Polyhydramnios is frequently observed in all of the following conditions except:

Esophageal atresia.

Duodenal atresia.

Pyloric atresia.

* Hirschsprung's disease.

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

In neonates with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which of the following statements is true?

The defect is more common on the right side.

Survival is significantly improved by administration of pulmonary vasodilators.

An oxygen index of 20 is an indication for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO).

Oligohydramnios is a frequent occurrence.

*Mortality is the result of pulmonary hypoplasia.

In neonates with necrotizing enterocolitis, which of the following findings is an indication of

significant bowel ischemia?

Increased gastric residuals.

Septic shock.

Cardiac failure due to a patent ductus arteriosus.

Elevated platelet count.

*Erythema of the abdominal wall.

The treatment of choice for neonates with uncomplicated meconium ileus is:

Observation.

Emergency laparotomy, bowel resection, and Bishop-Koop enterostomy.

* Intravenous hydration and a gastrograffin enema.

Emergency laparotomy, bowel resection, and anastomosis.

Sweat chloride test and pancreatic enzyme therapy.

The pentalogy of Cantrell includes all of the following except:

Epigastric omphalocele.

Sternal cleft.

Intracardiac defect.

* Pericardial cyst.

Ectopia cordis.

In infants with duodenal atresia all the following statements are true except:

There is an increased incidence of Down syndrome.

Duodenal atresia can be detected by prenatal ultrasound examination.

It may occur in infants with situs inversus, malrotation, annular pancreas, and anterior portal vein.

* It is best treated by gastroenterostomy.

There is a high incidence of associated cardiac defects.

The initial treatment of choice for a 2.5-kg. infant with a 20.0-cm. long proximal jejunal atresia and
8.0 cm. of distal ileum is:

Laparotomy, nasogastric suction, proximal dilatation to lengthen the atretic jejunum, total
parenteral nutrition, and delayed anastomosis.

Laparotomy and proximal end-jejunostomy.

Laparotomy and immediate small bowel transplantation.

Laparotomy and double-barrel enterostomy (jejunum and ileum), with refeeding of jejunal contents
into distal ileum and delayed anastomosis.

* Laparotomy, tapering jejunoplasty, and end-to-oblique jejunoileal anastomosis.

A 2.8-kg. neonate with excessive salivation develops respiratory distress. Attempts to pass an
orogastric catheter fail because the catheter coils in the back of the throat. A chest film is obtained
and shows right upper lobe atelectasis and a gasless abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is:

* Proximal esophageal atresia without a fistula.

Proximal esophageal atresia with a distal tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula.

“H-type” TE fistula

Esophageal atresia with both proximal and distal TE fistula.

Congenital esophageal stricture.

Neonates with NEC may demonstrate all of the following findings on abdominal films except:

Pneumatosis intestinalis.

Portal vein air.

Pneumoperitoneum.

* Colovesical fistula.

Fixed and thickened bowel loops.

The most common type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is caused by:

A defect in the central tendon.

Eventration of the diaphragm in the fetus.

A defect through the space of Larrey.

An abnormally wide esophageal hiatus.

*A defect through the pleuroperitoneal fold.

The calorie-nitrogen ratio for an infant should be maintained at:

75:1.

100:1.

50:1.

* 150:1.

25:1.

All of the following conditions are derived from the primitive embryonic foregut except:
Bronchogenic cyst.

Cystic adenomatoid malformation.

Gastric duplication.

* Mesenteric cyst.

Pulmonary sequestration.

For a 22-kg infant, the maintenance daily fluid requirement is approximately which of the following?

1100 ml

1250 ml

* 1550 ml

1700 ml

1850 ml

A term infant 48 hours of age suddenly develops hypoxemia, irritability, and glucose and
temperature instability. Which of the following statements are true?

* Empiric antibiotic coverage for b-hemolytic Streptococci and Escherichia coli should be initiated

An intravenous infusion of prostaglandin E1 should be initiated immediately

Exogenous surfactant should be given immediately

The mortality rate for this child is approximately 50%

Which of the following statements about pulmonary surfactant are true?

*Endogenous surfactant deficiency is the key physiologic problem in preterm infants with the infant
respiratory distress syndrome

Surfactant function can be restored to normal using aerosolized phosphatidylcholine administration

Exogenous surfactant replacement has been shown to reduce mortality in preterm infants with the
infant respiratory distress syndrome

Surfactant is produced by Type I alveolar epithelial cells

Which of the following statements regarding premature infants are true?

*Complications of prematurity account for approximately 85% of fetal deaths

Prematurity is defined by the World Health Organization as birth prior to 35 weeks gestation

Infants with intrauterine growth retardation have physiologic problems which are more dependent
on the birth weight than the gestational age

Preterm infants are at increased risk for hypocalcemia and hypoglycemia when compared to term
infants

Other than the history and physical exam, which of the following tests is considered an essential
feature of the preoperative evaluation of a patient with a suspected thyroglossal duct cyst?

Cervical ultrasound

Thyroid scan

Serum T3 and T4 levels

Needle aspiration

* None of the above

Suppurative cervical lymphadenitis in a 3-year-old child is commonly related to which of the

following organisms?

Staphylococcus aureus

Atypical mycobacterial organisms

*Streptococcal organisms

Lymphoma with secondary pyogenic organisms

Cat scratch

Branchial cleft remnants most often present with which of the following clinical problems?

* Infection

Airway obstruction

Hemorrhage

Malignant degeneration

Pain
Proximity to which of the following structures places it at risk during surgical excision of a second
branchial cleft remnant?

Internal carotid artery

External carotid artery

Hypoglossal nerve

* All of the above

None of the above

Standard therapy for acute epiglottitis in a child is:

Тracheostomy

Intravenous antibiotic treatment in an ICU setting

* Endotracheal intubation in the operating room and intravenous antibiotic therapy

Indirect laryngoscopy and intravenous antibiotics

Intravenous steroids and antibiotics

Which of the following statements regarding congenital diaphragmatic hernia are true?

The incidence of right and left-sided lesions is equal

* Malrotation is to be expected

Left-to-right shunting via a patent ductus arteriosus is a serious but expected physiologic
consequence of pulmonary hypoplasia

Survival rates of 75% are reported in several contemporary series

Congenital heart disease is present in approximately 20% of these infants

Of the following cystic malformations of the tracheobronchial tree, which is most likely to be
asymptomatic when discovered?

Intralobar pulmonary sequestration

* Extralobar pulmonary sequestration

Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation

Congenital lobar emphysema

Infants with a double aortic arch most commonly present with which of the following problems?

Dysphagia

High output cardiac failure related to a patent ductus arteriosus

Positional hyperemia and edema of the right upper extremity

* Symptomatic tracheal compression

Which of the following is most common after primary esophagostomy for esophageal atresia with a
distal tracheoesophageal fistula?

Anastomotic leak

Esophageal stricture

Recurrent tracheoesophageal fistula

* Gastroesophageal reflux

Tracheomalacia requiring aortopexy

Which of the following is the most common primary lung tumor in infants and children?

Pulmonary blastoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

* Endobronchial carcinoid

Leiomyoma

Metastatic osteogenic sarcoma

Which of the following statements regarding congenital chest wall deformities are true?

*Children with pectus excavatum deformities typically have physiologically insignificant limitation of
exercise tolerance

The rate of recurrence after operative repair of a pectus excavatum deformity is between 5% and
10%

Pectus carinatum is the most common congenital chest wall defect

The most common indication for operative repair of congenital chest wall deformities is cosmesis

The definitive evaluation of a child with a suspected congenital cystic abnormality of the
tracheobronchial tree is best done using which of the following?

Rigid bronchoscopy

* Computerized tomography or magnetic resonance imaging

Chest x-ray

Angiography

Barium esophagogram

A newborn infant develops coughing, choking and cyanosis with his first feeding. He is noted to have
excessive drooling. What are the important associated anomalies that must be screened for prior to
surgical intervention?

Right-sided aortic arch

Hydrocephalus

* Genitourinary obstruction

Congenital heart disease

Which of the following ventilation strategies is the best initial approach for a neonate with a left
congenital diaphragmatic hernia and the following post ductal arterial blood gases: PaO2 50 mm Hg,
PaCO2 60 mm Hg, pH 7.35?

High-frequency jet ventilation

* Permissive hypercapnia with convential pressure controlled ventilation

Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)

Induced respiratory alkalosis

Inhaled nitric oxide with conventional volume controlled ventilation

There is an emerging consensus that the surgical repair for congenital diaphragmatic hernia is best
done:
Emergently at the bedside, eliminating the risks of transporting an unstable neonate

While on extracorporeal membrane oxygenation

* When the infant is potentially extubatable

Within the first 48 to 72 hours of life

Meckel’s diverticulum may present with which of the following signs or symptoms?

Hemorrhage

* Intussusception

Volvulus

Patent omphalomesenteric duct

Right lower quadrant peritoneal findings

A 3-week old infant has a barium upper gastrointestinal series to evaluate vomiting. The
duodenojejunal flexure is found to be to the right of the midline as well as more caudal and anterior
than a normal ligament of Treitz. The child is seen to reflux barium spontaneously to the level of the
mid-thoracic esophagus. You would recommend which of the following?

