REC-085

WIRELESS & MOBILE COMMUNICATION

UNIT- V

GSM

1. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation and
network level architecture?
a) GSM
b) AMPS
c) CDMA
d) IS-54
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: GSM was the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation and level
architectures and services. It is the world’s most popular 2G technology. It was developed to
solve the fragmentation problems of the first cellular systems in Europe.

2. Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the mid-1980s GSM was called by the name Groupe special mobile. In 1992,
GSM changed its name to Global System for Mobile Communication for marketing reasons.

3. Who sets the standards of GSM?

a) ITU
b) AT & T
c) ETSI
d) USDC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The setting of standards for GSM is under the aegis of the European Technical
Standards Institute (ETSI). GSM task was to specify a common mobile communication system
for Europe in the 900 MHZ band.
4. Which of the following does not come under the teleservices of GSM?
a) Standard mobile telephony
b) Mobile originated traffic
c) Base originated traffic
d) Packet switched traffic
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: GSM services follow ISDN guidelines and are classified as either teleservices or
data services. Teleservices include standard mobile telephony and mobile originated or base
originated traffic.

5. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?

a) Emergency calling
b) Packet switched protocols
c) Call diversion
d) Standard mobile telephony
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Supplementary ISDN services are digital in nature. They include call diversion,
closed user groups, and caller identification, and are not available in analog mobile networks.
Supplementary services also include short messaging service (SMS).

6. Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber’s identification
number in GSM?
a) Register
b) Flip flop
c) SIM
d) SMS
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: SIM (subscriber identity module) is a memory device that stores information such
as the subscriber’s identification number, the networks and countries where the subscriber is
entitled to service, privacy keys, and other user specific information.

7. Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio transmission?
a) SIM
b) On the air privacy
c) SMS
d) Packet switched traffic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The on the air privacy feature of GSM makes impossible to eavesdrop on a GSM
radio transmission. The privacy is made possible by encrypting the digital bit stream sent by a
GSM transmitter, according to a specific secret cryptographic key that is known only to the
cellular carrier.

8. Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) Channel
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The GSM architecture consists of three major interconnected subsystems that
interact between themselves and with the users through certain network interfaces. The
subsystems are BSS (Base Station Subsystem), NSS (Network and Switching Subsystem) and
OSS (Operation Support Subsystem).

9. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between mobile station and
MSC?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) BSC
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The BSS provides and manages radio transmission paths between the mobile
stations and the Mobile Switching Center (MSC). It also manages the radio interface between the
mobile stations and all other subsystems of GSM.

10. ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: NSS (Network and Switching Subsystem) manages the switching functions of the
system. It allows the MSCs to communicate with other networks such as PSTN and ISDN.
11. __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The OSS (Operation Support Subsystem) supports the operation and maintenance
of GSM. It allows system engineers to monitor, diagnose, and troubleshoot all aspects of GSM.

12. __________ carries digitally encoded user data.

a) Traffic channels
b) Control channels
c) Signalling channels
d) Forward channels
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Traffic channels carry digitally encoded user speech or user data. It has identical
functions and formats on both the forward and reverse links.

13. ____________ carries signalling and synchronizing commands.

a) Traffic channels
b) Control channels
c) Signalling channels
d) Forward channels
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Control channels carry signalling and synchronizing commands between the base
station and mobile station. Certain types of control channels are defined for just the forward or
reverse link.

14. Which of the following is not a control channel of GSM?

a) BCH
b) CCCH
c) DCCH
d) TCH
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are three main control channels in the GSM system. These are the broadcast
channel (BCH), the common control channel (CCCH) and the dedicated control channel
(DCCH). Each control channel consists of several logical channels.

15. Which of the following is the forward control channel that is used to broadcast information?
a) BCCH
b) CCCH
c) DCCH
d) TCH
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The broadcast control channel (BCCH) is a forward channel that is used to
broadcast information such as cell and network identity, and operating characteristics of the cell.

16. Which of the following channel does not come under CCCH?
a) PCH
b) RACH
c) DCCH
d) AGCH
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: CCCH consists of three different channels. They are paging channel (PCH), which
is a forward link channel, the random access channel (RACH) which is a reverse link channel,
and the access grant channel (AGCH) which is a forward link channel.

17. Which of the following channel provides paging signals from base station to all mobiles in
the cell?
a) RACH
b) AGCH
c) DCCH
d) PCH
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The PCH provides paging signals from the base station to all mobiles in the cell. It
notifies a specific mobile of an incoming call which originates from the PSTN.

18. ___________ is a reverse link channel used by a subscriber unit to acknowledge.

a) RACH
b) AGCH
c) DCCH
d) PCH
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The RACH (Random Access Channel) is a reverse link channel used by a
subscriber unit to acknowledge a page from the PCH. It is also used by mobiles to originate a
call.

19. Which of the following channel is used by base station to provide forward link
communication to mobile?
a) RACH
b) AGCH
c) DCCH
d) PCH
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The AGCH (Access Grant Channel) is used by the base station to provide forward
link communication to the mobile. It carries data which instructs the mobile to operate in a
particular physical channel with particular dedicated control channel.

20. Which of the following burst is used to broadcast the frequency and time synchronization
control messages?
a) FCCH and SCH
b) TCH and DCCH
c) RACH and TCH
d) FCCH and DCCH
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: FCCH and SCH burst are used to broadcast the frequency and time synchronization
control messages. They are used in TS0 of specific frames.

21. Which of the following burst is used to access service from any base station?
a) TCH
b) RACH
c) SCH
d) FCCH
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Each user transmits a burst of data during the time slot assigned to it. The RACH
burst is used by all mobiles to access service from any base station, and dummy burst is used as
filter information for unused timeslots on forward link.

22. Group of superframes in GSM is called multiframe.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Each of the normal speech frames are grouped into larger structures called
multiframes. These multiframes are grouped into superframes and hyperframes.

GPRS & EDGE

1) GPRS stands for?

A) General Packet Repair Service
B) General Packet Radio Service
C) Graphics Packet Radio Service
D) None
Answer [=]
B

2) What is the data rate or speed offered by a GPRS connection?

A) 56-115kbps
B) 9-256kbps
C) 64-128kbps
D) None
Answer [=]
A
Explanation:
115kbps is the maximum. Minimum can be anything in reality based on many parameters.

