Oral Medicine MCQs collection for ORE1, by Rasha

1- Ampicillin should not be given to patients with sore throat in one of the following
a- herpangina
b- glandular fever
c- chicken pox
d- shingles

2- Which is most effective when treating candida

a- nystatin
b- fluconazole
c- itraconazole
d- a&b
e- b&c
f- all are equally effective

3- Target lesion is a clinical feature of

a- bullous pemphigoid
b- behcets disease
c- erythema multiforme
d- none

4- snail-track ulcers are sensitive sloughy mucous patches seen in

a- primary syphilis
b- secondary syphilis
c- congenital syphilis
d- ghonorrhoea
e- none

5- Shingles is a lesion which is always presented as a unilateral lesion which can cross
the midline and it may arise in the area supplied by the branches of trigeminaal nerve.
true of false?
false / never crossing midline

6- WHO definition of leukoplakia is?

White patche or plaque which can not be characterised clinically or pathologically as any other
disease.

7- Primary Sjorgen syndrome includes:

a. xerostomia
b. keratoconjuctivitis sicca
c. connective tissue involvment
c. all above

8- Which types of candida are resistant to fluconazole:

a. C.albicans
b. C.glabrata
c. C.knusel
d. C.dublinensis

9- Which of these conditions can mimic symptoms of glandular fever ?

a. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
b. measles
c. early HIV infection
d. a &b

10- Generalised pigmentated lesions of the mouth can be caused by

a. chlorhexidine mouthwash
b. contraceptives
c. antimalarials
d. a&b
e. all above

11- Which one of the following is the most common cause of recurrent oral ulceration?
A- Aphthae
B- Carcinoma/malignancy
C- Infection
D- Radiotherapy
E- Trauma

12- A 7-year-old deaf child has Hutchinson's incisors and Mulberry molars.
Which one of the following is his likely diagnosis?
A- Osteogenesis imperfect
B- Syphilis
C- Romberg syndrome
D- Papillion-Lefevre syndrome
E- Amelogenesis imperfect.

13- Hailey-Hailey disease is associated with which one of the following vesicular bullous
diseases?
A-Linear IgA
B- Pemphigus
C- Dermatitis herpetiformis
D- Angina bullosa haemorrhagica
E- Erythaema multiforme

14- Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely in a patient who presents with
‘snail-track’ ulcers?
A-Acute ulcerative gingivitis
B-Behcet syndrome
C-Primary syphilis
D-Recurrent aphthous ulceration
E-Secondary syphilis

15- Which one of the following is associated with an elongation of the filiform papillae?
A-Ankyloglossia
B-Fissured tongue
C-Hairy tongue
D-Erythaema migrans
E-Glossodynia

16- A blister that forms from breakdown of cellular adhesion between epithelial cells if
termed acantholysis.
True or false

17- a 20 years old female student presents with red patches on her tongue that move
from one location to another. They have been previously symptomless but have recently
become sensitive to spicy foods and tongue has become sore. Student feels tired &
week. The most likely cause of these symptoms are:
a)Progression of geographic tongue to malignancy
b)Iron deficiency anaemia accompanying geographic tongue
c)Patient has developed lichen planus from benign migratory glossitis
d)Symptoms are typical of geographic tongue and no further management is required
e)Malnutrition because of benign migratory glossitis

18- Carlson-Crittenden collector is used in

a) Sialometry to collect saliva
b) Sialography to inject radio-opaque dye into the gland
c) Scintigraphy to label 99Tm
d) Sialochemistry
e) Ultrasonography
19- A 55 year old female presents to you with xerostomia, xerophthalmia and rheumatoid
arthritis. This patient is diagnosed with secondary sjogren’ssyndrome. She has
developed a persistent parotid enlargement. What lesion do you suspect in this gland to
run further investigation?
a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c) Burkit’s lymphoma
d) Systemic sclerosis
e) SLE

