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MATH:-
1.  c
First consider the equation
2p4 + 3pq3⁄2
After simplification, we get
(2p3 + 3q1⁄2) (p – q) = 0
This gives us two possibilities
2p3 = – 3q1⁄2
OR
p=q
The first possibility can’t be true as we
are dealing with positive integers
Hence, we get
p=q
Thus the pth derivative of any monic
polynomial of degree p(p = q) is
p! =q!.
2.  a
The key here is to expand the
numerator into a taylor series centered
at 54
Doing this gives us the following
Sin(x)=Sin(54)+(x−54)×Cos(54)1!−
(x−54)2×Sin(54)2!…∞
Now the function transforms into
f(x)=Sin(54)(x−54)+Cos(54)1!−
(x−54)×Sin(54)2!…∞
Observe the first term in the infinite
series there is always (x – 54) in the
denominator which goes to 0 when we
substitute
Every derivative also will have this
term
Hence any derivative of the given
function goes to x = 54 as ∞
Hence, the answer is Undefined.
3.  d
Explanation: First solve the integral
f(x)=∫π/20sin(ax)da
Which gives
=[−cos(ax)x]π/20=1−cos(πx2x
Now expanding into Taylor series
yields
=((πx2)2x2!−πx2)4x4!….∞
Observe that every term in the
expansion is odd powered
Hence even derivative at x = 0 has to be
0.
4.  a
The key here is to expand ex as a
mclaurin series and then multiply it by
x9
We have ex=x00!+x11!+x22!…∞
Now multiplying it by x9 we get
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f(x)=x90!+x101!+x112!…∞
This simplifies into polynomial
differentiation and the ninth derivative
is as follows
f(9)(x)=9!+10!×x1!+p119×x22!…∞
Substituting x = 0 gives us the result
f(9)(0) = 9!.
5.  d
Assume the polynomial to be of the
form f(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d
Now the first derivative at x = 1 yields
the following equation
13 = 1 = 3a + 2b + c
The second derivative at x = 1 yields the
following expression
23 = 8 = 6a + 2b
The third derivative at x = 1 yields the
following equation
33 = 27 = 6a
Solving for a, b and c simultaneously
yields
(a, b, c) = (9⁄2, -19⁄2, 13⁄2)
Hence the assumed polynomial is f(x) =
9x3 – 19x2 + 13x ⁄ 2 + d
Now the given expression can be
evaluated as
f(0) + f(1) – 2f(-1) = (d) + (3⁄2 + d) – 2(-
20 + d)
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= 40 + 3⁄2
= 41.5.
6.  a
We have to consider the function f(x) =
sin(ex) in order to get the series in
some way.
Expanding the given function into a
Taylor series we have
f(x)=ex1!−e3x3!+e5x5!…∞
Now observe that our series in
question doesn’t have the exponential
function, this gives us the hint that
some derivative of this function has to
be taken at x = 0
Observe that the term (2n – 1)3 has
exponent equal to 3
Hence we have to take the third
derivative of the function to get the
required series
Now taking the third derivative yields
f(x)=ex1!−33e3x3!+55e5x5!…∞
Now substituting we get
131!−333!+535!…
∞=∑∞n=1(−1)n+1×(2n−1)3(2n−1)!
To find the value of this series we need
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to take the third derivative of original
function at the required point , this is
as follows
f(3)(x) = -2exsin(ex)
Substituting x = 0 we get
f(3)(0) = -2sin(1).
7.  b
Again the key here is to expand the
given function into appropriate Taylor
series.
Rewriting the function as f(x) = e-x(ln(1
– x)) and then expanding into Taylor
series we have
f(x)=(1−x1!+x22!−x33!…
∞)×(x1+x22+x33…∞)
Now the question asks us to find the
third derivative at x = 0. Thus, it is
enough for us to find the coefficient of
the x3 term in the infinite polynomial
product above
The third degree terms can be grouped
apart as follows
= x3⁄3 – x3⁄2 + x3⁄2
Hence the third derivative at x = 0 is
simply the coefficient of the third
degree term, which is
coefficient(x3⁄3) = 1⁄3.
8.  d
Let the quadratic polynomial be
f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
The first derivative at x = 1 is given by
2a + b = 1
Now consider the second derivative at
x = 1 which is given by
2a = 2
Solving for the coefficients using
equations, we get the values as a = 1
and b = -1
Putting these values back in the
polynomial yields
f(x) = x2 – x + c
Now the required value can be
computed as
f(1) – f(0) = (12 – 1 + c) – (02 – 0 + c)
= (0 + c) – (0 + c) = 0.
9.  b
Explanation: Given function
f(x) = ln(x2 + 5x + 6)
Factorising the inner polynomial we
get
f(x) = ln((x + 3) (x + 2))
Now using the rule of logarithms ln (m
* n) = ln(m) + ln(n)
we get
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f(x) = ln(x + 3) + ln(x + 2)
Now using the nth derivative of
logarithmic
function dn(ln(x+a))dxn=(−1)n+1×(n−
1)!(x+a)n
We have
dn(f(x))dxn=dn(ln(x+3))dxn+dn(ln(x+
2))dxn
Which simplifies
to dn(f(x))dxn=(−1)n+1×(n−1)!
(x+3)n+(−1)n+1×(n−1)!(x+2)n
Substituting x=1 and n=30
Gives us the answer as (-29!)
(1330+1430)
10.  d
