HRM MCQ

BPUT-SEM-2-2020
PART-1
1. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers.
a. Procurement
b. Development
c. Organizing
d. performance appraisal
2. Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR managers?
a. a. Planning
b. Organising
c. Procurement
d. Controlling
3. The scope of human resource management includes
a. Procurement
b. Development
c. Compensation
d. all of the above
4. Human resource management is normally in nature
a. Proactive
b. Reactive
c. Combative
d. none of the above
5. The human resource management functions aim at
a. ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and
material to perform the job successfully
b. helping the organisation deal with its employees in different stages. of
employment
c. improving an organisation's creditworthiness among financial institutions
d. none of the above
6. Which of the 'following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors, namely
HR professionals?
a. Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programmes while line managers
are more involved in the implementation of those programmes.
b. Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programmes whereas staff
advisors are more involved in implementing such programmes.
 c. Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the
HR programmes while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning
HR.
d. Line managers alone are responsible for developinq, implementing and evaluating
the
HR programmes while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.
7. Human resource management is the formal part of an organisation responsible for all of the
following aspects of the management of human resources except:
a. strategy development and analysis
b. systems, processes, and procedures
c. policy making, implementation, and enforcement
d. management of the organisation's finances
8. organisation relies on the following sources of capital
a. cultural, human and system capital
b. social, cultural and human capital
c. cultural, human and source capital
d. none of the above

9. To address the challenges and opportunities they face organisations engage in' a process of
strategic management. Strategic management is:
a. short-term focused and composed of organisational strategy, including strategy
formulation and implementation
b. long-term focused and composed of the organisation's mission, vision and value
statements
c. long-term focused and composed of organisational strategy, including strategy
formulation and implementation
d. short-term focused and composed of the organisation's mission, vision and value
statements
10. Strategic human resource management involves:
a. planning, foresight and analytical decision making
b. setting employment standards and policies
c. linking human resources with strategic objectives to improve performance
d. d. all of the above
11. The balanced scorecard proposes that organisational success depends on:
a. a focus on only the internal environment of the organization
b. a constantly changing external environment
c. the belief that it is impossible to take a rationalist view of the organisation to make optimal
choices
d. an ability to develop a complete list of cause and effect relationships driving a
firm's success
12. Kochan and Barocci's (1985) model of HRM has three elements. These elements are:
a. the external environment, the internal environment and human resource management
b. HRM/lR system effectiveness, the external environment and the internal environment
c. human resource management, the internal environment and HRM/lR system
effectiveness .
 d. the external environment, human resource management and HRM/lR system
effectiveness

13. The critical role of the SHRM Application Tool is to:

a. develop a better strategic management process to deal with the dynamic changing
environment today's organisations face
b. identify if the organisation has enough staff, if the staff need training, if the compensation
practices are appropriate, and if jobs are designed correctly
c. identify and assess a narrow group of actions and plan how the organisation can
overcome resistance to change
d. outline techniques, frameworks, and six steps that must be followed to effectively
implement change in an organization
14. In which decade did HRM originate?
a. 1950s
b. 1970s
c. 1980s
d. 1990s
15. What are the ideas underpinning 'soft', 'e commitment', or 'high-road' HRM practices?
a. Labour needs to be treated as an asset to be invested in
b. Employees are a cost which should be minimized
c. A lack of mutuality existing between employer and employee
d. A disregard for unlocking discretionary effort
16. Which consulting company is associated with the concept of talent management?
a. Price Waterhouse Coopers

b. Boston Consulting Group

c. Deloitte
d. McKinsey
17. Why are employers interested in employee engagement?
a. To encourage employees to trust their managers
b. To make a quick profit
c. Because engaged employees are more motivated and prepared to give of their best to
make the firm succeed
d. To make employees work harder for less
18. Which of the following is a key HR role as defined by Ulrich et al (2009)?
a. Personnel administrator
b. Business ally
c. Payroll adviser
d. Organisational geographer
19. The term 'emotional labour' is associated with which author?
 a. Arlie Hochschild
b. Stephen Fineman
c. David Sims
d. Yiannis Gabriel
20. Why do some commentators claim that it is unlikely that the UK economy will become a
knowledge economy?
a. The lack of IT education in schools
b. Culturally low in intelligence.
c. Historically low levels of company investment into research and development
d. Unions try to prevent knowledge transfer from management level to the broader
workforce.
21. What measures are typically involved in the rationalising of businesses?
a. Downsizing and. Layering
b. Expanding and Layering
c. Downsizing and Delayering
d. Expanding and Delayering
22. What kinds of practices outlined below are typically associated with non-standard working
and flexibility?
a. 9-5 working hours
b. The reduction in distinctions between standard and unsocial hours or standard and
extra hours
c. Premium rates for unsocial hours
d. The voluntary agreement of unsocial hours working
23. Which of the following is not a limitation of SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunity,
Threats) analysis?
a. Organisational strengths may not lead to competitive advantage
b. SWOT gives a one-shot view of a moving target
c. SWOT's focus on the external environment is too broad and integrative
d. SWOT overemphasises a single dimension of strategy
24. A marketing department that promises delivery quicker than the production department's
ability to produce is an example of a lack of understanding of the:
a. synergy of the business units.
b. need to maintain the reputation of the company.
c. organisational culture and leadership
d. interrelationships among functional areas and firm strategies
25. XYZ Corp. is centering on the objective of low-cost, high quality, on-time production by curtailing
idle productive facilities and workers. The XYZ Corp. is taking advantage of a system
a. Just-In-Time (JIT)
b. Last In, First Out (UFO)
c. First In, First Out (FIFO)
d. Highly mechanized
26. Which of the following lists is comprised of support activities?
 a. Human resource management, information systems, procurement, and firm infrastructure
b. Customer service, information systems, technology development, and procurement
c. Human resource management, technology development, customer service, and
procurement
d. Human resource management, customer service, marketing and sales, and operations
27. Although firm infrastructure is quite frequently viewed only as overhead expense, it can become a
source of competitive advantage. Examples include all of the following except:
a. negotiating and maintaining ongoing relations with regulatory bodies
b. marketing expertise increasing a firm's revenues and enabling it to enter new markets.
c. effective information systems contributing significantly to a firm's overall cost leadership
strategy.
d. top management providing a key role in collaborating with important customers.
28. The competencies or skills that a firm employs to transform inputs into outputs are:
a. tangible resources
b. intangible resources
c. organisational capabilities
d. reputational resources
29. An array of firm resources include interpersonal relations among managers in the firm, its culture,
and its reputation with its customers and suppliers. Such competitive advantages are based upon:
a. physical uniqueness
b. path dependency
c. social complexity
d. tangible resources
30. A company's ability to meet its short-term financial obligations is measured by which of the
following categories?
a. Liquidity ratios
b. Profitability ratios
c. Activity ratios
d. Leverage ratios
31. The "balanced scorecard" supplies top managers with a ___________view of the business. a.
longterm financial
b. detailed and complex
c. simple and routine
d. fast but comprehensive
32. In strategic human resource management, HR strategies are generally aligned with:
a. business strategy
b. marketing strategies
c. finance strategy
d. economic strategy
33. Which of the following is closely associated with strategic human resource management?
a. Efficient utilisation of human resources
b. Attracting the best human resources
 c. Providing the best possible training
d. All of the above
34. Treating employees as precious human resources is the basis of the approach.
a. hard HRM
b. soft HRM
c. medium HRM
d. none of the above
35. Strategic human resource management aims to achieve competitive advantage in the market
through a. Price
b. Product
c. People
d. Process
36. Wright and Snell made important contribution to the growth of:
a. Strategic fit model
b. Strategic labour allocation process model
c. Business-oriented model
d. none of the above
37. Strategic management process usually consists of __ steps
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
38. One of the components of corporate level strategy is:
a. growth strategy'
b. portfolio strategy
c. parenting strategy
d. all of the above
39. Creating an environment that facilitates a continuous and two-way exchange of information
between the superiors and the subordinates is the core of:
a. High involvement management model
b. High commitment management model
c. High performance management model
d. none of the above
40. Boundary crossing is an activity that
a. Creates internal organisational conflict between different departments as they compete to
generate new practices
b. Occurs when organisations advance into new areas of the market
c. Undermines the integration of an organisation through the breakdown of the departmental
boundaries.
d. Is focused upon achieving internal organisational integration between various
organisational roles and units in order to generate creativity and synergy
41. Procedures provide for an important element of consistency in managerial?
a. Direction
b. Strategy
c. Recruitment
d. Decision-making
42. Why has the bureaucratic form of organisation been fundamentally questioned?
a. The pressures of globalisation have rendered it unsuitable.
b. Organisations are experiencing acute pressure to change and pursue innovation as a
means of securing business growth.
c. Organisations have grown so large that it is almost impossible to create an effective
bureaucracy to manage them.
d. Information Technology has made it redundant.
43. Who famously adopted Taylor's Scientific Management approach?
a. Ronald McDonald
b. Ralph Lauren
c. Henry Ford
d. James Dyson
44. The most pertinent criticism of the empowerment concept concerns
a. the balance between customers' wishes and efficiency.
b. the limited evidence for any shift towards a substantially .more empowered
workforce.
c. the over-empowerment of employees
d. the limited theorising of the concept.
45. One of the following attributes of potential employees is of heightened interest to employers when
recruiting. Which one is it?
a. The candidate's physical health
b. The candidate's ability to deal with customers
c. The candidate's ability to prepare for and cope with an uncertain future
d. The candidate's organisational abilities 46. Selection is concerned with:
a. The activity to select a suitable pool of candidates.
b. Always being stimulated by the departure of an employee.
c. Always ascertaining a candidate's personality to ensure a suitable fit.
d. Applying appropriate techniques and methods to select a candidate.
47. Which activities are not associated with workforce planning?
a. Forward planning reviewing internal and external labour supply
b. Assessing capability of workforce to develop any requisite skills
c. Time keeping
d. Identifying areas where recruitment will be needed 48. Why is job
analysis so
infused with organisational politics?
a. Because it is a process which could lead to contraction of employees in a department
and therefore diminishing its power base
 b. A result of interdepartmental rivalry
c. Because it is not an objective activity
d. Because it is a process through which companies try to shed labour
49. What do rational processes to recruitment and selection typically ignore?
a. Labour market demand
b. Wages
c. The time it takes to get to work
d. The use of power and micropolitics by managers