20- for severe cases of RAS and ulcerations associated with Behcet’s disease and HIV
that have failed to respond to topical & systemic steroids, the drug of choice for patients
excluding pregnant mothers is:
a)Colchicine
b)Azathioprine
c)Thalidomide
d)Ciclosporin
e)Fluconazole

21. Non-inflammatory, non-neoplastic enlargement of the salivary gland is known as..

A Sialadenitis
B Sialadenosis
C Sialolithiasis
D Sialorrhea

22. A 39 year old female comes to the dental clinic with a complaint of a growth on her
gums that has grown rapidly in the last 1 month.Clinical examination reveals a deep red,
sessile lesion, 1 cm in diameter on the gingiva in relation to 12 and 13. Microscopic
analysis of the lesion reveals numerous giant cells interspersed in a fibrovascular,
hemorrhagic stroma. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
A Peripheral ameloblastoma
B Peripheral giant cell granuloma
C Peripheral ossifying fibroma
D Pyogenic granuloma

23. Which odontogenic cyst manifests characteristically as a pericoronal radiolucency of

impacted molars?
A Dentigerous cyst
B Lateral periodontal cyst
C Nasopalatine duct cyst
D Radicular cyst

24. Ameloblastoma could manifest radiographically as a/an…

a)Inter-radicular radiolucency
b)Multilocular radioluceny
c)Pericoronal radioluceny
d) Options (a), (b) and (c) are true

25. The most common histological pattern of ameloblastoma is...

A Acanthomatous pattern
B Follicular pattern
C Granular cell pattern
D Plexiform pattern

26. Aphthous ulcers usually present with a single ulceration (no more than three at a time
maximum), and last about one week. Importantly, they heal with no __________.
Scarring

27. Aphthous ulcers have a _____________ that differentiates them from other ulcers.
Positive family history

28. Red patches with white border, sharply defined, occassional burning sensation, due
to atrophy of filiform papillae, TX: topical steroids
Geographic tongue

29. Bilateral of surfaces of the tongue, present in immunocompromised (HIV, transplant

patients), TX: none
Hairy leaucoplakia

30. White, bilateral folded surface, common in African Americans, stretch tissue and it
disappears, TX: none
Leukoedema

31. White, bilateral surface lesion that doesn't scrape off, appears in early childhood,
Autosomal dominant- keratin genes/production, TX: none
White sponge neavous

32. Bilateral, multiple areas, cinnamon can trigger it, lacy appearance (Wickham's striae)
TX: none
Lichen planus

33. Pain or burning sensation, rubs off with contact leaving a erythatous base, similar to
sodium lauryl sulfate residue, TX: nystatin
Thrush

34. Cavity filled with keratin, fluid or debris covered by epithelium, don't grow and don't
rub off "epstein pearls" or "Bohn's nodules", TX: none, resolves
Palatal cyst of newborn

35. Commonly located on buccal mucosa and lip, Yellow, granular plaques and nodules
present in clusters, Ectopic sebaceous glands, TX: none
Fordyse’s spots

36. ANUG is strongly related to which immunosuppressive disease

HIV/AIDS

37. Etiology
PEMPHIGUS: autoimmune disease to epithelial desmosome (acantholysis) separate epithelium
from basal cell layer

38. Clinical features

produce fluid –filled bulla, rupture leave superficial easy infected ulcer. Middle age disease, F,
commo in jews and Arabic

39. Histopath/ diagnostic feature

immunofluoresent ( IgG, C3), Nikolisky sign

40. Treatment
systemic steroid / azathioprine, dapsone. Cyclophosphamide in sever case

Lichen planus
41. Etiology
Lichen planus: chronic inflammatory disease, autoimmune disease mediated by T lymphocyte
attack staritified squamous epithelium lead to hyperkeratosis and typical histological
appearance.