3) GPRS services belong to which generation?

A) 1G
B) 2G
C) 3G
D) 4G
Answer [=]
B

4) Choose a correct abbreviation below.

A) SGSN - Serving GPRS Support Node
B) GGSN - Gateway GPRS Support Node
C) IP - Internet Protocol
D) All
Answer [=]
D

5) Choose a correct Abbreviation below.

A) PCU - Packet Control Unit
B) CG - Charging Gateway
C) BG - Border Gateway
D) All
Answer [=]
D

6) Choose a correct Abbreviation below.

A) PCU - Packet Control Unit
B) CCU - Channel Codec Unit
C) GTP - GPRS Tunneling Protocol
D) All
Answer [=]
D

7) GPRS is a Connection Oriented service. True/False?

A) False
B) True
C) -
D) -
Answer [=]
A
Explanation:
GPRS is a connection less service. It is a Packet data service. No continuous connection from
Start to End is required.

8) GPRS is a Circuit Switched Data (CSD) service. True/False?

A) False
B) True
C) -
D) -
Answer [=]
A
Explanation:
No, GPRS is a PSD device. P is for Packet.

9) GPRS uses which unused channels for transportation of Data in general?

A) SDCCH
B) BCCH
C) TCH
D) SCH
Answer [=]
C
Explanation:
Yes, TCH (Traffic Channel).

10) Type-A Mobile Station supports ________.

A) Only Speech
B) Only Data
C) Speech and Data Simultaneously
D) Speech or Data one at a time.
Answer [=]
C

11) Type-B Mobile Station supports _______.

A) Speech only
B) GPRS only
C) GPRS or Speech One at a time
D) GPRS and Speech simultaneously
Answer [=]
C

12) Type-C Mobile Station supports _______.

A) Speech only
B) Data only
C) Speech and Data simultaneously
D) Speech or Data automatically
Answer [=]
B
Explanation:
Data Dongles.

13) What is the abbreviation of EDGE?

A) Enhanced Digital Generation Gap
B) Enhanced Data rate for GSM Evolution
C) Encryption Data rate for GSM Evolution
D) None
Answer [=]
B

14) What is the maximum speed offered by an EDGE connection?

A) 64kbps
B) 128kbps
C) 256kbps
D) 236 kbps
Answer [=]
D

15) An EDGE connection is ______?

A) CS data
B) PS data
C) CS and PS data
D) None
Answer [=]
C
Explanation:
CS - Circuit Switched
PS - Packet Switched

16) A PCU separates Packet  Switched and Circuit Switched traffic and passes PSD to _______?
A) MSS
B) SGSN
C) GGSN
D) None
Answer [=]
B

17) In a GPRS network, SGSN is the equivalent of ______ system in GSM.

A) BSC
B) MSC
C) VLR
D) GMSC
Answer [=]
B

18) What are the functions of a CCU?

A) Power Control
B) Timing Advance
C) Coding algorithms
D) All
Answer [=]
D

19) GPRS Roaming from one SGSN to another SGSN is offered by ?

A) GMSC
B) GGSN
C) HLR
D) VLR
Answer [=]
B
Explanation:
GGSN queries the subscriber location time to time and sends data the respective SGSN and then
to the user.

20) Which is the system in GPRS that connects to External Networks using GTP?
A) SGSN
B) HLR
C) GGSN
D) GMSC
Answer [=]
C

21) What are the functions of SGSN in a GPRS Architecture?

A) Authentication, Authorization, Ciphering
B) GTP tunneling to GGSN, Charging (Billing), Session management
C) Mobility manage, interaction with HLR, MSC/VLR, NMS interface
D) All
Answer [=]
D

22) What are the functions of GGSN of a GPRS network?

A) Charging (Billing), Filter user traffic
B) Routing mobile originated traffic, GTP Tunneling to SGSN
C) Interface external networks
D) All
Answer [=]
D

23) A DNS (Domain Name Server) converts Host Name or Website name to _____?
A) Packets
B) Bytes
C) IP address
D) None
Answer [=]
C

24) A BG(Border Gateway) connects to ______ using Tunneling.

A) Same operator's GPRS network
B) Different operator's GPRS network
C) Same or different operator GPRS N/W
D) None
Answer [=]
B

25) Which system in a GPRS architecture collects all Charging (Billing) records for final
processing?
A) SGSN
B) GGSN
C) CH (Charging Gateway)
D) None
Answer [=]
C

26) A GPRS network contains Firewalls to _______?

A) Hack phones
B) Intercept phones
C) Protection from Virus
D) None
Answer [=]
C

27) An LIG(Legal Interception Gateway) in a GPRS network provides ________ .

A) Parallel access to law agencies
B) Eavesdrop user sessions
C) Sample packets to get information
D) All
Answer [=]
D

28. What is the name of the web browsing format language supported by 2.5G technology?
a) Wireless Application Protocol
b) Hypertext Markup Language
c) Extensible Markup Language
d) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 2.5G technology supports a new web browsing format language, which is called
Wireless Application Protocol (WAP). It allows standard web pages to be viewed in a
compressed format specifically designed for small, portable hand held wireless devices.

29. What is the name of the internet microbrowser technology used by NTT DoCoMo in Japan?
a) Wireless Application Protocol
b) I-mode
c).W-mode
d) Hypertext Markup Language
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: I-mode is a wireless data service and Internet microbrowser technology introduced
by NTT DoCoMo on its PDC network in 1998. It is currently used by other wireless services
throughout the world.

30. 2.5G upgrade path for a particular wireless carrier does not match the original 2G technology
choice made earlier by the same carrier. (True or False).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As 2.5G is the upgradation of 2G technology, 2.5G upgradation path must match
the original 2G technology. For example, 2.5G upgrade solution designed for GSM must dovetail
with original GSM interface so that change of hardware is not required.
31. Which of the following is not a TDMA standard of 2.5G network?
a) HSCSD
b) GPRS
c) EDGE
d) GSM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GSM (Global System for Mobile) is a TDMA standard for 2G network. HSCSD
(High Speed Circuit Switched Data), GPRS (General Packet Radio Service) and EDGE
(Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution) are TDMA standards of 2.5G technology.