50. Which is the most popular method of recruiting applicants to jobs?

a. Radio and TV advertisement
b. Corporate website
c. Employee referral schemes
d. Commercial job boards
51. Which selection method remains the most used by organisations?
a. Interviews
b. Ability tests
c. References
d. A trial period
52. Which items below are' forms of perceptual errors made during the selection process?
a. Like-me judgements
b. A candidate's time-keeping
c. The interview setting
d. The time of day
53. Which of the below is a form of interview used in candidate selection?
a. The appraisal interview
b. The competency based interview
c. The disciplinary interview
d. The return to work interview
54. The interview is used as a method for determining:
a. The personality of the candidate
b. The degree of fit between the applicant and the demands of the job.
c. His/her age.
d. Physical attributes
55. According to the Leitch Review of Skills (2006), the ability of firms to succeed in the face of
growing international competition depends increasingly on;
a. Work culture
b. Relaxed legal system
c. Good infrastructure
d. Skilled labour
56. What is the main reason employers give why employees are not fully proficient?

a. Lack of experience
b. Over qualified
c. Lack of numeracy skills
d. Lack of literacy skills
57. Which of the stages below are part of the Systematic Training Cycle?
a. Analyse operating conditions
b. Design training
c. Deliver on time
Evaluate customer feedback
58. What is the main disadvantage of off-the-job learning?
a. It isn't always directly related to real organisational issues and needs
b. The time needed to set up
c. Accessibility for those training
d. Long term costs
59. A cultural view of learning considers the values and norms of communities through:
a. Myths, legends and proverbs
b. Music, song and dance
c. Rituals, language and religion
d. Talk, practices and stories
60. What is a 'communities of practice' approach to organisational learning?
a. An approach that focuses on practising 'best practice'
b. An approach that focuses on the values, beliefs and norms of a social group
c. An approach that focuses on the skills embedded within the group
d. An approach that has a clear set of defined practices to use in all situations
61. Chase's study (1997) identified what issue as being the biggest obstacle to creating a
knowledgecreating company?
a. Limited resources for training and development
b. Organisational culture
c. Failure of management
d. Inability to access learning material
62. What is the most common form of organisational intervention designed to improve employee
wellbeing?
a. Secondary and tertiary
b. Primary
c. Variable
d. Best-fit
63. What are the main aims of Employee Assistance Programmes?
a. To alter the organisational culture
b. To address team and individuaf performance and well-being in the workplace
c. To focus the attention Of employees to the power structures of an organization
d. To establish effective methods of care and support for 'everyone in an
organization 64. How does the selection of an international assignee usually take place? a.
Formal interview process with internal staff.
b. Informal discussion based on chance conversations with internal staff.
c. Informal discussion between each member of a specific team.
d. Formal recruitment process that includes internal and external candidates
65. Which multinational bank used business sponsors to monitor international assignees?
a. Oman International Bank
b. Falcon International
c. HSBC
d. Barclays
66. What is the major problem with the theorizing of strategic IHRM?
a. It becomes obsolete very quickly as change occurs so fast
b. It is biased towards western ideas
c. It tends to offer a highly idealised pe.rspective on strategy formulation
d. It fails to incorporate conflict