42. Clinical features

female, oral lesion bilateral and posterior buccal mucosa. Lacy reticular pattern is the most
common feature, others erosive, atrophic. Plaque, bullous and popular. Desquamative gingivitis.
Skin (Wickham striae)
43. Histopath/ diagnostic feature
hyperparakeratosis, long rete ridges ( saw tooth appearance), sub and intra-epithelial
lymphocyte infiltaration and degeneration of basal keratinocyte

44.Treatment
Avoid drugs causes lechnoid reaction, reassure, topical steroid, betamethasone or
dexamethasone , prednisolone mouth wash. In sever cases Rx systemic steroid +azathioprine

45. Which premalignant condition has highest rate of malignant transformation

Erythroplakia

46. Brown Kelly-Patterson syndrome , which is not correct from the following:
A.Dysphagia
B. Iron deficiency anaemia with glossitis, koilonchia and angular cheilitis
C. Uncommon syndrome in men

47. Hairy leukoplakia

A. Usually symptomatic
B. Unilateral
C. Corrugated white patches on the lateral margins of the tongue
D. Definitive diagnosis is by detecting presence of EBV within the lesional tissue by in-situ
hybridization

48. Causes of halitosis

A. Xerostomia
B. Smoking
C. Asthma
D. Diabetes
E. All of the above

49. Match the following immunopathological features of vesiculobullous disorders

1. Intercelular IgG and C3
2. Linear IgG and C3 at basement membrane zone
3. Linear IgA and C3 at basement membrane zone
4. granular deposits of IgA and C3 at tips of dermal papillae
5. Negative indirect immunofluorescence
6. Positive in 75% of cases
7. Titre correlates with disease severity
A. Bullous pemphigoid
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Linear IgA disease
D. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
E. Pemphigus
F. Erythema multiforme

MATCH
1 E
2 D
3 C
4 ?
5 ?
6 ?
7 ?

50. A 27 year old female reported to the dental clinic with a complaint of recurring and
subsiding burning sensation in the mouth and sensitivity to hot and spicy food for the
last 8 months. She also complains of red areas on the tongue concomitant to the burning
sensation and disappearance of the red areas when burning subsides. Oral examination
reveals multiple demarcated zones of erythema on the tongue. These zones are
surrounded by slightly elevated serpentine, white borders. What do you think would be
the most appropriate diagnosis?
A Erythematous candidiasis
B Erythematous oral lichen planus
C Erythroplakia
D Geographic tongue

51. Recurrent apthous ulcerations have been reported to worsen on discontinuation of

smoking…
A False
B True

52. Mucus extravasation phenomenon(mucocele) is a true cyst. True or False?

A False
B True

53. One option in this question is not a systemic condition associated with apthous
ulcer. Which one is it?
A Cyclic neutropenia
B HIV infection
C Inflammatory bowel disease
D Sickle cell anemia

54. This is an IOPA with the yellow circle marking a key finding. What would be the most
likely diagnosis?
A Cementoblastoma
B Condensing osteitis
C Focal osseous dysplasia
D Idiopathic osteosclerosis

55. Which condition is diagnosed with a positive Paul -Bannell test result?
A. Candida
B. Herpangina
C. HIV
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Histoplasmosis
56. Which of the following oral conditions is a patient with HIV infections most likely to
develop?
A. Acute dental abscess /bacterial infection
B. Human papilloma virus/oral wart-like lesion
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. Oral candidiasis
E. Periodontal disease

57. A 47-years-old woman has been reffered to you with a lump in her parotid gland. She
does not think that its size has changed much,although it has slowly increased. Clinical
examination reveals that it is firm and painless,but rubbery in texture. She has no other
medical conditions and is otherwise asymptomatic.
A. Adenoid cyst carcinoma
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Oncocytoma
D. Pleomorphic adenoma
E. Warthins tumour

58. A 34-years-old woman presents complaining of a sharp 'electric'-like pain on the left
side of her face over her top jaw and the side of her nose. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Acute sinusitis
B. Burning mouth syndrome
C. Dental pain
D. Temporomandibular joints dystinction
E. Trigeminal neuralgia