32. Which of the following is a 2.5G CDMA standard?

a) IS-95
b) Cdma2000
c) IS-95B
d) CdmaOne
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IS-95B (Interim Standard 95B) is code division multiple access standard for 2.5G.
It is an upgradation of IS- 95 which is a second generation standard of CDMA.

33. HSCSD supports which 2G standard?

a) GSM
b) IS-136
c) GSM and IS-136
d) PDC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High Speed Circuit Switched Data (HSCDC) supports the Global system for
Mobile (GSM) standard. It only requires a software upgrade at the base station.

34. How does HSCSD differs from the GSM to obtain higher speed data rate?
a) By allowing single user to use one specific time slot
b) By allowing single user to use consecutive user time slots
c) By using 8-PSK modulation technique
d) By allowing multiple users to use individual time slot
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: HSCSD allows individual data users to use consecutive time slots in order to obtain
higher speed data access on the GSM network. In case of GSM, it limits each user to use only
one specific time slot.
35. GPRS and EDGE supports which 2G standard?
a) GSM only
b) IS-136 only
c) GSM and IS-136 both
d) PDC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: GPRS (General Packet Radio Service) network provides a packet network on
dedicated GSM or IS-136 radio channels. EDGE (Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution) is
also developed keeping in desire both GSM and IS-136 operators.

36. How is HSCSD different from GPRS?

a) Infrastructure
b) Multiple Access Scheme
c) Modulation technique
d) Switching Technique
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GPRS is a packet based network. HSCSD dedicates circuit switched channels to
specific users whereas GPRS supports many more users, but in a bursty manner.

37. What changes GPRS need to acquire while upgrading itself from GSM?
a) A whole new base station
b) New transceiver at base station
c) New channel cards
d) New packet overlay including routers and gateways
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GPRS requires a GSM operator to install new routers and Internet gateways at the
base station along with new software upgrade. New base station RF hardware is not required.

38. Which new modulation technique is used by EDGE?

a) BPSK
b) 8- PSK
c) DQPSK
d) AFSK
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: EDGE uses a new digital modulation format, 8- PSK (Octal Phase Shift Keying). It
is used in addition to GSM’s standard GMSK (Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying) modulation.

39. Various air interface formats used by EDGE are also known as ______
a) Modulation and coding schemes
b) Coding schemes
c) Modulating air interface
d) Air interface coding schemes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: EDGE allows nine different air interface formats known as multiple modulation
and coding schemes (MCS). Each MCS state may use either GMSK or 8- PSK modulation for
network access, depending upon the instantaneous demands of the network and the operating
conditions.

40. EDGE is sometimes also referred as _______

a) HSCSD
b) 3GPP
c) EGPRS
d) EGSCSD
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: EDGE is sometimes also referred as Enhanced GPRS (EGPRS). It is an
enhancement of a GSM network in which EDGE is introduced on top of the General Packet
Radio Service (GPRS). It is used to transfer data in a packet switched mode on various time
slots.

41. What is one disadvantage of EDGE in comparison to HSCSD and GPRS?

a) Low data rates
b) Small coverage range
c) Low speed
d) No advancement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Because of the higher data rates and relaxed error control covering in many of the
selectable air interface formats, the coverage range is smaller in EDGE than in HSCSD or GPRS.

CDMA 2000
1. Which of the following has no backward compatibility with 3G Cdma2000?
a) IS-95
b) GPRS
c) IS-95A
d) IS-95B
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 3G Cdma2000 is based on the original IS-95 and IS-95A CDMA standards, as well
as the 2.5G IS-95B air interface. While upgrading, Cdma2000 maintains backward compatibility
with existing IS-95, IS-95A and IS-95B equipments. Thus, Cdma2000 allow wireless carriers to
introduce a family of new high data rate Internet access capabilities within existing systems.

2. 2G and 2.5G CDMA operators may selectively introduce 3G capabilities at each cell without
changing entire base stations and reallocate spectrums.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cdma2000 does not require change in entire base station or additional RF
equipment. All the changes are made in software or in baseband hardware.
3. Which of the following the first 3G CDMA air interface?
a) IS-95
b) IS-95B
c) Cdma2000 1xRTT
d) CdmaOne
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cdma2000 1xRTT is the first 3G air interface. Here, RTT stands for Radio
Transmission Technology and 1x indicates that the bandwidth is one times that of the original
CdmaOne channel. It is modulated on a single carrier.

4. Within ITU IMT-2000 body, Cdma2000 1xRTT is also known as ____________

a) Cdma2000 1xEV-DO
b) Cdma2000 1xEV-DV
c) IS-95B
d) G3G-MC-CDMA-1X
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cdma2000 1xRTT is also known as G3G-MC-CDMA-1X. The initials MC stand
for multicarrier. RTT stand for Radio Transmission Technology, a language suggested by IMT-
2000 body. Usually, MC and RTT are omitted for convenience.

5. How many users are supported by Cdma2000 1X in comparison to 2G CDMA standard?

a) Half
b) Twice
c) Six times
d) Ten times
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cdma2000 support up to twice as many users as the 2G CDMA standard. It also
provides the two times the standby time for longer lasting battery life.

6. Cdma2000 works in TDD mode only.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cdma2000 works in both FDD and TDD mode. Cdma2000 developed for wide area
cellular coverage uses FDD. And TDD is used by Cdma2000 for indoor cordless type
applications.
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Cdma2000?
a) Adaptable baseband signalling rates
b) Adaptable baseband chipping rates
c) Multicarrier technologies
d) OFDMA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cdma2000 does not use OFDMA technique. OFDMA is used by 4G networks.
Cdma2000 uses rapidly adaptable baseband signalling rates and chipping rates for each user. It
also provides multi-level keying within same framework.

8. Cdma2000 1xEV was developed by ________

a) Motorola
b) AT&T Laboratories
c) Qualcomm
d) NTT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cdma2000 is an evolutionary advancement for CDMA. It was developed by
Qualcomm Inc. It is a proprietary high data rate (HDR) packet standard that can be overlaid upon
existing IS-95, IS-95B and Cdma2000 networks.

9. How is bandwidth increased in Cdma2000?

a) Clubbing adjacent radio channels
b) Changing the hardware of base stations
c) Change of spectrum
d) Change of RF equipment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The increase in the bandwidth is achieved through clubbing the adjacent radio
channels of CdmaOne and using multicarrier technologies. For example, Cdma2000 3xRTT uses
these technologies by combining three adjacent 1.25 MHz bandwidth of CdmaOne channels.

