Multiple Choice-Tahseen PDF

Multiple Choice
Questions in
Poultry Diseases
Tahseen A. Abdul-Aziz
B.V.M.S., M.S., Ph.D., Diplomate ACPV
APRIL 2003
INTRODUCTION - Hubbard ISA
As the world’s leading poultry breeder, Hubbard ISA, a subsidiary of Merial, the
largest global animal health company, is an innovator in developing broiler, layer, turkey
and guinea fowl breeding stock. With our internationally recognized brands of
BABCOCK, BUT, BUTA, HUBBARD, ISA, and SHAVER, we provide optimum birds to
meet the requirements of each market sector, including the growing alternative
production market: for example, free range. Recognizing that there are important
regional differences in poultry production and consumption, Hubbard ISA has three
geographic centers: the Americas, EMEA (Europe, Middle East and Africa) and Asia
which supply all market sectors through an international distribution network. Our
commercial and technical resources for each region are able to focus on the specific
needs of our customers, working in partnership to develop their individual businesses.
Local teams provide expertise and assistance in poultry management techniques,
veterinary and health matters, and nutrition advice. These teams are supported by in-
house specialists and can call on industry experts to address specific issues. With
research investment, product innovation, strong technical support in the field and a
worldwide supply network, Hubbard ISA is recognized as a reliable source of poultry
breeding stock.
The poultry industry has a long tradition of successfully applying scientific discovery
to improve its business. With advances in genetics, nutrition, veterinary health and
poultry husbandry, Hubbard ISA is a world leader in improving poultry breeding
performance. Today’s poultry markets are more diverse than ever, ranging from
markets calling for more traditional and rustic husbandry practices to more intensive
production. Hubbard ISA has access to unique technologies and scientific resources to
augment the genetic improvement of all types of stock. With our unparalleled resources,
we are uniquely qualified to meet these diverse challenges. With eight research and
development centres, our teams include geneticists, ethicists, embryologists, meat
quality specialists, nutritionists and veterinarians.
Our focus is our customers and the markets they have identified to meet consumer
expectations. An integrated team represented by sales, marketing, research and
development and production, determine the product requirements and market needs for
each business and geographic enterprise. Markets are changing rapidly. Hubbard
ISA’s state-of-the-art breeding programs keep the pipeline between customers and the
breeding programs as short as possible ensuring maximum customer benefit.
Hubbard ISA has a network of hatcheries and breeding farms meeting the needs of
its customers for layer, broiler and turkey breeding stock throughout the world. With our
teams of veterinarians and centres of excellence, Hubbard ISA is committed to
ensuring that its birds meet the highest standards of health and performance expected
by our customers - and their customers. Hubbard ISA is committed to ISO quality
standards, with a number of key production sites ISO 9002 accredited. We strive to
provide the highest standards of welfare within our production operations. And we are
committed to bird welfare in all phases of our operations.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
POULTRY DISEASES
FORWARD
It is a great honor to have been asked by Dr. Abdul-Aziz to write an introduction to

this article. As you will see this work could only be done as a labor of love for his chosen
profession, poultry veterinary medicine. This work is meant as nothing more than an
intensive review session for you to keep your skills sharp. The list of questions is by no
means all-inclusive. The answers are based on current knowledge and have been peer
reviewed for accuracy. If nothing else, some of the questions will force you to open
some of the books that have been collecting dust on the shelves.
An examination of Dr. Abdul-Aziz’s personal history gives us some insight into how
he had the patience to undertake a project of this magnitude. He was born in Iraq and
received his veterinary degree from the University of Baghdad. Dr. Abdul-Aziz then came
to the United States and earned both his M.S. and Ph.D. degrees in poultry pathology at
Iowa State University. He held university positions in both Iraq and Jordan before
immigrating to Canada. Since joining the British United Turkeys of America division of
Hubbard ISA in 1999, Dr. Abdul-Aziz has served both as the company veterinarian for
BUTA and as Director of Veterinary Laboratory Services for the Americas division of
Hubbard ISA. Hubbard ISA is fortunate to have him as part of the team, and after you
review the questions, I think you will agree that our profession is fortunate to have him
as a member.
Robert L. Owen, V.M.D., Ph.D.,

Diplomate American College of Poultry Veterinarians
Director of Health and Technical Services
Hubbard ISA
Multiple-Choice Questions in Poultry Diseases
CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR THE ONLY CORRECT ANSWER FOR THE
FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: Click on this icon to view the answers
1. The carrier status of infection is most significant in which of the following viral diseases?
(A) infectious bronchitis
(B) infectious laryngotracheitis
(C) Newcastle disease
(D) infectious bursal disease
(E) avian encephalomyelitis
2. Consolidation of one or both lungs (pneumonia) is a frequent gross lesion in turkeys

affected with which of the following diseases?
(A) fowl cholera
(B) Ornithobacterium rhinotracheale infection
(C) fowl cholera and erysipelas
(D) Ornithobacterium rhinotracheale infection and bordetellosis
(E) fowl cholera and Ornithobacterium rhinotracheale infection
3. For which of the following diseases, all commercially available vaccines are only of tissue
culture origin?
(A) hemorrhagic enteritis
(B) avian encephalomyelitis
(C) pox
(D) infectious laryngotracheitis
(E) infectious bronchitis
4. How many Eimeria sp. have been identified in chickens and turkeys?
(A) six and four, respectively
(B) seven and four, respectively
(C) seven and five, respectively
(D) eight and six, respectively
(E) nine and seven, respectively
5. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of false-positive reactions on the serum plate
agglutination test for mycoplasmas?
(A) vaccination with inactivated oil-emulsion vaccines
(B) cross-reacting antigens shared between avian mycoplasmas and bacteria
(C) cross-reacting antigens shared between avian mycoplasmas and many
avian viruses
(D) frozen serum and/or antigen
(E) none of the above
Page 1
6. Which of the following bacteria is an important cause of keratitis with perforation of the
cornea in chickens and turkeys?
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(C) Streptococcus fecalis
(D) Staphylococcus aureus
(E) Salmonella typhimurium
7. In chickens infected with Borrelia anserina, gross lesion is characteristically found in the
(A) lungs
(B) intestine
(C) heart
(D) spleen
(E) liver
8. Duck hepatitis virus type 2 has been classified as

(A) adenovirus
(B) astrovirus
(C) enterovirus
(D) parvovirus
(E) coronavirus
9. The addition of small amounts of anti-oxidants to the diet of chickens may prevent which of
the following vitamin E/selenium-deficiency diseases?
(A) muscular dystrophy
(B) exudative diathesis
(C) encephalomalacia
(D) muscular dystrophy and exudative diathesis
(E) exudative diathesis and encephalomalacia
10. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by herpesvirus?

(A) Marek's disease
(C) turkey viral hepatitis
(D) duck virus enteritis
11. Which of the following vitamins does prevent fatty liver and kidney syndrome in chicks?
(A) Pyridoxine
(B) vitamin B1
(C) vitamin B12
(D) biotin
(E) pantothenic acid
Page 2
12. Which of the following avian Eimeria spp. does NOT have tropism for the epithelial cells of
the intestine?
(A) E. labbeana (in pigeons)
(B) E. legionensis (in partridges)
(C) E. truncata (in geese)
(D) E. tsunodai (in Japanese quail)
(E) E. colchici (in pheasants)
13. Which type of influenza virus does cause avian influenza?

(A) type A
(B) type B
(C) type C
(D) types A and B
(E) types B and C
14. Which of the following mycotoxins does typically induce ulcerative and exudative lesions in
the oral mucosa of poultry?
(A) aflatoxin
(B) trichothecenes
(C) oosporein
(D) ochratoxin
(E) citrinin
15. The presence of a cone shaped mass of cartilage below the growth plate in a proximal
tibiotarsus refers to as
(A) dyschondroplasia
(B) chondrodystrophy
(C) osteodystrophy
(D) osteomyelitis
(E) osteopenia
16. Which of the following mycoplasmas has tropism for the gastrointestinal tract?
(A) M. synoviae
(B) M. gallisepticum
(C) M. meleagridis
(D) M. iowae
17. Which of the following is a characteristic feature for spiking mortality syndrome in chicks?
(A) hypocalcemia
(B) hypoglycemia
(C) hypokalemia
(D) hypomagnesemia
Page 3
18. Sulphur-colored droppings in turkeys are associated with infection with which of the
following infectious agents?
(A) astrovirus
(B) rotavirus
(C) Eimeria gallopavonis
(D) Hexamita meleagridis
(E) Histomonas meleagridis
19. Histopathology is an important diagnostic tool for the diagnosis of which of the following
viral diseases?
(A) infectious bursal disease
(B) avian influenza
(C) infectious bronchitis
(D) Newcastle disease
(E) turkey rhinotracheitis
20. In chickens affected with infectious bronchitis, the virus can be isolated from which of the
following organs/tissues?
(A) tracheas
(B) lungs
(C) trachea and lungs
(D) tracheas and cecal tonsils
(E) tracheas, lungs, and cecal tonsils
21. Amyloidosis, particularly of the liver, most commonly occurs in which of the following types
of poultry?
(A) quail
(B) ostriches
(C) ducks
(D) geese
22. For the diagnosis of avian encephalomyelitis, a brain suspension prepared from affected
chicks is inoculated in embryonated chicken eggs via which route of inoculation?
(A) yolk sac
(B) allantoic cavity
(C) amniotic cavity
(D) chorioallantoic membrane
Page 4
23. What is the most consistent and prominent gross lesion in turkeys dying of
lymphoproliferative disease?
(A) splenomegaly
(B) hepatomegaly
(C) thickening of peripheral nerves
(D) tumors in the gonads
(E) tumors in the bursa of Fabricius
24. Fully productive infection with Marek's disease virus occurs only in
(A) T lymphocytes
(B) B lymphocytes
(C) macrophages in the spleen
(D) Schwann cells of the peripheral nerves
(E) feather follicular epithelium
25. Which of the following postures is characteristically seen in chickens affected with bilateral
rupture of the gastrocnemius tendons?
(A) lateral extension of the legs
(B) backward extension of the legs
(C) sitting on hock joints with the toes flexed
(D) sitting on the back with the legs raised off the ground
26. Rodents play an important role in the epizootiology of which of the following diseases?
(A) fowl cholera
(B) paratyphoid
(C) fowl cholera and necrotic enteritis
(D) paratyphoid and necrotic enteritis
(E) paratyphoid and fowl cholera
27. In turkeys affected with turkey viral hepatitis, prominent gross lesions occur primarily in the
liver, but gross and/or microscopic lesions may also be found in the
(A) pancreas
(B) intestine
(C) spleen
(D) kidneys
(E) myocardium
Page 5
28. Extensive hemorrhages on the mucosal and serosal surfaces, parenchymatous organs,
myocardium and endocardium, with free blood in the body cavities are lesions
characteristically found in ducks and/or geese affected with which of the following
diseases?
(A) duck hepatitis
(B) duck virus enteritis
(C) goose parvovirus infection
(D) avian influenza
(E) Riemerella anatipestifer infection
29. The most common site of northern fowl mite (Ornithonyssu sylviarum) infestation in layers is
(A) around the vent
(B) under the wings
(C) the abdominal region
(D) the back
(E) the neck
30. In ulcerative enteritis, gross lesions are characteristically found in the intestine and, in most
cases, in the
(A) spleen
(B) proventriculus
(C) liver
(D) spleen and liver
(E) spleen, proventriculus, and liver
31. A large cystic growth in the kidneys of a chicken is a characteristic feature for which of the
following tumors?
(A) myeloblastoma
(B) renal cell carcinoma
(C) nephroblastoma
(D) Marek's disease tumor
(E) reticuloendotheliosis tumor
32. Irregular thickening of the bones of legs in chickens refers to as

(A) osteopetrosis
(B) osteoporosis
(C) osteochondrosis
(D) osteomalacia
Page 6
33. Which of the following tests is used to confirm that an isolated virus is type A influenza
virus?
(A) hemagglutination test
(B) hemagglutination-inhibition test
(C) agar-gel immunodiffusion test
(D) virus-neutralization test
34. In histomoniasis, flagellated Histomonas meleagridis can be demonstrated in wet smears

prepared from the
(A) liver
(B) cecal lumen
(C) cecal mucosa and liver
(D) cecal lumen and liver
(E) cecal mucosa, cecal lumen, and liver
35. Intranuclear inclusion bodies in the myocardium may be seen in goslings and/or ducklings
affected with which of the following diseases?
(A) duck hepatitis
(C) Derzy's disease
(D) avian influenza
36. The highest rate of mortality due to spontaneous cardiomyopathy in turkeys occurs during
what week of life?
(A) first week
(B) second week
(C) forth week
(D) fifth week
(E) seventh week
37. High dietary levels of which of the following minerals may lead to metabolic acidosis, which
could interfere with renal vitamin D3 metabolism and result in increased incidence of tibial
dyschondroplasia?
(A) phosphorus and chloride
(B) sodium and potassium
(C) chloride and potassium
(D) phosphorus and sodium
(E) sodium and chloride
Page 7
38. Which of the following gross lesions is characteristically seen in pheasants infected with
group II avian adenovirus?
(A) enlargement and mottling of the spleen and congestion of the lungs
(B) enlargement and mottling of the spleen and hemorrhagic enteritis
(C) petechial hemorrhages in the liver and congestion of the lung
(D) petechial hemorrhages in the liver and hemorrhagic enteritis
(E) petechial hemorrhages in the liver, enlargement and mottling of the spleen, and
hemorrhagic enteritis
39. Staphylococcus was isolated from swollen joints of turkeys. Which of the following
biochemical tests would confirm that the isolate is not Staphylococcus epidermidis.
(A) catalase test
(B) oxidase test
(C) coagulase test
(D) indole test
40. Avian leukosis/sarcoma viruses that occur in chickens have been divided into how many
subgroups?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
41. Derzy's disease in goslings is caused by

(A) adenovirus
(B) herpesvirus
(C) astrovirus
(D) parvovirus
(E) birnavirus
42. Small submucosal nodules in the oesophagus are suggestive of which of the following
conditions?
(A) intoxication with the T-2 mycotoxin
(B) vitamin A deficiency
(C) candidiasis
(D) trichomoniasis
(E) wet pox
Page 8
43. Which of the following infectious agents is known to induce hemorrhagic tracheitis in
chickens?
(A) infectious laryngotracheitis virus
(B) velogenic Newcastle disease virus
(C) infectious laryngotracheitis, velogenic Newcastle disease virus, and avian influenza
virus
(D) infectious laryngotracheitis virus, velogenic Newcastle disease virus, and infectious
bronchitis virus
(E) infectious laryngotracheitis virus, velogenic Newcastle disease virus, infectious
bronchitis virus, and Mycoplasma gallisepticum
44. If you observe nervous signs and turbidity or opacity of the eyes in many 7-day-old turkey
poults, infection with which of the following bacteria would be first on your list of rule-outs?
(B) Salmonella arizonae
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D) Streptococcus faecalis
(E) Staphylococcus aureus
45. Which of the following ingredients are used in the culture media for the isolation and
propagation of avian mycoplasmas (to inhibit growth of bacteria and fungus)?
(A) chlorhexidine and thalium acetate
(B) chlorhexidine and penicillin
(C) penicillin and thallium acetate
(D) chlorhexidine and spectimomycin
(E) spectinomycin and thallium acetate
46. Which of the following live vaccines can be administered by the wing-web stab method?
(A) avian encephalomyelitis vaccine
(B) avian encephalomyelitis and fowl cholera vaccines
(C) avian encephalomyelitis and viral arthritis vaccines
(D) fowl cholera and viral arthritis vaccines
(E) fowl cholera, viral arthritis, and avian encephalomyelitis vaccines
47. Which of the following gross lesions is characteristically found in pigeons infected with
pigeon herpesvirus 1?
(A) severe bilateral pneumonia and enlarged hemorrhagic spleen
(B) diffuse hemorrhage in the tracheal mucosa and severe bilateral pneumonia
(C) diffuse hemorrhage in the trachea and ulcers and necrotic foci in the
oral mucosa
(D) ulcers and necrotic foci in the oral mucosa and, sometimes, necrotic
foci in the liver
(E) severe bilateral pneumonia and necrotic foci in the liver
Page 9
48. Borrelia anserina can be cultured on which of the following bacteriologic media?
(A) blood Agar supplemented with yeast extract
(B) brain heart infusion agar supplemented with 10% chicken serum
(C) dextrose starch agar supplemented with yeast extract
(D) tryptic soy broth supplemented with 10% swine serum and nicotinamide adenine
dinucleotide
49. Which of the following neoplasm-induce viruses is egg-transmitted?