59. In which age group is median rhomboid glossitis most common ?

A. 0-15 years
B. 25-35 years
C. 45-60 years
D. >60 years
E. Non of the above

60. Which area of the mouth is most commonly affected by burning mouth syndrome?
A hard palate
B lips
C retromolar region
D soft palate
E tongue

61. Which one of the following is most commonly associated with an oral diagnosis of
crohn disease?
A clusters of ulceration
B dysaesthesia of the tongue
C mucosal blistering
D mucosal tags
E swollen lips

62. Which one of the following medication is most likely to be associated with a dry
mouth?
A aspirin
B atenolol
C bendroflumethazide
D captopril
E nicorandil

63. Target lesions are associated with which one of the following condition?
A Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B major aphthous stomatitis
C pemphigus
D pemphigoid
E syphilis

64. Which gastrointestinal condition is commonly associated with pro facial

granulomatosis?
A ulcerative colitis
B Crohn's disease
C coeliac disease
D irritable bowel disease
E Hirschsprung's disease

65. Age: 65 years.

Attendance record: Has attended your practice for 5 years.
Medical history: Asthmatic and uses a corticosteroid inhaler.
Social history: Non-smoker and has occasional alcohol.
Dietary habits: Apparently healthy diet.
Use of fluoride: Brushes twice a day with a fluoride-containing toothpaste.
Clinical evidence/dental history: The patient is edentulous and has full dentures that are
3 years old.
There is a white patch on the right lateral margin of the tongue that was assessed by
biopsy in a specialist unit 5 years before and reported as a non-dysplastic leukoplakia.
The patient was discharged back to the practice for ongoing care.
Plaque: Maintains good denture hygiene.
Saliva: Normal.
Other: The patient has suffered from recurrent candidal infections associated with
inhaled corticosteroid therapy.
Recall interval recommended for next oral health review: ?
6 months

66. Non dental origin, No clinical or radiological findings. Patient complains of pain maxillary
sinus and ear deafness, unilateral ulcer on face and forehead
A. Herpes Simplex
B. Herpes Zoster
C. Paramyxo virus
D. Orthomyxo virus
E. Epstein bar virus

67. Burning mouth syndrome which part of the oral cavity is more painful
A. Tongue
B. Lips

C. Palate

D. Cheek

68. Lichenoid reaction seen associated with

A. Captopril
B. GOLD
C. Antimalarial
D. methyldopa
E. ALL of above

69. Prolonged use of corticosteroids in adults may result in or can cause

A. Alopecia
B. Insulin –diabetes
C. Libidos
D. Thinning of skin
E. Less arousal

70. Which of the following antifungal medication does not interact with warfarin and enhances its effect?
A. Ketacanazole
B. Micanazole
C. Flucanazole
D. Amphotrcin B

71) Which of the following lesions CANNOT BE classified as an intra-epithelial lesion

A. Herpes simplex infections
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Herpangina
D. Lichen planus
E. Hand, foot and mouth disease

72. In regards to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding
A. Kaposi sarcoma on the palate
B. Reduced haemoglobin
C. Infection with pneumocystic carinii
D. Reduction in white cells count
E. B cell lymphoma

73. Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia

A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease
B. The pain is usually unilateral
C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated
precipitate an attack of pain
D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the
forehead
E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with
Carbamazepine

74. Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests itself in the oral cavity as
A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue
B. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove in the centre of the
tongue
C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas
D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper trophic fungiform
E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surface
F. Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissure
G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue

75. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia
A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue
B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue
C. Usually caused by Candida species
D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue
E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia

76. Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with an
increased risk of oral cancer
A. Actinic cheilosis
B. Erythroplakia
C. Leukoedema
D. Leukoplakia
E. Plummer Vinson syndrome