10. What are the two options provided by Cdma2000 1xEV?

a) Cdma2000 1xRTT. Cdma2000 3xRTT
b) Cdma2000 1xEV-DO, Cdma2000 1xEV-DV
c) Cdma2000 1xEV-DT, Cdma2000 1xEV-DO
d) Cdma2000 1xRTT, Cdma2000 1xEV-DV
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cdma2000 1xEV is an evolutionary upgrade for Cdma2000. It provides two
options, for accessing only data (Cdma2000 1xEV-DO) and for both data & voice (Cdma2000
1xEV-DV).

11. Which of the following is not backward compatible with Cdma2000?

a) Cdma2000 1xRTT
b) Cdma2000 3xRTT
c) Cdma2000 1xEV-DO
d) Cdma2000 1xEV-DT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cdma2000 1xEV-DO option provides data rates of about 2.4 Mbps and supports
data traffic only. No voice communication is supported. It relaxes the minimum latency
requirement. But this mode is not backward compatible with Cdma2000.

WLAN

1. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?

a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices
itself
d) all the nodes in the network
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Access point in a wireless network is any device that will allow the wireless
devices to a wired network. A router is the best example of an Access Point.

2. In wireless ad-hoc network _________

a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
d) all nodes are access points
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An ad-hoc wireless network is a decentralized kind of a wireless network. An
access point is usually a central device and it would go against the rules of the ad-hoc network to
use one. Hence it is not required.

3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
d) CSMA/CD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CSMA/CA stands for Carrier-sense multiple access/collision avoidance. It is a
multiple access protocol used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN. It’s based on the
principle of collision avoidance by using different algorithms to avoid collisions between
channels.
4. In wireless distribution system __________
a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
d) access points are not required
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Wireless Distribution System allows the connection of multiple access points
together. It is used to expand a wireless network to a larger network.

5. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______

a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
d) WDS mode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A wireless network interface controller works on the physical layer and the data
link layer of the OSI model. Infrastructure mode WNIC needs access point but in ad-hoc mode
access point is not required.

6. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________

a) connected basic service sets
b) all stations
c) all access points
d) connected access points
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The extended service set is a part of the IEEE 802.11 WLAN architecture and is
used to expand the range of the basic service set by allowing connection of multiple basic service
sets.

7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.

a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In orthogonal frequency division multiplexing, digital data is encoded on multiple
carrier frequencies. It is also used in digital television and audio broadcasting in addition to
Wireless LANs.

8. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?

a) collision detection
b) acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
d) connection to wired networks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Collision detection is not possible in wireless LAN with no extensions. Collision
detection techniques for multiple access like CSMA/CD are used to detect collisions in Wireless
LANs.

9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

a) security algorithm for ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
d) security algorithm for emails
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WEP is a security algorithm for wireless network which intended to provide data
confidentiality comparable to that of traditional wired networks. It was introduced in 1997.

10. What is WPA?

a) wi-fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
d) wi-fi process access
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WPA or WiFi Protected Access is a security protocol used to provide users and
firms with strong data security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give them
confidence that only authorized users can access their network.

3G Standards

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 3G network?

a) Communication over VoIP
b) Unparalleled network capacity
c) Multi-megabit Internet access
d) LTE based network
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multi-megabit Internet access, communication using Voice over internet Protocol
(VoIP), voice activated calls, unparalleled network capacity are some of the characteristics of 3G
network. 3G systems promise unparalleled wireless access which is not possible in 2G systems.
LTE (Long term Evolution) is a standard of 4G systems.

2. What is the term used by ITU for a set of global standards of 3G systems?
a) IMT 2000
b) GSM
c) CDMA
d) EDGE
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: International Telecommunications Union (ITU) used the term IMT-2000 in 1998. It
is used for a set of global standards for third generation (3G) mobile telecoms services and
equipment.

3. Which of the following leads to evolution of 3G networks in CDMA systems?

a) IS-95
b) IS-95B
c) CdmaOne
d) Cdma2000
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 3G evolution of CDMA system leads to cdma2000. It is based on the fundamentals
of IS-95 and IS-95B. IS-95 is a 2G standard for CDMA systems. IS-95B is a CDMA system for
2.5G networks.

4. Which of the following leads to the 3G evolution of GSM, IS-136 and PDC systems?
a) W-CDMA
b) GPRS
c) EDGE
d) HSCSD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 3G evolution for GSM, IS-136 and PDC systems leads to W-CDMA
(Wideband CDMA). It is based on the network fundamentals of GSM, as well as merged
versions of GSM and IS-136 through EDGE. GPRS, EDGE and HSCSD are 2.5G networks.

5. What is 3GPP?
a) Project based on W-CDMA
b) Project based on cdma2000
c) Project based on 2G standards
d) Project based on 2.5G standards
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 3GPP is a 3G Partnership Project for Wideband CDMA standards based on
backward compatibility with GSM and IS-136. The project was established in December 1998.
Its initial scope was to make a globally applicable third generation mobile phone system.

6. What is 3GPP2?
a) Project based on W-CDMA
b) Project based on cdma2000
c) Project based on 2G standards
d) Project based on 2.5G standards
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 3GPP2 is a 3G Partnership Project for Cdma2000 standards based on backward
compatibility with earlier CdmaOne 2G CDMA technology. It was initiated by IMT-2000 to
cover high speed, broadband and Internet Protocol (IP) based mobile systems. It mainly focuses
on North American and Asian regions.

7. Which of the following is not a standard of 3G?

a) UMTS
b) Cdma2000
c) TD-SCDMA
d) LTE
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: UMTS (Universal Mobile Telecommunication System), TD-SCDMA (Time
Division Synchronous Code Division Multiple Access), Cdma2000 are the standards defined for
3G networks. LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a 4G standard for high speed wireless
communication.

8. Which of the following 3G standard is used in Japan?

a) Cdma2000
b) TD-SCDMA
c) UMTS
d) UTRA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Japan uses UMTS (W-CDMA) standard for its 3G network. The standards used are
UMTS 800, UMTS 900, UMTS 1500, UMTS 1700 and UMTS 2100. They are standardized by
ARIB (Association of Radio industries and Business).