Barium enema

* Emergency laparotomy

A trial of H2, blockade and cisapride therapy

Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

Overnight pH probe analysis

Which of the following statements regarding duodenal atresia are true?

* 20% to 40% of these infants have Trisomy 21

When associated with an annular pancreas, division of the pancreas at the site of obstruction is
curative

Вilious vomiting is typical because the obstruction is usually distal to the ampulla of Vater

Reconstruction is best achieved with Roux-en-Y duodenojejunostomy

A 1500-gram, 30-week gestation neonate is fed at 2 weeks of age. He develops abdominal
distention, bilious vomiting and guaiac-positive stool. A plain film of the abdomen demonstrates
pneumotosis intestinalis. Which of the following related statements are true?

An emergency barium upper GI series should be done to rule out malrotation

The child should have a nasogastric tube placed, broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics begun, and
sequential abdominal films obtained.

The likelihood of intestinal perforation is in excess of 50%

* The expected survival rate is in the range of 70%

The most common cause of pyogenic liver abscess in children today is which of the following?

Perforated appendicitis

Blunt liver injury

* Immunocompromised host

Percutaneous liver biopsy

Omphalitis

Which of the followings statements regarding an infant with meconium ileus are true?

The probability is 100% that he will have cystic fibrosis

Nonoperative therapy resolves this problem in approximately two-thirds of patients

* The average life expectancy is approximately 26 to 28 years for this infant at present

The finding illustrated below on plain film is an absolute operative indication (Figure 103-23A)

You are asked to recommend therapy for an asymptomatic 2 year old who swallowed a small
alkaline watch battery 4 hours ago. A plain film shows the intact battery in the intestine beyond the
stomach. The best course of therapy is?

Immediate laparotomy, enterotomy and removal of the battery

Enteroscopy with extraction

Laparoscopy with ultrasound localization and extraction

* Cathartics and a follow-up plain film in 48 hours if the child remains asymptomatic
A jaundiced 6 week old infant has biliary atresia. Which of the following statements are true?

Portoenterostomy is the initial procedure of choice

Primary liver transplantation using either a reduced sized cadaveric graft or a living related graft is
now the procedure of choice

* Approximately two-thirds of patients managed with portoenterostomy will develop chronic liver
disease sufficient to indicate liver transplantation

Because biliary atresia has pathogenic components of acute and chronic inflammation,
antiinflammatory therapy is known to delay onset of liver failure

Of the following, which is the most likely cause of hemodynamically significant lower gastrointestinal
bleeding in a 6 month old male child?

Meckel diverticulum

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

* Intussusception

Crohn’s colitis

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

Which of the followings statement regarding Hirschprung’s disease are true?

Suction rectal biopsy is virtually always diagnostic if the specimen includes submucosa

Hirschprung’s disease is the result of a sex linked dominant gene

The endorectal pullthrough is demonstrably superior to other forms of surgical construction

Ninety percent or more of patients have an excellent or good functional result following
reconstructive surgery

* The important cause of mortality in contemporary practice is enterocolitis

The operative procedure of choice for managing the most common type of choledochal cyst is
which of the following?

Cyst gastrostomy

Cyst jejunostomy
* Excision with Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy

Transduodenal marsupialization

Endoscopic sphincterotomy

Whiсh of the following is the most common liver tumor of childhood?

Hemangioma and hemangioendothelioma

* Hepatoblastoma

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Mesenchymal hamaratoma

The risk of biliary tract adenocarcinoma developing in a patient with a choledochal cyst left in situ is
approximately which of the following?

Less than 1%

* 3% to 5%

10% to 15%

Greater than 25%

The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in childhood is which of the following?

Pancreas divisum

Cholelithiasis

* Trauma

Valproic acid

Annular pancreas

Which of the following statements regarding gastroschisis are true?

Primary fascial closure can be achieved in only about 25% of these infants

These infants have an incidence of approximately 40% to 50% of associated anomalies

* Overall survival is approximately 80% to 90%

When the diagnosis is known prenatally, planned cesarean section is the safest method of delivery

Which of the following are typical causes of neonatal intestinal obstruction?

Intussusception

* Meconium ileus

Hirschprung’s disease

Meckel’s diverticulum

Incarcerated hernia

A 6-week-old child presents with generalized seizures, a serum glucose of 30 mg/dL and concurrent
hyperinsulinemia. This child’s first priority is which of the following?

* Permanent central venous access and glucose infusion

Administration of cortisone and adrenocorticotropic hormone

Computerized tomographic scan of the abdomen to look for an islet cell adenoma

Urgent pancreatic resection

At what age is surgical orchiopexy recommended for a child with a unilateral undescended testis?

Рromptly upon discovery, regardless of age

* 1 year

5 to 6 years

Any time prior to puberty

An infant is noted to have a left flank mass shortly after birth and an ultrasound examination
demonstrates left hydronephrosis. The most common cause of this finding is which of the following?

Neonatal Wilm’s tumor

* Congenital ureteropelvic junction obstruction

Multicystic dysplastic kidney

Vesicoureteral reflux
The medical indications for circumcision include which of the following?

* Infants with a history of urinary tract infection

Hypospadias

Phimosis

Enuresis

Vesicoureteral reflux

Which of the following statements regarding neuroblastoma are true?

* Neuroblastoma is the most common abdominal malignancy of childhood

Approximately 80% of neuroblastoma patients are diagnosed prior to age 4

years

N-myc oncogene copy number in neuroblastoma tissue is inversely related to survival probability

Trk proto-oncogene expression in neuroblastoma tissue is inversely related to survival probability

All of the above

Which of the following are considered low risk features for neuroblastoma patients?

Age less than one year

* Stage 2A and 2B disease (International Staging Criteria)

Stage 4S disease (International Staging Criteria)

Neuron specific enolase plasma level less than 100 ng/ml

None of the above

A one month old female infant is brought to you for evaluation of afriable polypoid mass prolapsing
through the vaginal introitus. Your presumptive diagnosis is which of the following?

Ectopic ureterocele

Rectal prolapse

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia with ambiguous genitalia

*Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
 Which of the following approaches is considered standard care for most Wilms’ tumor patients in
the United States today?

Adriamycin and vincristine therapy followed by surgical resection

Needle biopsy followed by either chemotherapy or resection depending upon the histology

* Primary surgical resection followed by chemotherapy

Radiation therapy if judged unresectable on CT or MRI imaging

Which of the following statements regarding rhabdomyosarcoma are true?

Surgical resection of the primary tumor results in cure of approximately 80 to 90% of all patients

* Currently recommended therapy includes complete resection of primary tumors prior to

chemotherapy for small noninvasive lesions, or after documented response with more formidable
primary tumors

Alveolar histology is a favorable prognostic finding

Overall survival of all patients is now approximately 50%

Patients with Wilms’ tumors most frequently present with which of the following?

Bilateral metachronous lesions

Bilateral synchronous lesions

An extrarenal primary

A multicentric primary lesion

* A unifocal, unilateral lesion

Hepatoblastomas are childhood liver tumors characterized by which of the following features?

Multicentricity

Cirrhosis in the uninvolved liver

* Unresectable tumors subjected to cytoreductive chemotherapy may be resected with long-term

survival

Jaundice
Common sites of neuroblastoma metastasis are which of the following?

Lung

Regional lymph nodes

* Bone marrow

Cortical bone

Liver

Which of the following statements regarding renal tumors of childhood and adolescence are true?

Clear cell sarcoma is presently considered a variant of Wilms’ tumor with a poor prognosis

* Clear cell sarcoma of the kidney has a high rate of metastasis to bone

Rhabdoid tumors may arise in the kidney, mediastinum or brain

Childhood rhabdoid tumors of the kidney carry an excellent prognosis

Which of the following syndromes are associated with the development of Wilms’ tumor?

* Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (hemi-hypertrophy, macroglossia, aniridia)

Neurofibromatosis

Denys-Drash syndrome (pseudohermaphroditism, glomerulopathy)

Gonadal dysgenesis

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

What is the kind of pain can be in case of stone in the intramural part of ureter
with urodynamics disorders?
aching
stupid
*acute
constant aching
Choose the localization and irradiation of pain in case of a stone of the intramural ureter
with urodynamics disorders:
lumbar region without irradiation
hypochondrium with irradiation under the scapula
the lateral abdomen with radiation to the lumbar region
inguinal region with irradiation to the thigh
* the lumbar region with radiation to the inguinal region, the inner thigh and genitals
In acute parenchymal prostatitis pain is…
constant aching
paroxysmal
* intense, up to pulsating
stupid
acute
In acute parenchymal prostatitis pain is localized …
above the bosom
in the lumbar region
in the lumbosacral spine
* in the perineum and sacrum
in the perineum
Dysuria does not occur with …
ureteral stone
bladder tumors
bladder stone
cystitis
* orchitis
Stranguria does not occur with …
foreign bodies of the urethra
bladder stone
* ureteral stone
acute prostatitis
prostate adenoma
Nocturia does not occur with …
heart failure
* diabetes mellitus
chronic renal failure
chronic glomerulonephritis
prostate adenoma
Pollakiuria is …
increase in urine output
* b) increased urination of day and night
c) increased urination at night
d) increased daily urination
d) an increase in nighttime urine output
Oliguria is …
delayed urination
rare urination
* decrease in the amount of urine
an increase in the amount of
urine
the amount of urine is less than 300 ml per day
Oliguria does not occur …
in heart failure
with the defeat of vegetative centers of water-salt metabolism
with acute pyelonephritis
with chronic pyelonephritis
* with diabetes
Urinary retention is …
lack of urine output by the kidneys
* the impossibility of self-emptying the bladder
the absence of urine in the bladder during
catheterization lack of self-urination in a horizontal
position paradoxical ischuria
Urinary retention does not occur when …
atresia of the external opening of the urethra
neurogenic bladder dysfunction
* ureteral obstruction
prostate adenomas
sclerosis of the bladder neck
Urinary retention occurs with all of the above, except …
prostate cancer
* acute renal failure
urethral stricture
urethral stone
phimosis
Paradoxical Ishuria is …
the impossibility of self-urination
chronic urinary retention
* a combination of urinary retention and urinary
incontinence urinary incontinence
a combination of a delay of urination withhold urine
Urinary incontinence is …
involuntary urination without urge
imperative urination
* involuntary urination as a result of imperative
urge involuntary urination
involuntary discharge of urine in an upright position
The normal urine reaction (pH) is varied …
within 3.0-5.0
within 5.0-6.0
* within 7.0-9.0
within 6.0-8.0
within 2.0-4.0
How much protein should be in urine for proteinuria presence
traces
less than 0.03 g / l
* more than 0.03 g / l
more than 0.06 g / l
more than 0.09 g / l
The renal proteinuria occurs …
with nephropathy of pregnant women
with renal amyloidosis
in newborns
in adolescents
* in all these cases
Hematuria is …
the presence in the urine of a blood pigment of hemoglobin
the allocation of blood from the urethra
* urinary blood excretion
the presence of porphyrin in the urine
erythrocyturia
The terminal hematuria does not occur with …
stones or tumors of the bladder neck
the varicose expansion of veins in the neck of the bladder
* chronic glomerulonephritis
colliculitis
acute cystitis
It is customary to talk about leukocyturia when the content of leukocytes in the field of view of the microscope
…
more than 2
more than 4
* more than 6
more than 8
more than 10
It is customary to talk about leukocyturia with the content of leukocytes in 1 ml of urine…
more than 500
more than 1000
more than 2000
* more than 4000
 more than 6000
Indications for catheterization of the ureters are not …
for separate urine from each kidney
when conducting retrograde pyelography and ureterography
with obstructive anuria
in the differential diagnosis of secretory and obstructive anuria
* with secretory anuria
Complications of urethra bougienage are all listed, except
urethral fever
acute prostatitis
urethrorrorgy
* fornical bleeding
acute epididymitis
Contraindications to urethral bougienage are not the presence of
prostate adenomas
acute epididymitis
acute cystitis and prostatitis
* chronic prostatitis and cystitis
acute urethritis
Dry urethroscopy is used for examination
prostate gland
the bladder
kidneys
ureters
* seminal colliculus
Irrigation urethroscopy is used for examination
the front of the urethra
* posterior urethra
seed tubercle
ureters
kidneys
Contraindications to chromocystoscopy are
acute renal failure
chronic prostatitis
chronic renal failure
renal hepatic failure
* bladder capacity less than 50 ml
Indigo carmine is normally secreted from the orifices of the ureters when administered intravenously through
15-20 min
8-10 min
* 3-5 min
1-2 min
10-12 min
Indigo carmine is normally secreted from the orifices of the ureters when administered intramuscularly through
3-5 min
5-7 minutes
7-8 minutes
* 0-15 min
20-25 min
A positive symptom of diaphanoscopy is characteristic
for a testicular tumor
for acute orchoepididymitis
* for dropsy of testicular
membranes for inguinal-scrotal
hernia
for chronic epididymitis
Indications for uroflowmetry are not the presence of
urethral stricture, urethral valve
prostate adenomas
prostate cancer
* acute prostatitis
 neurogenic bladder dysfunction
The uroflowmetric index (average volumetric rate of urination) is normally equal to
4-5 ml / s
6-8 ml / sec
9-15 ml / s
* 15-24 ml / s
25-40 ml / s
Intravesical pressure is normal when filling the bladder with 300-400 ml of fluid is
up to 5 cm of water . with t
up to 10 cm of water . with t
up to 15-20 cm of water . with t
up to 20-25 cm of water . with t
* up to 30-40 cm of water . with t
The percentage of detection of prostate cancer with a puncture biopsy is
100%
* 90%
80%
70%
60%
The presence of Sternheimer Malbin cells and active white blood cells in the urine sediment is typical for
acute glomerulonephritis
chronic glomerulonephritis
* acute pyelonephritis
chronic pyelonephritis in remission
kidney tuberculosis
The secret of the prostate gland normally contains
* white blood cells (not more than 10), single red blood
cells macrophages and amyloid bodies
bacteria
epithelial and giant cells
mucus
The fructose in the ejaculate is equaled to …
100 mg%
150 mg%
200 mg%
* 250 mg% or more
1000 mg%
With the introduction of radiopaque substances does not happen
headache and dizziness
sensations of heat
metallic taste in the mouth
* macrohematuria
drops in blood pressure within 20 mm RT. Art., shock
An indication for vesiculography is not
suspected tumor of seminal vesicles
prostate cancer
tuberculosis of seminal vesicles and prostate gland
tumors of the bottom and neck of the bladder
* testicular tumors
Indications for epididymography are
orchitis
impotence
testicular tumor
* infertility
In pelvic venography the contrast agent is predominantly administered
in the femoral vein
in the large saphenous vein
* in the pubic bones
in the deep and superficial veins of the penis
in the ilium
The substance introduced for the radioindication of a particular organ of a person is called
radioactive drug
* radiopharmaceutical
labeled compounds
isotope preparation
short-lived drug
To prepare the patient for a radioisotope study,
cleansing enema
dry eating
* normal drinking and food regimen
the introduction of a test dose of the drug
hunger on the eve of the study
When conducting renography, the most convenient position for the patient is
* sitting, with the location of sensors (detectors) from the
back sitting, with the location of the sensors from the abdomen
lying, with the location of the sensors from the back
lying, with the location of the sensors from the abdomen
lying, with the location of the sensors on the area of the bladder
Contraindications for renography are
individual intolerance to iodine-containing contrast agents
* there are practically no
contraindications renal failure
liver failure
hyperthyroidism
Ultrasonic signs of a simple kidney cyst
volumetric round formation
volumetric formation of a rounded form of hypoechoic structure
solid (tissue) formation of a rounded shape
solid formation of rounded shape with smooth contours
* volumetric formation of a rounded shape, hypoechoic structure with the phenomenon of distal
amplification of an echo signal
Ultrasonic signs of kidney cancer
volumetric round formation
forming volume ovoid shape
thin-walled volumetric formation of hypoechoic structure
* volumetric formation of a round shape of a solid echostructure
hypoechoic volume formation with a capsule of 2-3 mm
During ultrasound scanning the kidneys of an adult are determined in the form of an ovoid shape, the
longitudinal size of which is …
2-4 cm
5-6 cm
7-9 cm
* 10-12 cm
20-30 cm
During ultrasound scanning, the kidneys of an adult are determined in the form of an ovoid shape, the transverse
size of which is
3.5-4.0 cm
* 4.5-6.5 cm
6.5-7.5 cm
8.5-9.5 cm
8.5-9.5 cm
The thickness of the renal parenchyma during ultrasound scanning is
0.8-1.0 cm
1.0-1.2 cm
1.0-1.6 cm
* 1.8-1.9 cm
1.5-3.2 cm
Among the joint surface relationships, the following disorders are distinguished, except

Congenital dislocation

Pathological dislocation

*Fracture.

Dysplasia

Subluxation.

Uneven bone growth and limb shortening in children is due to all of the above, except

Epifiseolysis

Osteoepyphysis.

*Diaphyseal fracture

Metaepyphilic osteomyelitis

Bone cartilage exostosis.

The most common dislocation of the sternum end of the clavicle:

*Presternum

Suprasternum

Poststernum

Infrasternum

Stern-acromic

If the ligament's dislocated clavicle is damaged, it's not complete:

Stern-clavicle

Clavicle-coracoid

Coraco-acromial

*Acromial-clavicle

Coracoid-stern
Maximum recommended pneumatic harness pressure on the upper third of the arm during
operations on the upper extremities:

120 mmHg

150 mmHg

190 mmHg

220 mmHg

*250 mmHg

Early complication of clavicle fracture is:

*Damage to the vascular nervous bundle

Ununion

Wound inflammation

Osteomyelitis

Refracture.

Old clavicle dislocation counts as a term:

1-2 weeks

2-3 weeks.