77. A 25 Y old female with a history of betel quid chewing presents severe
limitation of mouth opening. Clinical examination reveals palpable white
fibrotic bands in her buccal mucosa bilaterally. What would be your most
likely diagnosis?
A. Oral submucous fibrosis
B. Lichen planus
C. Temporomandibular joint ankylosis
D. Scleroderma
E. Verrucous carcinoma

78. A 55 Y old male presents with hemorrhagic crusting of his lips following a
course of antibiotic therapy. He does not have any systemic manifestations.
What would be your most likely diagnosis?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bechet’s syndrome
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Lichen Planus
E. Pemphigus vulgaris

79. A 55 Y old female presents with a non-healing ulcer on the lateral border of
her tongue. The ulcer has not responded to local measures. You suspect a
squamous cell carcinoma. Which type of investigation would you perform for
her?
A. Excisional biopsy
B. Exfoliative cytology
C. Immunoflourescence
D. Incisional biopsy
E. Needle aspiration

80. Bone pain, renal calcinosis , and giant cell jaw lesions are most likely to be
seen in which one of the following disorders?
A. Acromegaly
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Paget’s disease

81. A 55 Y old edentulous female presents with an erythematous patch on her

palate. She wears complete dentures and has a history of Insulin Dependant
Diabetes Mellitus. You make a diagnosis of Denture stomatitis. Which drug is
most likely to be effective for her?
A. Augmentin
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Ibuprofen
D. Miconazole
E. Phenytoin

82. A 60 Y old female presents with recurrent oral and corneal ulceration. Her biopsy
specimen reveals sub-epithelial bullae. What is your most likely diagnosis:
A. Candidal infection
B. Lichen Planus
C. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
E. Squamous cell carcinoma

83. When doing diagnosis regarding pt having aid, all are the following are strongly
associated with HIV except?
a, HIV gingivitis
b, kaposis sarcoma
c, HIV periodontitis
d, hyperpigmentation

84. Drug of choice in Glossopharyngeal neuralgia?

a, antidepressants
b,carbamazepine
c, prednisone

85. Cobblestoning ulcers are seen in?

a, coeliac disease
b, crohn's disease
c, orofacial granulomatosis

86. After 3 weeks you can go for further investigation in which of the following conditions,
because it might be
a, apthous ulcers
b, herpes zoster
c, SCC

87. Nikolsky sign is seen in which disease? Pemphigus vulgaris

88- A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the
dental chair. Your initial response is:
A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position
B. Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve in ECG
C. No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG
D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

89- A patient indicates that he takes methyldopa (Aldomet) he is being probably treated for:
A. Hypertension
B. Angina pectoris
C. Myocardialinfection

90- What would you do if the systole is elevated:

A. Calm down the patient

91- Patient has fainted, the signs are, blanched face, weak pulse, moist skin, shallow
respiration; your first management is:
A. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneously
B. Mouth to mouth respiration
C. Nitro glycerine sub lingually
D. Recumbent position; supine

92- Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated in patient before oral surgery with:
A. Herpes simplex
B. Whoopingcough
C. Bacterialendocarditis

93. There is extra water in the layers of mucosa in a white sponge nevus.
A True
B False

94. A white sponge nevus shows folded white lesions bilaterally on the buccal mucosa.
A True
B False

95. Hairy leukoplakia has a DD of leukoplakia, hyperkeratosis, and lichen planus.

A True
B False

96. Hairy tongue shows an overgrowth of fungiform papillae on the dorsal surface.
True
False
97. Idiopathic leukoplakia is a very common oral condition in which a white plaque of oral
mucosa can be rubbed off.
True
False

98. A differential diagnosis of leukoplakia is lichen planus, but lichen planus has a multifocal
distribution.
True
False

99. Which area of the mouth is most commonly affected by burning mouth syndrome?
A hard palate
B lips
C retromolar region
D soft palate
E tongue