67. How can HRM help to build successful cross-border alliances?

a. By ensuring that organisations spend 25% of their budgets on cross-border alliances
b. By ensuring that a strategy is in place before embarking on a cross-border alliance
c. By ensuring that organisations export their ideas to other societies and cultures
d. By ensuring that international joint ventures are staffed by high-quality managers
68. Which of the following statements most accurately defines human resource management?
a. human resource management contributes to business strategy and plays and important role in
the implementation of business strategy
b. human resource management is an approach to managing people
c. human resource management seeks to achieve competitive advantage through the strategic
deployment of a highly committed and capable workforce, using an integrated array of
cultural, structural and personnel techniques
d. human resource management focuses on people as the source of competitive advantage
69. Which of the following techniques are not connected with human resource planning?
a. succession planning
b. management of change
c. simple linear regression
d. Markov matrix analysis
70. Which of the following is NOT true of the activity known as job analysis?
a. it aims to describe the purpose of a job and the conditions under which it is performed.
 b. the job elements are rated in terms such as frequency of use or amount of time involved c.
the rate of pay for the job is fixed
d. jobs are broken into elements such as information or relations with other people
71. Which of the following is NOT a common criticism of using personality tests in selection?
a. Good performers in the same job may have different personalities
b. There are no reliable instruments with which to assess personality
c. An individual's personalitycan vary with circumstances
d. Candidates can fake the answers, so giving a misleading impression
72. Which of the following is not a recruitment technique?
a. Interviews
b. performance appraisal
c. psychometric testing
d. ability tests
73. Which statement best describes '360 degree feedback'? It is:
a. a method used to appraise employees
b. a system where managers give feedback to all their staff
c. a system where feedback on any individual is derived from peers, subordinates supervisors
and occasionally, customers
d. a development tool
74. Which of the following would not form part of a flexible reward package?
a. ability to 'buy and sell' leave days
b. non-pay items such as child care vouchers
c. cafeteria benefits performance-related pay
75. Which one of the following becomes a creative factor in production?
a. Land
b. Capital
c. Consumers
d. Human Resources
76. People cast in the role of contributors to production are called __
a. Capitalist
b. Land owners
c. Human Resources
d. Consumers
77. Wide range of abilities and attributes possessed by people are called as
a. Management
b. Human Resources
c. Entrepreneur
d. Intreprenuer
78. Deployment of which resource is difficult to master
a. Human
 b. Land
c. Capital
d. Natural
79. The focus of Human Resource Management revolves around"
a. Machine
b. Motivation
c. Money
d. Men
80. Quality- oriented organisation primary concern centers around __
a. Coordination
b. Communication
c. Human Resources
d. Discipline
81. Quality goals require alignment with:
a. Production
b. Human Resources
c. Finance
d. Purchase
82. Demand for human resources and management is created by
a. Expansion of industry
b. Shortage of labor
c. Abundance of capital
d. Consumer preferences
83. Management function arises as a result of:
a. Consumer preferences
b. Abundance of capital
c. Expansion of industry
d. Shortage of labour
84. Human Resource Management is primarily concerned with:
a. Sales
b. Dimensions of people
c. External environment
d. Cost discipline
85. Human Resource Management aims to maximise employees as well as organisational
a. Effectiveness
b. Economy
c. Efficiency
d. Performativity
86. The difference between human resource management and personnel management is: a. Insignificant
b. Marginal
 c. Narrow
d. Wide
87. Human Resource Management function does not involve:
a. Recruitment
b. Selection
c. Cost control
d. Training
88. Which one is not the specific goal of human resource management?
a. Attracting applicants
b. Separating employees
c. Retaining employees
d. Motivating employees
89. Identify which one is an added specific goal of human resource management:
a. Retraining
b. Learning
c. Unlearning
d. Separating
90. Identify the top most goal of human resource management?
a. Legal compliance
b. Competitive edge
c. Work force adaptability
d. Productivity
91. To achieve goals organisations require employees:
a. Control
b. Direction
c. Commitment
d. Cooperation
92. Human resource management helps improve
a. Production
b. Productivity
c. Profits
d. Power
93. The amount of quality output for amount of input means
 a. Productivity
b. Production
c. Sales increase
d. Increase in profits
94. Responding to employees and involving them in decision making is referred to as: a. Quality of work
life
b. Autonomy
c. Empowerment
d. Preaction
95. The main challenge for modern organisations is:
a. To remain ahead of the talent developments in the market
b. To retain the talent they have to realise that talented people are the real wealth of the
organisation
c. To find ways to poach talent wherever they can find it
d. none of the above
96. Talent management is:
a. In essence about a contract between the organisation and the employee
b. Also taking into account other factors that unlock value in the business
c. A combination of hard and soft issues (including the psycho-social contract) and taking the
new economy into account (i.e. the knowledqe-based economy)
d. all of the above
97. Key factors in skills development and talent management are:
a. A broad definition of talent to ensure inclusivity and
b. Finding a balance between staff development and making staff more employable
c. Compliance with the EE Act
d. Both (a) and (b)
98. Most organisations for Talent Management
a. Will have the same skills requirements for jobs in the future as jobs do
not
change much
b. Experience a more disengaging workforce who are less loyal
c. Are effective in measuring performance and productivity
d. Have effective and pro-active talent management strategies 99. Trends
in Talent Management include:
a. An increase in post-high school training and education in the future
b. Management and leadership skills are seen as most valuable to modern and competitive
organisations
c. Teaching jobs are very difficult to fill
d. all of the above
100. Benefits of Talent Management include:
 a. A reduction in the recruitment cycle

b. Creating a competitive advantage

c. Improved client relations and retention
d. (b) and (c)

Answers
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (C) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (C) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (C) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (b) 23. (C) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32, (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (C) 44. (b) 45. (C) 46. (d) 47. (C) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (d) 68. (C) 69. (b) 70. (C)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (C) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (C) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (C)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (C) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (d)
91. (C) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (C) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d)

PART-II
1. HRM MCQs 1.
1. The meaning of the acronym HRM is
A. Human Relations Management
B. Humanistic Resource Management

C. Human Resource Management

D. Human Resourceful Management Answer: Option C
Solution: The meaning of the acronym HRM is Human Resource Management. Human
resource management (HRM) is the practice of recruiting, hiring, deploying and managing
an organization's employees. HRM is really employee management with an emphasis on
those employees as assets of the business.
2. HRM is -----------------------
A. A staff functions
B. A line function

C. A staff function, line function and accounting function

D. All of the above Answer: Option A
Solution: HRM is a staff functions. A "staff function" supports the organization with
specialized advisory and support functions. For example, human resources, accounting,
public relations and the legal department are generally considered to be staff functions.
3. Finding ways to reduce ________is a key responsibility of management
A. Dissatisfaction
B. Uncertainty

C. Stress
D. None of the above Answer: Option B
Solution: Finding ways to reduce uncertainty is a key responsibility of management. The
primary role of a manager is to ensure the daily functioning of a department or group of
employees.

4. The -----------and control systems should be altered to support the strategic human
resources function
A. Appointment
B. Reward

C. Job allotment
D. None of the above Answer: Option B
Solution: The reward and control systems should be altered to support the strategic human
resource function. Strategic human resource management is the practice of attracting,
developing, rewarding, and retaining employees for the benefit of both the employees as
individuals and the organization as a whole.
5. All aspects of the merger need
A. Controlling

B. Delegating
C. Staffing
D. Managing Answer: Option D
Solution: All aspects of the merger need managing. A merger is a corporate strategy of
combining different companies into a single company in order to enhance the financial and
operational strengths of both organizations.

