IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

1. The degrees of freedom of a SCARA 6. Which of the following are the basic
robot are building block elements for a
(A) six mechanical system where forces and
(B) five straight line displacements are involved
(C) four without any rotation?
(D) three 1. Spring
2. Dashpot
2. Which one of the following devices 3 Mass
produces incremental motion through 4. Moment of inertia
equal pulses? Select the correct answer using the code
(A) AC servomotor given below.
(B) DC servomotor (A) 1, 2 and 4
(C) Stepper motor (B) 1, 3 and 4
(D) Series motor (C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
3. A force of 400 N is required to open a
process control valve. What is the area 7. Consider the following statements
of diaphragm needed for a diaphragm regarding electromechanical devices
actuator to open the valve with a control 1. A potentiometer has an input of
gauge pressure of 70 kPa? rotation and an output of a potential
(A) 0.0095m2 difference.
(B) 0.0086 m2 2. An electric motor has an input of a
(C) 0.0057m2 potential difference and an output
(D) 0.0048 m2 of rotation of a shaft.
3. A generator has an input of rotation
4. A force of 10kN is required to move a of a shaft and an output of a
work piece. What is the needed working potential difference.
pressure, if the piston diameter is 100 mm? Which of the above statements are
(A) 1.55 MPa correct?
(B) 1.46 MPa (A) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1.27 MPa (B) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1.12 MPa (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
5. If a work piece is moved by 50 mm in
8. The indirect operation of solenoid valve
10 s by a piston of diameter 100 mm,
in pneumatic circuit is designed to
the hydraulic liquid flow rate is nearly
reduce
(A) 3.00 105 m3 / s
1. valve size towards lowering the
(B) 3.93 105 m3 / s cost
(C) 4.74 105 m3 / s 2. coil size and electrical power
consumption
(D) 5.00 105 m3 / s 3. response time

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

Which of the above is/are relevant to the 11. Consider the following statements
context? regarding homogeneous coordinate
(A) 1 only transformation matrix :
(B) 2 only 1. A homogeneous transfor- mation
(C) 3 only matrix can be considered to consist
(D) 1, 2 and 3 of four sub-matrices.
2. The upper left 3 × 3 sub-matrix
9. Consider the following statements: represents the position vector.
1. Robots take permissible actions 3. The upper right 3 × 1 sub-matrix
only. represents the rotation matrix.
2. All actions that are obligatory for 4. The lower left 1 × 3 sub-matrix
robots are actually performed by represents perspective transformation.
them subject to ties and conflicts Which of the above statements are
among available actions. correct?
3. All permissible actions can be (A) 1 and 3
proved by the robot to be (B) 1 and 4
permissible and it can be explained (C) 2 and 3
in ordinary English. (D) 2 and 4
Which of the above statements are
correct? Directions:
(A) 1 and 3 only Each of the next nineteen (19) items consists
(B) 1 and 2 only of two statements, one labeled as Statement I
(C) 2 and 3 only and the other as Statement II. Examine these
(D) 1, 2 and 3 two statements carefully and select the correct
answers to these items using the code given
10. Consider the following statements below.
relating to the term ‘Robot Repeatability’: Code:
1. It is a statistical term associated (A) Both Statement l and Statement II are
with accuracy in the action. individually true, and Statement II is the
2. It is a measure of the ability of the correct explanation of Statement I
robot to position the tool tip in the (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are
same place repeatedly. individually true, but Statement II is not
3. It does not describe the error with the correct explanation of Statement I
respect to absolute coordinates. (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
Which of the above statements are false
correct? (D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
(A) 1 and 2 only true
(B) 1 and 3 only
12. Statement I:
(C) 2 and 3 only
A differential inverted U-tube
(D) 1, 2 and 3
manometer determines the difference in

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

pressures between two points in a flow others by easily identifiable boundary

section to which it is connected. surfaces.
Statement II: Statement II:
The sensitivity of ·an inclined gauge Phase change is not characterized on
depends on the angle of inclination. molecular structure and/or behavior of
the different phases.
13. Statement I:
In four-bar chain, whenever all four 17. Statement I:
links are used, with each of them Non-viscous flow between two plates
forming a turning pair, there will be held parallel with a very small spacing
continuous relative motion between the between them is an example of
two links of different lengths. irrigational flow.
Statement II: Statement II:
For a four-bar mechanism, the sum of Forced vortex implies irrotational flow.
the shortest and longest link lengths is
not greater· than the sum of remaining 18. Statement I:
two links. The air-fuel ratio employed in a gas
turbine is around 60:1.
14. Statement I: Statement II:
When flow is unsteady, both normal and A lean mixture of 60:1 in a gas turbine
tangential components of acceleration is mainly used for complete combustion.
will occur.
Statement II: 19. Statement I:
During unsteady flow, in addition to the The condenser in a steam power plant is
change of velocity along the path, the always filled with a mixture of water,
velocity will also change with time. steam and air.
Statement II:
15. Statement I: Slightly wet steam enters the condenser
There exists a positive pressure wherein the pressure is below the
difference between the inlet and throat atmospheric conditions, causing some
of a venturi meter. leakage of air through the glands and
Statement II: also the release of some air dissolved in
The coefficient of discharge of a venturi the boiler feed water.
meter accounts for the non-uniformity of
flow at both inlet and throat. 20. Statement I:
In a pipeline, the nature of the fluid flow
16. Statement I: depends entirely on the velocity.
The phase of a substance is Statement II:
characterized by its distinct molecular Reynolds number of the flow depends
arrangement which is homogeneous on the velocity, the diameter of the pipe
throughout and is separated from the and the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