9. What does the number 2000 in IMT-2000 signifies?

a) Year
b) Number of subscribers per cell
c) Number of cells
d) Area (Km)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) defined the third generation
(3G) of mobile telephony standards, IMT-2000 to facilitate growth, increase bandwidth, and
support more diverse applications. The number 2000 in IMT-2000 indicates the start of the
system (year 2000) and the spectrum used (around 2000 MHz).

10. Which of the following is not an application of third generation network?

a) Global Positioning System (GPS)
b) Video conferencing
c) Mobile TV
d) Downloading rate upto 1 Gbps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 3G applications include GPS (Global Positioning System), MMS (Multimedia
Messaging System), video conferencing, location based services, video on demand, wireless
voice telephony and high data rates with peak downloading rate of 100 Mbps. For 4G networks,
the peak downloading rate is 1 Gbps.

UMTS

1. What is the full form of UMTS?

a) Universal Mobile Telephone System
b) Ubiquitous Mobile Telephone System
c) Ubiquitous Mobile Telemetry System
d) Universal Machine Telemedicine System
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UMTS (Universal Mobile Telephone System) is a visionary air interface standard
that was introduced in 1996. European carriers, manufacturers, and government regulators
collectively developed the early version of UMTS as an open air interface standard for third
generation wireless telecommunication.

2. UMTS use which multiple access technique?

a) CDMA
b) TDMA
c) FDMA
d) SDMA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Although UMTS is designed to operate on evolved GSM core networks, it uses
code division multiple access (CDMA) for its air interface. The majority of the 3G systems in
operation employ CDMA, while the rest use TDMA. CDMA allows various users to share a
channel at the same time, while TDMA allows users to share the same channel by chopping it
into different time slots.

3. UMTS does not has backward compatibility with ____________

a) GSM
b) IS-136
c) IS-95
d) GPRS
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: UMTS assures backward compatibility with the second generation GSM, IS-136
and PDC TDMA technologies. It is also compatible with all 2.5G TDMA techniques like GPRS
and EDGE. But it does not provide compatibility to CDMA technologies of 2G and 2.5 G. IS-95
is a CDMA standard of 2G.

4. UMTS is also known as _____________

a) IS-95
b) GPRS
c) CdmaOne
d) W-CDMA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: UMTS uses Wideband CDMA (W-CDMA) to carry the radio transmissions.
Therefore, it is also referred as W-CDMA. W-CDMA offers greater spectral efficiency and
bandwidth to mobile network operators.

5. What is the chip rate of W-CDMA?

a) 1.2288 Mcps
b) 3.84 Mcps
c) 270.833 Ksps
d) 100 Mcps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: W-CDMA uses a chip rate of 3.84 Mcps. Chip rate is the product of symbol rate
and spreading factor. If the symbol rate is 960 Kbps and spreading factor is 4 for W-CDMA,
then the chip rate is 3.84 Mcps. The chip rate for Cdma2000 and GSM are 1.2288 Mcps and
27.0833 Ksps respectively.

6. W-CDMA works in FDD mode only.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: W-CDMA works in both FDD and TDD mode. W-CDMA developed for wide area
cellular coverage uses FDD. And TDD is used by W-CDMA for indoor cordless type
applications.

7. How much packet data rate per user is supported by W-CDMA if the user is stationary?
a) 2.048 Kbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 2.048 Mbps
d) 1 Gbps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the user is stationary, W-CDMA supports packet data rates upto 2.048Mbps per
user. Thus, it allows high quality data, multimedia, streaming audio video and broadcast type
services to consumers. Future version of WCDMA will support stationary user data rates in
excess of 8Mbps.
8. What is the minimum spectrum allocation required by W-CDMA?
a) 5 MHz
b) 20MHz
c) 1.25 MHz
d) 200 KHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: W-CDMA/UMTS requires a minimum spectrum allocation of 5 MHz. Using this
bandwidth, it has the capacity to carry over 100 simultaneous voice calls. It is able to carry data
at speeds up to 2 Mbps in its original format. 20 MHz is the bandwidth defined for LTE.
CdmaOne uses a bandwidth of 1.25 MHz. GSM’s bandwidth is 200 KHz.

9. W-CDMA requires a complete change of RF equipment at each base station.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: W-CDMA is designed to provide backward compatibility and interoperability for
all GSM, IS-136/PDC, GPRS and EDGE equipment. But due to a wider air interface bandwidth
of W-CDMA, it requires a complete change of RF-equipment at each base station.

10. How much increase in spectral efficiency is provided by W-CDMA in comparison to GSM?
a) Two times
b) Three times
c) No increase
d) Six times
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: W-CDMA can provide at least six times an increase in spectral efficiency over
GSM at system level. Such a wider bandwidth is chosen to higher data rates as low as 8 kbps to
as high as 2 Mbps on a single 5 MHz W-CDMA radio channel.

LTE

1. Which UE category supports 64 QAM on the uplink?

a) Only category 5
b) Only category 4
c) Only category 3
d) Category 3,4 and 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Category information is used to allow the eNB to communicate effectively with all
the UEs connected to it. The UE-category defines a combined uplink and downlink capability.
Only UE category 5 supports 64 QAM on the uplink.
2. What type of handovers is supported by LTE?
a) Hard handover only
b) Soft handover only
c) Hard and soft handover
d) Hard, soft and softest handover
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LTE supports only hard handover. It does not receive data from two frequencies at
the same time because switching between different carrier frequencies is very fast so soft
handover is not required.

3. What is the minimum amount of RF spectrum needed for an FDD LTE radio channel?
a) 1.4 MHz
b) 2.8 MHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 20 MHz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In telecommunication, Long-Term Evolution (LTE) is a standard for high-speed
wireless communication for mobile devices and data terminals, based on the GSM/EDGE and
UMTS/HSPA technologies. The minimum amount of RF spectrum needed for an FDD LTE
radio channel is 2.8 MHz.

4. Which organization is responsible for developing LTE standards?

a) UMTS
b) 3GPP
c) 3GPP2
d) ISO
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) is a collaboration between groups
of telecommunications standards associations, known as the Organizational Partners. LTE (Long
Term Evolution) introduced in 3GPP R8, is the access part of the Evolved Packet System (EPS).