(A) Marek's disease virus
(B) lymphoid leukosis virus
(C) Marek's disease virus and lymphoid leukosis virus
(D) Marek's disease virus and reticuloendotheliosis virus
(E) lymphoid leukosis virus and reticuloendotheliosis virus
50. How many serotypes of Haemophilus paragallinarum have been defined?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
51. In chickens affected with chicken infectious anemia, lesions are consistently and
characteristically found in the bone marrow and
(A) pancreas
(B) liver
(C) spleen
(D) bursa of Fabricius
(E) thymus
52. The main clinical manifestation of acute ionophore toxicity in chickens and turkeys is
(A) blindness
(B) leg weakness
(C) respiratory signs
(D) diarrhoea
53. Two-week-old chicks had subcutaneous edema, ascites, and hydropericardium. Toxicity
with which of the following salts would be on your list of rule-outs?
(A) copper sulphate
(B) calcium carbonate
(C) nitrate and nitrite salts
(D) sodium chloride
(E) selenium
Page 10
54. Which subgroup of avian leukosis viruses does include the ubiquitous endogenous avian
leukosis viruses, which are present in virtually all normal chickens?
(A) subgroup A
(B) subgroup B
(C) subgroup C
(D) subgroup D
(E) subgroup E
55. Cytological examination of touch preparations from visceral tumors of Marek's disease
reveals that the predominant cells are
(A) lymphocytes
(B) lymphoblasts
(C) myelocytes
(D) myeloblasts
56. Which of the following is the most common lesion induced by Staphylococcus aureus in
chickens and turkeys?
(A) pneumonia
(B) encephalitis
(C) panophthalmitis
(D) salpingitis
(E) arthritis/osteomyelitis
57. In chickens infected with the chicken infectious anemia virus, there is a decrease in
numbers of which blood cells?
(A) leukocytes
(B) erythrocytes
(C) leukocytes and thrombocytes
(D) erythrocytes and thrombocytes
(E) leukocytes, erythrocytes, and thrombocytes
58. How many toxigenic types of Clostridium botulinum have been defined?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 10
Page 11
59. Which of the following avian viruses does express hemagglutination activity following
treatment with the enzyme neuraminidase?
(A) infectious bursal disease virus
(B) infectious bronchitis virus
(C) infectious laryngotracheitis virus
(D) avian encephalomyelitis virus
(E) reovirus
60. Postmortem examination of a backyard chicken revealed thickening of the wall of the crop
and esophagus. Crop mucosal surface was thickened and roughened. Micrposcopic
examination of smears from the crop mucosal surface revealed numerous operculated
eggs. Your diagnosis would be infestation of which of the following Capillaria spp.?
(A) C. annulata
(B) C. contorta
(C) C. annulata or C. contorta
(D) C. annulata or C. obsignata
(E) C. contorta or C. obsignata
61. Which of the following avian viruses does cause pocks on the chorioallantoic membrane of
embryonated chicken eggs?
(A) poxvirus
(B) poxvirus and infectious laryngotracheitis virus
(C) poxvirus and viral arthritis virus
(D) infectious laryngotracheitis virus and viral arthritis virus
(E) poxvirus, infectious laryngotracheitis virus, and viral arthritis virus
62. The double immunodiffusion test is used to define the type of influenza virus. This
serological test identifies which of the following antigens of influenza virus?
(A) matrix antigens
(B) nucleocapsid antigen
(C) hemagglutinin antigen
(D) matrix and nucleocapsid antigens
(E) hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens
63. If the recommended concentration of a medication in the feed is15 parts per million (ppm),
what percentage does this mean?
(A) 0.15%
(B) 0.015%
(C) 0.0015%
(D) 0.00015%
(E) 0.000015%
Page 12
64. The emerging of antigen-variant strains is most significant with which of the following
viruses?
(A) infectious bronchitis virus
(B) infectious bursal disease virus
(C) infectious bronchitis virus and infectious bursal disease virus
(D) infectious bronchitis virus, infectious bursal disease virus, and Marek's disease virus
(E) infectious bronchitis virus, infectious bursal disease virus, Marek's disease virus, and
hemorrhagic enteritis virus
65. Which of the following serologic tests is a reliable test for the serologic diagnosis of
Mycoplasma iowae?
(A) serum plate agglutination test
(B) tube agglutination test
(C) hemagglutination-inhibition test
(D) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay procedure
66. Which of the following insecticides are effective against mites?

(A) coumaphos and malathion
(B) carbaryl and permethrin
(C) carbaryl, coumaphos, and malathion
(D) permethrin, coumaphos, and malathion
(E) carbaryl, permethrin, coumaphos, and malathion
67. Which of the following supplements is commonly used in the culture media used for the
isolation of avian mycoplasmas?
(A) swine serum
(B) yeast extract and sodium chloride
(C) swine serum and glucose
(D) swine serum, yeast extract, and glucose
(E) swine serum, yeast extract, and sodium chloride
68. Central chromatolysis of neurons in the brain and spinal cord is a histopathologic lesion of
diagnostic significance in which of the following diseases?
(A) Marek's disease
(C) eastern equine encephalitis
(D) Newcastle disease
(E) botulism
Page 13
69. In chronic stages of Mycoplasma synoviae infection, it has been indicated that which of the
following organs/tissues may be more reliable for the isolation of the mycoplasma?
(A) foot pads
(B) tendons
(C) tracheas
(D) ovaries
(E) oviducts
70. The etiology of hemorrhagic enteritis in turkeys is

(A) adenovirus
(B) paramyxovirus
(C) coronavirus
(D) rotavirus
(E) enterovirus
71. Histopathologic examination of small intestines from chickens revealed gametocytes and
developing oocysts of Eimeria in the epithelial cells of the villi only. On the basis of location
of the parasite, one can exclude all of the following Eimeria spp EXCEPT
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. maxima
(C) E. mitis
(D) E. praecox
72. Which of the following lesions is NOT found in pigeons acutely infected with Chlamydia
psittaci?
(A) hepatomegaly
(B) splenomegaly
(C) diffuse hemorrhages in the proventriculus
(D) pericarditis and perihepatitis
(E) airsacculitis and peritonitis
73. Dilation of the small intestine due to accumulation of blood and tissue debris is
characteristically found in chickens infected with which of the following Eimeria spp.?
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. necatrix
(C) E. maxima
(D) E. brunetti
(E) E. tenella
Page 14
74. Which of the following is TRUE about the inclusion bodies in the liver of chickens naturally
affected with inclusion body hepatitis?
(A) they occur in the hepatocytes and Kupffer cells
(B) they are intranuclear and intracytoplasmic
(C) they can be eosinophilic or basophilic
(D) none of the above
75. Which of the following viruses is NOT egg-transmitted?

(A) avian encephalomyelitis virus
(B) chicken infectious anemia virus
(C) viral arthritis virus
(D) egg drop syndrome virus
76. MacConkey's agar can be used for the isolation of all of the following bacteria EXCEPT
(B) Salmonella spp.
(C) Bordetella avium
(D) Pasteurella multocida
(E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
77. Egg transmission occurs with which of the three groups of avian adenoviruses?
(A) group I
(B) groups I and II
(C) group I and III
(D) group II and III
(E) groups I, II, and III
78. Migratory waterfowl are considered as an important source of infection of poultry with which
of the following viral diseases?
(A) avian influenza
(B) Newcastle disease
(C) avian encephalomyelitis
(D) infectious bronchitis
(E) infectious laryngotracheitis
79. The presence of a caseous mass in the pharyngeal region of a pigeon arouses suspicion of
which of the following diseases?
(A) pigeon herpesvirus 1 infection
(B) wet pox
(C) chlamydiosis
(D) trichomoniasis
(E) candidiasis
Page 15
80. Which of the following vitamins must be hydroxylated in the liver and kidneys in order to
become metabolically active?
(A) vitamin A
(B) vitamin C
(C) vitamin D
(D) vitamin E
(E) vitamin K
81. Nodules in the mucosal surface of the ceca in a pheasant is a characteristic lesion for
infection with
(A) Salmonella typhimurium
(B) Histomonas meleagridis
(C) Eimeria colchici
(D) Heterakis isolonche
82. Spondylolisthesis in chickens results from subluxation of the

(A) caudal cervical vertebra
(B) fourth thoracic vertebra
(C) notarium
(D) synsacrum
(E) third caudal vertebra
83. Which of the following bacteria does typically induce liver granulomas in turkeys?
(A) Clostridium septicum
(B) Eubacterium tortuosum
(C) Streptobacillus moniliformis
(D) Staphylococcus aureus
(E) Aeromonas hydrophila
84. What are the predominant clinical signs of paramyxovirus serotype 1 infection in pigeons?
(A) respiratory and neurologic signs
(B) neurologic signs and diarrhea
(C) respiratory signs and diarrhea
(D) respiratory signs, neurologic signs, and diarrhea.
85. You noticed that 2-week-old chickens were sitting on their flexed legs and drawing back
their heads in a "stargazing" position. Which of the following conditions would be the first on
your list of rule-outs?
(A) thiamin deficiency
(B) riboflavin deficiency
(C) Marek's disease
(D) avian encephalomyelitis
(E) ionophore toxicity
Page 16
86. Which of the following anticoccidials is an ionophore?

(A) zoalene
(B) narasin
(C) diclazuril
(D) halofuginone
87. During the life cycle of Eimeria spp. in the intestine, the schizonts produce
(A) sporozoites
(B) merozoites
(C) microgametes
(D) macrogametes
(E) microgametes and macrogametes
88. Coligranulomas occur in which of the following organs?

(A) liver and spleen
(B) intestine and mesentery
(C) liver, intestine, and mesentry
(D) spleen, intestine and mesentry
(E) liver, spleen, intestine, and mesentry
89. Knemidocoptes mutans induces which of the following lesions in chickens?

(A) crusty lesion under the wings
(B) scabby lesion around the vent
(C) scaly lesion on the legs
(D) small subcutaneous nodules
90. Which of the following laboratory procedures is used to confirm the diagnosis of botulism in
birds?
(A) bioassay in mice to demonstrate botulinal toxin in the serum and/or gizzard washings
(B) histopathological examination of the brain, peripheral nerves and skeletal muscles
(C) isolation of Clostridium botulinum from the liver
(D) isolation of Clostridium botulinum from the intestine
91. Natural infection with infectious bronchitis virus occurs in chickens and
(A) turkeys
(B) ducks
(C) pigeons
(D) quail
Page 17
92. Which of the following diseases is characterized histotpathologically by the presence of

intranuclear inclusion bodies in the epithelial cells of the trachea?
(A) wet pox
(B) infectious bronchitis
(C) infectious laryngotracheitis
(D) wet pox and infectious laryngotracheitis
(E) wet pox and infectious bronchitis
93. What is the Eimeria sp. of chickens in which the asexual stages are developed in the small
intestine while the sexual stages are developed in the ceca?
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. mitis
(C) E. necatrix
(D) E. maxima
(E) E. brunetti
94. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins results in dermatitis in chickens?

(A) biotin
(B) niacin
(C) biotin and niacin
(D) pantothenic acid and biotin
(E) pantothenic acid and niacin
95. Which of the following stains is recommended for the detection of Aspergillus spp. in wet
smears prepared from infected tissues?
(A) Giemsa stain
(B) methylene blue
(C) Wright's stain
(D) crystal violet
(E) cotton blue
96. Which of the following mycotoxins is primarily nephrotoxic?

(A) citrinin
(B) citrinin and oosprein
(C) citrinin and ochratoxin
(D) oosporein and ochratoxin
(E) citrinin, oosporein, and ochratoxin
Page 18
97. Eimeria truncata, which infects geese, has tropism for which of the following cells?
(A) epithelial cells of the kidney tubules
(B) epithelial cells of the esophagus
(C) epithelial cells of the proventriculus
(D) epithelial cells of the bursa of Fabricius
(E) hepatocytes
98. Inclusion bodies of infectious laryngotracheitis virus occurs in the trachea, but they may
also be found in the
(A) conjunctivae
(B) bronchi
(C) conjunctivae and bronchi
(D) bronchi and air sacs
(E) conjunctivae and air sacs
99. In turkeys affected with coronavirus enteritis, turkey coronavirus can be detected by the
direct fluorescent antibody procedure in the intestine and
(A) liver
(B) spleen
(C) bursa of Fabricius
(D) liver and spleen
(E) liver and bursa of Fabricius
100. There is only one serotype of which of the following avian mycoplasmas?
(A) M. gallisepticum
(B) M. meleagridis
(C) M. gallisepticum and M. synoviae
(D) M. meleagridis and synoviae
(E) M. gallisepticum, M. meleagridis, and M. synoviae
101. There was a dramatic increase in mortality in a flock of 5-week-old broiler chickens. In 10
days, the mortality dropped significantly but many birds in the flock developed torticollis
(twisting of the neck). From this case history, which of the following diseases would be the
first on your list of rule-outs?
(A) nutritional encephalomalacia
(C) Marek's disease
(D) avian influenza
(E) salmonellosis
Page 19
102. Phthisis bulbi (shrinkage and wasting of the eyeball) in turkeys may result from
(A) Salmonella arizonae-induced chronic panophthalmitis
(B) infection with avian encephalomyelitis virus
(C) high level of ammonia in the house
(D) high light intensity in the house
(E) vitamin A deficiency
103. Which of the following pairs of generic names / trade names of coccidiostats are correct?
(A) monensin / coban and salinomycin / Cygro
(B) narasin / monteban and maduramycin / aviax
(C) lasalocid / avatec and halofuginone / stenorol
(D) Semduramycin / cygro and diclazuril / clinacox
104. Natural infection with duck hepatitis virus occurs in ducks and
(A) geese
(B) swans
(C) geese and swans
105. Identification of microorganisms by the polymerase-chain reaction is based on the

(A) detection of a single, specific nucleotide in the DNA strand of the microorganism
(B) detection of a sequence of nucleotide in a specific region of the DNA strand of the
microorganism
(C) detection of 10-20 random nucleotide in the DNA strand of the microorganism
(D) detection of the entire sequence of nucleotide in the DNA strand of the microorganism
106. Which of the following bacteria is most commonly isolated from the lesion of
cholangiohepatitis in broiler chickens?
(B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Streptococcus faecalis
(D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(E) Clostridium perfringens
107. Which of the following tissue specimens must be collected for histopathologic examination
from birds suspected to die of organic arsenic toxicity?
(A) skeletal muscles
(B) cardiac muscles
(C) peripheral nerves
(D) livers
(E) bone marrow
Page 20
108. Which of the following toxigenic groups of Clostridium botulinum has primarily caused
botulism in birds?
(A) type A
(B) type B
(C) type C
(D) type D
(E) type E
109. Which of the following is NOT true about cage layer fatigue?
(A) affected birds may have active ovaries and oviducts
(B) the bones of affected bones are soft and rubbery
(C) it generally occurs around the peak of egg production
110. Which of the following is TRUE about Ornithobacterium rhinotracheale?

(A) it is gram-negative, highly pleomorphic, motile bacterium
(B) it grows slowly on the MacConkey's agar and appears as pinpoint pink colonies
(C) optimum growth is obtained under microaerophilic condition
111. There was an increased mortality of 0.5% per week in a flock of 18-week-old white leghorn
pullets. Some birds exhibited neurologic signs of torticollis. Postmortem examination
revealed a yellow caseous exudate filling the air spaces of cranial bones. Which of the
following diseases would be the first on your list of rule-outs?
(A) fowl cholera
(B) Escherichia coli infection
(C) Staphylococcus aureus infection
(D) Streptococcus faecalis infection
(E) aspergillosis
112. Which of the following pairs of vaccine strain / serotype of Marek's disease virus is correct?
(A) SB-1 / serotype 1
(B) CVI-988 / serotype 2
(C) FC-126 / serotype 3
(D) SB-1 / serotype 1 and CVI-988 / serotype 2
(E) CVI-988 / serotype 2 and FC-126 / serotype 3
113. There is only one serotype of all of the following avian viruses EXCEPT
(A) viral arthritis virus
(B) chicken infectious anemia virus
(D) Newcastle disease virus
(E) hemorrhagic enteritis virus
Page 21
114. A waterfowl had generalised paresis and green diarrhoea. The most prominent gross
lesions were necrosis of the gizzard lining and greenish discoloration of the liver. Which of
the following conditions would be the first on your list of rule-outs?
(A) mycotoxicosis
(B) lead poisoning
(C) botulism
(D) duck viral hepatitis
(E) avian influenza
115. Examination of the proventriculi of three pigeons reveals numerous dark red, 2 to 6-mm
diameter nodules projecting above the mucosal surface. Laying within each nodule was an
easily removed, blood-clot-like globular body. Which of the following parasite genera
causes this lesion?
(A) Dispharynx
(B) Cyrnea
(C) Cheilospirura
(D) Cyathostoma
(E) Tetrameres
116. Clusters of large meronts (schizonts) in wet smears from the mucosal surface of the small
intestines of chickens are a characteristic feature for infection with which of the following
Eimeria spp.?
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. mitis
(C) E. maxima
(D) E. necatrix
(E) E. brunetti
117. The diagnosis of trichomoniasis is usually confirmed in the laboratory by the

(A) demonstration of large numbers of Trichomonas gallinae in Giemsa-stained smears
prepared from swabs taken from the oropharynx of the infected birds
(B) demonstration of large numbers of Trichomonas gallinae in wet smears prepared from
swabs taken from the oropharynx of the infected birds
(C) histopathological examination of tissue sections prepared from the upper parts of the
trachea
(D) histopathological examination of tissue sections prepared from the upper parts of the
esophagus
Page 22
118. Which of the following avian leukoses is typically induced by the subgroup J of avian
leukosis virus?
(A) lymphoid leukosis
(B) erythroblastosis
(C) myeloblastosis
(D) myelocytomatosis
119. Loss of pigmentation of the eggshell and increase in mottled yolk are features of toxicity
with which of the following anticoccidials?
(A) amprolium
(B) nicarbazine
(C) halofuginone
(D) nicarbazine
(E) roxarsone
120. What is the cause of deep pectoral myopathy?