21. Statement I: 26. Statement I:

The air-standard efficiency of Brayton If a boat, built with sheet metal on
cycle depends only on the pressure ratio. wooden frame, has an average density
Statement II: which is greater than that of water, then
For the same compression ratio, the air- the boat can float in water with its
standard efficiency of Brayton cycle is hollow face upward but will sink once it
equal to that of Otto cycle. overturns.
Statement II:
22. Statement I: Buoyant force always acts in the upward
The energy of an isolated system is direction.
constant.
Statement II: 27. Statement I:
The entropy of an isolated system can In air-blast injection, a separate
increase but cannot decrease. compressor is used to create an air blast
at a pressure of 6 MPa.
23. Statement I: Statement II:
Rankine efficiency of a steam power The solid injection system is heavier as
plant increases in winter compared to it needs increasing the fuel pressure to
summer. 30 MPa.
Statement II:
The increase in Rankine efficiency is 28. Statement I:
due to lower condenser temperature. In air-conditioning, the atmospheric air
(mixture of dry air and water vapour)
24. Statement I: can be considered as mixture of two
Direct condensers are more efficient ideal gases.
than surface condensers. Statement II:
Statement II: In the temperature range used in air
In condenser, the momentum pressure conditioning, the partial pressure of the
drop opposes the frictional pressure water vapour is very low and it follows
drop. the ideal gas relation with negligible
error.
25. Statement I:
Reheating between the high-pressure 29. Statement I:
and low-pressure turbines increases the A dynamically balanced system of
turbine work output. multiple rotors on a shaft can rotate
Statement II: smoothly at the critical speeds of the
The constant pressure lines on T-s system.
diagram diverge away from the origin. Statement II:
Dynamic balancing eliminates all the
unbalanced forces and couples from the
system.

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

30. Statement I: fv 2

(A)
Referring to vapour compression 2
refrigeration system, the coefficient of f2 v
(B)
performance (COP) of a domestic 2
refrigerator is less than that of a comfort 2 v
(C)
air-conditioning plant 2f
Statement II: v 2
In domestic refrigerator, the work (D)
2f
required for pumping the same amount
of heat is more than that in an air- 34. The total energy of each particle at
conditioning plant because of greater various places in the case of a perfect
difference between condenser and incompressible fluid flowing in a
evaporator temperatures. continuous stream
(A) keeps on increasing
31. A 150 mm diameter shaft rotates at (B) keeps on decreasing
1500r.p.m. within a 200 mm long (C) remains constant
journal bearing with 150.5 mm internal (D) may increase or decrease
diameter. The uniform annular space
between the shaft and the bearing is 35. The normal stresses within an isotropic
filled with oil of dynamic viscosity 0.8 Newtonian fluid are related to
poise. The shear stress on the shaft will 1. Pressure
be 2. Viscosity of fluid
(A) 1.77kN/m2 3. Velocity gradient
(B) 2.77kN/m2 Which of the above are correct?
(C) 3.77kN/m2 (A) 1 and 2 only
(D) 4.77kN/m2 (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
32. Which one of the following substances (D) 1, 2 and 3
has constant specific heat at all
pressures and temperature? 36. Which one of the following regimes of
(A) Mono-atomic gas boiling curve can be considered as
(B) Di-atomic gas reverse of condensation?
(C) Tri-atomic gas (A) Free convection boiling regime
(D) Poly-atomic gas (B) Nucleate boiling regime
(C) Transition boiling regime
33. The shear stress  0 for steady, fully (D) Film boiling regime
developed flow inside a uniform
horizontal pipe with coefficient of 37. The service pump in a water supply
friction f, density  and velocity v, is system has to maintain a net static head
given by lift of 5 m at the tank to which it
delivers freely through a 4 km long pipe,

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

wherein all minor losses can be 41. A thermodynamic cycle is composed of

neglected. The diameter of the pipe is four processes. The heat added and the
0.2m and its friction factor f = 0.01. The work done in each process are as
pumped water is discharged at 2 m/s. follows:
The absolute pressure differential Process Heat transfer (J) Work done (J)
developed by the pump is nearly (taking
atmospheric pressure as 10.3 m of 1- 2 0 50(by the gas)
water)
2-3 50(from the gas) 0
(A) 4.5 bar
(B) 5.5 bar 3-4 0 20(on the
(C) 45 bar gas)
(D) 55 bar 4-1 80(to the gas) 0

38. A wall surface of 200 mm thickness has

The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
an outside temperature of 50°C and
(A) 20.3%
inside temperature of 25°C with thermal
(B) 37.5%
conductivity of 0.51 W/m-K. The heat
(C) 40.3%
transfer through this wall will be
(D) 62.5%
(A) 63.75 W/m2
(B) 65.75 W/m2
42. A steel tank placed in hot environment
(C) 70.25 W/m2
contains 5 kg of air at 4atm at 30°C. A
(D) 73.25 W/m2
portion of the air is released till the
pressure becomes 2 atm. Later, the
39. The necessary and sufficient condition
temperature of the air in the tank is
for bodies in flotation to be in stable
found to be 150°C. The quantity of air
equilibrium is that the centre of gravity
allowed to escape is
is located below the
(A) 4.72 kg
(A) metacentre
(B) 4.12 kg
(B) centre of buoyancy
(C) 3.71 kg
(C) epicenter
(D) 3.21 kg
(D) centroid

43. Consider the following statements:

40. When the valve of an evacuated bottle is
1. Entropy is related to the first law of
opened, the atmospheric air rushes into it.
thermodynamics.
If the atmospheric pressure is 101.325 kPa
2. The internal energy of an ideal gas
and 0.6 m3 of air enters into the bottle,
is a function of temperature and
then the work done by the air will be
pressure.
(A) 80.8 kJ
3. The zeroth law of thermodynamics
(B) 70.8 kJ
is the basis for measurement of
(C) 60.8 kJ
temperature.
(D) 50.8 kJ

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

Which of the above statements are Which of the above statements are
correct? correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only (A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