6. Which of the performance appraisal system requires operating managers to prepare a list
of effective and ineffective behaviour of the employee
A. Critical incident technique
B. Forced choice

C. Essay evaluation
D. Management by Objective Answer: Option A
Solution: In Critical incident technique, personnel specialists and operating managers
prepare lists of statements of very effective and very ineffective behaviour for an employee.
Critical incident method or critical incident technique is a performance appraisal tool in
which analyses the behaviour of employee in certain events in which either he performed
very well and the ones in which he could have done better.
7. Critical incident approach is used in which of the following:
A. Behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS)

B. Critical incident technique

C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above Answer: Option C
Solution: Behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS) and Critical incident techniques are
based on the critical incident approach.
BARS is designed to bring the benefits of both quantitative and qualitative data to employee
appraisal process.
Critical incident technique is a method of gathering facts (incidents) from domain experts or
less experienced users of the existing system to gain knowledge of how to improve the
performance of the individuals involved.
8. Paired comparison method can be used by
A. Superiors

B. Peers
C. Subordinates
D. All of the above Answer: Option D
Solution: Paired comparison method can be used by Superiors, Peers and Subordinates.
9. The multiple-input approach to performance feedback is also known as
A. 90
B. 180
C. 270

D. 360 Answer: Option D

Solution: The multiple-input approach to performance feedback is sometimes called 360
degree assessment. A 360-degree feedback (also known as multi-rater feedback, multi-
source feedback, or multi source assessment) is a process through which feedback from an
employee's subordinates, colleagues, and supervisor(s), as well as a self-evaluation by the
employee themselves is gathered.
10. An incentive plan may consist of the following components:
A. Monetary

B. Nonmonetary
C. Both monetary and nonmonetary
D. None of the above Answer: Option C
Solution: An incentive plan may consist of both monetary and nonmonetary. Monetary
rewards are the incentives which involve direct money to the employees. Non-Monetary
rewards are the incentives which do not involve direct money to the employees. Non-
Monetary rewards are usually given to all the employees of a certain level to offer them
convenience and security.

11. Which of the following is used to rate employees individually

A. Graphic scale rating
B. Ranking
C. Paired comparison
D. Forced distribution Answer: Option A
Solution: Graphic scale rating technique is used to evaluate an employee individually. A
graphic rating scale lists the traits each employee should have and rates workers on a
numbered scale for each trait. The scores are meant to separate employees into tiers of
performers, which can play a role in determining promotions and salary adjustments.
12. Which of the following is used to rate employees in comparison to other employees?
A. Ranking
B. Forced choice
C. Essay evaluation
D. Critical incident technique Answer: Option A
Solution: The Ranking technique have been used to evaluate an employee in comparison
with other employees. Ranking method is one of the simplest performance evaluation
methods. In this method, employees are ranked from best to worst in a group. The
simplicity of this method is overshadowed by the negative impact of assigning a 'worst' and
a 'best' rating to an employee.

13. The Recognition may be shown following ways.

A. A pat on the back of employee
B. Promotion
C. Assignment of more interesting tasks

D. All of the above Answer: Option D

Solution: The Recognition may be shown in the form of a pat on the back of employee,
Promotion and Assignment of more interesting tasks.
14. The purpose of Job Evaluation is to determine
A. Worth of a job in relation to other jobs

B. Time duration of a job

C. Expenses incurred to make a job
D. None of the above Answer: Option A
Solution: The purpose of Job Evaluation is to determine worth of a job in relation to other
jobs. Job evaluations have many purposes within business organizations. While they may be
perceived as focusing only an individual's performance, they actually help the organization
take a look at its structure, allowing it to make changes to improve its competitiveness or
efficiency.

15. Job Evaluation tries to make a systematic comparison between

A. Workers
B. Jobs
C. Machines

D. Departments Answer: Option B

Solution: Job Evaluation tries to make a systematic comparison between Jobs to assess their
relative worth for the purpose of establishing a rational pay structure.
16. Basis of Job Evaluation is.
A. Job design
B. Job ranking
C. Job analysis
D. Any of the above Answer: Option C

Solution: Basis of Job Evaluation is Job analysis. Job evaluation is an assessment of the
relative worth of various jobs on the basis of a consistent set of job and personal factors,
such as qualifications and skills required.
17. The important objectives of a job evaluation programme are

A. Establishment of sound wage differentials between jobs.

B. Maintenance of a consistent wage policy.
C. Installation of an effective means of wage control.
D. All of the above Answer: Option D

Solution: The important objectives of a job evaluation programme Establishment of sound

wage differentials between jobs, maintenance of a consistent wage policy and installation of
an effective means of wage control.
18. Which of the following is not a job evaluation method?
A. Factor comparison method

B. Point Method
C. Ranking method
D. Assessment method Answer: Option D
Solution: The Assessment method is not a job evaluation method. A business assessment
helps you to achieve your company's goals, to expand and grow your business in a smart
and strategic way. As the company owner, you have to be aware of the strengths and
weaknesses of your company.
19. Which of the following is the simplest performance evaluation method?
A. Ranking method
B. Point method
C. Factor comparison method
D. Classification method Answer: Option A

Solution: In Ranking method Jobs can be arranged according to the relative difficulty in
performing them. Ranking method is one of the simplest performance evaluation methods.
In this method, employees are ranked from best to worst in a group. The simplicity of this
method is overshadowed by the negative impact of assigning a 'worst' and a 'best' rating to
an employee.
20. Job Evaluation is carried on by
A. Groups
B. Individuals

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above Answer: Option A
Solution: Job Evaluation is carried on by groups. Since job evaluation is subjective, specially
trained personnel or job analysts should conduct it. When a group of managers is used for
this purpose, the group is called a job evaluation committee. The committee reviews job
analysis information to learn about the duties, responsibilities and working conditions.
21. The ranking method is best suited for
A. Complex organizations

B. Large organizations
C. Small organizations
D. Any of the above Answer: Option C
Solution: The Ranking method is best suited for Small organizations. Ranking method is one
of the simplest performance evaluation methods. In this method, employees are ranked
from best to worst in a group. The simplicity of this method is overshadowed by the
negative impact of assigning a 'worst' and a 'best' rating to an employee.

22. Point method is suitable for

A. Small size organization

B. Mid-size organization
C. Large organization
D. Both (B) and (C) Answer: Option D
Solution: Point method is suitable for Mid-size organization and Large organization. The
point method is an extension of the factor comparison method. Each factor is then divided
into levels or degrees which are then assigned points. Each job is rated using the job
evaluation instrument. The points for each factor are summed to form a total point score for
the job.
23. In Factor Comparison method each factor is ascribed a
A. Money value
B. Ranking
C. Scale
D. None of the above Answer: Option A
Solution: In Factor Comparison method, each factor is ascribed a Money value. Factor
comparison is systematic and scientific method designed to carry out job evaluation which
instead of ranking job as a whole, ranks according to a series of factors. The aim of factor
comparison is to assign financial value to the relative parts of each job role.
24. The following are the key components of a business process reengineering programme
A. Product development

B. Service delivery
C. Customer satisfaction
D. All of the above Answer: Option D
Solution: The Product development, Service delivery and Customer satisfaction are the key
components of a business process Re-engineering programme.
25. The actual achievements compared with the objectives of the job is
A. Job performance
B. Job evaluation
C. Job description

D. None of the above Answer: Option A

Performance Appraisal - MCQs with answers - Part 1
26. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against well-defined
benchmarks.

a. Performance Appraisal
b. HR Planning
c. Information for goal identification
d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Performance Appraisal

27. What is linked with performance appraisal?

a. Job Design
b. Development
c. Job analysis

d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Job analysis

28. which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?
a. Quality and quantity of output
b. Job knowledge
c. Employee assessment
d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Employee assessment

29. Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?

a. Making correct decisions
b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
c. Establish job expectations

d. None of the above

ANSWER: b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
Reason: Rest all the options are the competitive advantage of performance appraisal
30. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm's competitive advantage?

a. Ensures legal compliances

b. Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
c. Improves performance
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above

31. From the strategic point of view, in which three categories can an organisation be
grouped?
a. Defenders

b. Prospectors
c. Analysers
d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above
32. Successful defenders use performance appraisal for identifying ____________.