(A) damage to the nerves which supply the pectoral muscles
(B) traumatic injury to the pectoral muscles due to prolonged sternal recumbency
(C) severe vitamin E deficiency which results in severe degeneration and necrosis of the
pectoral muscles
(D) swelling of the pectoral muscles due excessive exertion with wing flapping
121. Which of the following is among the factors that would determine the timing of vaccination
against infectious bursal disease?
(A) strain of the vaccine virus
(B) route of administration of the vaccine
(C) level and uniformity of maternal antibody in chicks
(D) strain of the vaccine virus and route of administration of the vaccine
(E) strain of the vaccine virus and level and uniformity of maternal antibody in chicks
122. Which of the following antibacterial medications is toxic for turkey poults and can induce
cardiomyopathy?
(A) spectinomycin
(B) sulfadiazine
(C) furazolidone
(D) tylosine
(E) gentamicin
Page 23
123. Which of the following is NOT a reason for vaccinating chickens against Marek's disease at
one day of age?
(A) to stimulate cell-mediated immunity which is a critical protective mechanism against
Marek's disease
(B) to protect newly hatched chicks against variant strains to which the hens might have
not been exposed in the field
(C) because Marek's disease virus is ubiquitous in nature, so stimulation of early vaccinal
immunity is very critical
124. Which of the following avian species is the primary host for Mycoplasma iowae?
(A) pigeons
(B) wild geese
(C) wild ducks
(D) turkeys
(E) quail
125. How many Cryptosporidium spp. has been recognized in turkeys?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
126. Clusters of lymphocytes in the proventriculus muscular layer, gizzard muscle, and pancreas
occur in chickens affected with which of the following diseases?
(A) Newcastle disease
(B) avian influenza
(E) viral arthritis
127. In turkeys, circular necrotic areas in the liver, together with ulcerative hemorrhagic typhlitis
are characteristic lesions for which of the following diseases?
(A) ulcerative enteritis
(B) necrotic enteritis
(C) salmonellosis
(D) hexamitiasis
(E) histomoniasis
Page 24
128. Which of the following chicken's Eimeria Spp. is the most immunogenic?
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. necatrix
(C) E. maxima
(D) E. brunetti
(E) E. tenella
129. Which of the following terms is descriptive for the changes in the long bones of turkeys
affected with turkey syndrome 65?
(A) osteoporosis
(B) osteopenia
(C) osteomalacia
(D) chondrodystrophy
(E) dyschondroplasia
130. Which of the following tumors is most commonly found in broiler chickens carcasses in
processing plants?
(A) lipoma
(B) feather folliculoma
(C) dermal squamous cell carcinoma
(D) basal cell carcinoma
(E) papilloma
131. Mycoplasma gallisepticum and certain strains of Mycoplasma synoviae and Mycoplasma
meleagridis agglutinate erythrocytes of which of the following avian species?
(A) chickens
(B) turkeys
(C) chicken and turkeys
(D) chickens, turkeys, and ducks
(E) chicken, turkeys, ducks, and geese
132. Which of the following lesions is the most common sequela to Escherichia coli septicemia?
(A) arthritis/synovitis
(B) liver granulomas
(C) meningitis/encephalitis
(D) panophthalmitis
(E) pericarditis
Page 25
133. Which of the following avian species is NOT resistant to natural infection with avian
encephalomyelitis virus?
(A) quail
(B) quail and pheasants
(C) ducks and geese
(D) pigeons and quail
(E) pigeon and pheasants
134. What is the rationale for using inactivated infectious bursal disease (IBD) vaccine in
breeder hens?
(A) to minimize egg-transmission of IBD virus from hens to progeny
(B) to prevent drop in egg production caused by IBD virus
(C) to prevent clinical IBD during the laying period
(D) to prevent immunosuppression during the laying period
(E) to provide the progeny with protective levels of maternal antibodies
135. For the isolation of Chlamydia psittaci, infected materials is inoculated in embryonated
chicken eggs via which route of inoculation?
(A) allantoic cavity
(B) amniotic cavity
(C) yolk sac
(D) chorioallantoic membrane
136. Eastern and western equine encephalitis viruses and Highlands J virus are classified as
(A) alphaviruses
(B) enteroviruses
(C) morbilliviruses
(D) orbiviruses
(E) flaviviruses
137. Rotation program for anticoccidials refers to

(A) the use of two different anticoccidials within the same flock
(B) alternating an ionophore with a synthetic anticoccidial within the same flock
(C) the use of a certain anticoccidial for 4-6 months before changing it
(D) using an anticoccidial for one flock and leaving the next flock without any anticoccidial
138. Swelling of the hock joints and foot pads in chickens and turkeys is a common feature of
which of the following diseases?
(A) Mycoplasma synoviae infection
(B) reovirus-induced arthritis/tenosynovitis
(C) Mycoplasma synoviae infection reovirus-induced arthritis/tenosynovitis
Page 26
139. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins over a long period of time may lead to kidney
damage that could result in visceral and renal gout?
(A) folic acid
(B) niacin
(C) vitamin D
(D) vitamin B6
(E) vitamin A
140. Which of the following Salmonella spp. is motile?

(A) S. gallinarum
(B) S. pullorum
(C) S. arizonae
(D) S. gallinarum and S. pullorum
(E) S. arizonae and the paratyphoid salmonellae
141. The serum-plate agglutination (SPA) test and the hemagglutination-inhibition (HI) test are
used to detect chickens and turkeys infected with Mycoplasma gallisepticum, Mycoplasma
synoviae and Mycoplasma meleagridis. Compared to the HI test, the SPA test is
(A) more sensitive
(B) more specific
(C) more sensitive and more specific
142. Cell-free Marek's disease vaccine is produced from which serotype of Marek's disease
virus?
(A) serotype 1
(B) serotype 2
(C) serotype 3
(D) serotype 1 and serotype 2
(E) serotype 2 and serotype 3
143. Dyschondroplasia in poultry is primarily an abnormal development of the

(A) articular cartilage
(B) physeal cartilage
(C) articular cartilage and physeal cartilage
144. What is the major type of antibody found in the yolk?

(A) IgG
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IGA
Page 27
145. Natural infection of turkeys has been reported to occur with which of the following avian
paramyxovirus serotypes?
(A) serotypes 3 and 6
(B) serotypes 2 and 3
(C) serotypes 3 and 7
(D) serotypes 2, 3, and 6
(E) serotypes 2, 3, 6, and 7
146. Which of the following vitamins should not be given in combination with amprolium?
(A) folic acid
(B) biotin
(C) choline
(D) vitamin A
(E) vitamin B1
147. Persistent cell-associated viremia occurs following infection with which of the following
viruses?
(A) adenoviruses
(B) alphaviruses
(C) viral arthritis virus
(D) Marek's disease virus
(E) chicken infectious anemia virus
148. What is the recommended level of calcium in the diet of broiler chickens?
(A) 0.5%
(B) 1%
(C) 1.5%
(D) 2%
149. Paramyxovirus serotype 3 (PMV-3) infection was suspected in a flock of 40-week-old

turkey breeder hens, which has been vaccinated with a killed PMV-3 vaccine. Which of the
following is usually done to confirm the diagnosis?
(A) collecting acute-phase and convalescent-phase serum samples and requesting
hemagglutination-inhibition test to detect antibodies to PMV-3
(B) collecting convalescent-phase serum samples and requesting virus-neutralization test
to detect antibodies to PMV-3
(C) collecting tracheal swabs and requesting isolation of PMV-3
(D) collecting cloacal swabs and requesting isolation of PMV-3
(E) collecting tissue samples from the ovaries and oviducts and requesting
isolation of PMV-3
Page 28
150. Which of the following vaccine strains of Mycoplasma gallisepticum is labelled only for
eyedrop administration.
(A) F strain
(B) strain 6/85
(C) strain ts-11
(D) F strain and strain ts-11
(E) strain 6/85 and strain ts-11
151. In domestic fowl and turkeys, antibodies are produced in the

(A) bursa of Fabricius
(B) thymus
(C) bursa of Fabricius and spleen
(D) spleen and cecal tonsils
(E) bursa of Fabricius, thymus, and spleen
152. How do the oocysts of Eimeria spp. look under the microscope in a wet smear made from
the intestinal contents of an infected bird?
(A) it contains two sporocysts, each of which contains two sporozoites
(B) it contains two sporocysts, each of which contains four sporozoites
(C) it contains four sporocysts, each of which contains two sporozoites
(D) it contains four sporocysts, each of which contains four sporozoites
153. Which of the following deformities does occur in the fourth thoracic vertebra of chickens
affected with spondylolisthesis?
(A) ventral dislocation of the posterior end
(B) ventral dislocation of the anterior end
(C) lateral rotation of the body
154. If which of the following diseases is suspected, examination of wet or stained blood smears
may be useful in establishing a definite diagnosis?
(A) erysipelas
(B) fowl cholera
(C) Ornithobacterium rhinotracheale infection
(D) spirochetosis
(E) lymphoid leukosis.
155. Which of the following is the standard method for serotyping group I avian adenovirus isolates?
(A) immunodiffusion test
(B) immunofluorescent test
(C) Virus neutralization test
(D) immunofluorescent and virus-neutralization tests
(E) immunodiffusion and virus neutralization test
Page 29
156. Cataract was observed in some hens in a breeder flock of chickens. Infection at early age
with which of the following infectious agents should be considered as a possible cause?
(A) velogenic Newcastle disease virus
(B) avian influenza virus
(C) avian encephalomyelitis virus
(D) Marek's disease virus
(E) Salmonella
157. Which of the following neoplastic diseases is highly contagious?

(B) Marek's disease
(C) lymphoid leukosis and Marek's disease
158. An owner of a small multi-age duck farm called you because of a very rapid increase in
mortality in the 2-week-old ducklings. He described the ducklings as squatting with eyes
partially closed. The ducklings fall on their sides, kicked spasmodically with both legs, and
died with heads drawn back. There was no mortality in the 8- and 10-week-old ducks,
which were housed in close proximity to the 4-week-old ducklings. On the basis of clinical
history which of the following diseases would be the first on your list of role-outs?
(A) Avian influenza
(C) duck viral enteritis
(D) duck virus enteritis
(E) salmonellosis
159. Which of the following is NOT true about the gross lesions in quail affected with quail
bronchitis?
(A) in some birds there are white foci in the liver
(B) in some birds the spleen may be enlarged
(C) in some birds there is diffuse consolidation of one or both lungs
(D) major frequent lesions include excess mucus in the trachea with thickening and
roughening of tracheal mucosa
160. Which of the following lesions is NOT occasionally found in adult chickens chronically
infected with Salmonella pullorum?
(A) abnormal ovarian follicles
(B) peritonitis
(C) pericarditis
(D) consolidation of one or both lungs (pneumonia)
(E) nodules in the myocardium
Page 30
161. Eimeria spp. of turkeys include all of the following EXCEPT

(A) E. adenoides
(B) E. meleagrimitis
(C) E. meleagridis
(D) E. mivati
(E) E. gallopavonis
162. Which of the following lesions is most frequently found in chicks affected with
salmonellosis?
(A) yolk sac infection
(B) panophthalmitis
(C) yolk sac infection and pericarditis
(D) pericarditis, hemorrhagic enteritis, and arthritis
(E) bilateral fibrinopurulent pleuropneumonia pneumonia and panophthalmitis
163. What is the recommended level of calcium in the diet of in-lay layers and breeders?
(A) 1% to 1.5%
(B) 1.5% to 2%
(C) 2.5% to 3%
(D) 3.5% to 4%
(E) 4.5% to 5%
164. Which of the following is TRUE about Salmonella arizonae?

(A) it is host-specific
(B) only one serotype has been defined
(C) it is a slow lactose fermenter bacterium
(D) transovarian transmission does not occur
165. With coarse-spray vaccination, the size of the droplet would be

(A) 250-300 microns
(B) 200-250 microns
(C) 100-150 microns
(D) 50-100 microns
(E) 50-75 microns
166. Which of the following is TRUE about the egg-transmission of Mycoplasma gallisepticum in
chickens?
(A) in typical field cases, the rate of egg-transmission is very high (usually 60-80%)
(B) egg transmission occurs only in hens infected during egg-production
(C) egg-transmission can be eliminated by treating infected breeder flocks
with antibiotics
(D) infected hens may shed the mycoplasma intermittently
Page 31
167. Uncomplicated outbreaks of bordetellosis in 4-week-old turkey flock are characterized by

(A) high morbidity
(B) high mortality
(C) high morbidity and high mortality
168. How does the bursa of Fabricius look like grossly in chickens affected with lymphoid
leukosis?
(A) it is usually normal in appearance
(B) it always has nodular tumors
(C) it is always diffusely enlarged
(D) it is always atrophied
169. Massive accumulation of catarrhal exudate in the infraorbital sinuses of turkeys is

suggestive of infection with
(A) Mycoplasma gallisepticum
(B) Mycoplasma meleagridis
(C) Bordetella avium
(D) avian paramyxovirus serotype 3
(E) Pasteurella multocida (chronic)
170. In egg drop syndrome, the part of the oviduct from which virus isolation should be
attempted is the
(A) infundibulum
(B) magnum
(C) isthmus
(D) uterus
171. Displacement of the gastrocnemius tendon is associated with which of the following
skeleton abnormalities?
(A) valgus and varus deformities
(B) rotation of the tibia
(C) valgus and varus deformities and rotation of the tibia
(D) valgus and varus deformities and chondrodystrophy
(E) rotation of the tibia and chondrodystrophy
172. Which of the following diseases may be tentatively diagnosed by microscopic examination
of Giemsa-stained scrapings of tissues/organs with lesions?
(C) avian influenza
(D) chicken infectious anemia
(E) infectious bursal disease
Page 32
173. Which of the following gross lesions are characteristically found in chickens infected with
group II avian adenovirus?
(A) enlargement and mottling of the spleen
(B) necrotic foci in the liver
(C) casts of mucus in the intestinal lumen
(D) paleness of the bone marrow
(E) spots of hemorrhage in the pancreas
174. Rodents are an important source of infection of chickens with which of the following
Salmonella spp.?
(A) S. pullorum and S. gallinarum
(B) S. typhimurium and S. enteritidis
(C) S. enteritidis and S. pullorum
(D) S. typhimurium and S. gallinarum
(E) S. pullorum, S. gallinarum, and S. enteritidis
175. An owner of a small multi-age duck farm called you because of increased mortality in the 4-
week-old ducklings. He described the ducklings as falling back and forth and rolling onto
their sides, unable to stand and then die. Many ducklings in the flock were depressed and
had ocular and nasal discharge. There was no mortality in the 8- and 12-week-old ducks,
which were housed in close proximity to the 4-week-old ducklings. On the basis of clinical
history which of the following diseases would be the first on your list of role-outs?
(A) Newcastle diseases
(B) avian influenza
(C) pasteurellosis
(D) Riemerella anatipestifer infection
(E) aspergillosis
176. Salmonella was isolated from a broiler breeder flock. The isolated Salmonella was
agglutinated by Salmonella O antiserum group B. One can exclude all of the following
salmonellae EXCEPT
(A) S. pullorum
(B) S. gallinarum
(C) S. enteritidis
(D) S. typhimurium
177. Venereal transmission is a very important method of transmission of which of the following
mycoplasmas?
(B) M. meleagridis
(C) M. synoviae; M. gallisepticum
(D) M. iowae; M. meleagridis
(E) M. gallisepticum; M. meleagridis; M. iowae
Page 33
178. Necrotic enteritis is most frequently caused by Clostridium perfringens type

(A) A and C
(B) A and B
(C) B and C
(D) B and D
(E) C and D
179. How does the liver look grossly in chickens affected with inclusion body hepatitis?
(A) enlarged
(B) it is pale or yellow-orange and friable
(C) it contains petechial hemorrhages
(D) all of the above
180. For detecting/identifying microorganisms, the polymerase-chain-reaction (PCR) is a test

with
(A) high sensitivity and high specificity
(B) high sensitivity and low specificity
(C) low sensitivity and high specificity
(D) low sensitivity and low specificity
181. Which of the following is a characteristic gross lesion of quaternary ammonium toxicity in
poultry?
(A) diphtheritic plagues with scattered multifocal areas of ulceration on the tongue and
oral and pharyngeal mucosa.
(B) submucosal nodules in the esophagus
(C) necrosis and sloughing of the gizzard lining
(D) diffuse hemorrhage in the small intestine, especially in duodenum
(E) severe ulceration in the crop, gizzard, and intestine.
182. All of the live vaccines for fowl cholera contain which of the following serotypes of
pasteurella multocida?
(A) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(B) 1, 2, and 3x4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
(E) 3x4
183. Tumors of which of the following avian leukoses/sarcomas do characteristically occur on