44. A heat reservoir is maintained at 927ºC. 47. An engine works on the basis of Carnot
If the ambient temperature is 27ºC, the cycle operating between temperatures of
availability of heat from the reservoir is 800 K and 400 K. If the heat supplied is
limited to 100 kW, the output is
(A) 57% (A) 50 kW
(B) 66% (B) 60 kW
(C) 75% (C) 70 kW
(D) 88% (D) 80 kW

45. The ordinate and abscissa of the 48. The coefficient of performance of a
diagram to depict the isobaric processes heat pump working on reversed Carnot
of an ideal gas as a hyperbola are, cycle is 6. If this machine works as a
respectively refrigerator with work input of 10 kW,
(A) temperature and entropy the refrigerating effect will be
(B) internal energy and volume (A) 35 kW
(C) temperature and density (B) 40 kW
(D) enthalpy and entropy (C) 45 kW
(D) 50 kW
46. Consider the following statements:
1. The entropy of a pure crystalline 49. Which of the following devices
substance at absolute zero complies with the Clausius statement of
temperature is zero. the second law of thermodynamics?
2. The efficiency of a reversible heat (A) Closed-cycle gas turbine
engine is independent of the nature (B) Internal combustion engine
of the working substance and (C) Steam power plant
depends only on the temperature of (D) Domestic refrigerator
the reservoirs between which it
operates. 50. A reversible Carnot engine operates
3. Carnot’s theorem states that of all between 27ºC and 1527ºC, and produces
heat engines operating between a 400 kW of net power. The change of
given constant temperature source entropy of the working fluid during the
and a given constant temperature heat addition process is
sink, none has a higher efficiency
than a reversible engine.

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

(A) 0.222 kW/K 2. For the same compression ratio and

(B) 0.266 kW/K same heat input, Diesel cycle is
(C) 0.288 kW/K more efficient than Otto cycle.
(D) 0.299 kW/K 3. For constant maximum pressure
and constant heat input, Diesel
51. A system absorbs 100 kJ as heat and cycle is more efficient than Otto
does 60 kJ work along the path 1-2-3. cycle.
The same system does 20 kJ work along Which of the above statements are
the path 1-4-3. The heat absorbed during correct?
the path 1-4- 3 is (A) 1, 2 and 3
2 (B) 1 and 2 only
3
(C) 1 and 3 only
P (D) 2 and 3 only

54. In case of a thin cylindrical shell,

1 4 subjected to an internal fluid pressure,
V the volumetric strain is equal to
(A) –140 kJ (A) circumferential strain plus
(B) –80 kJ longitudinal strain
(C) 80 kJ (B) circumferential strain plus twice the
(D) 60 kJ longitudinal strain
(C) twice the circumferential strain plus
52. Two reversible engines are connected in longitudinal strain
series between a heat source and a (D) twice the circumferential strain plus
sink. The efficiencies of these engines twice the longitudinal strain
are 60% and 50%, respectively. If these
two engines are replaced by a single 55. The refractory lining of a furnace has a
reversible engine, the efficiency of this thickness of 200 mm. The average
engine will be thermal conductivity of the refractory
(A) 60% material is 0.04 W/m-K. The heat loss is
(B) 70% estimated to be 180kJ/hr/m2. The
(C) 80% temperature difference across the lining
(D) 90% will be
(A) 280ºC
53. Consider the following statements for (B) 250ºC
the air- standard efficiency of Diesel (C) 240ºC
cycle: (D) 220ºC
1. For the same compression ratio, the
efficiency decreases with 56. In forced convection, the surface heat
increasing cutoff ratios. transfer coefficient from a heated flat
plate is a function of

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

(A) Re and Gr serious condition for that cylinder and

(B) Pr and Gr can be checked by
(C) Re and Pr 1. judging the seizure of the piston
(D) Re, Gr and Pr 2. checking incomplete combustion in
where Re is Reynolds number, Pr is that cylinder
Prandtl number and Gr is Grashof 3. checking cylinder exhaust
number. temperature with a pyrometer
Which of the above is/are correct?
57. It is desired to increase the heat (A) 1 only
dissipation rate from the surface of an (B) 2 only
electronic device of spherical shape of 5 (C) 3 only
mm radius exposed to convection with h (D) 1, 2 and 3
= 10 W/m2-K by encasing it in a
spherical sheath of conductivity 0.04 61. Consider the following statements:
W/m2-K. For maximum heat flow, the 1. In spur gears, the contact occurs
critical diameter of the sheath shall be abruptly on a line parallel to the
(A) 20 mm axis, and the disengagement too is
(B) 18 mm abrupt.
(C) 16 mm 2. In helical gears, both loading and
(D) 12 mm unloading are gradual, and
therefore, these happen more
58. If the intake air temperature of an IC smoothly and less noisily.
engine increases, its efficiency will 3. When two gears mesh, any
(A) remain same arbitrary shape of the tooth can be
(B) decrease chosen for the profile of the teeth of
(C) increase any one of the two gears, and the
(D) remain unpredictable profile for the other shall be
obtained by applying the law of
59. In a counterflow heat exchanger, hot gearing.
gases enter the system at 200ºC and Which of the above statements are
leave at 80ºC. The temperature of the correct?
outside air entering the unit is 35ºC. Its (A) 1 and 2 only
temperature at the exit is 90º C. The heat (B) 1 and 3 only
exchanger has an effectiveness of (C) 2 and 3 only
(A) 0.35 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 0.34
(C) 0.33 62. The interference between a given pinion
(D) 0.32 tooth and a gear tooth can be avoided by
using
60. If one cylinder of a diesel engine 1. smaller pressure angle
receives more fuel than the others, it is a 2. larger pressure angle