100. Which one of the following is most commonly associated with an oral diagnosis of
crohn disease?
A clusters of ulceration
B dysaesthesia of the tongue
C mucosal blistering
D mucosal tags
E swollen lips

101. Which one of the following medication is most likely to be associated with a dry
mouth?
A aspirin
B atenolol
C bendroflumethazide
D captopril
E nicorandil

102. Target lesions are associated with which one of the following condition?
A Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B major aphthous stomatitis
C pemphigus
D pemphigoid
E syphilis
103. Which gastrointestinal condition is commonly associated with pro facial
granulomatosis?
A ulcerative colitis
B Crohn's disease
C coeliac disease
D irritable bowel disease
E Hirschsprung's disease

104. Sjogren’s Syndrome is associated with other autoimmune disease, CREST, which
one of the following is not involved in CREST syndrome?

a. Calcinosis

b. Rheumatic Fever

c. Oesophageal Dysmotility

d. Telangiectasia

105. Which of the following is not the type of lichen planus?

a. Plaque like

b. Atrophic

c. Hyperplastic

d. Erosive

106. A 12 year old child who has had chickenpox previously presents with vesicles in
and around his left ear, hearing loss and some facial nerve weakness, what is the
diagnosis?

a. HS-1 reactivation

b. HS-2 reactivation

c. Ramsay hunt syndrome

d. Infectious mononucleosis

107 . Polyostic fibrous dysplasia & Café-au-lait spots, is the characterstics feature of?

a. Grinspans syndrome

b. Albright syndrome

c. Gardners Syndrome
 d. Ehlers Danlos Syndrome

108. Which one of the following is the most common salivary gland tumour?

a. Adenocystic Carcinoma

b. Pleomorphic Adenoma

c. Rhabdomyosarcoma

d. Haemangioma

109- Persons vaccinated against the Hepatitis B virus and who have
developed immunity are NOT immune to:
A) Hepatitis C virus
B) Hepatitis A virus
C) Hepatitis E virus
D) Hepatitis D virus

110-Type of hepatitis virus that cannot be grown in tissue culture

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
HepatitisD

111- A 72-year-old female presents with hoarseness and dysphagia (difficulty when
swallowing). The cranial nerve examination is unremarkable; however, the physician
detects that the uvula of the soft palate deviates to the left side when the patient opens
her mouth. Based upon this information, which specific nerve is most likely damaged

112- Which one of the following is the most common cause of recurrent oral ulceration?
A-Aphthae
B-Carcinoma/malignancy
C-Infection
D-Radiotherapy
E-Trauma

113- A 7-year-old deaf child has Hutchinson's incisors and Mulberry molars.
Which one of the following is his likely diagnosis?
A-Osteogenesis imperfect
B-Syphilis
C-Romberg syndrome
D-Papillion-Lefevre syndrome
E-Amelogenesis imperfect.
114. Which clinical type of candidiasis manifests as curd like white patches that can be
rubbed off to leave erythematous areas?
A. Acute atrophic candidiasis
B. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
C. Denture stomatitis
D. Pseudomembranous candidiasis.

115. Which cyst arises from the rests of malassez?

A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Radicular cyst

116. One option in this question is not a systemic condition associated with apthous
ulcer. Which one is it?
A. Cyclic neutropenia
B. HIV infection
C. Inflammatory bowel disease
D. Sickle cell anemia

117. A 43 year old man comes to the dental clinic with the complaint of difficulty in
opening his mouth. Previous dental history reveals burning sensation when eating spicy
foods and ulcerations of the oral mucosa. Palpation of buccal mucosa reveals a firm
fibrous texture. What is the most likely diagnosis? What do you think the cause of the
condition could be?
A. Leukoplakia; Smokeless tobacco puching
B. Oral submucous fibrosis; Betelquid and arecanut use
C. Oral submucous fibrosis; cigarette smoking
D. Smokeless tobacco puch keratosis; Smokeless tobacco snuff

118. Which clinical type of candidiasis manifests as curd like white patches that can
be rubbed off to leave erythematous areas?
A. Acute atrophic candidiasis
B. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
C. Denture stomatitis
D. Pseudomembranous candidiasis.