*Three to four weeks.

Two months.

for more than six months.

Recommended period of immobilization during reconstructive plastic surgery to restore the

ligamentary apparatus in case of clavicle dislocation:

2-3 weeks

3-4 weeks.

*4-6 weeks.
Eight to nine weeks.

Ten weeks.

The most common dislocations?

Dislocation of clavicle

*humerus dislocation

Shin bone dislocation

The dislocation of the forearm bones

Hip dislocation.

Most often, the fracture of the sternum is combined with:

Lung injury

*Heart bruise

Rib fracture.

A clavicle fracture.

Fracture of the humerus.

Stern-clavicle joint has a shape:

Block-shaped

*Cylindrical

Spherical

Flat

The condyle

How many muscles are attached to the clavicle:

2
3

*5

The emergency indication for clavicle surgical treatment is everything, except

Open fracture

vascular nerve damage

Risk of perforation by bone fragments of the vascular beam

*Brain injury

Risk of skin perforation.

In order to verify the diagnosis and choose the treatment tactics for scapular fracture, it is necessary
to carry out a diagnostic study:

Radiography

Magnetic resonance imaging

*Computer tomography

Ultrasound scapulae

Craniography

The most frequent fracture in the structure of the humerus fractures is:

Fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus

*Surgical neck fracture of the humerus

Fracture of the shoulder bone diaphysis

The fracture of the condyle of the humerus

Fracture of the humerus block

Which nerve is more often damaged by shoulder bone diaphysis fractures:

Elbow nerve
Middle nerve.

Medial skin nerve

*Radial nerve

Axillary nerve

Which muscle is not part of the rotational cuff:

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

Teres minor

*Suprascapularis

Subscapularis

Which method does not apply to shoulder dislocation techniques:

Janelidze

Kokher

Motha

Hypocrat

*Riche-Hooter

A bending radius fracture in a typical place is called by the author:

Colles

Jones.

*Smith.

Brechta

Lefor

A radius extensor fracture in a typical location is called an author's fracture:

*Colles

Jones.

Smith.

Brechta

Lefora

In three-articular arthrodesis, the feet include joints:

Talus-cuboid, heel-scaphoid, subtalar.

*talus-scaphoid, heel-cuboid, subtalar.

Talus-heel, scaphoid-metatarsal, cuboid-metatarsal.

Heel-scaphoid, subtalar, cuboid-metatarsal.

subtalar, scaphoid-metatarsal, cuboid- metatarsal.

Fracture of the ulnar bone in the proximal metaphysis in combination with traumatic dislocation of
the head of the radius is known as:

Galeazzi

Montage

Lefor

*Brecht

Jones.

A fracture of the elbow diaphysis combined with a traumatic dislocation of the radius head is known
as:

Galeazzi

*Montage

Lefor

Brecht

Jones.
The fracture of the lower third of the radius combined with the traumatic dislocation of the elbow
head is known as:

*Galeazzi

Montage

Lefor

Brecht

Jones.

It's called Jones' fracture:

Dislocated fractureof scaphoid.

Fracture in the neck of the talus.

*Fracture of the proximal part of the body of the V metatarsal bone

Fracture of the heel bone.

Fracture of the IV metatarsal base

Position of the foot at gypsum immobilization of heel bone fracture after repositioning:

Middle-physiological

Neutral.

Rear bending.

Equinus-varus

*Solar flexion

The indication for arthrodesis of the ankle joint is

*Deforming osteoarthritis with severe pain syndrome.

Arthrosis of the subtalar joint.

Joint contour.

Instability of the ankle joint.

Fracture of the heel bone.

The lateral release of the 1st toe of the foot in Hallux valgus consists of:

Sesame bone extirpations.

*Tenotomy of the muscle leading to the 1st finger.

Tenotomy of the muscle that withdraws the 1st finger.

Removal of exostosis of the 1st metatarsal bone

A joint capsule dissection.

The main ligament of the ankle joint is the "Key of the ankle joint", this:

The anterior talus and fibula ligament

*Deltoid ligament

Posterior interfibial ligament

Rear thigh ligament.

Achill'stendon

The most common complication of the talus is:

Nonunion

Arthritis of the ankle joint

*Avascular necrosis of the talus

Ankylosis of a subtalar joint.

Fracture of the heel bone.

The shape of the hip joint refers to:

Elipsoidal

*Spherical

Block-shaped.
Cylindrical.

Flat.

An elderly person's femoral neck fracture is a selection operation:

Arthrodesis

Osteosynthesis with the right rod

*Arthroplasty

Interversion osteotomy

Osteosynthesis with a 3-blade nail.

The term "Offset" of the hip joint means

Distance between small trochanters

Distance between a trochanter major and acetabulum

*Distance between the centre of femoral head rotation and the femoral axis

Distance between trochanter major and minor

Weakness of the muscles that take away the hips

The term "penetrating" vertebral fracture means

Penetration of body fragments of the vertebrae into the spinal canal

Gunshot wounds to the vertebrae

Damage to the spinal cord

*Fracture of the cranial or caudal locking plates of the vertebrae.

The presence of a foreign body in the spinal canal

How many degrees are the degrees of wedge-shaped deformation of the vertebral body divided by
the severity of compression fractures:

On the 2nd degree

*On the 3rd degree.

To the fourth degree.

Five degrees.

There are no degrees.

Knee joint puncture resulted in exudate with neutrophils as the predominant cells, which indicates
the nature of the exudate:

Serous

Hemorrhagic

Chills.

*Purulent

Normal.

The most accurate method of diagnosing knee joint injuries:

*Arthroscopy

Magnetic resonance imaging

CT scan

ULTRASOUND

Spiral CT scan

Immobilization time for conservative treatment of the scaphoid bone:

1 month

Two months.

*3 months.

Six weeks.

Five months.

The intraarticular fracture of the base of the I metacarpal bone is:

Wheels
Smith.

Brecht

Montage

*Bennett.

The aseptic necrosis of a semilunar bone is that:

*Kinbeck's disease

Nott's Disease

Price's disease

Clicking a joint

De Carven's disease

What nerve is located between the brachial and brachioradialis muscles in the region of the lower
third of the shoulder

ulnaris

medianus

brachialis

*radialis

Axillary.

Cubic channel syndrome is that:

Radial nerve compression

Compression of the peroneal nerve

Compression of the median nerve

*ulnar nerve compression

Compression of the tibial nerve

Tarsal canal syndrome is:

Compression of the superficial branch of the radial nerve

Compression of the deep branch of the peroneal nerve

Compression of the median nerve

Compression of the ulnar nerve

*Compression of the posterior tibial nerve branches

Patient, 60 years old, fell in the yard of the house on his right side. Delivered to the trauma unit by
an ambulance. Complaints of pain in the area of the right hip joint, an attempt to stand up on his
own has not been successful. When examined, there is swelling in the right hip joint, palpation is
sharply painful. The symptom of a "stuck heel" is positive. Which method of diagnosis will be the
fastest and most informative?

*Radiography

CT scan

Doppler Screening

Ultrasound scan

Magnetic resonance imaging

It's only a sign of a fracture.

Pain...

Hematoma

*Bone grafting

Swelling

A disturbance of the limb function

The main causative agent of acute hematogenic osteomyelitis is:

Streptococcus

*Staphylococcus

Escherichia coli

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Koch's bacteria

With a fracture of the forearm, the tire is superimposed:

From the wrist to the upper third of the shoulder

From the wrist to the elbow.

To the fracture site

*From fingertips to the upper third of the shoulder

From fingertips to the lower third of the shoulder

The stability of the pelvis is ensured by:

Front half ring

*Rear half ring

Pubic symphysis

Acetabulum

Pubic bone

Fracture Pipkin - 1 is:

Acetabular fracture

*Fracture of the head below the fossa at the level of attachment of the round ligament of the femur.

Femoral neck fracture

Basal femoral neck fracture.

The combination of a fracture of the bottom of the acetabulum with a central dislocation of the
femur.

Recommended treatment for Pipkin fractures 1 and 2:

Cementlessendoprosthetics

Osteosynthesis with cannulated screws

*Conservative
Femoral stem osteosynthesis

Cement arthroplasty

Is the “Gold Standard” for Suspected Pelvic Fracture ?:

X-Ray

Magnetic resonance imaging

*Computed tomography

Arthroscopy

Ultrasonography

What operation is indicated for the instable shoulder (dislocation more than 20 times):

Operation Bankart

*Operation Laterge

Operation Bishop

Tenodez

Arthroplasty

What operation is indicated for a habitual dislocation of the shoulder (dislocation less than 5 times):

*Bankart

Laterge

Bishop

Tenodez

Arthroplasty

Patient, 52 years old. Entered on an emergency basis with a diagnosis of “Closed fracture of the
upper third of the right femur with displacement. On the 2nd day of hospitalization, the patient
experienced increased breathing, cyanosis of the skin and mucous membranes, and an increase in
body temperature to 39 ° C. There are scattered symptoms of damage to the cerebral cortex,
subcortical formations and the trunk: smoothness of the nasolabial folds, deviation of the tongue,
and swallowing disorder. Radiographs of the lungs show symptoms of edema - a picture of a
“snowstorm”.What is the patient’s complication ?:

Massive blood loss

Sepsis

Myocardial infarction

*Fat embolism

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

What damage is most often observed with anterior dislocation of the humerus?:

Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus.