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

3. less number of teeth on the gear for 65. Consider the following statements:
a pinion with predefined number of 1. Gyroscopic effects generate forces
teeth and couples which act on the
4. more number of teeth on the gear vehicles, and these effects must be
for a pinion with predefined taken into account while designing
number of teeth their bearings.
Which of the above statements are 2. Rolling motion of a ship usually
correct? occurs because of the difference in
(A) 1 and 4 buoyancy on the two sides of the
(B) 1 and 3 ship due to a wave.
(C) 2 and 4 Which of the above statements is/are
(D) 2 and 3 correct?
(A) 1 only
63. A gear train is as shown in the figure (B) 2 only
below, in which gears A and B have 20 (C) Both 1 and 2
and 40 teeth, respectively. If arm C is (D) Neither 1 nor 2
fixed and gear A rotates at 100 rpm, the
speed of gear B will be 66. When two shafts, one of which is
B hollow, are of the same length and
A C transmit equal torques with equal
maximum stress, then they should have
equal
(A) polar moments of inertia
(A) 90 rpm (B) polar moduli
(B) 75 rpm (C) diameters
(C) 50 rpm (D) angles of twist
(D) 20 rpm
67. A solid rod of circular cross-section
64. A single-cylinder reciprocating engine made of brittle material, when subjected
works with a stroke of 320 mm, mass of to torsion, fails along a plane at 45° to
reciprocating parts as 45 kg and mass of the axis of the rod. Consider the
revolving parts as 35 kg at crank radius. following statements as pertaining
If 60% of the reciprocating parts and all thereto:
the revolving parts are to be balanced, 1. Distortion energy is maximum on
then the balancing mass required at a this 45° plane
300 mm radius is nearly 2. Shear stress is maximum on this
(A) 33.1 kg 45° plane
(B) 36.3 kg 3. Normal stress is maximum on this
(C) 39.5 kg 45° plane
(D) 42.7 kg Which of the above is/are correct?

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

(A) 1 only 71. In a journal bearing, the diameter of the

(B) 2 only journal is 0.15 m, its speed is 900 rpm
(C) 3 only and the load on the bearing is 40 k N.
(D) 1, 2 and 3 Considering µ = 0.0072, the heat
generated will be nearly
68. A riveted joint may fail by (A) 1 kW
1. tearing of the plate at an edge (B) 2 kW
2. tearing of the plate across a row (C) 3 kW
of rivets (D) 4 kW
3. shearing of rivets
Which of the above are correct? 72. Which one of the following governors is
(A) 1 and 2 only having a larger displacement of sleeve
(B) 1 and 3 only for a given fractional change of speed?
(C) 2 and 3 only (A) Stable governor
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Sensitive governor
(C) Isochronous governor
69. An offset provided in radial cam- (D) Hunting governor
translating- follower mechanism serves to
(A) decrease the pressure angle during 73. Consider the following statements:
ascent of the follower 1. HSS tools wear very rapidly,
(B) increase the pressure angle during whereas in cemented carbide tools,
ascent of the follower even though hardness is retained,
(C) avoid possible obstruction due to crater wear can occur due to solid-
some machine parts state diffusion.
(D) decrease the pressure angle during 2. Cutting tools made of Super-HSS,
descent of the follower also known as cobalt-based HSS,
are made by adding 2% to 15% of
70. In combined parallel and transverse cobalt which increases the cutting
fillet welded joint efficiency at heavier cuts by
(A) the parallel portion will fail due to increasing the hot hardness and
tension, whereas the transverse wear resistance.
portion will fail due to shear 3. Tools failure due to excessive stress
(B) the transverse portion will fail due can be minimized by providing
to tension, whereas the parallel small or negative rake angles on
portion will failure to shear brittle tool materials, protecting
(C) both parallel and transverse tool tip by providing large side-
portions will fail due to tension cutting edge angles, and honing a
(D) both parallel and transverse narrow chamfer along the cutting
portions will fail due to shear edge.
Which of the above statements are
correct?

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

(A) 1 and 2 only 78. For a strain gauge (gauge factor = 2.1
(B) 1 and 3 only and resistance = 50  ), subjected to a
(C) 2 and 3 only maximum strain of 0.001, the maximum
(D) 1, 2 and 3 change in resistance is
(A) 0.084 
74. The resilience of steel can be found by (B) 0.105 
integrating stress-strain curve up to the (C) 0.135 
(A) ultimate fracture point (D) 0.156 
(B) upper yield point
(C) lower yield point 79. Consider the following statements:
(D) elastic point Dispatching authorizes the start of
production operation by
75. While turning a 60 mm diameter bar, it 1. releasing of material and
was observed that the tangential cutting components from stores to the
force was 3000 N and the feed force was first process
1200 N. If the tool rake angle is 32°, 2. releasing of material from process
then the coefficient of friction is nearly to process
(may take sin32° = 0.53, cos32° = 0.85 3. issuing of drawing and instruction
and tan32° = 0.62) sheets
(A) 1.37 Which of the above statements are
(B) 1.46 correct?
(C) 1.57 (A) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1.68 (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
76. For spot welding of 1 mm thick sheet
(D) 1, 2 and 3
with a current flow time of 0.2 s, the
heat generated is 1000J. If the effective
80. Which one of the following forecasting
resistance is 1200µ, the current
models best predicts the turning point?
required is
(A) Simple exponential smoothing
(A) 4000 A
model
(B) 5000 A
(B) Brown’s quadratic smoothing
(C) 6000 A
model
(D) 7000 A
(C) Double exponential smoothing
77. The maximum possible draft in rolling, model
which is the difference between initial (D) Moving average model (using 5
and final thicknesses of the sheet metal, data points)
depends on
(A) rolling force 81. The material removal rate will be higher
(B) roll radius in ultrasonic machining process for
(C) roll width materials with
(D) yield shear stress of the material