a. Staffing needs
b. Job behaviour
c. Training needs
d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Training needs

33. Analysers tend to emphasise both ______ and _______ and employee extensive training
programmes.
a. Skill building and skill acquisition
b. Current performance and past performance
c. Strategy and behaviour

d. None of the above

ANSWER: a. Skill building and skill acquisition
34. What do successful analysers tend to examine?
a. Division and corporate performance evaluation

b. Current performance with past performance

c. Ideal appraisal process
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b. Current performance with past performance

Performance Appraisal - MCQs with answers- Part 2

35. Rearrange the steps in appraisal process.
A. Objectives of performance appraisal
B. Establish job expectations
C. Design in appraisal programme

D. Performance Management
E. Appraise performance
F. Performance interview
G. Archive appraisal data

H. Use appraisal data for appropriate purposes

a. DCHGFABE
b. HGFEDBCA
c. ABCFGHDE

d. ABCDEFGH
ANSWER: d. ABCDEFGH
36. Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?
a. Quality

b. What methods of appraisal are to be used?

c. Quantity
d. Cost of effectiveness
ANSWER: b. What methods of appraisal are to be used?

37. State true or false

Raters can be immediate supervisors, specialists from the HR department, subordinates,
peers, committees, clients and self - appraisals or a combination of all.
a. True

b. False ANSWER: a. True

38. When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients then it is called
____.
a. 360 degree feedback

b. 180 degree feedback

c. Self - appraisal
d. None of the above ANSWER: a. 360 degree feedback
39. Which company first developed the 360 degree system of appraisal?
a. Wipro in 1990

b. Godrej Soaps in 1991

c. General Electric, US in 1992 d. None of the above.ANSWER: c. General Electric, US in 1992
40. Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the rater?
a. The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimise their effect

b. Performance factors are properly defined

c. The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall
d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
ANSWER: d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously

Reason: Rest all the options are factors that increase the accuracy rate of a rater
41. Which of these is one of the seven criteria for assessing performance?
a. Community service
b. Interpersonal contact

c. Need for supervision

d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above
42. Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee
performance?
a. Rating Scales

b. Critical Incident
c. Cost accounting
d. BARS ANSWER: a. Rating Scales
43. State true or false

i. In the forced choice method the rater is forced to select statements which are readymade.
a. True
b. False ANSWER: a. True
44. Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method?

a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

b. Work is reliable
c. The error of central tendency
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal
distribution

45. Compensation can be _____ benefits.

a. Monetary

b. Non-monetary
c. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above (Ans: c)
46-Wages represents _____ rates of pay.

a. Hourly
b. Daily
c. Weekly
d. Monthly (Ans: a)

47._______ are also called ‘payments by results’.

a. Allowances
b. Claims
c. Incentives
d. Fringe benefits (Ans: c)

48. Incentives depends upon

a. Productivity
b. Sales
c. Profits

d. All of the above (Ans: d)

49. The following is paid only at the time of employees exit after serving more than five
years
a. Perquisites

b. Claims
c. Gratuity
d. Allowances (Ans: c)
50. The following is a perquisites.
a. Club membership

b. Provident fund
c. Medical allowance
d. Group insurance (Ans: a)
51. ‘A behaviour which has rewarding experience is likely to be repeated’ is postulated by

Reinforcement and expectancy theory

a. Equity theory
b. Agency theory
c. None of the above (Ans: a)

52. ‘A fair day work for fair day pay’ denotes a sense of _______ felt by employees.
a. Responsibility
b. Equity
c. Happiness

d. Respect (Ans: b)
53. The remuneration system needs to meet the following type(s) of equity.
a. Internal
b. External
c. Individual

d. All of the above (Ans: d)

54. Which of the following factor influence(s) employee compensation?
a. Labour market
b. Cost of living

c. Labour unions
d. All of the above (Ans: d)
55. Match the following
Business strategy Compensation strategy

A. Invest to grow 1. Stress on cost control

B. Manage earnings – protect markets 2. Stimulate entrepreneurialism
C. Harvest earnings – reinvest elsewhere.3. Reward management skills
The correct answer is
a. A-1, B-2, C-3
b. A-2, B-1, C-3
c. A-2, B-3, C-1
d. A-3, B-1, C-2 (Ans: c)
56. Any compensation plan must be

a. Understandable, workable, acceptable

b. Reasonable, workable, acceptable
c. Understandable, feasible, acceptable
d. Understandable, workable, compensable (Ans: a)
57. The following is not a part of remuneration model
a. Job description
b. Job evaluation
c. Job hierarchy

d. Job analysis (Ans: d)

58. Elitist remuneration systems are prevalent among
a. Well established firms
b. Companies with mature products
c. Companies with limited competition
d. All of the above (Ans: d)

59. In organized industrial establishments pay review takes place once in ____ years.
a. Three
b. Seven
c. Ten

d. Fifteen (Ans: a)
60. Equal remuneration Act 1976, prohibits discrimination in matters relating to
remuneration on the basis of
a. Religion

b. Region
c. Sex
d. All of the above (Ans: d)
61. The following is not a concept of wage
a. Daily wages

b. Minimum wages
c. Fair wages
d. Living wages (Ans: a)
62._______ can be fixed by comparison with an accepted standard wage.

a. Minimum wages
b. Fair wages
c. Living wages
d. All of the above (Ans: b)

63. A ______ must be fixed considering the general economic conditions of the country.
a. Minimum wages
b. Fair wages
c. Living wages
d. All of the above (Ans: c)
64. In India, _____ wage is determined mainly for sweated industries
a. Minimum
b. Fair
c. Living
d. Standard (Ans: a)

Multiple Choice Questions on Compensation Management

65.In graduated time rates system, if basic salary is Rs.2000 and dearness allowance is 150%
then total remuneration will be :-
(A) Rs. 4,000/-

(B) Rs. 5,000/-

(C) Rs. 6,000/-
(D) Rs. 7,000/- Ans B
66. The Scanlon plan of profit sharing gives utmost importance to ________.

(A) Employee participation

(B) Employer’s participation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above Ans. A
67. Financial &/or quantitative statement prepared & approved prior to period of time is
called:-
(A) Financial plan (B) Financial statement
(C) Budget (D) Finance bill Ans. C
68. The ________ criterion is usually regarded as an automatic minimum equity pay
criterion.
(A) Value of minimum wage
(B) Cost of living pay
(C) Nominal value

(D) None of the above Ans. B

69. Wages of security men in a production unit comes under:-
(A) Indirect labour
(B) Direct labour

(C) Miscellaneous cost

(D) None of the above Ans. A
70. Persons interested in enhancing their reputations and receiving recognition may
respond to ________.
(A) Verbal praise

(B) Treats
(C) Awards
(D) All of the above Ans. A
71. Characteristic of a good compensation system is:-

(A) Higher the qualification of worker, higher is compensation

(B) Higher the efficiency of worker, higher is compensation
(C) Higher the rank of worker, higher is compensation
(D) All of the above Ans. B

72. For higher management, ________ are influenced by the size of a company, specific
industry and the process of decision making.
(A) Bonuses
(B) Promotions
(C) Salaries

(D) All of the above Answer. C

73. One of the important organisational factors affecting the “Job design” is

A. Workflow
B. Autonomy
C. Feedback
D. Diversity Answer: Option A

Solution: One of the important organizational factors affecting 'Job Design' is Workflow.
Organizational factors that affect job design can be work nature or characteristics, work
flow, organizational practices and ergonomics.
74. Behavioural factors affecting Job Design are

A. Autonomy
B. Diversity
C. Feedback
D. All of the above Answer: Option D
Solution: Behavioural factors affecting job design are Autonomy, Diversity and Feedback.
75. Factors affecting Job Design are

A. Behavioural factors
B. Environmental factors
C. Organizational factors
D. All of the above Answer: Option D

Solution: Factors affecting job design are Behavioral factors, Environmental factors and
Organizational factors.
Behavioural factors have to do with human needs and the necessary to satisfy them. Higher-
level needs are more significant in this context.