Fracture of the acromial end of the clavicle

Rupture of the long head of the biceps of the shoulder

*Damage to the anterior edge of the articular lip of the articular process of the scapula

Fracture of the coracoid process of the scapula

What treatment is indicated for damage to the anterior edge of the articular lip of the articular
process of the scapula ?:

*Arthroscopic surgery Bankart.

Screw damage synthesis

Gypsum immobilization

Soft Deso Headband

Transposition of the tendon of the long head of the biceps of the shoulder.

The method of choosing surgical treatment for initially open fracture of the lower leg with a high risk
of purulent-inflammatory complications is:

Intramedullary Osteosynthesis

Plate and screw osteosynthesis

Gypsum immobilization

*External fixation device

Skeletal traction

List the Turner triad for injuries of the knee joint:

*Complete rupture of the PCB, damage to the medial collateral ligament, damage to the meniscus

Rupture of PCL, rupture of the medial collateral ligament, meniscus damage

ACL rupture, damage to the external collateral ligament, meniscus damage

PCLrupture, meniscus damage, mediopathic fold

ACL rupture, damage to the medial and lateral meniscus

The "gold standard" in the diagnosis of knee damage is:

Roentgenography

CT scan

Ultrasonography

Multispiral computed tomography

*Magnetic resonance imaging

The gold standard in the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:

X-Ray

CT scan

Ultrasonography

*Densitometry

Magnetic resonance imaging

Bolnoyrazlichaet 1. If only the first line of the table for determining the visual acuity
with the distance of 1 meter and , it has the visual acuity , equal to :
a) 0.1 ;
b) 0.05 ;
+ c) 0.02 ;
g) 0.01 ;
d) 0.04 .

2. What is the type of ametropia in which changes can occur in the fundus:
a) hyperopia ;
b) astigmatism ;
+ c) myopia ;
d) anisometropia ;
d ) aniseiconium .

3. What symptom is not part of the complication of barley:

a) phlegmon orbits ;
b) thrombophlebitis of orbital veins ;
c) cavernous sinus thrombosis ;
d) an abscess of the upper eyelid ;
+ e) eversion of the lower eyelid .

4. Perforation of an ulcer in an egg’s horns can lead to :

+ a) endophthalmitis ;
b) enophthalmus ;
c) hemophthalmus ;
g) hyphema ;
e) Sympathetic th ophthalmia and .

5. If h abolevani and kako second part of the eye develops surface injection I :
+ a) conjunctiva ;
b) cornea ;
c) the iris and ciliary body ;
d) choroid ;
d) the retina .

6. What vessels dilate with pericorneal injection:

a) the posterior long ciliary arteries ;
b) posterior short ciliary arteries ;
c) ethmoid arteries ;
d) branches of the lacrimal artery ;
+ e) anterior ciliary arteries .

7. What does pericorneal injection look like :

a) lilac-violet color, amplified to the arches ;
b) bright red color, vessels are traced throughout ;
c) a lilac-violet nimbus, decreases to the arches ;
d) uniform redness of the eye ;
+ d) a bright red corolla around the cornea.

8. Sclera in the places of exit of the optic nerve :

a) thickened a ;
+ b) slatted th ;
c) is absent ;
d) thinned ;
e) continuous .

9. What keratitis is characterized by a decrease in sensitivity?

a) parenchymal ;
+ b) herpetic ;
c) conflicts ;
d) regional go ;
e) a creeping ulcer .

10. As Change is Busy zrach on to when the acute attack of glaucoma ?

a) suzh aetsya ;
+ b) expands ;
c) it has a scalloped s th edge minutes ;
d) does not respond to light ;
e) the pupil does not change .

11. The Distinctive aetsya iridocyclitis with hypertension from an acute attack of
glaucoma ?
a) in specific complaints ah ;
b) the depth of the anterior chamber;
c) the size of the pupil ;
d) the state of the m iris ;
+ d) presence precipitate s in the rear surface of the cornea .

12. The upper limit of true intraocular pressure :

a) 19 mm born in t.st .
+ b) 21 mm born in t.st .
c) 25 mmHg
g) 2 7 mm born in t.st .
d ) 2 9 mmHg

13. Primary surgical delayed treatment is carried out :

a) 12 hours after injury ;
+ b) 24 hours after the injury ;
c) 72 hours after the injury ;
d) at the beginning of active scarring of the wound ;
e) after subsiding of acute inflammatory phenomena .

14. Diagnosis of intraocular foreign bodies is carried out using:

+ a) radiography ;
b) diaphanoscopy ;
c) ultrasonic to pp lerography ;
d) biomicroscopy ;
d) ultrasound scanning.

15. First aid general practitioners in penetrating wounds of the eyeball with
iris prolapse is in :
a) reduction of precipitated shells ;
b) excision of precipitated membranes and sealing the wound ;
+ c) applying a sterile dressing and urgent transportation to an ophthalmological center ;
d) the organization of consultation of an ophthalmotraumatologist ;
d) the decision is individual .
16. The absolute indication for enucleation in relapsing post- traumatic serous uveitis is:
a) increased intraocular pressure;
b) total hemophthalmus ;
+ c) the risk of developing sympathetic ophthalmia ;
d) stab wound to the eyeball
e) double perforated eye injuries.

17. Methyl alcohol poisoning leads to :

a) development w retinal dystrophy ;
b) uveitis ;
c) retinal detachment ;
d) the development of cataracts ;
+ d) optic atrophy .

18. The patient has purulent crusts on the free edge of the eyelid. When they are
removed, numerous small bleeding sores are exposed. Your diagnosis :
+ a) ulcerative blepharitis ;
b) simple blepharitis
c) anular befaritis
g) meibomian blepharitis
e) tick-borne blepharitis

19. The phenomenon of “cherry stone” is observed with :

a) neuritis ;
b) retinal dystrophy ;
c) retinal vein thrombosis ;
+ g) acute retinal arterial obstruction ;
d) retinal detachment.

20. Patients with a second degree of burn of the cornea and conjunctiva should be
treated:
a) outpatient ;
+ b) in a hospital ;
c) no need for treatment;
d) any of the options is possible ;
e) an individual approach in each case .

21. Signs of a fourth degree corneal burn :

a) diffusely EPO turbid ix;
+ b) Porcelain th Otten about to ;
c) the roughness of the surface of the cornea;
d) corneal erosion ;
e) the presence of foreign bodies.

2 2 . Endophthalmitis is
a) purulent inflammation of the conjunctiva;
b) purulent fusion of the cornea;
c) purulent iridocyclitis;
+ d) purulent vitreitis ;
e) purulent inflammation of all membranes .
23. Panophthalmitis is
a) purulent inflammation of the conjunctiva ;
b) purulent inflammation of the cornea ;
c) purulent iridocyclitis ;
d) purulent vitreitis ;
+ e) purulent inflammation of all membranes of the eye .

24. From what distance is visual acuity examined according to the Sivtsev table?
a) from 1 meter ;
b) from 2 meters ;
c) from 3 meters ;
d) from 4 meters ;
+ d) from 5 meters ;

25. According to what table is visual acuity studied in children?

a) Kovalevsky;
b) Sivtseva;
+ c) Orlova;
d) Golovin;
e) Petrova.

26. On which side should the patient windows be located when examining visual acuity
according to the Sivtsev table?
a) in front;
b) on the right;
c) behind;
+ d) on the left;
e) does not matter.

27. What is the advantage of the projector for the study of visual acuity:
+ a) for the study of vision, distance does not matter;
b) a more accurate definition of vision;
c) simplicity of research;
g) the possibility of performing e research in the dark;
d ) the optotypes are different .

28. What is the method for investigating sex I view?

a) ophthalmometry;
+ b) perimetry;
c) biometrics;
d) skioscopy;
d) о ф talmometry.

29 . The lens correcting hyperopia is :

+ A) above zero ;
b) negative ;
c) cylindrical ;
d) monofocal ;
e) multifocal .
.
30. The lens correcting myopia is :
a) plus;
+ b) minus;
c) cylindrical;
d) monofocal ;
e) multifocal.

3 1 . The lens correcting astigmatism is :

a) plus;
b) negative;
+ c) cylindrical;
d) monofocal ;
e) multifocal.

3 2 Meibomian glands located in the cartilaginous plate of the eyelids secrete:

a) a tear;
b) mucous secretion;
+ c) greasy secret;
d) purulent secretion;
e) a bloody secret.
.
3 3 . Glasses for wearing for distance and for working at close range are called:
a) monofocal e ;
b) contact ;
+ c) bifocal ;
d) cylindrical ;
e) multifocal .

3 4 . Persons with ametropi her glasses designated for continuous wear , called :
a) monofocal ;
b) contact;
c) bifocal;
d) cylindrical;
+ e) multifocal.