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

(A) higher ductility (A) Redefined Instruction Set

(B) higher fracture strain Computer
(C) higher toughness (B) Reduced Instruction Set Computer
(D) lower toughness (C) Restructured Instruction Set
Computer
82. In queuing theory with multiple servers, (D) Regional Instruction Set Computer
the nature of the waiting situation can be
studied and analyzed mathematically, if 86. An OR logic control in pneumatic
(A) the complete details of the items in systems is possible with the help of
the waiting lines are known (A) sequence valve
(B) the arrival and waiting times are (B) shuttle value
known and can be grouped to form (C) dual pressure valve
an appropriate waiting line model (D) delay valve
(C) all the variables and constants are
known and they may form a linear 87. Which one of the following is not an
equation Addressing Mode in 8085?
(D) the laws governing arrivals, service (A) Immediate
times and the order in which the (B) Indirect
arriving units are taken into service (C) Register
are all known (D) Segment

83. In any crash program for a project 88. Consider the following statements
(A) both direct and indirect costs regarding Programming Logic
increase Controller (PLC):
(B) indirect costs increase and direct 1. It was dev eloped to replace the
costs decrease microprocessor.
(C) direct costs increase and indirect 2. Wiring between device and relay
costs decrease contracts are done in its program.
(D) cost are no criterion 3. Its I/O interface section connects it
to external field devices.
84. Tools signature is 4. It requires extensive wiring in the
(A) a numerical method of application.
identification of the tools (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4
(B) the plan of the tool (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
(C) the complete specification of the
tool 89. If B is the magnetic flux density at right
(D) associated with the tool angles to a plate, I is the current flow
manufacturer through the plate, t is the plate thickness
and KH is Hall coefficient, the resultant
85. With reference to a microprocessor, transverse potential difference V for
RISC stands for Hall sensor is given by

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

Bt (D) collect the liquid refrigerant and

(A) K H
I preclude its reversion to the
t compressor
(B) K H
BI
BI
(C) K H 93. A four-stroke single-cylinder SI engine
t
of 6 cm diameter and 10 cm stroke
I
(D) K H running at 4000 rpm develops power at
Bt
a mean effective pressure of 10bar. The
90. The specific speed of a hydraulic turbine power developed by the engine is
depends on (A) 9.42 kW
(A) speed and power developed (B) 5.54 kW
(B) speed and water head (C) 4.92 kW
(C) discharge and power developed (D) 2.94 kW
(D) speed, head and power developed
94. Which of the following actions will help
91. Consider the following statements with to reduce the black smoke emission of a
reference to combustion and performance diesel engine?
in a four-stroke petrol engine: 1. Run at lower load, i.e., derating
1. The auto-ignition temperature of 2. Have regular maintenance of the
petrol as a fuel is higher than that diesel engine, particularly of
of diesel oil as a fuel. injection system
2. The highest compression ratio of 3. Use diesel oil of higher cetane
petrol engines is constrained by the number
possibility of detonation. Select the correct answer using the code
3. A petrol engine is basically less given below.
suitable for supercharging than a (A) 1 and 2 only
diesel engine. (B) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above statements are (C) 2 and 3 only
correct? (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only 95. What is the ratio of the efficiencies
(C) 2 and 3 only  I 
  for the two cycles as shown in
(D) 1, 2 and 3  II 
the T-s diagrams?
92. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an
accumulator at the suction side of the T T
compressor is provided to T1 T1
(A) collect the vapours
T2 T2
(B) detect any liquids in the vapour
(C) retain the refrigeration effect as s2 s1 s s2 s1 s
originally working  I  II 
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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

T1  T2 (A) 1 and 3
(A)
2T1 (B) 1 and 4
T1  T 2 (C) 2 and 3
(B)
2T2 (D) 2 and 4

2T2
(C) 98. In IC engine
T1  T2
1. the ideal air capacity of a two-
2T1
(D) stroke engine is the mass of air
T1  T2
required to concurrently fill the
total cylinder volume at inlet
96. A four-stroke engine having a brake temperature and exhaust pressure
power of 105 kW is supplied with fuel 2. with increase in air-fuel ratio
at the rate of 4.4 kg/min for 10 minutes. beyond the value for maximum
The brake specific fuel consumption of power, there is a fall in power
the engine is developed and this fall is more with
(A) 0.18 kg/kW-hr higher values of air-fuel ratio.
(B) 0.25 kg/kW-hr 3. the volumetric efficiency of the
(C) 0.36 kg/kW-hr engine depends on the design of
(D) 0.42 kg/kW-hr intake and exhaust manifold.
Which of the above are correct?
97. Consider the following statements: (A) 1 and 2 only
1. Recycling exhaust gases by partial (B) 1 and 3 only
mixing with the intake gases (C) 2 and 3 only
increases the emission of oxides of (D) 1, 2 and 3
nitrogen from the engine.
2. The effect of increase in altitude of 99. Consider the following statements:
operation on the carburetor is to 1. Heat pumps and air conditioners
enrich the entire port-throttle have the same mechanical
operation. components.
3. When the carburetor throttle is 2. The same system can be used as
suddenly opened, the air-fuel heat pump in winter and as air
mixture may lean out temporarily conditioner in summer.
resulting in engine stall. 3. The capacity and efficiency of a
4. Use of multi-venturi system makes heat pump fall significantly at high
it possible to obtain a high velocity temperatures.
airstream when the fuel is Which of the above statements are
introduced at the main venturi correct?
throat. (A) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statements are (B) 1 and 3 only
correct? (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