the surface of the bones and near cartilages?
(A) erythroblastosis
(B) myeloblastosis
(C) myelocytomatosis
(D) histiocytic sarcoma
Page 34
184. What is the fluid-filled cystic structure that is sometimes seen adjacent to the cloaca in
chickens?
(A) cystic ureter
(B) cystic oviduct
(C) cystic kidney
(D) cystic bursa of Fabricius
185. Enlargement of the ribs at their junctions with the vertebral column is characteristically seen
in chickens affected with
(A) rickets
(C) dyschondroplasia
(D) spondylitis
186. A virus was isolated from the respiratory tract of broiler chickens with respiratory disease.
Negative contrast microscopy showed that the virus had club-shaped surface projections.
The virus could be
(A) influenza virus
(B) Newcastle disease virus
(C) infectious bronchitis virus
(D) infectious laryngotracheitis virus
(E) adenovirus
187. Vertical transmission may occur with which of the following Mycoplasmas?
(B) M. meleagridis
(C) M. synoviae and M. gallisepticum
(D) M. synoviae and M meleagridis
188. The hemagglutination-inhibition test may be used to detect seroconversion to which of the
following avian mycoplasmas?
(B) M. meleagridis
(C) M. synoviae and M. gallisepticum
(D) M. synoviae and M meleagridis
Page 35
189. Violent coughing with marked dyspnea (gasping) in 24-week-old chickens should arouse
suspicion of which of the following diseases?
(D) infectious coryza
(E) Mycoplasma gallisepticum infection
190. Gross lesions are usually seen in the brain of chickens and turkeys affected with which
of the following diseases?
(A) vitamin E deficiency
(B) vitamin E deficiency and Newcastle disease,
(C) vitamin E deficiency and avian encephalomyelitis
(D) vitamin E deficiency and botulism
(E) vitamin E deficiency and ionophore toxicity
191. Birds vaccinated by the wing-web stab method for which of the following diseases should
be examined for "take"?
(A) pox
(B) pox and fowl cholera
(C) pox and avian encephalomyelitis
(D) fowl cholera and avian encephalomyelitis
(E) pox, fowl cholera, and avian encephalomyelitis
192. Which one of the following gross lesions is often present in turkeys subclinically infected
with the group II avian adenovirus?
(A) splenomegaly
(B) hepatomegaly
(C) marked atrophy of the bursa of Fabricius
(D) marked atrophy of the thymus
193. Infectious coryza is characterized by all of the following clinical signs / gross lesions
EXCEPT
(A) conjunctivitis
(B) serous or mucoid nasal discharge
(C) facial subcutaneous edema
(D) excess mucus in the nasal passages and sinuses
(E) diffuse hemorrhage in the tracheal mucosa
Page 36
194. Which of the following diseases of turkeys is characterized by the presence of inclusion
bodies in the infected tissue?
(A) turkey viral hepatitis (inclusion bodies in hepatocytes)
(B) turkey rhinotracheitis (inclusion bodies in tracheal epithelium)
(C) turkey viral hepatitis and turkey rhinotracheitis
195. Maternal antibodies are very effective in protecting chicks and/or poults against which of
the following diseases?
(A) avian encephalomyelitis
(B) chicken infectious anemia
(C) avian encephalomyelitis and infectious bronchitis
(D) chicken infectious anemia and Marek's disease
(E) avian encephalomyelitis and chicken infectious anemia
196. What is the main purpose of vaccinating layer pullets against Mycoplasma gallisepticum?
(A) reducing egg production losses
(B) preventing the deterioration of egg shell quality
(C) preventing the airsacculitis and mortality
(D) reducing the rate of horizontal transmission of M. gallisepticum in the laying house.
197. Which of the following sequences is correct regarding the degree of virulence of the live-
vaccine strains (M-9, PM-1, and CU strains) of Pasteurella multocida?
(A) CU > PM-1 > M-9
(B) CU > M-9 > PM-1
(C) M-9 > PM-1 > CU
(D) M-9 > CU > PM-1
(E) PM-1 > CU > M-9
198. The hemagglutination test can be used to distinguish between Newcastle disease virus and
which of the following viruses?
(B) infectious bronchitis virus and infectious laryngotracheitis virus
(C) infectious bronchitis virus and egg drop syndrome virus
(D) infectious laryngotracheitis virus and egg drop syndrome virus
199. Schizonts of various sizes commonly occur in the vascular endothelium in the wall of
pulmonary air capillaries of birds infected with which of the following protozoa?
(A) Haemoproteus spp.
(B) Leucocytozoon spp.
(C) Plasmodium spp.
(D) Toxoplasma spp.
Page 37
200. A drop in egg production occurred in a 25-week-old layer flock. There were many shell-less
and thin-shelled eggs. A DNA virus that agglutinates chicken erythrocytes was isolated
from the oviducts of some birds in the flock. On the basis of the above finding, the disease
could be
(A) avian influenza virus
(B) Newcastle diseases
(C) egg drop syndrome
(D) avian influenza or Newcastle disease
(E) Newcastle disease or egg drop syndrome
201. Which of the following organs/tissues are preferred for the isolation of infectious bronchitis
virus from chickens infected 3 weeks ago with this virus?
(A) trachea
(B) air sacs
(C) lungs
(D) nasal passages
(E) cecal tonsils
202. Which of the following lesions has been reported to characteristically occur in some poults
affected with the poult enteritis-mortality syndrome (spiking mortality syndrome)?
(A) caseous core in the bursa of Fabricius
(B) caseous core in the ceca
(C) mottling of the spleen with white foci
(D) whitish spots in the pancreas
(E) hemorrhages in the proventriculus mucosa
203. Which of the following anthelmintics is NOT effective against Ascaridia dissimilis?
(A) fenbendazole
(B) piperazine
(C) levamisole
(D) phenothiazine
204. Which of the following samples is preferred for the detection/isolation of avian pneumovirus
in infected birds?
(A) swabs collected from the conjunctival surface
(B) swabs collected from the oropharynx mucosal surface
(C) swabs inserted into the trachea
(D) swabs inserted into the choanal cleft
Page 38
205. Rigid extension of the leg at right angle to the body, or backward, is characteristically seen
in chickens affected with
(A) valgus deformity
(B) varus deformity
(C) rotation of the tibia
(D) rupture of the gastrocnemius tendon
206. Proliferation of bile ducts in the liver is a characteristic histopathologic lesion associated
with which of the following toxicoses?
(A) ochratoxicosis
(B) aflatoxicosis
(C) copper toxicity
(D) organophosphorus insecticide toxicity
(E) sulfonamide toxicity
207. Which of the following types of droppings does characteristically occur in quail affected with
ulcerative enteritis?
(A) watery, white droppings
(B) watery, green droppings
(C) watery, yellow droppings
(D) bloody droppings
208. Reversion of the vaccine virus to virulence is most significant with some attenuated live
vaccines for which of the following diseases?
(A) infectious bursal disease
(C) viral arthritis
(E) Newcastle disease
209. A bacterium was isolated from the liver of a turkey that died of septicaemia disease. On the
blood agar, the bacterium produced small, α-hemolytic colonies. Inoculation of the triple
sugar iron (TSI) agar tube resulted in black discoloration along the stab line after incubation
for 24 hours. On the basis of these bacteriologic tests, which of the following bacteria would
be the first on your list of rule-outs?
(A) Pasteurella multocida
(B) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
(C) Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Streptococcus zooepidemicus
Page 39
210. What is the somatic-antigen group of Salmonella pullorum and Salmonella gallinarum?
(A) group B
(B) group C
(C) group D
(D) group E
211. How many different hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens have been defined in type
A influenza virus?
(A) 8 and 6, respectively
(B) 9 and 6, respectively
(C) 13 and 8, respectively
(D) 13 and 9, respectively
(E) 15 and 9, respectively
212. In lymphoid leukosis, grossly visible tumors are almost invariably present in which of the
following organs?
(B) liver and heart
(C) liver and spleen
(D) liver, spleen, and bursa of Fabricius
(E) liver, spleen, heart, and bursa of Fabricius
213. Which of the following is necessary for the in vitro growth of most isolates of Haemophilus
paragallinarum?
(A) blood
(B) yeast extract
(C) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
(D) blood an yeast extract
(E) blood and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
214. The oocysts of which of the following coccidial parasites are infective when released from
the host?
(A) Eimeria spp.
(B) Cryptosporidium spp.
(C) Eimeria spp. and Cryptosporidium spp.
215. There are four thoracic vertebrae in chickens and turkeys. Which of them is freely movable?
(A) the first

(B) the second
(C) the third
(D) the fourth
Page 40
216. A mycotoxicosis was suspected in several turkey flocks. The following gross lesions were
observed: Swelling of the vent, version of the cloaca, enlargement of the oviduct and cystic
right oviduct. Which of the following mycotoxins would you suspect?
(A) zearalenone
(B) trichothecenes
(C) oosporein
(D) ochratoxin
(E) aflatoxin
217. Which of the following ovarian neoplasms is particularly common in adult fowl?
(A) granulosa cell tumor
(B) arrhenoblastoma
(C) dysgerminoma
(D) adenocarcinoma
218. Ionophore toxicity was diagnosed in three flocks of 4-wee-old broiler chickens. Feed
analysis detected 95 gm monensin per ton. In-depth investigation revealed that a drug used
in swine feed was accidentally added to the broiler feed. Which of the following medications
could potentiate the toxicity of monensin?
(A) lincomycin
(B) spectinomycin
(C) tiamulin
(D) fenbendazole
(E) sulfamethazine
219. Mycoplasma was isolated from the trachea of turkeys. Seven days after inoculating a
mycoplasma broth medium containing glucose and phenol red, there was no color change
in the broth. The isolated Mycoplasma could be
(B) M. meleagridis
(C) M. synoviae
(D) M. gallisepticum and M. synoviae
(E) M. synoviae and M. meleagridis
220. Which of the following gross lesions may be found in chickens, which are subacutely or
chronically affected with streptococcosis?
(A) infarcts in livers
(B) fibrinous pericarditis and perihepatitis
(C) vegetative and valvular endocarditis
(D) infarcts in livers and fibrinous pericarditis and perihepatitis
(E) vegetative and valvular endocarditis, fibrinous pericarditis and
perihepatitis, and infarcts in livers
Page 41
221. Cage layer fatigue is also called

(A) cage layer osteoporosis
(B) cage layer osteochondrosis
(C) cage layer osteodystrophy
(D) cage layer rickets
222. The first gross pathologic change in the heart of broiler chickens affected with pulmonary
hyperstension syndrome is
(A) hypertrophy of the wall of right ventricle
(B) hypertrophy of the wall of left ventricle
(C) dilation of the right ventricle
(D) dilation of the left ventricle
(E) dilation of the right and left ventricles
223. Postmortem examination of several pigeons revealed arthritis, peritonitis, and small
nodules in the liver, spleen, heart, kidneys and serosal surface of the intestine. Which of
the following conditions should be on your list of rule-outs?
(A) trichomoniasis
(B) chronic chlamydiosis
(C) chronic aspergillosis
(D) chronic salmonellosis
(E) chronic Staphylococcosis
224. Which of the following is a frequent finding in starved-out turkey poults?

(A) presence of litter in the gizzard
(B) watery intestinal content
(C) erosions in the gizzard mucosa
(D) unabsorbed yolk sac
(E) deposition of urates on the surface of the liver and heart
225. Which of the following materials may be needed to examine scraping from the skin of a bird
affected with "scaly leg"?
(A) 10% potassium hydroxide
(B) 2% hydrochloric acid
(C) 2% acetic acid
(D) Giemsa stain
(E) Wright stain
Page 42
226. The presence of cystic testes in young male chicks should arouse suspicion of which of the
following conditions?
(B) vitamin A deficiency
(C) vitamin E deficiency
(D) water deprivation
(E) sodium chloride toxicity
227. Which of the following paratyphoid salmonellae is the most pathogenic for chicks,
especially when vertically transmitted?
(A) S. senftenberg
(B) S. montevideo
(C) S. typhimurium
(D) S. heidelberg
(E) S. brandenburg
228. What is the most prominent gross lesion in sagital sections of the proximal end of tibiotarsal
bones of 3-week-old broiler chickens fed a ration deficient in calcium or vitamin D?
(A) widening of the epiphyseal growth plate
(B) narrowing of the epiphyseal growth plate
(C) widening of the metaphyseal cartilage
(D) narrowing of the metaphyseal cartilage
229. Mature chickens infected laterally with avian encephalomyelitis virus shed the virus in the
(A) eggs
(B) faeces
(C) egg and faeces
(D) egg and respiratory secretions
(E) eggs, faeces, and respiratory secretions
230. A flock of 14-day-old chicks showed depression, dullness, and dyspnea. Many birds had
profuse salivation and frothing from the mouth. The house has been cleaned, disinfected,
and fumigated. Toxicity with which of the following compounds would be on your list of rule-
outs?
(A) carbon monoxide
(B) copper
(C) organophosphorous
(D) formaldehyde
(E) chlorine
Page 43
231. Which of the following clinical signs / gross lesions may occur in mature meat-type breeder
hens infected naturally with chicken infectious anemia virus?
(A) paleness of the comb and wattles
(B) 10-20% drop in egg production
(C) petechial hemorrhages in the thigh and breast muscles
(D) enlargement and paleness of the liver
232. Duck hepatitis virus types 1 and 3 have been classified as

(A) astrovirus
(B) adenovirus
(C) parvovirus
(D) picornavirus
(E) enterovirus
233. Which of the following gross lesions is seen in some chickens affected with inclusion body hepatitis?
(A) Hemorrhages in skeletal muscles
(B) hemorrhages in the intestinal mucosa
(C) enlargement and mottling of the spleen
(D) subcutaneous edema
234. The sexual stages of Eimeria brunetti generally occur in which part of the intestine?
(A) upper small intestine
(B) middle small intestine
(C) lower small intestine
(D) cecum
(E) along the entire length of small intestine
235. Which of the following antiprotozoal medications is effective in preventing or treating

infections with Histomonas meleagridis?
(A) nitarsone and roxarsone
(B) roxarsone and dimetridazole
(C) dimetridazole and nitarsone
(D) nitarsone, roxarsone, and dimetridazole
236. Airsacculitis in the thoracic air sacs of one-day-old turkey poults is suggestive of vertical
infection with which of the following pathogens?
(A) Mycoplasma gallisepticum
(B) Mycoplasma meleagridis
(C) Mycoplasma iowae
(D) Salmonella
(E) Escherichia coli
Page 44
237. In poults affected with poult enteritis-mortality syndrome (spiking mortality syndrome), one
may see all of the following gross lesions EXCEPT
(A) dehydration, marked muscle atrophy, and brittle bones
(B) thickening of the wall of the proventriculus
(C) crop mycosis and litter in the gizzard
(D) thin-walled dilated intestine containing fluid
(E) extreme atrophy of the thymus and mild to moderate atrophy of the bursa of Fabricius
238. Which of the following avian pathogens may infect humans and causes clinical disease?
(A) Campylobacter jejuni
(B) Chlamydia psittaci and Campylobacter jejuni
(C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae and Chlamydia psittaci
(D) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae and Campylobacter jejuni
(E) Campylobacter jejuni, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, and Chlamydia psittaci
239. Which of the following Eimeria spp. may induce intestinal lesions similar to those induced
by Clostridium perfringens?
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. brunetti
(C) E. necatrix
(D) E. maxima
(E) E. mivati
240. Dactylaria gallopava mainly induces which of the following lesions in chicks and turkey
poults?
(A) pneumonia
(B) airsacculitis
(C) panophthalmitis
(D) encephalitis
(E) dermatitis
241. Compared to the lentogenic strains, the mesogenic strains of Newcastle disease virus are
(A) more pathogenic
(B) more immunogenic
(C) more pathogenic and more immunogenic
(D) more pathogenic and less immunogenic
(E) less pathogenic and more immunogenic
Page 45
242. Histopathologic examination of peripheral nerves and kidneys from a dead duck revealed
demyelination in the nerves and intranuclear inclusion bodies in the tubular epithelium of
the kidneys. On the basis of these microscopic lesions, what would be your diagnosis?
(A) aflatoxicosis
(B) botulism
(C) lead poisoning
(D) adenovirus infection
(E) herpesvirus infection
243. Which of the following laboratory procedures is most commonly used to detect the
adenovirus in the splenic extract of turkeys affected with hemorrhagic enteritis?
(A) virus isolation in tissue culture
(B) virus isolation in turkey embryos
(C) virus-neutralization test
(D) hemagglutination-inhibition test
(E) agar-gel immunodiffusion test
244. If you suspect hexamitiasis in turkeys, from which part of the intestine would you prefer to
examine mucosal scrapings to confirm the diagnosis?
(A) duodenum
(B) jejunum
(C) ileum
(D) cecum
245. Which of the following is the most common gross lesions in turkeys affected with
reticuloendotheliosis
(A) marked enlargement of the livers
(B) thickening of peripheral nerves
(C) nodular tumors in the bursa of Fabricius
(D) marked enlargement of the livers and thickening of peripheral nerves
(E) marked enlargement of the livers and nodular tumors in the bursa of Fabricius
246. The term coccidiasis means

(A) the presence of very large numbers of oocysts in the intestinal contents
(B) infection with more than one species of Eimeria
(C) severe coccidiosis with severe lesions in the intestine
(D) infection with Eimeria spp. but absence of a clinical disease
(E) absence of the oocysts in the intestinal contents but the presence of other
developmental stages in the intestinal epithelium
Page 46
247. What is the mode of action of the anticoccidials monensin, salinomycin, Lasalocid,
maduramycin, and semduramycin?
(A) they combine with certain cations, thus disrupting normal transportation of these ions
across cell membrane
(B) they combine with certain intracellular enzymes, thus disrupting normal cell metabolism
(C) they combine with DNA molecules, thus disrupting replication of DNA
(D) they combine with the lipid in the cell wall, thus causing lysis of the cell
248. Which of the following lesions may be seen in turkey poults dying of spontaneous
cardiomyopathy?
(A) ascites
(B) ascites and hydropericardium
(C) hydropericardium and subcutaneous edema over the abdomen
(D) ascites and subcutaneous edema over the abdomen
(E) ascites, hydropericardium, and subcutaneous edema over the abdomen
249. The highest incidence of aortic rupture generally occurs in tom turkeys at the age of
(A) 4-8 weeks
(B) 8-10 weeks
(C) 12-16 weeks
(D) 18-20 weeks
250. Which of the following diseases is primarily a disease of ducklings (not adult ducks)?
(A) duck hepatitis
(C) duck hepatitis and duck virus enteritis
(D) duck virus enteritis and Riemerella anatipestifer infection
(E) duck hepatitis and Riemerella anatipestifer infection
251. Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive?

(A) Haemophilus paragallinarum
(C) Pasteurella multocida
(D) Bordetella avium
(E) Campylobacter jejuni
252. The best ways to minimize the possibility of reversion of the attenuated virus (in some live
vaccines) to virulence include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) making sure that all birds in the flock receive an immunizing dose
of the vaccine
(B) vaccinating all birds in the flocks and, if possible, on the farm at the
same time
(C) using two different vaccine-virus strains to vaccinate different flocks on the farm
Page 47
253. In which of the following types of avian leukosis there are no grossly visible tumours but the
neoplastic cells remain intravascular?
(A) myeloblastosis
(B) myelocytomatosis
(C) erythroblastosis
254. Sarcocystosis can be diagnosed by histopathologic examination of which of the following

organs/tissues?
(A) subcutaneous tissues
(B) skeletal muscles
(C) liver
(D) spleen
(E) bone marrow
255. Ducks infected with Riemerella anatipestifer may have one or more of the following lesions EXCEPT
(A) fibrinous pericarditis and fibrinous perihepatitis
(B) airsacculitis
(C) hemorrhagic enteritis
(D) salpingitis
(E) fibrinous meningitis
256. Which of the following clinical signs is seen in pigeons affected with chlamydiosis?
(A) rhinitis
(B) conjunctivitis
(C) conjunctivitis and blepharitis
(D) rhinitis and conjunctivitis
(E) rhinitis, conjunctivitis, and blepharitis
257. Serotyping of salmonellae is based on the differences in which antigen?