3 5 . What is visual acuity equal to if the patient reads the 11th line of the Sivtsev table?
a) 0.1;
b) 0.5;
c) 1.0;
+ g) 1.5;
d) 2.0.

3 6 . What is the name of intraocular pressure (IOP) when it is measured in the morning
and evening?
a) true ;
+ b) daily allowance ;
c) target pressure ;
d) tolerant ;
e) tonometric .
3 7 . What infectious conjunctivitis are more common?
+ a) bacterial;
b) viral;
c) chlamydial ;
g) fungal;
e ) conflicts .

3 8 . Common clinical signs of conjunctivitis is ?

a) edema ;
+ b) hyperemia ;
c) discharge ;
d) pain ;
e) hemorrhage .

3 9 . With bacterial conjunctivitis, is discharge more likely ?

a) fibrinous ;
b) bloody ;
c) serous ;
g) mucous membrane ;
+ e) purulent .

40 . With viral conjunctivitis, is discharge more likely?

a) fibrinous;
b) bloody;
+ c) serous;
g) mucous membrane;
e) purulent .

41 . Primary prevention of gonoblenrhea in newborns ?

a) washing the conjunctival sac 1: 5000 with a solution of furacilin at home ;
b) monitoring the condition of the conjunctiva ;
c) instillation of antiseptic drugs into the eyes of newborns ;
+ d) timely rehabilitation of the genitourinary system of pregnant women ;
d) examination and treatment for pregnant conjunctival infections .

42 . The second stage of the prevention of gonoblenrhea in newborns?

a) washing the conjunctival sac 1: 5000 with a solution of furacilin ;
b) monitoring the condition of the conjunctiva;
+ c) instillation of antiseptic drugs into the eyes of newborns;
d) timely rehabilitation of the genitourinary system of pregnant women;
d) examination and treatment for pregnant conjunctival infections .

43 . What is the difference between the clinical picture of gonoblennore and in adults ?
a) profuse bloody discharge ;
+ b) the early development of purulent infiltration and corneal ulcers ;
c) sharp conjunctival hyperemia ;
d) dirty gray films ;
d) does not differ .
44 . Treatment of acute bacterial conjunctivitis ?
a) eye drops from dry eye syndrome ;
b) vitamin therapy ;
c) sulfonamides inside ;
g) desensitizing drug topically ;
+ d) topical antibacterial drugs .

45 . The incubation period of adenoviral epidemic keratoconjunctivitis .

+ a) up to 6 days ;
b) up to 7 days ;
c) up to 8 days ;
d) up to 9 days ;
d) up to 10 days .

46 . What day does a rash appear on the cornea with adenoviral keratoconjunctivitis ?
a) 3-4 days ;
b) 4-5 days ;
c) 5-6 days ;
+ g) 6-7 days ;
d) 7-8 .

47 . Symptoms: itching and burning for centuries characteristic of what conjunctivitis ?

a) bacterial ;
b) viral ;
+ c) allergic ;
d) chlamydial ;
e) fungal .

48 . In a limited area along the edge of the eyelid, a painful inflammatory swelling
appeared with edema of the eyelids and conjunctiva . Your diagnosis.
+ a) barley ;
b) chalazion ;
c) atheroma ;
d) abscess ;
d) phlegmon .

49 . The patient has lacrimation and lacrimation . When pressure is applied to the area
of the lacrimal sac, purulent discharge is secreted from the lacrimal openings. Your
diagnosis.
a) acute conjunctivitis ;
b) dacryocystocele ;
c) acute dacryocystitis ;
g) chronic canaliculitis ;
+ d) chronic dacryocystitis .

50 . The patient has sharp pains, blepharospasm, redness, photophobia,

lacrimation, decreased visual acuity of the left eye. What syndrome do these
symptoms relate to?
a) conjunctival ;
b) cataract ;
+ c) corneal ;
d) scleral ;
e ) retinal .

5 1. What is the characteristic symptom of dacryoadenitis ?

+ a) S - figurative form of the upper eyelid;
b) the lack of movement of the eyeball up;
c) redness of the skin of the lower eyelid;
d) the lack of movement of the eyeball outside;
e) deviation of the eyeball outside.
5 2. Symptoms of photophobia, lacrimation, blepharospasm, a foreign body feeling are
combined into ... syndrome
a) allergic ;
+ corneal ;
c) limbal ;
d) pupillary ;
e) “dry eyes” .
5 3. How does the treatment of dacryocystitis in newborns begin?
a) washing the tear ducts;
b) the appointment of antibacterial eye drops;
+ c) massage of the area of the lacrimal sac;
g) the appointment of antiseptic eye drops;
d) sensing of the nasolacrimal canal.
5 4. Absolute sign of penetrating eye injury:
a) swelling of the eyelids
+ b) the presence of a wound with prolapse of the inner membranes
c) lacrimation
d) photophobia
e ) hyphema
55 . What is the blood in the anterior chamber called?
a) subconjunctival hemorrhage ;
b) hemorrhage ;
c) hypopion ;
g) hemophthalmus ;
+ d ) hyphema .
56 . With a contusion of the eyeball, it can be:
(a) Ambly of FDI ;
b) hyperopia ;
c) primary optic atrophy ;
+ d) retinal edema;
e) myopia .
57. What is a simple penetrating wound?
a) retinal detachment ;
+ b) injury to the membranes of the eye without loss of the contents of the eye ;
c) cataract;
d) prolapse of the inner membranes of the eyeball ;
e) myopia .
58. Vitreous hemorrhage is called:
a) hyphema ;
+ b) hemophthalmus ;
c) hemosiderin ;
g) hematoma ;
e) hypopion .
59 . Pus in the anterior chamber is called :
a) hemosiderosis ;
b) hyphema ;
+ c) hypopion ;
g) rubeosis ;
d ) hemophthalmus .
60 . How many stages of primary glaucoma?
a) 2 ;
+ b) 4 ;
c) 6 ;
d) 8 ;
d) 10 .

61 . The goal of antihypertensive treatment of glaucoma is:

a) n Accelerating visual acuity
+ + b) decrease in intraocular pressure
c) reduction in excavation
d) preservation of residual vision
d) expansion of the peripheral border of the field of view
62 . A characteristic symptom of squamous blepharitis is:
a) ulceration of the ciliary edge of the eyelids ;
b) hyperemia of the edge of the eyelids ;
c) thickening of the edge of the eyelids ;
+ d) gray scales at the base of the eyelashes ;
e) foamy discharge in the corners of the palpebral fissure .
63 . In the newborn child on the third day of life appeared bloody discharge from
both eyes. Your diagnosis.
a) diphtheria conjunctivitis ;
b) pneumococcal conjunctivitis ;
c) viral conjunctivitis ;
+ d) gonoblenorrhea ;
e ) chlamydial conjunctivitis .
64 . The base of the triangular vascular fold of the conjunctiva is facing :
+ a) to the lunate fold of the conjunctiva ;
b) to the upper wall of the orbit ;
c) to the outside ;
d) towards the upper orbital gap ;
e) towards the lacrimal gland .
65 . For uncorrected myopia is characteristic:
+ a) divergent strabismus;
b) converging strabismus;
c) monolateral strabismus;
d) paralytic strabismus;
e) vertical strabismus.
66 . At what refraction is a constant accommodation stress observed:
a) myopia;
b) emmetropia;
+ c) hyperopia;
d) presbyopia;
d ) anisometropia .
67 . What kind of injection is characteristic for keratitis?
a) conjunctival;
+ b) pericorneal ;
c) mixed;
d) stagnant;
e) injection does not happen.
68 . What anatomical changes in the lens occur with age?
+ a) the elasticity of the lens is weakened;
b) the strength of accommodation is enhanced ;
c) the elasticity of the lens increases;
d) the volume of the lens increases;
d) the rear capsule is compacted.
6 9. With a reduction in the ciliary muscle, the tension of the fibers of the zinc cords:
a) does not change;
b) amplified;
+ c) weakened;
d) lengthens;
e) it is shortened.
7 0. Scleritis and episcleritis differ in :
a) the method of penetration of an infectious agent;
b) the nature of the inflammatory process;
+ c) the depth of the lesion;
d) the prevalence of the process;
e) complications.
7 1. A significant decrease in the sensitivity of the cornea is characteristic of keratitis:
a) bacterial origin;
b) tuberculosis origin;
+ c) herpetic origin;
d) syphilitic genesis;
e) brucellosis.
7 2. At examination the patient detected in the left eye deep corneal tissue defect coated
yellowish infiltrate having progressive and retrogressive edge and hypopyon in
front kamere.Vash before presupposed diagnosis.
a) erosion of the cornea ;
b) post-traumatic keratitis ;
+ c) a creeping ulcer of the cornea ;
g) herpetic keratitis ;
e) vitamin deficiency keratitis .
7 3. Absence of pain in inflammatory diseases s choroid can be explained by:
a) the autonomy of this zone of the choroid;
b) a violation of normal nerve conduction in the posterior
vascular lining of the eye;
+ c) the absence of sensory nerve fibers in the choroid ;
g) the peculiarity of the blood supply of the choroid ;
e) the absence of an inflammatory focus.
7 4. At what age does visual impairment appear when working at close range, if the
patient has emmetropic refraction ?
a) at 25 years old ;
b) at 30 ;
c) 35 years ;
+ d) 40 years ;
d) 45 years .
7 5. In a child, either his right or left eye deviated to his nose. In recent days, only the
left eye began to mow. What is the name of this complication ?
a) imaginary strabismus ;
+ b) dysbinocular gallopia ;
c) asthenopathy ;
g) deprivation gallopia ;
e) congenital anomaly .
76 . Complaints with an acute attack of glaucoma:
a) photophobia, breaking pain when looking at a light source, fog in front of the eye;
b) lacrimation, a burning sensation and “ litter ” over the centuries, a slight “ veil ” in front of
the eye;
c) photophobia, lacrimation, blepharospasm, foreign body sensation behind the upper eyelid,
decreased visual acuity;
+ d) aching, throbbing pains in the eye, rainbow circles when looking at a light source;
e ) pain in the epigastric region, a feeling of a foreign body in the eye, lacrimation.
77 . The phenomenon of a cherry spot (seed) is observed with :
a) retinal dystrophy;
b) ischemic neuropathy ;
c) retinal vein thrombosis ;
+ d) acute obstruction of the central retinal artery;
e) retinal break .
7 8. When viewed from a patient pupil of the right eye gray fundus reflex is absent, the
intraocular pressure in the range of norms s . To Which treatment is indicated?
a) vitamin therapy ;
b) anti-inflammatory ;
c) antibacterial ;
d) physiotherapeutic ;
+ d) surgical.
79 . At what stage of cataract is visual acuity equal to light perception ?
a) beginner;
b) immature;
+ c) mature;
d) overripe;
e) complicated.
8 0. Objective research methods for refraction for a child under three years of age
include:
a) ophthalmometry;
b) perimetry;
c) refractometry;
+ g) skioscopy;
e) ophthalmoscopy.
8 1. How many layers does the cornea consist of?
a) 6 layers;
+ b) 5 layers;
c) 4 layers;
d) 3 layers;
d) 2 layers.
8 2. Displacement of the lens into the anterior chamber requires:
a) drug treatment;
+ b) surgical treatment;
c) dynamic observation;
g) physiotherapy ;
e) radiation therapy.
8 3. The diagnosis of through wounds of the eyeball is established on the basis of:
a) enophthalmos;
b) hyphema ;
+ c) the presence of an inlet and outlet;
d) sharp pains when moving the eyeball;
d) exophthalmos.
8 4. An intraocular foreign body can be detected in the eye using:
a) skioscopy;
b) ophthalmometry;
+ c) radiography of the orbit;
d) ophthalmotonometry ;
e ) exophthalmometry .
8 5. Survey images of the orbit during penetrating wound of the eyeball are carried out:
+ a) in all cases;
b) only if there is a history of data on the introduction of a foreign body;
c) only in cases where there are symptoms of fracture of the walls of the orbit;
d) with the localization of the fragment behind the eye;
e) only in cases where it is impossible to use the Comberg-Baltin prosthesis .
86 . When washing the lacrimal passages with their normal patency, the liquid flows
out:
+ a) a trickle from the nose;
b) through another lacrimal opening;
c) drops from the nose;
d) through the same lacrimal opening;
e) flows only into the oral cavity.
8 7. In the patient , conjunctival duplication is visible on both eyes of the nose side of the
eyeball, growing on the cornea in the form of a triangle. She reaches the pupil
zone. Estimated diagnosis.
a) a penguin ;
+ b) pterygium ;
c) conflicting keratitis;
g) atheroma;
d) a cyst.
88 . The patient complains of redness of the edges of the eyelids, constant itching, a
feeling of clogging of both eyes. Objectively: Oh ba eyes - the edges of the eyelids are
thickened, hyperiminated , at the roots of the eyelashes - scales, moderate hyperemia
and roughness of the conjunctiva. What is your diagnosis?
a) simple blepharitis, acute conjunctivitis;
b) simple blepharitis, chronic conjunctivitis;
+ c) scaly blepharitis, chronic conjunctivitis;
d) ulcerative blepharitis, acute conjunctivitis;
e) ulcerative blepharitis, chronic conjunctivitis.
8 9 . The patient complained of headache, pain in the right eye, redness and swelling in
the right lacrimal sac, hyperemia and swelling of the eyelids, the eye does not open. On
examination, the following was revealed: the right eye - edema, hyperemia, sharp pain
on palpation of the lacrimal sac, the palpebral fissure is closed by edematous eyelids,
the area of the lacrimal sac bulges out, sharply hyperemic. Make a diagnosis.
a) acute dacryoadenitis ;
+ b) acute dacryocystitis;
c) chronic dacryoadenitis ;
g) sharp chronically minutes dacryocystitis;
d ) canaliculitis .
9 0. The patient complains of pain and a foreign body sensation in both eyes, eyelid
bonding in the morning. He was ill for 2 days, at first the right eye fell ill, and then the
left. Objectively: Oh eyes - the crusts are dried on the eyelashes, the conjunctiva of the
eyelids is hyperemic , velvety, the pattern of the meibomian glands of the cartilage is not
visible, the conjunctival injection of sclera is moderate. Your diagnosis:
+ a) acute bacterial conjunctivitis;
b) adenoviral conjunctivitis;
c) epidemic keratoconjunctivitis ;
g) pneumococcal conjunctivitis;
e ) diplobacillary blepharoconjunctivitis .
9 1. The patient is disturbed by severe pain in the right eye , radiating to the right half
of the head, nausea, vomiting. The eye fell ill suddenly in the morning after nervous
stress. Objectively: the right eye is a stagnant injection, the pupil is wide and the
anterior chamber is small. With gonioscopy of the right eye, the angle of the anterior
chamber is closed. In nutriglaznoe davleniepravogo eyes 41 mm born in t.st . Your
diagnosis .
+ a) an acute attack of glaucoma;
b) narrow - angle glaucoma;
+ c) subacute attack of glaucoma ;
d) closed - angle glaucoma;
e) open -angle coal glaucoma.
92 . The sclera is intended for :
a) trophic eye;
+ b) the protection of internal formations of the eye;
c) refraction of light;
d) creating a certain eye temperature;
d) maintaining the tone of the eye.
93 . The vascular tract performs the function of:
+ a) trophic;
b) refraction of light;
c) the perception of light;
d) light conduction ;
e) visual.
94 . The retina performs the function of:
a) refraction of light;
b) trophic;
+ c) the perception of light;
d) conducting light;
e) accommodative.
95 . Biomicroscopy is:
a) the study of the field of view;
+ b) intravital microscopy of the eye;
c) determining the width of the angle of the anterior chamber;
g) the study of color discrimination;
e) cytology.
96 . Bowman's membrane is between :
+ a) corneal epithelium and stroma;
b) stroma and descemet shell;
c) descemetic membrane and endothelium;
d) anterior and posterior epithelium;
e) there is no correct answer.
97 . The choroid feeds and :
+ a) the outer layers of the retina;
b) the inner layers of the retina;
c) the entire retina;
d) sclera;
e) conjunctiva.
98 . Orbit in newborns:
+ a) trihedral;
b) tetrahedral;
c) pentahedral;
g) hexagon;
e) seven-sided.
99 . The cone apparatus of the eye determines the status of the following functions:
a) light perception , adaptation to light;
b) adaptation and to light, visual acuity;
+ c) liners have vision and color ooschuscheniya ;
d) a feeling of light and color;
d) adaptation to the dark.
10 0. The highest density of cones in :
+ a) the central fossa of the retina;
b) the paramacular region;
c) the macular region;
d) near the optic disc;
d) the back pole of the eye.

Extarnal abdominal hernia is called

the departure of internal organs from the abdominal cavity through the artificial opening of
the abdominal wall without parietal peritoneum
the passage of part of an organ or an entire organ, not covered by the peritoneum, through
natural openings
+the exit of internal organs together with the parietal peritoneum from the abdominal cavity
through natural or artificial openings under the skin
the emergence of internal organs together with the parietal peritoneum through the cracks in
the muscular-aponeurotic layer of the pelvic floor with integrity of the skin
the introduction of abdominal organs into the thoracic cavity through natural or artificial
aperture of the diaphragm.