Environmental elements affect all activities of HRM, and job design is no exception. The
external factors that have a bearing on job design are employee abilities and availability,
and social and cultural expectations.
Organizational factors include characteristics of task, work flow, ergonomics, and work
practices.

76. Organisational factors affecting Job Design are

A. Workforce and cultural factors B. Employee availability and abilities
C. Ergonomics and cultural factors
D. Feedback and diversity factors Answer: Option A

Solution: Organisational factors affecting job design are Workforce and cultural factors. The
various factors under organisational factors include task features, work flow, ergonomics,
work practices, etc.
77. The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a job and the kind of
person who should be hired for it is
A. Job analysis
B. Job design
C. Job recruitment

D. Job description Answer: Option A

Solution: The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a job and the
kind of person who should be hired for it is Job analysis. A job analysis is a process used to
collect information about the duties, responsibilities, necessary skills, outcomes, and work
environment of a particular job.
78. Which of these models is not a rational planning approach
A. Corporate- level strategic planning
B. Strategic business unit level strategic planning

C. Processual approach
D. Operational level strategic planning Answer: Option C
Solution: Processual approach is not a rational planning approach. The processual approach
states that change is continuous and without a finite end point. Change is also a "messy"
process that is shaped by an organisation's history, culture, and internal politics.
79. The unstructured interview is
A. Infrequently conducted
B. Typically is unbiased

C. Typically is related to future

D. Typically biased job performance Answer: Option D
Solution: The unstructured interview is typically biased job performance. An unstructured
interview is an interview in which there is no specific set of predetermined questions,
although the interviewers usually have certain topics in mind that they wish to cover during
the interview.
80. Tests that measure traits, temperament, or disposition are examples of
A. Manual dexterity tests B. Personality tests
C. Intelligence tests D. Work sample tests Answer: Option B

Solution: Tests that measure traits, temperament, or disposition are examples of Personality
tests. A personality test is a method of assessing human personality constructs. Most
personality assessment instruments are in fact introspective self-report questionnaire
measures or reports from life records such as rating scales.
81. Which of the following is not the NOT the advantage of Workforce Diversity?
A. Increased creativity and flexibility B. Decreased problem-solving skills
C. Multiple perspectives D. Greater openness to new ideas Answer: Option B
Solution: Decreased problem-solving skills is NOT the advantage of Workforce Diversity.
Workforce diversity can bring about an increase in productivity and competitive advantages.
Workplace diversity also increases employee morale and causes employees to desire to
work more effectively and efficiently.
82. The best hiring occurs when the goals of which of the following should be consistent to
each other?
A. HR managers, Finance managers B. Head office, Brand
C. Organisation, individual D. Lower managers, Top managers Answer: Option C
Solution: The best hiring occurs when the goals of Organisation and individual should be
consistent to each other. Employee relations specialists in HR help the organization achieve
high performance, morale and satisfaction levels throughout the workforce, by creating
ways to strengthen the employer-employee relationship.
83. Which of the following role a manager performs as a Resource Allocator

A. Interpersonal role B. Decisional role

C. Informational role D. Supportive role Answer: Option B
Solution: A manager performs decisional role as a Resource allocator. The resource allocator
role is one of the four decisional managerial roles because its primary focus is on making
and implementing decisions. Familiarity with the resource allocator and other managerial
roles allows both new and seasoned supervisors to understand a manager's job.
84. ------------- is the main source of innovations
A. Upgraded technology B. Human mind
C. Competitors' pressure D. Research & Development: Answer: Option B

Solution: Human mind is the main source of innovations. In business, innovation often
results when ideas are applied by the company in order to further satisfy the needs and
expectations of the customers.

PART-III
HRM is following in the nature:

a) Preventive
b) Curative
c) Combative
d) None of the above.

2. HRM emphasis on open-ended contracts.

a) True.
b) False.
3. “Well-experienced, imaginative and sincere employees are the most valuable assets of a
business”. This is remarked by:
a) Shri Lion C. Megginson.
b) Shri J.R.D. Tata.
c) Shri Prof.Rao.
d) Robert Owen

4. The term Personnel Management is used in which sense?

a) Wide sense.
b) Limited sense.
c) Both (a) and (b).

5. Personnel Management is:

a) Not people oriented

b) People oriented
c) Business oriented.
d) None of the above.

6. _____________ is an integral part of the overall planning of any business unit.

7. Importance of HRM doesn’t include:

a) Raises Morale.
b) Discipline Maintenance.
c) Integration.
d) Raises the prestige of company.

8. HRM includes following functions:

a) Managerial Functions
b) Operative Functions
c) Both
d) None of the above.

9. In absence of the ______________, employees may not be available in a sufficient

number or there may be overstaffing: a) HRM.
b) Personnel Management.
c) Recruitment.
d) Human Resource Planning.

10. According to _____________, “Human resource planning includes forecasting, developing,

controlling and appointing right people at right place economically”. a) Gordon Mcbeath
b) A.R. Smith
 c) R.F.A. Hopes
d) Geisler

11. Human resource planning deals on the basis of:

a) National level.
b) At firm level.
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) International level.

12. The process of forecasting demand and supply of right number and type of people is
called ___________. a) Recruitment
b) Selection
c) Procurement
d) Human resource planning

13. Procedure of job analysis does not include:

a) Type of information to be collected:
b) Determining Objectives.
c) Taking decisions.
d) Collecting data.

14. Time and money will be saved to a large if the employees themselves write down to a
questionnaire. a) True.
b) False.

15. Conducting interview with workers by specialised job analysts is:

a) More expensive method.
b) Less expensive method.
c) Doesn’t make much difference.
d) None of the above.

16. The checklist method is appropriate for which type of organisation:

a) Large organisation
b) Small organisation
c) Medium organisation
d) Company form of organisation.

17. The following method for procedure of job analysis is time consuming: a)
Checklist.

b) Technical Conference.
c) Diary.
d) Interview.

18. Advantages of job analysis includes:

a) Cordial employer employee relations.

b) Cost of production reduced.
c) Promotion and transfer
d) Development of employees.

19. ____________ is a opposite term to maintaining:

a) Terminating.
b) Procuring
c) Retaining
d) None

20. The ___________ philosophy believes that the human beings are valuable assets of the
company.

a) Personnel management
b) Human resource management
c) Both
d) Human resource planning

21. The scope of HRM doesn’t include:

a) Acquisition.
b) Organising
c) Control
d) Development.

22. Work study cannot be used in which of the following situation:

a) When it is possible to measure work.

b) When it is possible to set standards.
c) When job methods do not change frequently.
d) When job methods do change frequently.