(A) somatic antigen
(B) somatic antigen and phase 1 flagellar antigen
(C) somatic antigen and phase 2 flagellar antigen
(D) phase 1 and phase 2 flagellar antigens
(E) somatic antigen and phases 1 and 2 flagellar antigens
258. Which of the following lesions is commonly seen in turkey poults infected vertically with
Mycoplasama iowae?
(A) leg deformities
(B) arthritis / synovitis
(C) sinusitis
(D) airsacculitis
Page 48
259. Which of the following gross lesions in the skin of chickens is characteristic for dermal
squamous cell carcinoma?
(A) reddish-purple areas of different sizes
(B) nodules of different sizes
(C) dark crusty areas of different sizes
(D) crater-shaped ulcers of different sizes
260. A flock of broiler breeder hens experienced 25% drop in egg production. A virus that
agglutinated the erythrocytes of chickens was isolated from the flock. The isolated virus
could be any of the following viruses EXCEPT
(A) Newcastle disease virus
(B) avian influenza virus
(C) egg drop syndrome virus
261. Egg drop syndrome is caused by

(A) group I Avian adenovirus
(B) group II avian adenovirus
(C) group III avian adenovirus
(E) avian paramyxovirus serotype 7
262. Subclinical infection of 10-day old chicks with infectious bursal disease virus is
characterized by
(A) severe immunosuppression
(B) absence of microscopic lesion in the bursa of Fabricius
(C) absence of seroconversion to infectious bursal disease virus
(D) severe immunosuppression and absence of microscopic lesion in the bursa of
Fabricius
(E) severe immunosuppression and absence of seroconversion to infectious bursal
disease virus
263. If an antimicrobial-medication solution contains 25% active ingredient, how many ml of the
solution needs to be added to 200 litres of drinking water to get a concentration of 40 parts
per million active ingredients?
(A) 10 ml
(B) 32 ml
(C) 44 ml
(D) 50 ml
(E) 55 ml
Page 49
264. Which of the following lesions may be present in chickens affected with Marek's disease
but not in those affected with lymphoid leukosis?
(A) thickening of peripheral nerves
(B) thickening of peripheral nerves and discoloration of the iris
(C) thickening of peripheral nerves and tumors in the gonads
(D) thickening of peripheral nerves, discoloration of the iris, and tumors in the gonads
(E) thickening of peripheral nerves, discoloration of the iris, and tumors in the gonads and kidneys
265. Eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies are found in the liver of ducks infected with which
of the following diseases?
(A) duck hepatitis types 1 and 2
(C) duck hepatitis types 1 and 2 and duck virus enteritis
266. In which of the following diseases, recovered birds are NOT important source of infection?
(A) erysipelas
(B) fowl cholera
(C) infectious coryza
(D) bordetellosis
267. A live vaccine for which of the following diseases should never be given to breeder hens
within at least four weeks before production or during production?
(A) chicken infectious anemia
(B) infectious bursal disease and avian encephalomyelitis
(C) chicken infectious anemia and infectious bursal disease
(D) avian encephalomyelitis and chicken infectious anemia
(E) infectious bursal disease, chicken infectious anemia, and avian encephalomyelitis
268. Birds vaccinated with poxvirus vaccine by the wing-web stab method should be examined
for "take" how many days after vaccination?
(A) 2-3 days
(B) 4-6 days
(C) 7-10 days
(D) 14-21 days
269. Quail are succumbed to natural infection with which of the following avian viruses?
(A) infectious bronchitis virus
(B) infectious laryngotracheitis virus
(C) avian encephalomyelitis virus
(D) infectious bronchitis virus and infectious laryngotracheitis virus
(E) infectious laryngotracheitis virus and avian encephalomyelitis virus
Page 50
270. Fruiting heads of Aspergillus are most likely seen in smears prepared from lesions of
Aspergillus infection in which of the following organs?
(A) airs sacs
(B) lungs
(C) eye
(D) brain
(E) bone
271. Which of the following Eimeria spp. does primarily induce lesions in the ceca of turkeys?
(A) E. dispersa
(B) E. meleagrimitis
(C) E. meleagridis
(D) E. adenoides
(E) E. gallopavonis
272. A herpes virus of turkeys that is antigenically related to Marek's disease virus is classified
as which serotype of Marek's disease virus?
(A) serotype 1
(B) serotype 2
(C) serotype 3
273. Which of the following avian species are the natural hosts for reovirus-induced
arthritis/tenosynovitis?
(A) Chickens and turkeys
(B) Chickens, turkeys, and ducks
(C) Chickens, turkeys, and quail
(D) Chickens, turkeys, and pigeons
(E) Chickens, turkeys, and pheasants
274. Which of the following lesions is characteristically found in some chicks affected with
viscerotropic velogenic Newcastle disease virus?
(A) splenomegaly
(B) consolidation of both lungs
(C) hemorrhagic ulcers in the small intestine
(D) foci of necrosis and hemorrhage in the liver
(E) diphtheritic membrane on the mucosal surface of esophagus
Page 51
275. In layers affected with cage layer osteoporosis, there is depletion of calcium in which of the
following parts of the bones?
(A) cortical bone
(B) trabecular and cortical bones
(C) medullary and cortical bones
(D) medullary and trabecular bones
(E) cortical, trabecular, and medullary bones
276. Which of the following organs is reliable for the isolation of salmonellae from mature
chickens or turkeys infected with paratyphoid salmonellae?
(A) ovaries
(B) oviducts
(C) gall bladders
(D) ceca
(E) livers and spleens
277. Which of the following changes does characteristically occur in chick embryos inoculated
with the infectious bronchitis virus?
(A) pneumonia
(B) diffuse hemorrhage in the trachea
(C) necrotic foci in the liver
(D) stunting and curling of the embryos
(E) pocks on the chorioallantoic membrane
278. Spondylitis of cervical vertebrae in turkey poults may result from vertical infection with
which of the following mycoplasmas?
(B) M. meleagridis
(C) M. synoviae
(D) M. iowae
279. Which of the following eye lesions in chickens and turkeys does NOT result from high
ammonia levels in the house?
(A) blepharitis
(B) cataract
(C) conjunctivitis
(D) corneal ulcers
(E) keratitis
Page 52
280. Which of the following lesions has been described in chickens affected with the so-called
infectious stunting syndrome?
(A) enlargement of the proventriculus
(B) soft bones (rickets)
(C) atrophy of the pancreas
281. Mycoplasma synoviae induces synovitis, but it has also been reported to induce which of
the following lesions in chickens and turkeys?
(A) airsacculitis and sinusitis
(B) salpingitis
(C) airsacculitis, sinusitis, and salpingitis
282. What is recommended amount of powdered skim milk that needs to be added to the water
used for vaccination via drinking water?
(A) 1 gram per liter
(B) 2.5 grams per liter
(C) 5 grams per liter
(D) 7.5 grams per liter
(E) 10 grams per liter
283. Deterioration of eggshell quality could be caused by damage to which part of the oviduct?
(A) infundibulum
(B) magnum
(C) isthmus
(D) uterus
284. Which of the following is a characteristic histopathologic lesion for the delayed toxicity with
organophosphorous insecticides?
(A) fatty degeneration of hepatocytes
(B) necrosis of epithelium of renal tubules
(C) marked depletion of lymphocytes in lymphoid organs
(D) atrophy of hematopoeitic tissue in bone marrow
(E) degenerative changes in peripheral nerves and spinal cord
285. In which of the following diseases in turkeys, recovered birds become carriers and
important source of infection?
(A) hemorrhagic enteritis
(B) avian pneumovirus
(C) avian influenza
Page 53
286. With which of the following salmonellae, eggshell penetration is the least important method
of transmission in chickens?
(A) paratyphoid salmonellae
(B) S. pullorum
(C) S. gallinarum
(D) S. pullorum and S. gallinarum
(E) S. gallinarum and paratyphoid salmonellae
287. Which of the following anticoccidial increases metabolic rate and thus makes birds more
susceptible to heat stress?
(A) amprolium
(B) monensin
(C) narasin
(D) nicarbazine
(E) 3-nitro
288. In pigeons, necrotic foci in the liver, together with intranuclear inclusion bodies in the
hepatocytes are characteristic lesions for infection with which of the following viruses?
(A) adenovirus and orthomyxovirus
(B) herpesvirus and paramyxovirus
(C) adenovirus and herpesvirus
(D) herpesvirus and picornavirus
(E) adenovirus and paramyxovirus
289. The so-called green liver syndrome in turkeys is usually associated with which of the
following conditions?
(A) Ascaridia dissimilis infestation
(B) osteomyelitis
(C) Ascaridia dissimilis infestation and osteomyelitis
290. Riemerella anatipestifer primarily infects which of the following types of poultry?
(A) chickens
(B) turkeys
(C) ducks
(D) ducks and chickens
(E) ducks and turkeys
Page 54
291. Histopathologic examination of tracheas from turkeys infected with Bordetella avium
reveals that the bacteria adhere specifically to
(A) cilia of epithelial cells
(B) surface of deciliated epithelium
(C) surface of goblet cells and mucous glands
(D) areas where epithelial cells are lost
292. Which of the following is the most marked gross lesion in the heart of chickens affected with
pulmonary hypertension syndrome?
(A) dilation of the right ventricle
(B) dilation of the left and right ventricles
(C) dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricle
(D) dilation and hypertrophy of the right and left ventricles
293. Which of the following sequence is correct with regard to the degree of virulence of
Holland, Massachusetts, and Connecticut vaccine strains of infectious bronchitis virus?
(A) H120 < Conn < Mass

(B) H120 < Mass < Conn
(C) Conn < Mass < H120
(D) Conn < H120 < Mass
(E) Mass < Conn < H120
294. High levels of which of the following vitamins and minerals could be beneficial in alleviating
or preventing fatty liver hemorrhagic-syndrome in layers?
(A) vitamin A and manganese
(B) vitamin A and magnesium
(C) biotin and zinc
(D) vitamin E and selenium
(E) vitamin K and copper
295. Which of the following histopathologic lesions does characteristically occur in the bursa of
Fabricius of chickens affected with infectious bursal disease?
(A) interfollicular infiltration of heterophils
(B) necrosis of lymphocytes
(C) interfollicular infiltration of heterophils and interfollicular edema
(D) interfollicular edema and necrosis of lymphocytes
(E) necrosis of lymphocytes, interfollicular infiltration of heterophils, and
interfollicular edema
Page 55
296. Which of the following Newcastle disease virus strains can be used for vaccinating
one-day-old chicks by the coarse-spray method?
(A) Hitchener B1
(B) Lasota
(C) Hitchener B1 or Lasota
297. For the isolation of Mycoplasma iowae from live infected turkeys, cotton swabs are
collected from
(A) trachea
(B) oropharynx
(C) cloaca
(D) trachea and oropharynx
(E) trachea and cloaca
298. Which of the following lesions may be associated with Ascaridia dissimilis infestation in turkeys?
(A) white spots in the liver
(B) greenish discoloratrion of the liver
(C) distension of the caeca with white cheesy materials
(D) ulcers in the small intestine
299. Which of the following avian viruses is known to be capable of establishing latent infection
in chickens?
(A) Newcastle disease virus
300. Which of the following bacteria of avian origin does cause localized cellulitis in humans
following entry through an abrasion or cut in the skin?
(A) Streptococcus faecalis
(C) Escherichia coli
301. Which of the following bacteria is most commonly isolated from exudates of egg peritonitis?
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Streptococcus faecalis
(C) Escherichia coli
(D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(E) anaerobic bacilli
Page 56
302. Some strains of Bordetella avium agglutinate erythrocytes of which of the following
animals?
(A) rabbits
(B) guinea pigs
(C) rats and mice
(D) mice and rabbits
(E) guinea pigs and rabbits
303. Which of the following stains is recommended for the demonstration of Chlamydia psittaci
inclusions in touch impressions of exudates or infected tissues?
(A) crystal violet
(B) Giemsa stain
(C) Gram stain
(D) methylene blue
304. Which of the following is TRUE about articular gout in chickens?

(A) it usually occurs as a result of damage to the kidney
(B) it is invariably associated with visceral gout
(C) deposition of urate crystals in and around joints is associated with inflammatory
reactions
305. The so-called field rickets in turkeys is most likely caused by

(A) inadequate vitamin D3 in the diet
(B) inadequate calcium or phosphorus in the diet
(C) calcium:phosphorus ratio imbalance
(D) impairment of intestinal absorption of minerals and vitamin D3
(E) damage to the kidney that interferes with Vitamin D3 metabolism
306. Generally, Pasteurella multocida is sensitive to all of the following antibacterials EXCEPT
(A) erythromycin
(B) lincomycin
(C) penicillin
(D) sulfonamides
(E) tetracyclines
Page 57
307. There was a sudden onset of high mortality in a flock of 14-week-old turkeys. Postmortem
examination revealed generalized congestion and widespread hemorrhages in the
abdominal fat, myocardium and mucosal and serosal surfaces. In many birds, the livers
were enlarged and contained small focal areas of necrosis; one or both lungs were
consolidated. Which condition would be the first on your list of rule-outs?
(A) erysipelas
(B) fowl cholera
(C) colisepticemia
(D) hemorrhagic enteritis
(E) avian influenza
308. If you use the hemagglutination-inhibition test to detect seroconversion to avian

mycoplasmas, according to the National poultry improvement plan (NPIP), what would
be the titers to presume the flock to be infected?
(A) >1:10
(B) >1:20
(C) >1:40
(D) >1:80
(E) >1:160
309. Which of the following laboratory animals are commonly used in the bioassay test to
demonstrate and identify botulinal toxin in the serum and/or gastrointestinal washings from
birds affected with botulism?
(A) mice
(B) guinea pigs
(C) hamsters
(D) rabbits
310. Dicalcium phosphate can be added to the diet of chickens and turkeys as a source of
calcium. What is the approximate concentration of calcium in it?
(A) 14%
(B) 18%
(C) 23%
(D) 35%
(E) 40%
311. Type A influenza virus is subtyped on the basis of differences in which of the following virus
antigens?
(A) hemagglutinin
(B) neuraminidase
(C) nucleocapsid and matrix antigens
(D) hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
(E) hemagglutinin and matrix antigen
Page 58
312. How many vaccinations against avian encephalomyelitis are usually adequate to protect
breeder hens throughout their production-life?
(A) one vaccination
(B) two vaccinations2
(C) three vaccinations
(D) four vaccinations
313. How many Cryptosporidium spp. has been recognized in chickens?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
314. The hemagglutination-inhibition test can distinguish between paramyxovirus serotype 1

(PMV-1) and which of the following paramyxovirus serotypes?
(A) PMV-2
(B) PMV-2 and PMV-3
(C) PMV-2, PMV-6
(D) PMV-3 and PMV-6
(E) PMV-2, PMV-3, and PMV-6
315. Which of the following Eimeria spp. does produce the largest schizonts?
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. maxima
(C) E. necatrix
(D) E. brunetti
(E) E. tenella
316. Swollen, reddish purple snoods are sometimes seen in tom turkeys affected with which of
the following diseases?
(B) avian influenza
(C) colibacillosis
(D) fowl cholera
(E) erysipelas
317. What is the main clinical manifestation of astrovirus infection in turkey poults?
(A) nervous signs
(B) respiratory signs
(C) diarrhoea
(D) arthritis
Page 59
318. Biphasic mortality is a feature of vertical infection with which of the following egg-
transmitted and/or hatchery transmitted diseases?
(A) salmonellosis
(B) aspergillosis
(D) salmonellosis and aspergillosis
(E) salmonellosis and avian encephalomyelitis
319. There was slight increase in mortality in a flock of 14-week-old layer pullets. The farm
manager described the birds as "could not breathe and died". Postmortem examination
revealed only thickening of laryngeal tissues with the presence of caseous materials in the
larynx. What would be your tentative diagnosis?
(A) Trichothecene mycotoxicosis
(B) copper sulfate toxicity
(C) quaternary ammonium compound toxicity
(D) pox
(E) infectious laryngotracheitis
320. Which of the following antibacterial feed additives is indicated for turkeys for the control of
recurring outbreaks of fowl cholera and for the treatment of breast blisters and arthritis
associated with staphylococcal infections?
(A) bambermycin
(B) virginiamycin
(C) novobiocin
(D) bambermycin and virginiamycin
(E) virginiamycin and novobiocin
321. Which of the following gross lesions is characteristically found in some birds affected with
infectious bursal disease?
(A) necrotic foci in the liver
(B) enlargement and mottling of the spleen
(C) hemorrhages in the kidneys
(D) ulcers in the small intestine
(E) hemorrhages in skeletal muscles
322. Vertical transmission has been suggested with which of the following avian viruses?
(A) eastern equine encephalitis
(B) turkey virus hepatitis virus
(C) avian paramyxovirus serotype 2
Page 60
323. All isolates of paratyphoid salmonellae are resistant to

(A) tetracyclines
(B) neomycin
(C) erythromycin
(D) spectinomycin
(E) sulfonamides
324. Which of the following ionophorous anticoccidials are highly toxic for turkeys?
(A) monensin and narasin
(B) monensin and salinomycin
(C) salinomycin and narasin
(D) lasalocid and maduramycin
(E) maduramycin and narasin
325. Muscular dystrophy in chickens tends to occur when vitamin E deficiency is accompanied
by deficiency of which of the following amino acids?
(A) cystine
(B) methionine
(C) cystine and glycine
(D) methionine and glycine
(E) cystine and methionine
326. What is the most common route of inoculation of embryonated eggs for the isolation of
Newcastle disease virus?
(A) chorioallantoic membrane
(B) amniotic cavity
(C) yolk sac
(D) allantoic cavity
327. Turkey syndrome 65 is caused by