Assume the polynomial to be of the
form f(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d
Now the first derivative at x = 1 yields
the following equation
13 = 1 = 3a + 2b + c
The second derivative at x = 1 yields the
following expression
23 = 8 = 6a + 2b
The third derivative at x = 1 yields the
following equation
33 = 27 = 6a
Solving for a, b and c simultaneously
yields
(a, b, c) = (9⁄2, -19⁄2, 13⁄2)
Hence the assumed polynomial is f(x) =
9x3 – 19x2 + 13x ⁄ 2 + d
Now the given expression can be
evaluated as
f(0) + f(1) – 2f(-1) = (d) + (3⁄2 + d) – 2(-
20 + d)
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= 40 + 3⁄2
= 41.5.
11.  b
Again the key here is to expand the
given function into appropriate Taylor
series.
Rewriting the function as f(x) = e-x(ln(1
– x)) and then expanding into Taylor
series we have
f(x)=(1−x1!+x22!−x33!…
∞)×(x1+x22+x33…∞)
Now the question asks us to find the
third derivative at x = 0. Thus, it is
enough for us to find the coefficient of
the x3 term in the infinite polynomial
product above
The third degree terms can be grouped
apart as follows
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= x3⁄3 – x3⁄2 + x3⁄2
Hence the third derivative at x = 0 is
simply the coefficient of the third
degree term, which is
coefficient(x3⁄3) = 1⁄3.
12.  b
Assume f(x) = y
Rewrite the function as
y(x + 1 ) = ln(x)
Now differentiate both sides up to
hundredth derivative in accordance to
the Leibniz rule we have
(y(1+x))(100)=c1000y(100)
(x+1)+c1001y(99)+0+…..+0=(ln(x))
(100)
Using the nth derivative for ln(x+a)
as dn(ln(x+a))dxn=(−1)n+1×(n−1)!
(x+a)n
we have the right hand side as
(y(1+x))(100) = (−99)!x100
Now substituting x = 1 yields
2y(100) + y(99) = (−99)!1
= -(99)!
13.  b
Assume f(x) = y
Rewriting the function as
y2 = 1 – x2
Differentiating both sides of the
equation up to the third derivative
using leibniz rule we have
(y2)
(3)
=c30y(3)y+c31y(2)y(1)+c32y(1)y(2)
+c33y(3)y
(y2)(3)=2y(3)y+6y(2)y(1)
(1-x2)(3)=0
Now substituting x = 0 in both the
equations and equating them yields
2y (3) y + 6y (2) y(1) = 0.
14. : b
Assume
f(x) = y
Write the given function as
y(x2 – x + 1) = cos(x)
Now applying Leibniz rule up to the
third derivative we get
(y(x2−x+1))(3)=c30y(3)
(x2−x+1)−c31y(2)(2x−1)−c32y(1)(2)
(cos(x))(3)=sin(x)
Equating both sides we have
sin(x)=c30y(3)(x2−x+1)−c31y(2)
(2x−1)−c32y(1)(2)
Now in the question it is assumed that of problems. In this problem multiplication will
the y(1)=2 and y(2)=3
Substituting these values in (1) we
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have
sin(x)=c30y(3)(x2−x+1)−c31(3)
(2x−1)−c32(2)(2)
Substituting x = 0 gives
sin(0) = y(3) + 9 -12
y(3) = 12 – 9 = 3.
15. a
The key here is to find a separate
Taylor expansion for sinh(x) / x which
is
sinh(x)x=x1!+x33!+x55!…∞x
sinh(x)x=x1!+x23!+x45!…∞
Now consider ((ex)(sinh(x)x)) applying
the Leibniz rule for nth derivative we
have
(ex(sin(x)x))(n)=cn0ex(11!−x23!+x45!
−…∞)+cn1ex(2x3!+4x35!…∞)
+cn2(23!+12x25!….∞)+…
Now substituting x=0 yields
(ex(sin(x)x))(n)=cn01+cn23+cn45
∑ni=0cn2i2i+1
CURRENT AFFAIRS:-
16.  c
Note: The Union government on
October 23, 2019 accorded 'Maharatna'
status to state-owned Hindustan
Petroleum and Power Grid Corporation
With this number of Maharatna CPSUs
has increased to 10, while the number
of Navaratna CPSUs is now 14.
17. c
 Union Government on October 1, 2019
appointed Prof. Surjit Bhalla, an
economist and former member of
Prime Minister's Economic Advisory
Council, as the Executive Director for
the IMF for a period of three years. The
key post had fallen vacant after the
death of Dr. Subir Gokaran in July 2019.
18. a
BRICS is a five Nation group-Brazil,
Russia, India, China and South Africa.
19. b
20. b
REASONING:-
21. a
Always apply the rules of BODMAS in such type
be done first then comes the operation of
addition and finally subtraction, i.e., 9 + 6 x 3 =
27
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22. c 39. c
40. a
(8 + 4) - (1 + 3) = 8,
(3 + 7) - (1 + 3) = 6 and G.S:-
(5 + 6) - (2 + 2) = 7
41. a
23. a 42. c
43. a
(i) 9 + 3 ÷ 4- 8 x 2 44. d
(ii) 9 ÷ 3 x 3 + 8 — 2 45. a
(iii) 9 x (1/3 )x 3 + 8 — 2 46. a
(iv) 9 + 8 - 2 = 15 47. a
48. b
24. c 49. d
300 ÷  25/2 + one pillar = 300 x 2/25 + 50. b
one pillar = 25

25. c

300 ÷  25/2 + one pillar = 300 x 2/25 +

one pillar = 25

26. d
27. a

Assigned codes are increasing at an

interval of 2.

28. d

The explanation is in answer No. 4, i.e., 8

+ 8 - 2 x 1 = 14

29. d

3 : 2 of 100 = 60 and 40
.20% of 60 =.12 and 25% of 40 = 10

30. a

48 - (3 x 4) x (2 x 2) = 0

G.K:-

31. c

 It was established in 1899 in Kerala. It

was taken over by Punjab National Bank
in 2003.

32. c
33. c
34. b
35. c
36. d
37. c
38. b
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