23. When speedy decision is demanded, Delphi Technique is appropriate:

a) True
b) False.

24. The audits of managers are called ________________. Ans: Management

Inventories.

25. If adequate labour is not available from internal sources, the manager must try
to tap the ____________.
 Ans: External sources

Unit 2
1. In panel interview there is committee of interview from different area or division.
2. Recruitment helps the firm,
(a) To attract highly qualified and complete people
(b) To create more culturally diverse workforce
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of the above
3. Few internal factors that affect the recruitment process are,
(a) Policy of recruitment
(b) Growth and expansion
(c) Cost of recruitment
(d) All of the above
4. Following external factors affect the recruitment process are,
(a) Labour market
(b) Companies image
(c) Political and legal aspect
(d) All of the above
5. Recruitment is the process of searching proper employee.
6. Selection is a process of choosing the most suitable person out of the application.
7. Recruiting the person from rival firm is known as poaching or raiding.
8. Following is the test for selection,
(a) Psychomotor test
(b) Personality test
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of the above
9. Developing and exploiting the individual’s capability for professional growth is known as
human resources management.
10. Multi-disciplinary combination helps the development of human in different area.
11. Following can be the type of orientation programmes,
(a) Informal and formal
(b) Serial and disjunctive
(c) Individual and collective
(d) All of the above
12. Following is/are the types of informal orientation;
(a) Supervisory System
(b) Buddy/ Sponsor system
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of the above
13. Performance appraisal means a systematic evaluation of an employee’s performance.
14. Monetary rewards is an important technique of human resource development.
15. Investiture orientation seeks to retify usefulness of characteristics that the person brings
to the new job.
 16. Divestiture orientation seeks to make certain modification in the characteristics of new
hire, even if such person was selected based on his or her potential for performance.
17. Quality circle is a small group of employee in the same work area voluntary.
18. Orientation is a process for providing new employees with basic information about the
organization. - True
19. ‘Hallo effect’ is a characteristic, which changes the decision of interview. - True
20. The participants of one-to one interviews are,
(a) Interviewer (b) Interviewee (c) Both a & b (d) None of the above

21. Psychomotor abilities include,

(a) Finger efficiency
(b) Manual proficiency
(c) Arm hand steadiness
(d) All of the above
22. Performance appraisal is a technique of human resource development.
23. Most popular method of recruitment is advertising. - True
24. Graphology technique of selection is first used by French Pries Jean – Hippolyte Michon
in 1830.
25. Interviewing is most widely used tool in selection procedure.

Unit - 3
1. Training is an art of increasing the Knowledge and Skill of a worker.
(a) Salary and Knowledge
(b) Skill and benefits
(c) Knowledge and Skill
(d) None of the above
2. Induction Training is to introduce a new employee to the organization.
(a) Induction Training
(b) Job Training
(c) Promotion Training
(d) Refresher Training
3. Under case study method Actual Cases are assigned to the candidates for written
analysis or for oral diacussion.
(a) Jobs
(b) Actual
(c) Promotio
(d) None of the above
4. Under On-the-job method, a new employee is put on a Machine or a Job under the
guidance of an instructor. (a) Apprentice Method
(b) On-The-Job Method
(c) Vestibule Method
(d) None of the above
5. Lecture and Confrence method is a type of Off-The-Job Method.
(a) On-the-job method
(b) Off-the-job method
 (c) Bothe a and b
(d) None of the above
6. Job design is designing of job keeping in view the Human Approach.
(a) Professional Approach
(b) Business Approach
(c) Human Approach
(d) None of the above
7. Job Enlargement is the Horizontal expansion of Job.
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
8. Under Job Enrichment it is Vertical expansion of Job.
(a) Job Rotation
(b) Job Enlargement
(c) Job Enrichment
(d) None of the above
9. From the following which one is not On-the-job method.
(a) Coaching
(b) Job Rotation
(c) Under Study assignment
(d) Sensitivity Training
10. From the following which one is not Off-the-job method.
(a) Lectures
(b) Role Playing
(c) In-basket exercise
(d) Coaching
11. From the following, indicate the training programmes on the basis of types of
employees.
(a) Training of worker
(b) Training of Supervisor
(c) Training of Executive
(d) All of the above
12. From the following which one is not the advantages of Job Enrichment.
(a) Job is diversified
(b) Overall cost is reduced
(c) Flexibility in doing work
(d) All of the above
13. Job Designing involves conscious efforts to organize tasks, duties and responsibilities
into a unit of work.
14. This Role-Playing method was originally developed by J.L.Moreno for group therapy for
metally disturbed people.
15. Transactional analysis developed by Eric Berne and popularized by Thomas Harries.
16. Sensitivity analysis is also known as laboratory or T-group training.
17. In Basket Exercise is also known as In-Tray method.
 18. Case study method was originally devised to teach law and medical science.

19. Training within industry was widely used by the American Army during the period of
Second World War.
20. Understudy Assignment is the method in which trainee is placed under a person
proficient in the job and learns by observing that person.
21. Apprentice training method is used to give sufficient knowledge and skill of craft, so
that the trainee becomes proficient in his trade.
22. Under Vestibule Method new worker are trained for specific jobs on special machines
and equipments in a separate room located in the workshop itself.
23. Autonomous and Self Directed Team is an intact group of employee who are
responsible for a “whole” work process or segment that delivers a product or service to
an internal or external customer.
24. Job training is given to worker to get him acquainted with all aspects of the job that has
to perform.
25. Refresher training must be arranged frequently to acquaint the present employee with
the new knowledge, new methods and also to refresh the old knowledge.
Unit 4
1. From the following which are the concept of wages.
(a) Minimum Wage
(b) Fair Wage
(c) Living wage
(d) All of the above
2. As per the provision of Factory Act the workers are classified in following ways.
(a) Adult
(b) Adolescent
(c) Young person
(d) All of the above
3. Following are the types of separation .
(a) Lay off
(b) Retrenchment
(c) Resignation
(d) All of the above
4. The concept of M.B.O. popularized by Peter Drucker in the year of 1954.
5. The concept of M.B.O. was popularized in Peter Drucker book, “The Practice of
Management”.
6. Forced choice method was developed at the close of world was II by a group of
industrial psychologists.
7. 360 degree Appraisal was first developed by General Electronic company in the year of
1992.
8. Job Evaluation is a technique used to establish relative worth of jobs in a job hierarchy.
9. Lay Off implies denial of employment to the employees for reasons beyond the control
of employer. (a) Lay Off
(b) Retrenchment
(c) Resignation
 (d) Retirement
10. Basis of promotion in an organization are Seniority and Merit (ability).

11. Promotion, Demotion, Transfer and Dismissal are changes in employee position.
12. Employee are shifted from lower to higher category is a Vertical Type of Promotion.
13. Employee is shifted in the same category is a Horizontal Type of Promotion.
14. Promotion in view point of post and not in view point of remmunaration is a type of Dry
Promotion.
15. The concept of living wage meant be linked with economic condition of the country.
16. Higher Status with responsibility is known as Promotion.
17. Performance appraisal is Compulsary Conduct. (True/ False)
18. Job Evaluation is voluntary conduct. (True/ False)
19. Evaluation of performance appraisal is before/ after the employee is hired for jobs.
20. Hazardous Process is a process of an industry specified in Schedule I of the Act. It is a
process in which material used causes harm to the health of the workers or it results in
the pollution of the general environment.
21. Occupier of a factory means the person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the
factory.
22. Job Rotation is also known as Versatility Transfer.
23. Remedial transfers are also known as Personal Transfer because such transfer are done
at the request of employees.
24. When employees of an organization get an option from its organization to retire before
superannuation, then it is said Voluntary Retirement.
25. Resignation is termination of service at the request of the employee.