5. Which channel indicates the number of symbols used by the PDCCH?

a) PHICH
b) PDCCH
c) PBCH
d) PCFICH
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PCFIH channel indicates the number of symbols used by the PDCCH. The actual
number of OFDM symbols occupied in any given subframe is indicated in the PCFICH (Physical
Control Format Indicator Channel), which is located in the first OFDM symbol of each
subframe.
6. How often can resources be allocated to the UE?
a) Every symbol
b) Every slot
c) Every subframe
d) Every frame
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Resources can be located to the UE every subframe. CCE Index is the CCE number
at which the control channel data (PDCCH) is allocated. Normally this index changes for each
subframe, i.e. even the same PDCCH data (e.g, a PDCCH for the same UE) allocated in each
subframe changes subframe by subframe.

7. What is the largest channel bandwidth a UE is required to support in LTE?

a) 10 MHz
b) 20 MHz
c) 1.4 MHz
d) 5 MHz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The LTE format was first proposed by NTT DoCoMo of Japan and has been
adopted as the international standard. LTE-Advanced accommodates the geographically
available spectrum for channels above 20 MHz.

8. In LTE, what is the benefit of PAPR reduction in the uplink?

a) Improved uplink coverage
b) Lower UE power consumption
c) Reduced equalizer complexity
d) Improved uplink coverage, lower UE power consumption and reduced equalizer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PAPR is the relation between the maximum power of a sample in a given OFDM
transmit symbol divided by the average power of that OFDM symbol. PAPR reduction in the
uplink leads to improved uplink coverage, lower UE power consumption and reduced equalizer
complexity.

9. Which RLC mode adds the least amount of delay to user traffic?
a) Unacknowledged mode (UM)
b) Acknowledged mode (AM)
c) Low latency mode (LM)
d) Transparent mode (TM)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The transparent mode entity in RLC does not add any overhead to the upper layer
SDUs. The entity just transmits the SDUs coming from upper layer to MAC.
10. How much bandwidth is required to transmit the primary and secondary synchronization
signals?
a) 1.08 MHz
b) 1.4 MHz
c) 930 kHz
d) 20 MHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cell synchronization is the very first step when UE wants to camp on any cell. 1.08
MHZ is required to transmit the primary and secondary synchronization signals.

Ultra-Wideband Technologies

1. _________ also known as impulse or zero-carrier radio technology.

a) Ultra wideband technology
b) Femtocell technology
c) Multicasting
d) Multiplexing

Answer: a
Explanation: Ultra-wideband (UWB) technology is also known as impulse or zero-carrier radio
technology. It appears to be one of the most promising wireless radio communication
technologies of recent time.
2. UWB operates across narrow bandwidth.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike conventional radio systems, which operate within a relatively narrow
bandwidth, the UWB radio system operates across a wide range of the frequency spectrum by
transmitting a series of extremely narrow (10–1000 per second) and low-power pulses.
3. The basic element in DSC–UWB technology is the monocycle wavelet.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The basic element in TM–UWB technology is the monocycle wavelet. Typically,
wavelet pulse widths are between 0.2 and 1.5 nanoseconds, corresponding to center frequencies
between 600 MHz and 5 GHz.
4. In TM–UWB, the system uses a modulation technique called _______
a) Pulse width modulation
b) Pulse code modulation
c) Pulse position modulation
d) Pulse amplitude modulation

Answer: c
Explanation: In TM–UWB, the system uses a modulation technique called pulse position
modulation. The TM–UWB transmitter emits ultra-short monocycle wavelets with tightly
controlled pulse-to-pulse intervals, which are varied on a pulse-by-pulse basis in accordance with
an information signal and a channel code.
5. DSC-UWB uses _________
a) Pulse width modulation
b) Pulse code modulation
c) Pulse position modulation
d) Direct sequence modulation

Answer: d
Explanation: In DSC-UWB, the signal is spread by direct sequence modulating a wavelet pulse
trains at duty cycles approaching that of a sine wave carrier. The spectrum spreading,
channelization, and modulation are provided by a PN (pseudo noise) sequence, and the chipping
rate is maintained as some fraction of the carrier center frequency.
6. The coherent interaction of signals in UWB arriving by many paths causes ____________
a) Ricean fading
b) Nakagami fading
c) Rayleigh fading
d) Multicast fading

Answer: c
Explanation: The coherent interaction of signals arriving by many paths causes the Rayleigh or
multipath fading in RF communications. Inside buildings, when continuous sine waves are
transmitted wherein the channels exhibit multipath differential delays in the nanosecond range,
the multipath fading occurs naturally.
7. UWB technology supports low bit rate and low speed.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: UWB technology is appropriate for the high-performance wireless home network,
which mandates support for large bit rate (50 Mbps), high-speed, affordable connectivity
between devices, and simultaneous data transmission from multiple devices, and full-motion
video capability.
8. Which of the following is not true for UWB?
a) Large spectrum
b) Lower price
c) Pulse data
d) Large interference
Answer: d
Explanation: The combination of a larger spectrum, lower power, and pulsed data means that
UWB causes less interference than narrowband radio designs while yielding low probability of
detection and excellent multipath immunity.
9. UWB systems are very complex, since they use radio frequency/intermediate frequency
conversion stages.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: UWB systems are much less complex, since they do not use any radio
frequency/intermediate frequency (RF/IF) conversion stages, local oscillators, mixers, and other
expensive surface acoustic wave (SAW) filters common to traditional radio technologies.
10. Which of the following is not a drawback of UWB technology?
a) Not appropriate for WAN
b) Power limited
c) Small spectrum
d) Limited jitter requirements

Answer: d
Explanation: UWB devices are power limited because they must coexist on a noninterfering
basis with other licensed and unlicensed users across several frequency bands. For UWB systems
using PPM as their modulation technique, limited jitter requirements could be an issue.