100. The following are the results of a Morse The minimum power required to operate
test conducted on a four-cylinder, four- with a cooling load of 90 kW is
stroke petrol engine at a common (A) 20 kW
constant speed in all cases: (B) 15 kW
The brake power of the engine when all (C) 10 kW
the cylinders are firing is 80 kW. The (D) 5 kW
brake power of the engine when each
cylinder is cut off in turn is 55 kW, 55.5 104. In a vapour absorption refrigerator, the
kW, 54.5 kW and 55 kW, respectively temperature of evaporator and ambient
The mechanical efficiency of the engine air are 10 °C and 30 °C, respectively.
when all the cylinders are firing will be For obtaining COP of 2 for this system,
(A) 90% the temperature of the generator is to be
(B) 85% nearly
(C) 80% (A) 90 °C
(D) 75% (B) 85 °C
(C) 80 °C
101. An ideal refrigerator working on a (D) 75 °C
reversed Rankine cycle has a capacity of
3 tons. The COP of the unit is found to 105. The following data refer to a vapor
be 6. The capacity of the motor required compression refrigerator:
to run the unit is (take 1 T = 210 kJ/min) Enthalpy at compressor
(A) 1.85 kW Inlet = 1200 kJ/kg
(B) 1.75 kW Enthalpy at compressor
(C) 1.65 kW Outlet = 1400 kJ/kg
(D) 1.50 kW Enthalpy at condenser Outlet = 200
kJ/kg
981 The COP of the refrigerator is
102. A flywheel weighs kgf and has a
 (A) 7
radius of gyration of 100 cm. It is given (B) 6
a spin of 100r.p.m. about its horizontal (C) 5
axis. The whole assembly is rotating (D) 4
about a vertical axis at 6 rad/s. The
gyroscopic couple experienced will be 106. The compressor of an ammonia
(A) 2000 kgf-m refrigerating machine has a volumetric
(B) 1962 kgf-m efficiency of 85% and swept volume of
(C) 200 kgf-m 0.28m3/min. Ammonia having a dry
(D) 196 kgf-m specific volume of 0.25m3/kg enters the
compressor with a dryness fraction of
103. A cold storage has capacity f or food 0.7. The mass flow rate of ammonia
preservation at a temperature of –3 °C through the machine is
when the outside temperature is 27 °C.

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

(A) 1.28 kg/min 109. Which one of the following methods is

(B) 1.36 kg/min more effective to improve the efficiency
(C) 1.42 kg/min of the Rankine cycle used in thermal
(D) 1.57 kg/min power plant?
(A) Increasing the condenser
107. Air is drawn in a compressor at the rate temperature
of 0.8 kg/s at a pressure of 1 bar and (B) Decreasing the condenser
temperature of 20 °C, and is delivered at temperature
a pressure of 10 bar and temperature of (C) Decreasing the boiler temperature
90 °C. This air delivery is through an exit (D) Increasing the boiler temperature
valve of area 2 × 10–3 m2. If R is
287kJ/kg-K, the exit velocity of the air is 110. Consider the following statements
(A) 41.7 m/s regarding vapour absorption systems in
(B) 35.8 m/s the field of refrigeration:
(C) 29.7 m/s 1. In ammonia-water absorption
(D) 27.3 m/s system, ammonia is the refrigerant.
2. In water-lithium bromide system,
108. Consider the following statements: water is the refrigerant.
1. The operation of a refrigerator unit 3. Ammonia-water absorption
at more than one temperature can reaction is endothermic.
be accomplished by using different 4. The amount of ammonia absorbed
throttling valves and a separate by water is inversely proportional
compressor for each ‘temperature to the temperature of ammonia.
range’. Which of the above statements are
2. The refrigerated space must be correct?
maintained above the ice point to (A) 1, 2 and 3
prevent freezing. (B) 1, 3 and 4
3. In domestic refrigerators, the (C) 1, 2 and 4
refrigerant is throttled to a higher (D) 2, 3 and 4
pressure in the freezer followed by
full expansion in the refrigerated 111. In an air-handling unit, air enters the
space. cooling coil at a temperature of 30 °C.
Which of the above statements are The surface temperature of the coil is –
correct? 10 °C. If the bypass factor of the coil is
(A) 1 and 2 only 0.45, then the temperature of the air at
(B) 1 and 3 only the exit will be
(C) 2 and 3 only (A) 6 °C
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 8 °C
(C) 10 °C
(D) 12 °C

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

112. Consider the following statements: only a part of the total head of
1. The relative humidity of air does water is converted into velocity
not change with temperature as head before it reaches the runner
long as specific humidity remains and (ii) the flow through water
constant. completely fills all the passages in
2. Dew-point temperature is the the runner.
temperature at which air is cooled 2. Kaplan turbine is essentially a
at constant volume propeller working in reverse, and
3. Saturated air passing over a water its blades are so mounted that all
surface does not cause change of the blade angles can be adjusted
air temperature simultaneously by means of
4. For saturated air, dry bulb, wet- suitable gearing even as the
bulb and dew point temperatures machine is in operation.
are identical 3. A draft tube is pipe of gradually
Which of the above statements are increasing cross-sectional area
correct? which must be airtight, and under
(A) 1 and 2 all conditions of operation, its
(B) 2 and 3 lower end must be submerged
(C) 1 and 4 below the level of the discharged
(D) 3 and 4 water in the tailrace.
Which of the above statements are
113. A cold storage has 23 cm brick wall on correct?
the outside and 8 cm plastic foam on the (A) 1 and 2 only
inside. The inside and outside (B) 1 and 3 only
temperatures are – 2°C and 22°C, (C) 2 and 3 only
respectively. If the thermal (D) 1, 2 and 3
conductivities of brick and foam are
0.98 W/ m-K and 0.02 W/m-K, and the 115. The specific speed of a turbine is the
inside and outside heat transfer speed of an imaginary turbine, identical
coefficients are 29 W/ m2-K and 12 with the given turbine, which
W/m2-K, respectively, then the rate of (A) delivers unit discharge under unit
heat removal for a (projected) wall area speed
of 90 m2 will nearly be (B) delivers unit discharge under unit
(A) 503 W head
(B) 497 W (C) develops unit discharge under unit
(C) 490 W speed
(D) 481 W (D) develops unit power under unit
head
114. Consider the following statements:
116. The mechanical efficiency of a
1. The distinguishing features of a
centrifugal pump is the ratio of
radial flow reaction turbine are – (i)