Part-IV:
Que:1 Human resource management emphasis-

a. Development of people
b. Punishment of people
c. Adoption of people
d. None of these

Ans: a

Que:2 Human resource management is amalgam of-

a. Job analysis, recruitment and selection

b. Social behaviour and business ethics
c. Organisational behaviour, , personal management and industrial relation
d. Employer and employees

Ans: c
Que:3 Planning, organizing and controlling of procurement, development, compensation, integration
of human resources to the end that objectives of individual, organisation and society are achieved
given by-

a. Storey
b. Flippo

c. Vetter
d. F.W. Taylor

Ans: b

Que:4 Operative functions of HRM includes-

a. Procurement, development, compensation & motivation

b. Maintenance
c. Integration and emerging trends
d. All of these

Ans: d

Que:5 Basic managerial functions of HRM are-

a. Planning, organising, staffing

b. Planning, organising and co-ordinating
c. Planning, organising, directing and controlling
d. None of these

Ans: c

Que: 6 Which of the following statement is/are correct?

a. HRM is a strategic management functions

b. Under HRM employee is treated as resource
c. HRM is the management of skills, talent and abilities
d. HRM lacks the organisation to achieve its goals

Ans: b

Que:7 Following are the characteristics of HRM except-

a. Pervasive function
b. Interdisciplinary function
c. Integrating mechanism
d. Job oriented

Ans: d

Que: 8 Challenges faced by Human resource management includes-

 a. Technological changes, workforce diversity, globalisation

b. Productivity, career planning

c. Compensation management
d. Downsizing and voluntary retirement scheme

Ans: a

Que: 9 The process of familiarizing the new employees to the organisation rules and regulations is
known as-

a. Placement
b. Induction
c. Recruitment
d. Selection

Ans: b

Que: 10 Human resource management means-

a. A method which an organisation collects, maintains and reports information on people and
jobs
b. The process of integrating the employees’ needs and aspirations with organizational needs
c. The process of bringing people and organisation together so that the goals of each are
achieved
d. The efforts to make life worth living for workers

Ans: c

UNIT- IV TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT (MCQ)

Que: 1 Training process is-

a. Short term

b. Medium term

c. Long term

d. None of these

Ans: a

Que: 2 OJT stands for-

a. On the job training

b. On the job technique

 c. On the job technology

d. Off the job training Ans: a

Que:3 On the job training includes-

a. Coaching

b. Conference

c. Understudy

d. All of these

Ans: d

Que: 4 In ------ training, a training centre is set-up and actual job conditions are duplicated or
simulated in it-

a. Classroom

b. Apprenticeship

c. Internship

d. Vestibule

Ans: d

Que:5 ----- is the process of imparting or increasing knowledge or skill of an employee to do a

particular job.

a. Training

b. Development

c. Motivation

d. Leadership

Ans: a

Que: 6 Methods of training and development are-

a. Off the job

b. On the job

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these
Ans: c

Que:7 ---- is a device or situation that replicates job demands at on the job site.

a. Brainstorming

b. Simulation

c. Artificial intelligence

d. Transactional analysis

Ans: b

Que: 8 Management development –

a. Is a short term in nature

b. Focuses on employees’ current job

c. Is an informal activity

d. Aims at overall development of a manager

Ans: d

Que:9 Off the job training method includes:

a. Vestibule training

b. Syndicate

c. Sensitivity training

d. All of these

Ans: d

Que: 10 Simulation technique of off the job method includes:

a. Role playing

b. In-basket exercise

c. Case study

d. Management game

e. All of these

Ans: e
UNIT- V JOB EVALUATION AND PERFORMANCE APPRAISAL (MCQ)
Que:1 Relative worth of a job is known by-

a. Job design

b. Job analysis

c. Job evaluation

d. Job change

Ans: c

Que: 2 Methods of job evaluation are-

a. Qualitative method

b. Quantitative method

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these

Ans: c

Que: 3 Quantitative job evaluation method are-

a. Ranking method

b. Point rating method

c. Factor comparison method

d. Both (b) and (c)

Ans: d

Que: 4 Qualitative job evaluation method are-

a. Ranking

b. Grading

c. Point Rating
 d. Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

Que: 5 Process of studying and collecting information about a job is known as-

a. HRP

b. Job design

c. Job analysis

d. Job evaluation

Ans: (c)

Que: 6 Jobs analysis results in-

a. Job description

b. Job specification

c. Job evaluation

d. All of (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)

Que: 7 Job description is a statement containing items like-

a. Job title, location and duties

b. Machines, tools and equipment

c. Materials, working conditions and hazards.

d. All of these.

Ans: (d)

Que: 8 …………..is a factual statement of tasks & duties involved in a job.

a. Job description

b. Job specification

c. Job Analysis

d. Job evaluation

Ans: (a)

Que: 9 Job Specification is a statement of-

 a. Min qualification required for o job

b. Technical job requirement

c. Machines to be used

d. None of these

Ans. (a)

Que:10 Job analysis is helpful in-

a. HRP, recruitment and selection

b. Training and development

c. Job evaluation and performance appraisal

d. All of these

Ans: d

Que: 11 ------ arranges the job in numerical order from highest rank to lowest rank on the basis of
duties and responsibilities.

a. Ranking method

b. Grading method

c. Point rating method

d. Factor comparison method

Ans: a

Que: 12 ----- a predetermined groups or classes are established and jobs are assigned to each
classification:

a. Ranking method

b. Grading method

c. Point rating method

d. Factor comparison method

Ans: b

Que: 13 ----- the more compensable factor a job possess the more points are assigned to it:

a. Ranking method
 b. Grading method

c. Point rating method

d. Factor comparison

Ans: c

Que:14 ------ few key jobs are selected and compared in terms of common factors:

a. Factor comparison method

b. Ranking method

c. Grading method

d. Point rating method

Ans: a

Que: 15 ------- is the systematic, periodic and impartial rating of an employee excellence in matters
pertaining to his present job and his potential for a better job.

a. Performance appraisal

b. Compensation and motivation

c. Training and Development

d. Performance indicator

Ans: a

Que: 16 Traditional method of performance appraisal includes-

a. Confidential reports

b. Paired comparison method

c. Free form or easy method

d. All of these

Ans: d

Que: 17 Modern method of performance appraisal are:

a. Assessment centre method

b. Management by objectives

c. BARS ( Behaviourally anchored rating scale)

 d. All of these

Ans: d

Que: 18 ------- is a performance appraisal technique in which appraisers rate critical employee
behaviour.

a. MBO

b. BARS

c. BOS

d. BOSS

Ans: b

Que: 19 ------ is a performance appraisal technique that involves agreement between employee and
manager on goals to be achieved in a given period.

a. Rating scales

b. BARS

c. BOS

d. MBO

Ans: d

Que: 20 The combination of peer, superior, subordinate and self-review appraisal is known as-

a. 360° appraisal

b. Human resource accounting system

c. All round review

d. Feed forward

Ans: a