119. Which cyst arises from the rests of malassez?

A. Dentigerous cyst
 B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Radicular cyst.

120. One option in this question is not a systemic condition associated with apthous
ulcer. Which one is it?
A. Cyclic neutropenia
B. HIV infection
C. Inflammatory bowel disease
D. Sickle cell anemia.

121. A 43 year old man comes to the dental clinic with the complaint of difficulty in
opening his mouth. Previous dental history reveals burning sensation when eating
spicy foods and ulcerations of the oral mucosa. Palpation of buccal mucosa reveals a
firm fibrous texture. What is the most likely diagnosis? What do you think the cause
of the condition could be?
A. Leukoplakia; Smokeless tobacco puching
B. Oral submucous fibrosis; Betelquid and arecanut use
C. Oral submucous fibrosis; cigarette smoking
D. Smokeless tobacco puch keratosis; Smokeless tobacco snuff

122. What feature of a white patch would make you least suspicious of oral cancer?
Appearance changed recently
Ulcerated
Nodular
Soft when palpated

123. According to NICE guidelines, which of these patients would you refer urgently for
possible oral cancer?
Difficulty swallowing for a week
A smooth white patch that persists for more than 3 weeks.
Unexplained tooth mobility
Recurrent ulcers

124. Which one of the following have subepithelial bullae?

A. Mucus membrane PHEMPHIGOID
B. Phemphigus
C. Herpres Zoster
D. Herpes Simplex

125. Soft rounded bluish swelling is seen as?

A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Eruption cyst
C. Hemangioma
D. Rubella

126. Lichen planus is characterised by?

A. Wickham Straie
B. Saw tooth rete regs
C. Koebnar phenomen
D. All of the above

127. Persistent white plaque that cannot be wiped off?

White spongy neavous or leukoplakia

128. Histologically rete ridges with saw tooth appearance and affects 2% of general
population??
Lichen planus
129. WHICH IS THE MOST BENING LYMPHOMA?

130. What type of reaction is Lichnoid reaction?

TYPE 4 SESITIVITY
131. Features Target lesions (red ring with a pale centre) immune complex, self limiting,
Stevens Johnson syndrome?
Erythema multiform

132. Oral mucosal pigmentation; what is TRUE:

A. Commonly seen in ethnic groups
B. Commonly an amalgam tattoo
C. Commonly oral melanoma
D. Commonly melanotic naevus

133. A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy report shows
acantholysis and supra basilare; your diagnosis is:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Bulla lichen planus
C. Erythema multiform
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

134. The MOST common sites for squamous carcinoma in the oral cavity are:**
A. Palate and gingivae
B. Tongue and floor of the mouth
C. Tongue and palate

135. Pigmented naevus can undergo malignant:

A. Always
B. Never
C. 10 to 15%

136. Level of IgA

saliva> breastmilk> tear> serum

137. How many days break between radiotherapy cycle? 2 DAYS

138. Radiation dose for oral cancer? 64-70 Gy

139. % potential for malignancy ...

Erythroplakia 85%
Speckled leukoplakia 30%
Osmf 10%
Erosive lichen planus 1%

B
D

C
D

D
B

B
A

1C

2B

3A

4G

5C
1F

2A

3C

4G

5D
ACD

BC
17. B

18. A C E

19. A B C E
20. AB C E

21. A B D

22. A C D
23. A B C D

24. A C E

25. A C D
26. D

27. A C D

28. A B C D E
1B
2D
3H
4L
5O
6Q
1G
2H
3D
4B
E

E
D

E
B

C
B

D
1
2A
3C
4B
5A
6D
C