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

(A) manometric head to the energy fluid. The pressure ratio for maximum
supplied by the impeller per kN output is
of water (A) 11.3
(B) energy supplied to the pump to the (B) 13.3
energy available at the impeller (C) 15.3
(C) actual work done by the pump to (D) 17.3
the energy supplied to the pump by
the prime mover 120. The critical speed of a turbine is
(D) energy available at the impeller (A) same as the runaway speed
to the energy supplied to the pump (B) the speed that will lead to
by the prime mover mechanical failure of the shaft
(C) the speed which equals the natural
117. Consider the following advantages of frequency of the rotor
rotary pumps compared to reciprocating (D) the speed equal to the synchronous
pumps: speed of the generator
1. Steady discharge which increases
with decrease in head 121. A 40 mm diameter water jet strikes a
2. Suitable for handling fluids with hinged vertical plate of 800 N weight
suspended solid particles normally at its surface at its centre of
3. Less bulky than positive gravity as shown in the figure below:
displacement pumps
4. Can be started with open delivery

with least load d  40mm u  15m / s
Which of the above advantages are
correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 W  800N
(B) 1, 2 and 4 The angle of deflection is nearly
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (A) sin–1 0.353
(D) 2, 3 and 4 (B) sin–1 0.321
(C) tan–1 0.353
118. According to aerofoil theory, the guide (D) tan–1 0.321
angle of Kaplan turbine blades is
defined as the angle between 122. Consider the following statements
(A) lift and resultant force regarding a Ram Jet:
(B) drag and resultant force 1. The engine has neither a
(C) lift and tangential force compressor nor a turbine
(D) lift and drag 2. It operates at much higher
temperature than a gas turbine
119. An ideal closed-cycle gas turbine plant 3. It cannot operate statically. It needs
is working between the temperatures to be put in flight by some means at
927°C and 27°C using air as working sufficiently high speed before it

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

produces any thrust and propels Which of the above statements are
itself. correct?
Which of the above statements are (A) 1 and 2 only
correct? (B) 2 and 3 only
(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 126. In solar flat-plate collectors, the
123. Air centers a turbojet engine at the rate absorber plate is painted with selective
of 40 kg/s with a velocity of 250 m/s paints. The selectivity is the ratio of
relative to an aircraft which is moving at (A) Solar radiation-absorption to
300 km/hr. Exhaust of the engine has a thermal infrared radiation-emission
velocity of 700 m/s relative to the (B) Solar radiation emission to thermal
moving aircraft. The thrust developed infrared radiation-absorption
by the engine is (C) Solar radiation reflection to thermal
(A) 24 kN infrared radiation-absorption
(B) 18 kN (D) Solar radiation absorption to
(C) 12 kN thermal infrared radiation-
(D) 9 kN reflection

124. The clearance volume in reciprocating 127. A 13 m long ladder is placed against a
air compressor is provided smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5
(A) to reduce the work done per kg of m from the wall. What should be the
air delivered coefficient of friction between the ladder
(B) to increase the volumetric efficiency and the floor so that the ladder remains
of the compressor in equilibrium?
(C) to accommodate the valves in the (A) 0.29
head of the compressor (B) 0.25
(D) to create turbulence in the air to be (C) 0.21
delivered (D) 0.11

125. Consider the following statements 128. A cube strikes a stationary ball exerting
regarding Reheat Rankine Steam Cycle: an average force of 50 N over at time of
1. The main purpose of reheat in 10ms. The ball has mass of 0.20 kg. Its
Rankine cycle is to increase the speed after the impact will be
efficiency of the cycle (A) 3.5 m/s
2. In practice, the reheat is generally (B) 2.5 m/s
limited to one point of expansion (C) 1.5 m/s
3. Due to reheat, the steam rate (D) 0.5 m/s
(specific steam consumption) is
reduced.

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

129. Consider the following statements 132. A rigid beam of negligible weight is
regarding solid solution of metals: supported in a horizontal position by
1. The solubility of metallic solids is two rods of steel and aluminium, 2 m
primarily limited by size factor. and 1 m long, having values of cross
2. A metal with high valence can sectional areas 100 mm2 and 200 mm2,
dissolve large amount of metal of and young’s modulus of 200 GPa and
lower valence. 100 GPa, respectively. A load P is
3. A metal with same lattice crystal applied as shown in the figure below:
structure can form a series of solid
solutions
4. The limit of solid solubility is
2m
indicated by a phase boundary
Steel
called Liquidus.
Which of the above statements are
correct? 1m Aluminium
Rigid beam
(A) 1 and 4
P
(B) 2 and 4
If the rigid beam is to remain horizontal
(C) 1 and 3
then
(D) 1 and
(A) the force P must be applied at the
130. A box weight 1000 N is placed on the centre of the beam
ground. The coefficient of friction (B) the force on the steel rod should be
between the box and the ground is 0.5. twice the force on the aluminium
When the box is pulled by a 100 N rod
horizontal force, the frictional force (C) the force on the aluminium rod
developed between the box and the should be twice the force on the
ground at impending motion is steel rod
(A) 50 N (D) the forces on both the rods should
(B) 75 N be equal
(C) 100 N
(D) 500 133. A solid shaft is subjected to bending
moment of 3.46kN-m and a torsional
131. A state of plane stress consists of a moment of 11.5kN-m. For this case, the
uniaxial tensile stress of magnitude 8 equivalent bending moment and twisting
kPa, exerted on vertical surface and of moment are
unknown shearing stresses. If the largest (A) 7.73kN-m and 12.0kN-m
stress is 10 kPa, then the magnitude of (B) 14.96kN-m and 12.0kN-m
the unknown shear stress will be (C) 7.73kN-m and 8.04kN-m
(A) 6.47 kPa (D) 14.96kN-m and 8.04kN-m
(B) 5.47 kPa
(C) 4.47 kPa 134. Which one of the following is the
(D) 3.47 kPa correct bending moment diagram for

