which project management process groups?

7. What’s the correct order of the Time Management planning processes?

9. Which of the following is NOT an input to the Plan Communications process?

10. Which of the following is an example of noise?

11. You’ve just received a change request. This means:

14. Which of the following is NOT true about overlapping phases?

19. Project managers spend what percentage of their time in communicating?

20. What are decision models?

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

29. Which is NOT an output of a scope management process?

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

34. Which of the following is NOT a part of quality?

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

2. In a projectized organization, the project team:

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati

28. Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:

29. Integration is done by the:

Rina Indrayani & Sri Kuswayati