(A) enterovirus
(B) coronavirus
(C) Mycoplasma meleagridis
(D) Mycoplasma synoviae
(E) mycotoxin
328. In chickens with neurologic signs due to nutritional encephalomalacia, characteristic gross
lesions are most frequently found in what part of the brain?
(A) cerebrum
(B) cerebellum
(C) optic lobes
(D) brain stem
(E) medulla oblangata
Page 61
329. Excessive dietary levels of which of the following inorganic elements and vitamins may lead
to urate nephrosis and visceral gout?
(A) calcium and phosphorous
(B) calcium and vitamin D
(C) phosphorous and vitamin D
(D) calcium, phosphorous, and vitamin D
(E) calcium, phosphorous, and vitamin A
330. Which of the following animals may be an important source of infection of turkeys with
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?
(A) pigs
(B) sheep
(C) pigs and sheep
(D) sheep and dogs
(E) pigs and cats
331. Which of the antibacterial medications is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, and
thus should not be administered orally to treat systemic bacterial infection?
(A) bacitracin
(B) aminoglycoside antibiotics
(C) penicillin G potassium
(D) bacitracin and aminoglycoside antibiotics
(E) aminoglycoside antibiotics and penicillin G potassium
332. Cytological examinations of touch preparations of lymphoid leukosis tumors reveals that the
predominant cells are?
(A) large lymphocytes
(B) small and medium lymphocytes
(C) lymphoblasts
(D) large lymphocytes and lymphoblasts
(E) small and medium lymphocytes and lymphoblasts
333. Which of the following lesions is characteristically found in chick embryos inoculated with a
brain suspension prepared from chicks infected with a field strain of avian
encephalomyelitis virus?
(A) petechial hemorrhages in the brain
(B) atrophy of skeletal muscles
(C) diffuse subcutaneous hemorrhages
(D) opacity of the eyes
Page 62
334. Which of the following antibacterial medications is effective in preventing necrotic enteritis
caused by Clostridium perfringens in chickens, when administered continuously in the feed?
(A) bacitracin
(B) lincomycin and virginiamycin
(C) virginiamycin and neomycin
(D) neomycin, bacitracin, and virginiamycin
(E) bacitracin, lincomycin, and virginiamycin
335. Aspergillus fumigatus mainly induces airsacculitis and pneumonia, but it may also induce
(A) encephalitis
(B) panophthalmitis
(C) encephalitis and panophthalmitis
(D) encephalitis and osteomyelitis
(E) encephalitis, panophthalmitis, and osteomyelitis
336. Sera from chickens chronically infected with which of the following salmonellae may test
positive on rapid whole-blood test, using S. pullorum antigen?
(A) S. gallinarum
(B) S. typhimurium and S. gallinarum
(C) S. typhimurium and S. enteritidis
(D) S. gallinarum and S. enteritidis
(E) S. typhimurium, S. enteritidis, and S. gallinarum
337. Histopathologic examination of tracheas from chickens affected with respiratory

cryptosporidiosis reveals that the cryptosporidia are mostly located
(A) within the epithelial cells
(B) between the epithelial cells
(C) on the surface of epithelial cells
(D) in the submucosa
(E) in the lumen
338. Which of the following types of avian leukoses has the longest incubation period?
(D) myeloblastosis
339. Lesions in the pancreas may result from severe dietary deficiency of
(A) selenium
(B) potassium
(C) magnesium
(D) manganese
(E) sodium
Page 63
340. Diphtheritic esophagitis is characteristically seen in ducks affected with

(A) duck virus enteritis
(C) pathogenic avian influenza
(D) Riemerella anatipestifer infection
(E) Salmonellosis
341. Leucocytozonoosis can be diagnosed by microscopic observation of all of the following EXCEPT
(A) gametocytes in erythrocytes
(B) gametocytes in leukocytes
(C) schizonts in tissue cells
(D) schizonts in erythrocytes and leukocytes
342. The hemagglutination-inhibition test can be used to determine the humoral immunity status
to which of the following viral diseases?
(B) Newcastle disease and egg drop syndrome
(C) Newcastle disease and infectious bronchitis
(D) Newcastle disease, egg drop syndrome, and infectious bronchitis
(E) Newcastle disease, egg drop syndrome, and infectious bursal disease
343. Ionophores are active against which developmental stages of Eimeria spp.?
(A) sporozoites
(B) sporozoites and merozoites
(C) sporozoites and gametocytes
(D) merozoites and gametocytes
(E) sporozoites, merozoites, and gametocytes
344. Cell-mediated immunity is known to be important in protection against which of the

following diseases?
(A) Marek's disease, avian encephalomyelitis, and infectious bursal disease
(B) Marek's disease, avian encephalomyelitis, and infectious laryngotracheitis
(C) Marek's disease, avian, infectious laryngotracheitis, and infectious bronchitis
(D) Marek's disease, infectious laryngotracheitis , and pox
(E) Marek's disease, infectious bursal disease, infectious laryngotracheitis, and pox
345. What is the color of the colonies of most isolates of Salmonella on the MacConkey's agar
medium, brilliant green agar medium, and xylose-lysine-tergitol 4 agar (XLT4) medium?
(A) colorless, pink, and black, respectively
(B) pink, pink, and black, respectively
(C) colorless, black, and pink, respectively
(D) pink, pink, and colorless, respectively
(E) black, colorless, and pink, respectively
Page 64
346. Production of misshapen eggs in chickens is a feature associated with which of the
following viral diseases?
(B) egg drop syndrome
(D) infectious bronchitis and egg drop syndrome
(E) infectious bronchitis and avian encephalomyelitis
347. Which of the following caseous localized lesions has NOT been reported to be associated
with chronic cases of fowl cholera?
(A) Swelling of the wattles
(B) arthritis and tendonitis
(C) conjunctivitis
(D) sinusitis
(E) valvular vegetative endocarditis
348. Which of the following salmonellae is NOT host-specific?

(A) S. pullorum and S. gallinarum
(B) S. pullorum and S. arizonae
(C) S. gallinarum and S. typhimurium
(D) S. typhimurium and S. arizonae
(E) S. gallinarum and S. arizonae
349. Pale streaks in the breast and thigh muscles of broiler chickens should arouse suspicion of
deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
(A) folic acid
(B) pantothenic acid
(C) biotin
(D) vitamin E
(E) vitamin A
350. Which of the following is NOT among the suggested causes of urolithiasis in commercial
layers?
(A) infection with certain strains of the infectious bronchitis virus
(B) infection with infectious bursal disease virus
(C) certain mycotoxin
(D) high-calcium diet during growing period
(E) water deprivation
Page 65
351. Which of the following avian species or avian classes do appear to be the major carriers of
avian paramyxovirus serotype 2?
(A) passerines
(B) psittacines
(C) turkeys
(D) pigeons
(E) ducks and geese
352. Which of the following avian mycoplasmas does need nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
(NAD) for its growth?
(B) M. meleagridis
(C) M. synoviae
(D) M. gallisepticum and M. meleagridis
(E) M. gallisepticum and M. synoviae
353. The most important cause of fatty liver hemorrhagic syndrome in caged layers is believed
to be
(A) vitamin E deficiency
(B) positive energy balance
(C) amino acid imbalance
(D) high environmental temperature
(E) mycotoxins
354. Dead, 7-day-old chicks were presented to you because of high mortality in the flock.
Postmortem examination revealed diffuse hemorrhage in the caecal mucosa and, in some
birds, distension of the ceca by white hard cores. Which condition would be the first on your
list of rule-outs?
(A) Eimeria tenella infection
(B) histomoniasis
(C) salmonellosis
(D) necrotic enteritis
(E) colibacillosis
355. A virus was isolated from the intestinal tract of 2-week-old poults from a flock with a clinical
history of diarrhea. The virus agglutinates erythrocytes of guinea pigs and rabbits. This
virus could be
(A) astrovirus
(B) coronavirus
(C) enterovirus
(D) parvovirus
(E) rotavirus
Page 66
356. Trichomoniasis occurs most frequently in which of the following avian species?
(A) pheasants
(B) ducklings
(C) waterfowl
(D) quail
(E) pigeons
357. What is the mean death time in chick embroyos inoculated with a lentogenic strain of
Newcastle disease virus?
(A) >90 hours
(B) 60-90 hours
(C) <60 hours
358. What is the main effect of Mycoplasma iowae on the reproductive performance of turkeys?
(A) decrease in egg production
(B) reduction in fertility
(C) increase in embryonic mortality
(D) decrease in egg production and reduction in hatchabiliy
(E) reduction in fertility and increase in embryonic mortality
359. Which of the following gross lesions is characteristically found in ducks that die of botulism?
(A) white streaks in the breast muscles
(B) hemorrhages in the mucosa of the proventriculus
(C) marked enlargement and paleness of the liver
(D) extensive hemorrhages in the kidneys
360. Which of the following is the most obvious gross lesion in the heart of 2-week-old turkeys
affected with spontaneous cardiomyopathy (round heart disease)?
(A) dilation of the right ventricle
(B) dilation of the left ventricle
(C) hypertrophy of the right ventricle
(D) hypertrophy of the left ventricle
361. Quail bronchitis is caused by

(A) adenovirus
(B) coronavirus
(C) herpesvirus
(D) orthomyxovirus
(E) paramyxovirus
Page 67
362. Which of the following amino acids and vitamins have been shown to alleviate or prevent
fatty liver hemorrhagic syndrome in layers?
(A) folic acid and choline
(B) choline and lysine
(C) lysine and methionine
(D) methionine and choline
(E) folic acid and methionine
363. Layer and breeder flocks are sometimes boosted during the egg production with live
Newcastle disease and infectious bronchitis vaccines. To maintain a protective level of
immunity, and also to avoid vaccine-induced drop in egg production, it is recommended
that boosters be given every
(A) 2-4 weeks
(B) 4-6 weeks
(C) 8-10 weeks
(D) 12-14 weeks
364. Hypoglycemia-spiking mortality syndrome usually affects broiler chicks at the age of
(A) 1-2 days
(B) 3-7 days
(C) 7-14
(D) 14-21
(E) 21-28
365. 14-week-old range turkeys had markedly swollen sinuses. The birds were seronegative for
M. gallisepticum, M. synoviae, and M meleagridis, and attempts to isolate mycoplasma
were unsuccessful. Which of the following infectious agents should be considered as a
possible cause of the problem?
(A) Newcastle disease virus and avian influenza virus
(B) Newcastle disease virus and Bordetella avium
(C) avian influenza virus and Bordetella avium
(D) Newcastle disease virus and Cryptosporidium bailey
(E) avian influenza virus and Cryptosporidium bailey
366. In chicks affected with avian encephalomyelitis, the recommended specimens for viral
isolation include the brain and
(A) liver and spleen
(B) liver and duodenum
(C) spleen and pancreas
(D) duodenum and pancreas
(E) spleen and duodenum
Page 68
367. Earthworm is an important vector in perpetuating the infection with which of the following protozoa?
(A) Trichomonas gallinae
(B) Hexamita meleagridis
(C) Cochlosoma anatis
(D) Histomonas meleagridis
(E) Cryptosporidium spp.
368. A 2-year-old backyard chicken was severely emaciated. Postmortem examination revealed
discrete, yellow to grey nodules in the liver, spleen and serosal surface of the intestine. The
nodules could be readily enucleated from the surrounding tissue. Which condition would be
the first on your list of rule-outs?
(A) chronic aspergillosis
(B) coligranuloma
(C) tuberculosis
(D) lymphoid leukosis
(E) Marek's disease
369. Which of the following is TRUE about ionophorous anticoccidials?

(A) resistance to them is developed more quickly than to synthetic anticoccidials.
(B) their main disadvantage is that they do not allow the birds to develop immunity
against coccidiosis
(C) they are not effective in treating clinical coccidiosis
(D) resistance to them is developed more quickly than to synthetic anticoccidials, and
they are not effective in treating clinical coccidiosis
(E) they are not effective in treating clinical coccidiosis, and their main disadvantage is
that they do not allow the birds to develop immunity against coccidiosis
370. Several birds in a flock of 3-week-old broiler chickens developed neurologic signs of muscle
weakness, ataxia, frequent falling, backward retraction of the head, and lateral recumbency
with paddling movement of the legs. On the basis of clinical signs, and considering the age
of the flock, which of the following diseases would first come to your mind?
(A) bacterial encephalitis.
(B) Marek's disease.
(D) vitamin E deficiency.
(E) ionophore toxicity
371. Nephrosis and increase in the glycogen content of the liver are features of intoxication with
which of the following mycotoxins?
(A) aflatoxin
(B) ochratoxin
(C) citrinin
(D) oosporein
Page 69
372. In necrotic enteritis caused by Clostridium perfringens, gross lesions are primarily
confined to which part(s) of the intestine?
(A) duodenum
(B) jejunum
(C) ileum
(D) duodenum and jejunum
(E) jejunum and ileum
373. Antibodies against egg drop syndrome virus are widely spread in which of the following
avian species or avian classes?
(A) quail
(B) pheasants
(C) quail and pheasants
(D) ducks and geese
(E) psittacines and passerines
374. In the serologic diagnosis of infectious bronchitis in the field, which of the following
serologic test can be used with confidence to determine the serotype of the virus?
(A) immunodiffusion test and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(B) hemagglutination-inhibition test and virus neutralization test
(C) immunodiffusion test, hemagglutination-inhibition test, and virus neutalization test
(D) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, hemagglutination-inhibition test, and virus
neutralization test
375. Which of the following bacteria is NOT a cause of gangrenous dermatitis in chickens?
(C) Clostridium perfringens
(D) Clostridium septicum
376. Certain strains of which of the following avian viruses are nephropathogenic?
(C) Newcastle disease virus
Page 70
377. Cryptosporidium meleagridis infects which of the following organs/sites in turkeys?

(A) small intestine
(B) bursa of Fabricius and cloaca
(C) conjunctiva and nasal turbinates
(D) nasal sinuses, trachea, and bronchi
(E) all of the above
378. Calcium reduces the absorption of which of the following antibacterial medications from the
gastrointestinal tract?
(A) sulfonamides
(B) penicillin
(C) lincomycin
(D) erythromycin
(E) tetracyclines
379. Which of the following clostridial diseases may be tentatively diagnosed by examination of
stained smear made from the cut surface of the liver or spleen?
(A) necrotic enteritis
(B) ulcerative enteritis
(C) necrotic enteritis and ulcerative enteritis
380. Which of the following serologic tests for mycoplasmas is the most reliable for detecting
infected birds within a few days after infection?
(A) serum plate agglutination test
(B) hemagglutination-inhibition test
(C) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(D) serum plate agglutination test and hemagglutination-inhibition test
(E) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and hemagglutination-inhibition test
381. Administration of killed oil-emulsion vaccines may result in many false-positive reactions on
the serum-plate agglutination test. Such false-positive reactions start about how many
weeks after the vaccination?
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
(E) 10 weeks
Page 71
382. Under field conditions, chicks vertically infected with the chicken infectious anemia virus
typically show clinical signs and increase mortality beginning at the age of
(A) 2-5 days
(B) 5-7 days
(C) 10-12 days
(D) 18-21
383. Interstitial myocarditis occurs in chickens affected with arthritis/synovitis caused by which of
the following infectious agents?
(A) reovirus
(B) Mycoplasma synoviae
(D) Escherichia coli
384. Although chickens of all ages are susceptible to avian encephalomyelitis virus, clinical
disease (neurologic signs) occurs only in birds infected vertically and in birds infected
laterally during the first
(A) week of life
(B) two weeks of life
(C) four weeks of life
(D) five weeks of life
385. A quail exhibited neurologic signs. Histopathologic examination of the brain revealed
granulomatous inflammation with roundworm larvae. This condition in quail is caused by
larval migration of which of the following roundworms?
(A) Ascaridia columbae (pigeon roundworm)
(B) Toxocara canis (dog roundworm)
(C) Toxocara cati (cat roundworm)
(D) Ascaris suum (pig roundworm)
(E) Baylisascaris procyonis (raccoon roundworm)
386. It is recommended to vaccinate turkeys with live fowl poxvirus vaccine by which of the
following methods of vaccination?
(A) intramuscular injection
(B) subcutaneous injection
(C) thigh-stick method
(D) wing-web stab
Page 72
387. You entered a house of 2-week-old chicks and you noticed that many chicks were sitting on
their hock joints and disinclined to walk, or walking with stilted gait. Also several chicks
were recumbent on their chests with their legs extended back or laterally. Before examining
the bird, which condition would first come to your mind?
(A) rickets
(B) vitamin B2 deficiency
(C) viral arthritis
(D) bacterial arthritis
(E) tibial dyschondroplasia
388. Evidence indicates that turkeys may contract infection with influenza virus from which of the
following farm animals?
(A) cattle
(B) sheep
(C) pigs
(D) horses
389. Which of the following disinfectants efficiently destroys the oocysts of Eimeria spp.?
(A) iodophors
(B) chlorine-based disinfectants
(C) phenol-based disinfectants
(D) quaternary ammonium compounds
390. Which of the following nutritional-deficiency diseases is commonly associated with rancidity
of polyunsaturated fatty acids in the diet?
(A) rickets
(B) encephalomalacia
(C) curled-toe paralysis
(D) nutritional foot pad dermatitis
391. Generally, the half-life of maternal antibodies of infectious bursal disease is

(A) 2-3 days
(B) 3-6 days
(C) 7-10 days
(D) 10-14 days
392. Which of the following bacteria exhibits polar staining?