4G Network Architecture

1. Which type of cell provides the best level of service for average subscribers?
a) Acceptance cell
b) Barred cell
c) Reserved cell
d) Suitable cell

Answer: d
Explanation: A suitable cell is a cell on which the UE may camp on to obtain normal service.
The UE shall have a valid USIM and such a cell shall fulfil all the following requirements. It
provides the best level of service for average subscribers.
2. With the normal cyclic prefix, how many symbols are contained in 1 frame?
a) 7
b) 140
c) 12
d) 40
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two different type of Cyclic Prefix. One is normal Cyclic Prefix and the
other is ‘Extended Cyclic Prefix’ which is longer than the Normal Cyclic Prefix. Normal cyclic
prefix contains 140 symbols in 1 frame.
3. What is the PBCH scrambled with?
a) Current frame number
b) Physical cell ID
c) UE’s CRNTI
d) Not scrambled

Answer: b
Explanation: The PBCH is scrambled prior to modulation with a cell-specific sequence that
depends on the cells’ identity. In contrast to the synchronization signals, the PBCH is transmitted
on the 72 reserved subcarriers, which are QPSK-modulated.
4. What is the length of the shortest possible PDCCH in bits?
a) 144
b) 288
c) 72
d) 576

Answer: c
Explanation: PDCCH is a physical channel that carries downlink control information (DCI).
Shortest possible PDCCH is 72 bits.
5. What is the average uploading speed of 4G LTE network?
a) 1-3 Gbps
b) 2-5 Gbps
c) 1-3 Mbps
d) 2-5 Mbps

Answer: d
Explanation: Verizon 4G LTE wireless broadband is 10 times faster than 3G able to handle
download speeds between 5 and 12 Mbps (Megabits per second) and upload speeds between 2
and 5 Mbps.
6. Which of the following is not a part of the characteristic of 4G network?
a) Multirate management
b) Fully converged services
c) Software dependency
d) Diverse user devices

Answer: a
Explanation: 4G is the fourth generation of broadband cellular network technology, succeeding
3G. Its characteristics include fully converged services, software dependency and diverse user
devices.
7. What does SGSN stands for?
a) Serial Gateway Supporting Node
b) Supporting GGSN Support Node
c) Supporting GPRS Support Node
d) Supporting Gateway Support Node

Answer: c
Explanation: The Serving GPRS Support Node (SGSN) is a main component of the GPRS
network, which handles all packet switched data within the network, e.g. the mobility
management and authentication of the users. The SGSN performs the same functions as the MSC
for voice traffic.
8. What location management feature is supported by 4G?
a) Concatenated Location Registration
b) Concurrent Location Register
c) Concatenated Management
d) Collated Location Registration

Answer: a
Explanation: 4G supports concatenated location registration. Concatenated location registration
reports to the network that they are concatenated to a common object.
9. In 2007 ____________ announced its plan to transmit its network to 4G standard LTE with
joint efforts of Vodafone group.
a) Verizon Wireless
b) AirTouch
c) Netflix
d) V Cast

Answer: a
Explanation: In 2007, Verizon announced plans to develop and deploy its fourth generation
mobile broadband network using LTE, the technology developed within the Third Generation
Partnership Project (3GPP) standards organization.
10. Hybrid ARQ is part of the ____________ layer.
a) PDCP
b) RLC
c) MAC
d) PHY

Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid automatic repeat request (hybrid ARQ or HARQ) is a combination of high-
rate forward error-correcting coding and ARQ error-control. It is part of the MAC layer

Satellite Systems
1. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of _________
a) Circular polarization
b) Maneuverability
c) Beamwidth
d) Gain

Answer: a
Explanation: In helical antenna, the diameter and pitch of the helix are comparable to a
wavelength. The antenna functions as a directional antenna radiating a beam off the ends of the
helix. It radiates circularly polarized radio waves. These are used for satellite communication.
2. Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as ___________
a) Transceivers
b) Transponders
c) Transducers
d) TWT

Answer: b
Explanation: A communications satellite’s transponder is the series of interconnected units that
form a communications channel between the receiving and the transmitting antennas. It is mainly
used in satellite communication to transfer the received signals.
3. ___________ is the geographical representation of a satellite antenna radiation pattern.
a) Footprint
b) Spot
c) Earth
d) Region

Answer: a
Explanation: The geographical representation of a satellite’s antenna radiation pattern is called a
footprint or footprint map. In essence, a footprint of a satellite is the area on Earth’s surface that
the satellite can receive from or transmit to.
4. The smallest beam of a satellite antenna radiation pattern is ________
a) Zone beam
b) Hemispheric beam
c) Spot beam
d) Global beam

Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the antenna that generates these beams on earth is related directly to the
peak gain at the center of the spot beams and the smallest spot beam size. The spot beams are
typically defined by the contours at 3 or 4 dB down from the peak power at the center of the
beam.
5. _________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lowers its frequency.
a) Horn antenna
b) LNA
c) Satellite receiver
d) Satellite dish

Answer: b
Explanation: LNA detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency. The most common device used as an LNA is tunnel
diode.
6. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is _________
a) Uplink
b) Downlink
c) Terrestrial
d) Earthbound

Answer: b
Explanation: In satellite telecommunication, a downlink is the link from a satellite down to one
or more ground stations or receivers, and an uplink is the link from a ground station up to a
satellite.
7. __________ is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth’s atmosphere.
a) Atmospheric loss
b) Path loss
c) Radiation loss
d) RFI

Answer: b
Explanation: The path loss is the loss in signal strength of a signal as it travels through free
space. This value is usually calculated by discounting any obstacles or reflections that might
occur in its path.
8. Which of the following is the point on the satellite orbits closest to the Earth?
a) Apogee
b) Perigee
c) Prograde
d) Zenith

Answer: b
Explanation: The point where satellite is closest to the Earth is known as the perigee. Here, the
satellite moves at its fastest. The high point of the orbit, when the satellite is moving the slowest
is called the apogee.
9. What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites?
a) Germanium based panels
b) Silicon based panel
c) Gallium Phosphate solar panel array
d) Gallium Arsenide solar panel array
Answer: d
Explanation: Gallium Arsenide solar panel arrays are used for battery panels in some advanced
satellites. These new types of cells allow smaller solar arrays to be used on future space
missions.
10. A satellite battery has more power but lighter _________
a) Lithium
b) Leclanche
c) Hydrogen
d) Magnesium

Answer: a
Explanation: Lithium batteries have more power and are lighter in weight. Any mass that could
be saved by the use of lighter batteries would allow a corresponding increase in the amount of
useful payload equipment.
11. INTELSAT stands for ___________
a) Intel Satellite
b) International Telephone Satellite
c) International Telecommunications Satellite
d) International Satellite