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

a beam which is hinged at the ends and Which of the above statements are
is subjected to a clockwise couple acting correct?
at the mid-span? (A) 1 and 2 only
(A) (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
Positive BM
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(B)
137. Addition of magnesium to cast iron
Negative BM increases its
(A) hardness
(C) (B) corrosion resistance
(C) creep strength
(D) ductility and strength in tension.
(D)
138. Consider the following statements:
1. The quenching of steel results in an
135. A steel specimen is heated to 780 °C increase in wear resistance, strength
and is then cooled at the slowest and hardness.
possible rate in the furnace. The 2. By the process of case hardening,
property imparted to the specimen by hard wearing resistant surface is
this process is produced on mild steel. This is an
(A) toughness effective method for low carbon
(B) hardness steels because they cannot be
(C) softness hardened by the process of
(D) tempering quenching.
3. When a metal is mixed with small
136. Consider the following statements: atoms of non metallic element in
1. In case of a thin spherical shell of such a manner that invading atoms
diameter d and thickness t, subjected to occupy interstitial positions in the
internal pressure p, the principal stresses metal lattice, and interstitial alloy
pd results.
at any point equal
4t What of the above statements are
2. In case of thin cylinders the hoop correct?
stress is determined assuming it to be (A) 1 and 2 only
uniform across the thickness of the (B) 1 and 3 only
cylinder (C) 2 and 3 only
3. In thick cylinders, the hoop stress (D) 1, 2 and 3
is not uniform across the thickness but it
varies from a maximum value at the 139. Recrystallization temperature is one at
inner circumference to a minimum value which
at the outer circumference.

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

(A) crystals first start forming from (B) Microprocessor and micro-
molten metal when cooled controller are suitable for general
(B) new spherical crystals first begin to purpose application
form from the old deformed ones (C) Microprocessor and micro-
when that strained metal is heated controller and suitable for special
purpose application
(C) the allotropic form changes
(D) Microprocessor and microcontroller
(D) crystals grow bigger in size
are suitable for special purpose and
custom-built application
140. Fe-C alloy containing less than 0.83%
carbon is called 143. The unique property of cast iron is its high
(A) high-speed steel (A) malleability
(B) hypo-eutectoid steel (B) ductility
(C) hyper-eutectoid steel (C) toughness
(D) cast iron (D) damping characteristics

141. Which of the following statements are
correct?
1. Steel and cast iron are multi phase
alloys.
2. Ferrite is a single phase interstitial
solid solution of carbon in iron.
3. Wrought iron is a highly refined
iron with a small amount of slag
which gives resistance
progressive corrosion
4. Satellite contains large amounts of
metals like cobalt and tungsten
resulting in high hardness.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 4 only
142. Which one of the following statements
is correct?
(A) Microprocessor is more suitable for
general purpose and micro
controller is more suitable for
special purpose and custom built
application
144. Which one of the following pairs of tests
has been developed to evaluate the
fracture resistance of engineering
materials, subjected to dynamic loads or
impacts?
(A) Tension impacts and bending
impacts
(B) Tensile test and Brinell hardness
test
to (C) Vickers hardness test and Tensile
test
(D) Scleroscope test and file test
145. The midpoint of a rigid link of a
mechanism moves as a translation along
a straight line, from rest, with a constant
acceleration of 5 m/ s2. The distance
covered by the said midpoint in 5s of
motion is
(A) 124.2 m
(B) 112.5 m
(C) 96.2 m
(D) 62.5 m
146. Consider the following statements:
1. A kinematic chain is the
combination of kinematic pairs
joined in such a way that the

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |ME|

relative motion between them is 1

(C) log e 4
completely constrained. 5
2. The degree of freedom of a 2
(D) log e 6
kinematic pair is given by the 5
number of independent coordinates
required to completely specify the 149. A 20 kg mass is suspended from a
relative movement. spring which deflects 15 mm under this
Which of the above statements is/are load. The value of the critical damping
correct? coefficient to make the motion a
(A) 1 only periodic will be
(B) 2 only (A) 1010 N/m/s
(C) Both 1 and 2 (B) 1013 N/m/s
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1018 N/m/s
(D) 1023 N/m/s
147. The equation of motion for a single
degree of freedom system is
150. Consider the following statements:
4x  9x  16x  0
1. The whirling (critical) speed of a
The critical damping coefficient for the shaft is that rotational speed at
system is which the shaft so runs that the
(A) 4 2 deflection of the shaft from the axis
(B) 4 of rotation tends to become infinite
2. Critical speed is equal to the
(C) 16 2
frequency of transverse vibration of
(D) 16
a shaft when the shaft carries a
point load or a uniformly
148. The mass of a single degree damped distributed load or a combination of
vibrating system is 7.5 kg and it makes both such loads.
24 free oscillations in 14 s when 3. The whirling of a shaft results from
disturbed from its equilibrium position. causes such as mass unbalance,
The amplitude of vibration reduces to hysteresis damping in the shaft,
0.25 of its initial value after five gyroscopic forces and fluid friction
oscillations. Then the logarithmic in the bearing.
decrement will be Which of the above statements are
2 correct?
(A) log e 4
5 (A) 1 and 2 only
1 (B) 1 and 3 only
(B) log e 6
5 (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


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