(A) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
(B) Bordetella avium
(C) Haemophilus paragallinarum
Page 73
393. Infection with which of the following bacteria would NOT be on your list of rule-outs in
ducklings with gross lesions of fibrinous pericarditis and perihepatitis?
(A) Streptococcus faecium

(C) Riemerella anatipestifer
(E) Salmonella and E. coli
394. Which of the following gross lesions has NOT been reported in layers affected with
hepatitis-liver haemorrhage syndrome?
(A) subcapsular hematoma, or blood clot, on the surface of the liver
(B) mottling and stippling of the liver with red, yellow and/or tan foci
(C) hemorrhage under the capsule of the kidneys
(D) hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
(E) unclotted blood in the abdominal cavity
395. What is the classical clinical manifestation of avian influenza in turkeys and chickens?
(A) respiratory signs
(B) neurologic signs
(C) diarrhea
(D) only high mortality
396. Which of the following gross lesions is most commonly seen in turkeys chronically affected
with erysipelas?
(A) purulent arthritis and vegetative valvular endocarditis
(B) fibrinous pericarditis and vegetative valvular endocarditis
(C) vegetative valvular endocarditis and infarcts in the liver
(D) purulent arthritis and fibrinous pericarditis
(E) infarcts in the liver and fibrinous pericarditis
397. Newcastle disease virus has been classified into how many pathotypes?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Page 74
398. Squamous metaplasia of esophageal glands is a characteristic lesion for

(A) copper toxicity
(B) T-2 mycotoxin toxicity
(C) NaCl toxicity
(D) vitamin A deficiency
(E) biotin or pantothenic acid deficiencies
399. For the detection of Salmonella pullorum infection in turkeys, it is acceptable to use all of
the following serological tests EXCEPT
(A) standard tube agglutination test
(B) rapid serum plate agglutination test
(C) rapid whole-blood test
(D) microagglutination test
400. If you suspect toxicity with an ionophorous anticoccidial in a turkey flock, samples from
which of the following organs/tissues are reliable for histopathologic examination?
(A) leg muscles
(B) heart muscle
(C) leg and heart muscles
(D) peripheral nerves and leg muscles
(E) peripheral nerves and heart muscle
401. How many serotypes of Pasteurella multocida have been defined on the basis of
differences in somatic antigens?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16
402. Which of the following is NOT true about Newcastle disease virus?
(A) it is an avian paramyxovirus serotype 2
(B) it agglutinates erythrocytes of avian, amphibian, and reptilian red blood cells
(C) there is only serotypes of this virus
(D) there are several pathotypes of this virus
(E) the virus can be propagated in both chicken and turkey embryonated eggs
403. Which of the following gross lesions is characteristically found in layers affected with
urolithiasis?
(A) deposition of urate crystals on the surface of visceral organs
(B) atrophy of one or both kidneys
(C) distension of one or both ureters with mucus and/or white
chalky materials
Page 75
404. Which of the following antibacterials is the medication of choice for treating a turkey flock
affected with erysipelas?
(A) penicillin
(B) tetracyclines
(C) erythromycin
(D) lincomycin
(E) sulfonamides
405. Viral arthritis/tenosynovitis is caused by

(A) adenovirus
(B) enterovirus
(C) reovirus
(D) picornavirus
406. If infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT) is suspected in a flock, the inability to detect inclusion
bodies in the tracheal epithelium of the examined birds does not necessarily exclude the
disease; that is because the inclusion bodies of ILT virus
(A) are only formed by the highly pathogenic strains
(B) can only be detected in the early stages of infection
(C) can only be detected by using a special stain in histologic sections
(D) are only seen in tissue sections prepared from the upper part of the trachea
(E) can not be detected in severely damaged trachea
407. Ascites syndrome in meat-type chickens is caused by all of the following EXCEPT
(A) valvular insufficiency
(B) right ventricular failure
(C) increased hydraulic pressure in the blood vascular system
(D) retention of water in the body
408. The colonies of which of the following bacteria do appear pink on the MacConkey's agar
medium?
(B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(C) Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D) Escherichia coli and Bordetella avium
409. How many serotypes of infectious bursal disease virus have been defined?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Page 76
410. How does the bursa of Fabricius look grossly in chickens affected with Marek's disease?
(A) it is usually normal in appearance
(B) it usually has nodular enlargements
(C) it is usually atrophied
(D) it is always diffusely enlarged
411. Seven-day-old chicks were gasping. On necropsy you found only very small caseous nodules
in the lungs and air sacs. Which condition would be the first on your list of rule-outs?
(A) coligranuloma
(B) tuberculosis
(C) Mycoplasma gallisepticum infection
(D) subacute salmonellosis
(E) aspergillosis
412. What is the recommended dosage of piperazine base (piperazine salt) for worming turkeys
infested with Ascaridia dissimilis?
(A) 10-20 mg/lb. body weight
(B) 30-50 mg/lb. body weight
(C) 60-70 mg/lb. body weight
(D) 80-100 mg/lb. body weight
413. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins and/or minerals may lead to chondrodystrophy
that could result in slipping of the gastrocnemius tendon?
(A) manganese and zinc
(B) niacin acid and pyridoxine
(C) choline and biotin
414. Which of the following Streptococcus spp., which can infect poultry, does NOT grow on the
MacConkey's agar (with no sodium chloride or crystal violet)?
(A) S. zooepidemicus
(B) S. faecium
(C) S. avium
(D) S. faecalis
415. Which of the following avian viruses may induce a syndrome in broiler chickens
characterized by partial or complete paralysis that lasts for 1-2 days?
(B) avian encephalomyelitis virus
(C) Newcastle disease virus
(D) avian influenza virus
(E) eastern equine encephalitis virus
Page 77
416. Which of the following antibacterial medications has the longest withdrawal period for
chickens and turkeys?
(A) tetracyclines
(B) erythromycin
(C) penicillin G potassium
(D) amprolium
(E) sulphaquinoxaline
417. Besides chickens, which of the following types of poultry is susceptible to natural infectious
with infectious laryngotracheitis virus?
(A) turkeys
(B) ducks
(C) turkeys and ducks
418. In a turkey flock vaccinated with Newcastle disease (ND) vaccine, infection with which of
the following viruses can cause a rapid anamnestic response in ND hemagglutination-
inhibition (HI) titers?
(A) avian pneumovirus
(B) influenza virus
(C) paramyxovirus serotype 3
(D) adenovirus group I
419. One of the most prominent lesion associated with the early phase of Marek's disease virus
infection in young susceptible chickens is
(A) nodular enlargement of feather follicles
(B) bulging and redness of the scaly tissue of the leg
(C) enlargement of peripheral nerves
(D) enlargement of the spleen
(E) discoloration of the iris
420. Which of the following organs is recommended to culture for the isolation of Clostridium
colinum from chickens affected with ulcerative enteritis?
(A) ileum
(B) cecum
(C) ileum and cecum
(D) spleen
(E) liver and spleen
Page 78
421. Which of the following bacteria can be used as a nurse culture for Haemophilus
paragallinarum?
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Streptococcus zooepidemicus
(C) Streptococcus faecium
(D) Escherichia coli
(E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
422. Which of the following is the definition of valgus deformity in broilers?

(A) outward binding of the shaft of the tibiotarsus
(B) inward angulation of the proximal tibiotarsus
(C) outward angulation of the distal tibiotarsus
(D) outward angulation of the proximal tarsometatarsus
(E) displacement of the gastrocnemius tendon
423. Arthritis, especially of the wrist joints, is a common lesion in which of the following avian
species infected with Salmonella typhimurium?
(A) pigeons
(B) turkeys
(C) ducks
(D) chickens
(E) quail
424. Generally, Mycoplasma synoviae and Mycoplasma meleagridis are sensitive to all of the
following antibacterial medications EXCEPT
(A) fluoroquinolones
(B) oxytetracycline
(C) erythromycin
(D) lincomycin
(E) spectinomycin
425. Which of the following is the cornerstone of any disease-prevention program?

(A) vaccination
(B) preventative medication
(C) biosecurity
(D) serologic monitoring
426. Heterakis gallinarum is a vector for which of the following protozoa?

(A) Histomonas meleagridis
(B) Trichomonas gallinae
(C) Hexamita meleagridis
(D) Entamoeba spp.
Page 79
427. Which of the following gross lesions has NOT been described in goslings and muskovy
ducklings affected with Derzy's disease (goose parvovirus infection)?
(A) greyish-white discoloration of the heart
(B) hydropericardium
(C) ascites
(D) pericarditis and perihepatitis
(E) marked enlargement and mottling of the spleen
428. The egg drop syndrome virus agglutinates erythrocytes of

(A) Chickens and turkeys
(B) ducks and geese
(C) chickens, turkeys, and ducks
(D) chickens, turkeys, and geese
(E) chickens, turkeys, ducks, and geese
429. A dead 10-week-old tom turkey was presented to you for postmortem examination.
External examination revealed blood coming out of the nostrils and the mouth. Before
performing postmortem examination, which of the following conditions would be on your list
of rule-outs?
(A) spontaneous turkey cardiomyopathy
(B) aortic rupture
(C) hemorrhagic angiopathy
(D) hemorrhagic enteritis
430. In general, and in the presence of optimal environmental conditions, oocysts of Eimeria
spp. sporulate outside the host in
(A) 3 to 6 hours
(B) 12 to 20 hours
(C) 1 to 2 days
(D) 3 to 4 days
(E) 4 to 6 days
431. In turkeys affected with hemorrhagic enteritis, which of the following organs has the highest
titer of the virus?
(B) proventriculus
(C) pancreas
(D) liver
(E) spleen
Page 80
432. In general, the antibody level in chicks corresponds to what percentage of the dam's
antibody titer?
(A) 10-20%
(B) 30-40%
(C) 40-60%
(D) 60-80%
433. Which of the following lesions usually occur in the reproductive organs of mature chickens
infected during the first week of life with infectious bronchitis virus?
(A) hypoplastic, inactive ovaries
(B) hypoplasia of the oviducts
(C) thickening of the wall of the oviduct
(D) misshapen discolored ova
434. With which of the following neoplasm-inducing viruses, semen from infected males play a
role in the transmission of the virus?
(B) avian leukosis viruses
(C) Marek's disease and avian leukosis viruses
435. Chickens should be vaccinated against Marek's disease

(A) in the hatchery
(B) at 3 days of age
(C) at 7 days of age
(D) at 14 days of age
436. Serotype 2 of infectious bursal disease virus induces a clinical disease in

(A) chickens
(B) turkeys
(C) chickens and turkeys
437. Which of the following vaccine strains of Mycoplasma gallisepticum is fully pathogenic for
turkeys?
(A) F strain
(B) strain ts-11
(C) strain 6/85
(D) F strain and strain ts-11
(E) F strain and strain 6/85
Page 81
438. Two dead and two severely depressed and paralyzed, 8-month-old backyard chickens
were presented to you for postmortem examination. External examination revealed the
presence of larval ticks on the underneath side of the wing webs. Postmortem examination
of the four birds revealed markedly enlarged and mottled spleens. What would be your
tentative diagnosis?
(A) avian adenovirus-induced splenomegaly
(B) Marek's disease
(C) lymphoid leukosis
(D) spirochetosis
(E) tuberculosis
439. Tibial dyschondroplasia has been induced in chickens with a ration contaminated with
which of the following mycotoxins
(A) ochratoxin
(B) trichothecenes
(C) fusarochromanone
(D) zearalenone
(E) oosporein
440. What is the recommended duration of treatment with piperazine in turkeys for Ascaridia
dissimilis infestation?
(A) 4-6 hours
(B) 12-24 hours
(C) 24-36 hors
(D) 3-5 days
(E) 5-7 days
441. What is the main impact of Mycoplasma gallisepticum infection on egg production in
commercial layers
(A) deterioration of the quality of eggshell
(B) deterioration of the internal quality of the eggs
(C) production of fewer eggs than non-infected flocks
(D) production of fewer eggs than non-infected flocks and deterioration of egg-shell
quality
(E) production of fewer eggs than non-infected flocks and deterioration of the internal
quality of the eggs
Page 82
442. There was a sudden increase in mortality in a flock of 10-day-old broiler chicks. Clinical
signs in affected birds included apparent blindness, fine head tremor, ataxia, and coma.
Histopathologic examination of brains from affected birds revealed no microscopic lesions.
The most likely condition was
(B) salmonellosis
(C) mycotic encephalitis
(D) vitamin B1 deficiency
(E) spiking mortality syndrome
443. Perosis is an obsolete term which has been replaced by the term
(A) dyschondroplasia
(C) osteoporosis
(D) osteopenia
(E) osteopetrosis
444. Poult enteritis-mortality syndrome (spiking mortality syndrome) typically affect young
turkeys at the age of
(A) 1-7 days
(B) 3-10 days
(C) 7-14 days
(D) 7-28 days
(E) 21-35 days
445. Which of the following bacteria is an important cause of sinusitis in young turkey poults?
(A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(C) Proteus spp.
(D) Pasteurella hemolytica
(E) Escherichia coli
446. The egg drop syndrome virus can be isolated in embryonated eggs of which of
(A) chicken
(B) chickens and turkeys
(C) ducks and geese
(D) chickens and ducks
(E) chickens, turkeys, ducks, and geese
Page 83
447. Which of the following avian viruses is NOT enveloped, and therefore may not be
inactivated by detergent?
(A) influenza virus
(B) infectious bursal disease virus
(C) infectious bronchitis virus
(E) Newcastle Disease virus
448. Which of the following bacteria has been frequently isolated from the subcutaneous facial
tissues of chickens affected with swollen head syndrome?
(A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(B) Escherichia coli
(D) Streptococcus faecium
(E) Streptococcus faecalis
449. All isolates of "highly pathogenic" avian influenza virus are of which of the following
haemagglutinin subtypes?
(A) H3 and H7
(B) H5 and H7
(C) H1 and H3
(D) H1 and H5
(E) H1 and H7
450. Which of the following salmonellae does commonly cause salmonellosis in pigeons?
(A) S. enteritidis
(B) S. typhimurium
(C) S. montevideo
(D) S. virchow
(E) S. arizonae
451. In addition to the lymphocytes, which of the following cells may be seen in large numbers in
the cellular infiltrate in peripheral nerves of some chickens affected with Marek's disease?
(A) Plasma cells
(B) macrophages
(C) heterophils
(D) eosinophils
(E) basophils
Page 84
452. Which of the following avian leukoses is characterized by a spectacular leukemia?

(D) myeloblastosis
453. Intranuclear inclusion bodies in the spleens of turkeys are diagnostic for which of the
following avian viruses?
(A) group I avian adenovirus
(B) avian paramyxovirus serotype 3
(C) avian paramyxovirus serotype 6
(D) turkey viral hepatitis virus
454. Soap and other anionic detergents reduce the microbicidal activity of which of the following
disinfectants?
(A) chlorine
(B) phenol
(C) cresol
(D) iodophor
(E) quaternary ammonium
455. Which of the following internal parasites does require an intermediate host for
development?
(A) Ascaridia dissimilis
(B) Ascaridia galli
(C) Heterakis gallinarum
(D) Ascaridia dissimilis and Ascaridia galli
456. The highest incidence of deep pectoral myopathy occurs in

(A) turkey breeder hens
(B) meat-type turkeys
(C) broiler breeder hens
(D) broiler chickens
(E) commercial layers
457. Which of the following Eimeria spp. of chickens is pathogenic for turkeys?
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. mitis
(C) E. praecox
(D) E. hagani
Page 85
458. In vitamin A deficiency, histopathologic lesions may be found in which of the following
organs/tissues?
(A) nasal passages
(B) trachea
(C) trachea and esophagus
(D) nasal passages and trachea
(E) nasal passages, trachea, and esophagus
459. Bordetella avium is primarily a pathogen of turkeys and

(A) chickens
(B) ducks and geese
(C) chickens, ducks, and geese
460. Which ventricle of the heart of domestic poultry extends only about two thirds of the way to
apex of the heart?
(A) right ventricle
(B) left ventricle
(C) both right and left ventricles
461. Spirochetosis can be diagnosed by demonstrating Borrelia anserina in blood or organ

(spleen and liver) smears stained with
(A) methylene blue
(B) Wright's stain
(C) methylene blue or Giemsa stain
(D) Wright stain or Giemsa stain
(E) Giemsa stain, methylene blue, or Wright's stain
462. Which of the following medications is NOT effective in treating clinical coccidiosis?
(A) amprolium
(B) halofuginone
(C) tartazuril
(D) sulfaquinoxaline
463. Which of the following conditions has been associated with the Highlands J virus (a distinct
virus in the western equine encephalitis antigenic group of alphaviruses) infection in turkey
breeder hens?
(A) neurologic signs
(B) respiratory signs
(C) severe enteritis
(D) severe drop in egg production with changes in egg shell quality
(E) none of the above (subclinical infection)
Page 86
464. A 5-year-old child entered a chicken barn and handled birds. Forty-four hours later, the
child developed abdominal pain and severe diarrhea. Salmonella was not isolated from
fecal specimen from the child. Which of the following bacteria in the poultry barn could
potentially cause this kind of illness in the child?
(A) streptococcus faecalis
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D) Campylobacter jejuni
(E) Pasteurella multocida
465. What concentration of erythrocyte suspension should be used in the hemagglutination-

inhibition test for Newcastle disease virus?
(A) 0.25%
(B) 0.5%
(C) 1%
(D) 1.25%
(E) 1.50%
466. In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) plate-statistic reports, the

negative/positive cut off point of which of the following assay results does indicate the
presence or absence of antibody titer in the tested serum?
(A) optical density
(B) serum to positive ratio
(C) average positive control serum
(D) average negative control serum
(E) corrected positive control
467. Which of the following anthelmintics is effective against Heterakis gallinarum?

(A) piperazine
(B) hygromycin B
(C) hygromycin B and fenbendazole
(D) piperazine and fenbendazole
(E) hygromycin B and piperazine
468. Which of the following Clostridium spp. are NOT anaerobes?