Answer: c
Explanation: INTELSAT is a communications satellite services provider. INTELSAT operates a
fleet of 52 communications satellites, which is one of the world’s largest fleet of commercial
satellites.
12. The frequency of Ku band for satellite communications is __________
a) 6/4 GHz
b) 14/11 GHz
c) 12/14 GHz
d) 4/8 GHz

Answer: b
Explanation: The Ku band is a portion of the electromagnetic spectrum in the microwave range
of frequencies ranging from 11.7 to 12.7GHz. (downlink frequencies) and 14 to 14.5GHz (uplink
frequencies).
13. The most common device used as an LNA is ________
a) Zener diode
b) Tunnel diode
c) IMPATT
d) Shockley diode

Answer: b
Explanation: The LNA must provide a relatively flat response for the frequency range of interest,
preferably with less than 1 dB of gain variation. The most common device used as an LNA (low
noise amplifier) is tunnel diode. It is a highly sensitive, low-noise device.
 Mobile Adhoc Network
NOTE: Answers are green coloured options:

● Q.1 
Providers of certain types of services on a network are called?
answer choices
Routing
Database
Corba
Server
●  Question 2
Following are the types of routing on MANET, except:
answer choices
Proactive Routing
Hybrid Routing
HyperActive Routing
Reactive Routing
●  Question 3
 
Here are the types of AdHoc networks except:
answer choices
WARNET
WANET
MANET
VANET
●  Question 4
 
Can adHoc networks be used by multiple devices? Why ?
answer choices
It can't, because adHoc is one of the WLAN networks
Yes, because ad hoc is a WLAN network
 Yes, because adHoc is a WAN network
It can't, because adHoc is a WAN network
●  Question 5

It is the application of the MANET, except :

answer choices
Military applications and Emergency Operations
Wireless Sensor Network
Wired Sensor Network
A Wireless Mesh Network
●  Question 6
 The power source can be classified into three categories, there are the three categories, except
answer choices
Replenishable power resource
Non- Replenishable power source
Regenerative power source
Everlasting power source
●  Question 7

What is MANET?
answer choices
Multiple and network
Mobile ad hoc network
Main ad hoc network evaluation
Multiple ad hoc network
●  Question 8
 . 
There are Comparisons between Cellular network and Ad Hoc Wireless Networks ? except :
a.High cost and time of deployment (cellular network) and Quick and cost-effective deployment
(MANET)
b.Centralized routing (cellular network) and Distributed routing (MANET)
 c.Reuse of frequency spectrum through geographical channel reuse (cellular network) and
d.Dynamic frequency reuse based on carrier sense mechanism (MANET)
Fixed infrastructure-based (MANET), and Infrastructureless (cellular network)
●  Question 9
What factors influence the selection of data paths on routing?
Network traffic and network interference
Quality of network connections and network connections
Number of networks used
All true
●  Question 10

Ad-hoc network to connect each computer using network topology

answer choices
Three
Star
Mesh
Bus
LI-FI Communication

Which of the following is/are true regarding Li-Fi technology?

1) It does not work under water unlike current radio frequency communication.
2) It cannot pass through walls.

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. Only 2

2)   Recently a new technology has been developed for communication called as Li-Fi. Li-Fi
is

a. Light Fit
b. Lithium Fiber
c. Light Fiber
d. Light Fidelity

ANS: Light Fidelity

3. Which of the following is Not true regarding the ‘Li-fi’ network technology?
a) It is 100 times faster than wi-fi
b) It uses an LED bulb/Lamp to emit signals
c) It uses infra red waves
d) It does not interfere with radio waves in the spectrum
ANS:c
4. The ‘Li-fi’ uses which of the following means to provide internet access?
a) Radio waves suspended in spectrum
b) Visible spectrum of light
c) Infra red waves
d) Ultra Violet wave
ANS b
5. Which of the following is ‘True’ regarding the ‘Li-fi’ technology?
a) The Li-fi technology can be used in sunlight
b) The Li-fi can be used even behind thick walls
c) The Li-fi connection was first demonstrated by Estonian company Velmenni
d) Theoretically Li-fi can achieve a speed of 224 GBPS
ANS:C
6. What is the full form of the term ‘Wi-fi’?
a) Wireless Fidelity
b) Wired Fidelity
c) WLAN Fidelity
d) WLAN Fibre
ANS:a

IMT2000

Q.  IMT-2000 is a digital mobile system that functions as

a. Pager
b. Cordless
c. Low earth orbit satellites
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

Q.  The 2G cellular network uses

a. TDMA/FDD
b. CDMA/FDD
c. Digital modulation formats
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

Q.  2G CDMA standard - cdma one supports up to

a. 8 users
b. 64 users
c. 32 users
d. 116 users

ANSWER: 64 users

Q1. The 2G cellular network uses

a. TDMA/FDD
b. CDMA/ FDD
c. Digital modulation formats
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above

Q2. NADC is a 2G standard for

a. TDMA
b. CDMA
c. None of the above
ANSWER: a. TDMA

Q3. 2G CDMA standard - cdmaone supports up to

a. 8 users
b. 64 users
c. 32 users
d. 116 users
ANSWER: b. 64 users

Q4. 2G standards support

a. Limited internet browsing

b. Short messaging service
c. Both a) and b)
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Both a) and b)

Q5. The 2G GSM technology uses a carrier separation of

a. 1.25 MHz
b. 200 KHz
c. 30 KHz
d. 300 KHz
ANSWER: b. 200 KHz

Q1. 3G W-CDMA is also known as

a. UMTS
b. DECT
c. DCS-1800
d. ETACS
ANSWER: a. UMTS

Q2. Commonly used mode for 3G networks is

a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. TDD
d. FDD
ANSWER: d. FDD

Q3. The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is

a. 5MHz
b. 2MHz
c. 500KHz
d. 100KHz
ANSWER: a. 5MHz

Q4. CDMA2000 1xEV provides high speed data access with channel allocation of

a. 5MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 1.25 MHz
d. 4MHz

ANSWER: c. 1.25 MHz

Q5. In TD-SDMA, there is a frame of _______ milliseconds and the frame is divided into
_____ time slots.

a. 5, 7
b. 7, 5
c. 2, 5
d. 5, 2
ANSWER: a. 5, 7