(A) C. perfringens and C. colinum
(B) C. perfringens and C. septicum
(C) C. septicum and C. chauvoei
(D) C. difficile, C. sordellii, and C. botulinum
Page 87
469. You found large numbers of flagellated, moving protozoa in mucosal scrapings of dilated
small intestines of 10-week-old turkeys from a flock with a clinical history of diarrhea. The
protozoa appeared to have prominent ventral sucker-like apparatus. Giemsa-stained
impression smears showed that the parasite had single nucleus. Which of the following
protozoa would first come to your mind?
(A) Hexamita meleagridis
(B) Histomonas meleagridis
(D) Chilomastix gallinarum
(E) Entamoeba spp.
470. Which of the following clostridial diseases should always be considered as the result of a
problem of immunosuppression?
(A) necrotic enteritis
(B) ulcerative enteritis
(C) gangrenous dermatitis
(D) necrotic enteritis and ulcerative dermatitis
(E) ulcerative enteritis and gangrenous dermatitis
471. There are documented cases of transmission of which of the following neoplasm-inducing
viruses through the use of contaminated vaccines?
(B) avian leukosis viruses
(C) reticuloendotheliosis virus
(D) lymphoproliferative disease virus
472. During postmortem examination of in-lay commercial layers, which of the following bones
are usually checked for the presence of medullary bone?
(A) tarsometatarsal
(B) tibiotarsal
(C) femur
(D) humerus
(E) skull
473. In the hemagglutination-inhibition test (β procedure), the antibody titer is the

(A) highest dilution of serum at which there is complete inhibition of hemagglutination
(B) lowest dilution of serum at which there is complete inhibition of hemagglutination
(C) highest dilution of serum at which there is complete hemagglutination
(D) lowest dilution of serum at which there is complete hemagglutination
Page 88
474. In addition to chickens and turkeys, natural host for reticuloendotheliosis virus infection
include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) ducks and geese
(B) pheasants
(C) Japanese quail
(D) pigeons
475. Cloacal swabs are primarily useful for the isolation of which of the following mycoplasmas
from infected chickens and/or turkeys?
(B) M. synoviae
(C) M. meleagridis
(D) M. gallisepticum and M. synoviae
(E) M. synoviae and M. meleagridis
476. Characteristic histopathologic lesions in the cerebellum of chickens affected with nutritional
encephalomalacia include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) focal areas of necrosis in the cerebellar medullary rays
(B) edema, congestion of blood vessels, and hemorrhages
(C) fibrin thrombi in capillaries
(D) degeneration of neurons
(E) infiltration of heterophils
477. Which of the following Eimeria spp. of turkeys is the least pathogenic?
(A) E. adenoides
(B) E. dispersa
(C) E. gallopavonis
(D) E. meleagrimitis
478. Postmortem examination of three emaciated pigeons revealed small circumscribed

caseous areas on the surface of the oral mucosa and white to yellow circular masses on
the surface of the livers. Based on these gross lesions, what is your tentative diagnosis?
(A) herpesvirus infection
(B) tuberculosis
(C) mycotoxicosis
(D) trichomoniasis
(E) candidiasis
Page 89
479. Which of the following Eimeria spp. of chickens is the least pathogenic?
(A) E. acervulina
(B) E. brunetti
(C) E. maxima
(D) E. necatrix
(E) E. tenella
480. It has been documented that pigs are an important source of infection of turkeys with which
of the following subtypes of avian influenza virus?
(A) H1N1
(B) H1N2
(C) H1N3
(D) H2N5
(E) H2N7
481. Many birds in a flock of 2-week-old chicks exhibited clinical signs of leg weakness
(paralysis). The birds were reluctant to move or walked on their hocks with the aid of their
wings. In some birds, the toes were bent inward and downward. Postmortem examination
revealed thickening of sciatic nerves. Which of the following conditions would be first on
your list of rule-outs?
(A) Marek's disease
(C) riboflavin deficiency
(D) thiamin deficiency
(E) organic arsenic toxicity
482. Newly hatched chicks may be vaccinated in the hatchery with live vaccines for which of the
following diseases?
(B) infectious bronchitis and Newcastle disease
(C) Newcastle disease and infectious laryngotracheitis
(D) infectious bronchitis and avian encephalomyelitis
(E) Newcastle disease, infectious bronchitis, and avian encephalomyelitis
Page 90
483. Postmortem examination of 5-week-old broiler chickens revealed hemorrhages in the skin
and skeletal muscles, ecchymotic and petechial hemorrhages in the entire length of the
small intestine, and "paintbrush" hemorrhages in the myocardium. Microscopically, there
was depletion of lymphocytes in the spleen and bursa of Fabricius, degeneration and
necrosis of tubular epithelium in the kidneys, and atrophy of hematopoietic tissue in the
bone marrow. Which of the following conditions would be first on your list of rule-outs?
(A) aflatoxicosis
(B) sulfonamide toxicity
(C) chicken infectious anemia
(E) acute bacterial septicemia
484. Which of the following gross lesions is characteristically found in turkeys that die of
hemorrhagic angiopathy (perirenal hemorrhage)
(A) Small, pale spleens
(B) markedly enlarged, pale livers
(C) markedly enlarged, congested and edematous lungs
(D) markedly pale myocardium
(E) large amount of blood in the abdominal cavity
485. Both of paratyphoid salmonellae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce pale (colorless)
colonies on the MacConkey's agar. Which of the following biochemical tests would
differentiate between them?
(A) oxidase
(B) indole test
(C) catalase test
486. Different strains of which of the following avian mycoplasmas differ in virulence?
(B) M. gallisepticum and M. meleagridis
(C) M. gallisepticum and M. synoviae
(D) M. meleagridis and M. synoviae
(E) M. gallisepticum, M. synoviae and M. meleagridis
487. Softening and distortion of the trachea in turkey poults with respiratory signs are strongly
suggestive of infection with
(A) Cryptosporidium spp.
(B) Bordetella avium
(C) Mycoplasma gallisepticum
(D) adenovirus
(E) pneumovirus
Page 91
488. Anticoccidials are usually used in the feed of turkeys for the first how many weeks of life?
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 8 weeks
(D) 12 weeks
(E) 14 weeks
489. Commercial antigen-capture enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) kits for avian
leukosis viruses detect which of the following virus proteins?
(A) group specific antigen (P27)
(B) surface envelope gp85
(C) surface envelope gp37
(D) reverse transcriptase
490. The activity of which of the following disinfectant is NOT reduced in the presence of organic
material?
(A) quaternary ammonium compounds
(B) phenols
(C) iodophors
(D) chlorine
491. Which of the following incubation problems does cause a condition in newly hatched chicks
known as "red hocks"?
(A) low temperature
(B) high temperature
(C) too low humidity
(D) too high humidity
492. Cell-associated vaccines of Marek's Disease should be stored in/at

(A) room temperature
(B) refrigerator
(C) 0 o to -10o C
(D) -10o to -20o C
(E) liquid nitrogen
493. Poultry can efficiently utilize which type of vitamin D?

(A) D2
(B) D3
(C) D2 and D3
Page 92
494. The anticoccidial zoalene has been reported to be incompatible with which of the following
antibacterial medications?
(A) sulfonamides
(B) bambermycin
(C) virginiamycin
(D) bacitracin
(E) nitrofurans
495. Which of the following antiprotozoal medications is NOT an organic aresenical?

(A) roxarsone
(B) nitrasone
(C) dimetridazole
(D) robenidine
496. Piperazine is effective against which of the following developmental stages of Ascaridia
dissimilis in turkeys?
(A) adult worms
(B) larval stage 4
(C) larval stages 3 and 4
(D) adult worms and larval stage 4
(E) adult worms and larval stage 3 and 4
497. Which of the following protozoal parasites does cause catarrhal enteritis in poults, has two
nuclei and eight flagellae, and may be found in large number in crypts of duodenums upon
histopathologic examination?
(A) Histomonas meleagridis
(B) Hexamita meleagridis
(D) Chilomastix gallinarum
(E) Entamoeba spp.
498. With which of vaccine strains of Mycoplasma gallisepticum, the positive antibody-response
(as measured by conventional antigens) is usually absent?
(A) F strain
(B) strain 6/85
(C) strain ts-11
(D) F strain and strain 6/85
(E) strains 6/85 and ts-11
Page 93
499. Which of the following subgroups of avian leukosis virus are the most common exogenous
viruses in the field, which give rise to tumours of bursal derived cells?
(A) subgroups A and B
(B) subgroups A and C
(C) subgroups A and D
(D) subgroups B and C
(E) subgroups B and D
500. A sporulated oocyst of Eimeria spp. of chickens and turkeys contains

(A) two sporocysts, each of which contains two sporozoites
(B) two sporocysts, each of which contains four sporozoites
(C) four sporocysts, each of which contains two sporozoites
(D) four sporocysts, each of which contains four sporozoites
Page 94
KEYED ANSWERS
1. (B) 26. (E) 51. (E) 76. (D)
2. (E) 27. (A) 52. (B) 77. (C)
3. (A) 28. (B) 53. (D) 78. (A)
4. (E) 29. (A) 54. (E) 79. (D)
5. (C) 30. (D) 55. (A) 80. (C)
6. (B) 31. (C) 56. (E) 81. (D)
7. (D) 32. (A) 57. (E) 82. (B)
8. (B) 33. (C) 58. (D) 83. (B)
9. (C) 34. (B) 59. (B) 84. (B)
10. (C) 35. (C) 60. (C) 85. (A)
11. (D) 36. (B) 61. (E) 86. (B)
12. (C) 37. (A) 62. (D) 87. (B)
13. (A) 38. (A) 63. (C) 88. (C)
14. (B) 39. (C) 64. (D) 89. (C)
15. (A) 40. (C) 65. (E) 90. (A)
16. (D) 41. (D) 66. (E) 91. (E)
17. (B) 42. (B) 67. (D) 92. (C)
18. (E) 43. (C) 68. (B) 93. (C)
19. (A) 44. (B) 69. (C) 94. (D)
20. (E) 45. (C) 70. (A) 95. (E)
21. (C) 46. (B) 71. (B) 96. (E)
22. (A) 47. (D) 72. (C) 97. (A)
23. (A) 48. (E) 73. (B) 98. (C)
24. (E) 49. (E) 74. (C) 99. (C)
25. (C) 50. (B) 75. (E) 100. (E)
Page 95
KEYED ANSWERS
101. (B) 126. (C) 151. (D) 176. (D)
102. (A) 127. (E) 152. (E) 177. (D)
103. (C) 128. (C) 153. (B) 178. (A)
104. (D) 129. (D) 154. (D) 179. (D)
105. (B) 130. (C) 155. (C) 180. (A)
106. (E) 131. (C) 156. (C) 181. (A)
107. (C) 132. (E) 157. (B) 182. (E)
108. (C) 133. (B) 158. (C) 183. (C)
109. (B) 134. (E) 159. (C) 184. (B)
110. (C) 135. (C) 160. (D) 185. (A)
111. (A) 136. (A) 161. (D) 186. (C)
112. (C) 137. (C) 162. (A) 187. (E)
113. (A) 138. (A) 163. (D) 188. (E)
114. (B) 139. (E) 164. (C) 189. (B)
115. (E) 140. (E) 165. (C) 190. (A)
116. (D) 141. (A) 166. (D) 191. (B)
117. (B) 142. (C) 167. (A) 192. (A)
118. (D) 143. (B) 168. (B) 193. (E)
119. (B) 144. (A) 169. (A) 194. (D)
120. (D) 145. (E) 170. (D) 195. (E)
121. (E) 146. (E) 171. (D) 196. (A)
122. (C) 147. (D) 172. (B) 197. (A)
123. (B) 148. (B) 173. (A) 198. (B)
124. (D) 149. (A) 174. (B) 199. (A)
125. (B) 150. (C) 175. (D) 200. (C)
Page 96
KEYED ANSWERS
201. (E) 226. (E) 251. (B) 276. (D)
202. (A) 227. (C) 252. (C) 277. (D)
203. (D) 228. (A) 253. (C) 278. (B)
204. (D) 229. (C) 254. (B) 279. (B)
205. (C) 230. (C) 255. (C) 280. (D)
206. (B) 231. (E) 256. (E) 281. (A)
207. (A) 232. (D) 257. (E) 282. (B)
208. (D) 233. (A) 258. (E) 283. (D)
209. (B) 234. (A) 259. (D) 284. (E)
210. (C) 235. (C) 260. (D) 285. (D)
211. (E) 236. (B) 261. (C) 286. (D)
212. (D) 237. (B) 262. (A) 287. (D)
213. (C) 238. (E) 263. (B) 288. (C)
214. (B) 239. (B) 264. (B) 289. (B)
215. (D) 240. (D) 265. (B) 290. (C)
216. (A) 241. (C) 266. (E) 291. (A)
217. (D) 242. (C) 267. (D) 292. (C)
218. (C) 243. (E) 268. (C) 293. (C)
219. (B) 244. (A) 269. (C) 294. (D)
220. (E) 245. (A) 270. (A) 295. (E)
221. (A) 246. (D) 271. (D) 296. (A)
222. (A) 247. (A) 272. (C) 297. (C)
223. (D) 248. (E) 273. (A) 298. (A)
224. (A) 249. (C) 274. (C) 299. (C)
225. (A) 250. (E) 275. (E) 300. (B)
Page 97
KEYED ANSWERS
301. (C) 326. (D) 351. (A) 376. (B)
302. (B) 327. (C) 352. (C) 377. (A)
303. (B) 328. (B) 353. (B) 378. (E)
304. (C) 329. (B) 354. (C) 379. (B)
305. (D) 330. (C) 355. (B) 380. (A)
306. (B) 331. (D) 356. (E) 381. (A)
307. (B) 332. (C) 357. (A) 382. (C)
308. (D) 333. (E) 358. (C) 383. (A)
309. (A) 334. (E) 359. (E) 384. (B)
310. (C) 335. (E) 360. (A) 385. (E)
311. (D) 336. (D) 361. (A) 386. (C)
312. (A) 337. (C) 362. (D) 387. (A)
313. (A) 338. (A) 363. (C) 388. (C)
314. (E) 339. (A) 364. (C) 389. (E)
315. (C) 340. (A) 365. (E) 390. (B)
316. (E) 341. (D) 366. (D) 391. (B)
517. (C) 342. (D) 367. (D) 392. (D)
318. (C) 343. (A) 368. (C) 393. (B)
319. (D) 344. (D) 369. (C) 394. (C)
320. (C) 345. (A) 370. (D) 395. (A)
321. (E) 346. (C) 371. (B) 396. (A)
322. (B) 347. (E) 372. (E) 397. (B)
323. (C) 348. (D) 373. (D) 398. (D)
324. (C) 349. (D) 374. (E) 399. (C)
325. (E) 350. (B) 375. (A) 400. (C)
Page 98
KEYED ANSWERS
401. (D) 426. (A) 451. (A) 476. (E)
402. (A) 427. (E) 452. (D) 477. (B)
403. (D) 428. (E) 453. (E) 478. (D)
404. (A) 429. (B) 454. (E) 479. (A)
405. (C) 430. (C) 455. (E) 480. (A)
406. (B) 431. (E) 456. (B) 481. (C)
407. (D) 432. (D) 457. (E) 482. (B)
408. (A) 433. (B) 458. (E) 483. (B)
409. (B) 434. (B) 459. (D) 484. (C)
410. (C) 435. (A) 460. (A) 485. (A)
411. (E) 436. (D) 461. (E) 486. (E)
412. (B) 437. (A) 462. (B) 487. (B)
413. (D) 438. (D) 463. (D) 488. (C)
414. (A) 439. (C) 464. (D) 489. (A)
415. (A) 440. (A) 465. (B) 490. (B)
416. (E) 441. (C) 466. (B) 491. (C)
417. (D) 442. (E) 467. (C) 492. (E)
418. (C) 443. (B) 468. (E) 493. (B)
419. (B) 444. (D) 469. (C) 494. (E)
420. (E) 445. (A) 470. (C) 495. (D)
421. (A) 446. (C) 471. (C) 496. (A)
422. (C) 447. (B) 472. (C) 497. (B)
423. (A) 448. (B) 473. (A) 498. (B)
424. (C) 449. (B) 474. (D) 499. (A)
425. (C) 450. (B) 475. (C) 500. (C)
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It is a great honor to have been asked by Dr. Abdul-Aziz to write an introduction to

Robert L. Owen, V.M.D., Ph.D.,

2. Consolidation of one or both lungs (pneumonia) is a frequent gross lesion in turkeys

8. Duck hepatitis virus type 2 has been classified as

10. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by herpesvirus?

13. Which type of influenza virus does cause avian influenza?

32. Irregular thickening of the bones of legs in chickens refers to as

34. In histomoniasis, flagellated Histomonas meleagridis can be demonstrated in wet smears

41. Derzy's disease in goslings is caused by

49. Which of the following neoplasm-induce viruses is egg-transmitted?

50. How many serotypes of Haemophilus paragallinarum have been defined?

66. Which of the following insecticides are effective against mites?

70. The etiology of hemorrhagic enteritis in turkeys is

75. Which of the following viruses is NOT egg-transmitted?

82. Spondylolisthesis in chickens results from subluxation of the

86. Which of the following anticoccidials is an ionophore?

88. Coligranulomas occur in which of the following organs?

89. Knemidocoptes mutans induces which of the following lesions in chickens?

92. Which of the following diseases is characterized histotpathologically by the presence of

94. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins results in dermatitis in chickens?

96. Which of the following mycotoxins is primarily nephrotoxic?

105. Identification of microorganisms by the polymerase-chain reaction is based on the

110. Which of the following is TRUE about Ornithobacterium rhinotracheale?

117. The diagnosis of trichomoniasis is usually confirmed in the laboratory by the

120. What is the cause of deep pectoral myopathy?

125. How many Cryptosporidium spp. has been recognized in turkeys?

137. Rotation program for anticoccidials refers to

140. Which of the following Salmonella spp. is motile?

143. Dyschondroplasia in poultry is primarily an abnormal development of the

144. What is the major type of antibody found in the yolk?

149. Paramyxovirus serotype 3 (PMV-3) infection was suspected in a flock of 40-week-old

151. In domestic fowl and turkeys, antibodies are produced in the

157. Which of the following neoplastic diseases is highly contagious?

161. Eimeria spp. of turkeys include all of the following EXCEPT

164. Which of the following is TRUE about Salmonella arizonae?

165. With coarse-spray vaccination, the size of the droplet would be

167. Uncomplicated outbreaks of bordetellosis in 4-week-old turkey flock are characterized by

169. Massive accumulation of catarrhal exudate in the infraorbital sinuses of turkeys is

178. Necrotic enteritis is most frequently caused by Clostridium perfringens type

180. For detecting/identifying microorganisms, the polymerase-chain-reaction (PCR) is a test

183. Tumors of which of the following avian leukoses/sarcomas do characteristically occur on

(A) the first

221. Cage layer fatigue is also called

224. Which of the following is a frequent finding in starved-out turkey poults?

232. Duck hepatitis virus types 1 and 3 have been classified as

235. Which of the following antiprotozoal medications is effective in preventing or treating

246. The term coccidiasis means

251. Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive?

254. Sarcocystosis can be diagnosed by histopathologic examination of which of the following

257. Serotyping of salmonellae is based on the differences in which antigen?

261. Egg drop syndrome is caused by

(A) H120 < Conn < Mass

304. Which of the following is TRUE about articular gout in chickens?

305. The so-called field rickets in turkeys is most likely caused by

308. If you use the hemagglutination-inhibition test to detect seroconversion to avian

313. How many Cryptosporidium spp. has been recognized in chickens?

314. The hemagglutination-inhibition test can distinguish between paramyxovirus serotype 1

323. All isolates of paratyphoid salmonellae are resistant to

327. Turkey syndrome 65 is caused by

337. Histopathologic examination of tracheas from chickens affected with respiratory

340. Diphtheritic esophagitis is characteristically seen in ducks affected with

344. Cell-mediated immunity is known to be important in protection against which of the