Weakness of the inguinal canal plays an important role in the

development of a direct inguinal hernia
front wall
+back wall
top wall
bottom wall
all walls

The basis of the pathogenesis of acute appendicitis is:

violation of intestinal motility
+infectious process
allergic component
the effect of helminthic invasion
neuroreflex disorders

After an attack of acute appendicitis, it may develop

chronic abortive appendicitis
+chronic residual appendicitis
primary chronic appendicitis
secondary chronic appendicitis
chronic recurrent appendicitis

The daily amount of bile entering the intestine per day is

300 ml
2.500 ml
+700-1000 ml
1000-1200 ml
1500 ml

Gallbladder Function:
+deposition and concentration of bile
synthesis and secretion of bile acids
creation of hypertension in the extrahepatic biliary tract
activation of cholesterol and bile acids
formation of bound bilirubin

Symptom Sklyarov with acute intestinal obstruction is characterized

tympanic sound with a metallic tint during percussion of the abdomen
stiffness of the abdominal wall in the form of an inflated ball
+definition of “splashing noise” during abdominal auscultation
determination of a fixed and extended loop of the intestine in the form of a balloon during
palpation of the abdomen
expansion of the ampoule of the rectum and gaping of the anus

Peritonitis is called
+acute or chronic inflammation of the parietal and visceral peritoneum
fluid in the abdominal cavity
damage to the integrity of the peritoneum
the introduction into the abdominal cavity of the infection without signs of inflammation
adhesive process in the abdominal cavity
Between the left edge of the wall of the esophagus and the bottom of the stomach is formed

pilorus
+his angle
cardia
Ligament of the Treitz
lumbar triangle

The place where the esophagus passes into the stomach is called
.
pylorus
His angle
+cardia
Tereitsa bunch
lumbar triangle

Under the influence of , collicative necrosis of the esophagus

develops
acetic acid
acetone
antifreeze
+caustic soda
sulfuric acid

Mayo-Robson's symptom in acute pancreatitis is characterized by

resistance and pain in the area of the projection of the pancreas
+soreness in the left rib-vertebral corner
the absence of pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric region Due to edema and
pancreatic infiltration
cyanosis of certain sections of the front surface of the abdomen
the appearance of purple-marble spots on the body

Eleker's symptom is characteristic of

acute appendicitis
acute cholecystitis
acute pancreatitis
pyloroduodenal stenosis
+perforation of pyloroduodenal ulcer

Table prescribed for peptic ulcer of the duodenum

+1
5
9
15
4

A characteristic symptom of lung gangrene

prolonged dry cough
+hectic fever
black feces
subfebrile temperature
the appearance of bluish spots on the front surface of the chest

An early and constant sign of lung gangrene

prolonged dry cough
low-grade fever
hemoptysis
+profuse fetid sputum
fingers in the form of “drum sticks”

With echinococcosis in the general analysis of blood detected

leukocytosis
leukopenia
anemia
+eosinophilia
Thrombocytopenia

Obliterating endarteritis is most often observed in

14-17-year-olds
20-25 year old pregnant women
+20-30 year old men
40-50 year old women
50-65 year old men

Oblique inguinal hernia develops due to weakness of the

inguinal canal
+front wall
back wall
top wall
bottom wall
all walls

A patient with an inguinal hernia entered the hospital. with palpation of hernial protrusion, a
lobed structure of soft consistency is felt, and with percussion, dullness of percussion sound
is determined. Identify the contents of the hernial sac.
loops of the small intestine
cecum
+large oil seal
sigmoid colon
pancreas

What symptom of acute appendicitis is more common with retroperitoneal the location of the
appendix?
+Obraztsova
Rowzing
Sitkovsky
Bartomier-Michelson
Razdolsky

In acute appendicitis, the Kocher-Volkovich symptom is characterized by:

increased pain during percussion over the right iliac region
movement of pain from the umbilical region to the right hypochondrium
+moving pain from the epigastric region to the right iliac region
increased pain in the right iliac region when applying jerky movements in the left iliac region
with the patient on the back
increased pain in the right iliac region with deep palpation of this region in the position of the
patient on the left side

The Kahlo triangle is formed by the following anatomical formations:

common hepatic artery, gall bladder, liver
gall bladder, choledoch, duodenum
+cystic artery, cystic duct, common hepatic duct
common hepatic artery, cystic artery, Hartmann’s pocket
common hepatic artery, own hepatic artery, liver

Normal levels of total bilirubin in the blood

+8.0-20.5 mkmol / l
20.5-25.0 mkmol / l
25.0-30.0 mkmol / l
31.0-35.0 mkmol / l
25.0-40.0 mkmol / l

Indicate when bile is called lithogenic?

with lower cholesterol
with an increase in the level of bile acids
+with an increase in cholesterol
with an increase in lecithin
with a decrease in lipase activity

Symptom of Tsege-Manteuffel in acute intestinal obstruction is characterized by

+the impossibility of introducing no more than 500-700 ml of fluid during enemas
stiffness of the abdominal wall in the form of an inflated ball
symptom of “splashing noise” during abdominal auscultation
determination of palpation of the abdomen of a fixed and extended loop of the intestine in the
form of a balloon
expansion of the rectal ampoule and gaping anus

The surgeon's tactics after establishing the diagnosis of diffuse purulent peritonitis:
monitoring the patient in dynamics
conservative treatment in the surgical department
+emergency surgery
massive antibiotic therapy
hospitalize and perform an operation urgently

Chemical element causing coagulation necrosis of the esophagus

+acetic acid
acetone
caustic soda
ammonia
antifreeze
Symptom of Halstead in acute pancreatitis is characterized
by resistance and pain in the projection area A. pancreas
soreness in the left rib-vertebral corner
the absence of pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric region Due to edema and
pancreatic infiltration
+cyanosis of individual sections of the anterior surface of the abdomen
the appearance of purple-marble spots on the body, if any Pain and tension in the epigastric
region

Symptom is characterized by the occurrence of sudden and intense

pain in the abdomen, as <stab with a knife>
Yudina
Spidy
Bailey
+Dielafua
Elequera

The basis of is only dystrophic lesion of the arteries

obliterating atherosclerosis
+obliterating endarteritis
Raynaud's disease
diabetic angiopathy
obliterating thromboangiitis

In the diagnosis of lung abscess, the main and mandatory method of research is an
bronchoscopy
bronchography
bacteriological examination of sputum
+x-ray examination
radioisotope research

Typical radiological picture of lung abscess

cavity destruction with foci of seeding
+cavity with fluid level and perifocal infiltration
lung tissue infiltration site without clear boundaries
a cavity with a liquid level without perifocal infiltration
extensive darkening in the lung without clear boundaries

Determine the stage of hemorrhoids, if the patient’s hemorrhoidal nodes fall out with little
physical exertion, the nodes themselves do not adjust, the patient adjusts them with his hand
subclinical stage
stage I
II stage
+III stage
decompensated stage

The symptom of "intermittent claudication" is characteristic of

varicose veins
occlusion of mesenteric arteries
+obliterating endarteritis
post-thrombophlebitis syndrome
Raynaud's syndrome

Patient R., 38 years old, is at the dispensary with a diagnosis of Obliterating Endarteritis>.
The patient complains of pain in both calf muscles, appearing after 1000 meters, which
disappear after stopping and resting. Identify the clinical stage of the disease.
subclinical
+functional compensation
subcompensation
decompensation
destructive changes

In a patient with umbilical hernia, palpation of hernial protrusion results in the formation of
an elastic consistency, and with percussion, a tympanic sound is determined. Identify the
contents of the hernial sac
bladder
+intestines
pancreas
large omentum
liver

<Hernia water> is the fluid contained in .

the lumen of the strangulated intestine
abdominal cavity
+hernia sac
tissues surrounding the hernial sac
scrotum

In acute appendicitis, the symptom of Razdolsky is characterized by:

+increased pain during percussion over the right iliac region with patient position on the
back increased pain in the right iliac region when applying jerky movements in the left iliac
region when the patient is on the back
the movement of pain from the umbilical region to the right iliac region
the movement of pain from the epigastric region to the right iliac region
increased pain in the right iliac region during palpation of this region in the position of the
patient on the left side

In acute appendicitis, the symptom of Rowzing is characterized by:

increased pain during percussion over the right iliac region
+increased pain in the right iliac region when applying jerky movements in the left iliac
region when the patient is on the back
the movement of pain from the umbilical region to the epigastrium
the movement of pain from the epigastric region to the right iliac region
increased pain in the right iliac region during palpation of this region in the position of the
patient on the left side

Laboratory indicator of obstructive jaundice

high level of indirect bilirubin in the blood
+high levels of direct bilirubin in the blood
high cholesterol
high levels of ALT and AST
increased stercobilin in feces

A research method that allows you to clarify the cause of obstructive jaundice
ultrasonography
laparocentesis
+ERCP (Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)
survey radiography of the abdominal cavity
Laparoscopy

The most common method of instrumental research in cholelithiasis (cholelithiasis):

laparoscopy
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
irrigoscopy
+ultrasonography
fibrogastroduodenoscopy

The symptom of Mondor in acute intestinal obstruction is characterized

tympanic sound with a metallic tint during percussion of the abdomen
+stiffness of the abdominal wall in the form of an inflated ball
definition of “splashing noise” during abdominal auscultation
determination of a fixed and extended loop of the intestine in the form of a balloon during
palpation of the abdomen
listening to respiratory sounds and heart sounds through the abdominal wall

Valya's symptom is characteristic for

acute appendicitis
acute pancreatitis
+acute intestinal obstruction
acute cholecystitis
perforated gastric ulcer

Symptom is characteristic of peritonitis

Kocher-Volkovich
Musssey-
Georgievsky Ortner-
Grekov
+Shchetkin-Blumberg
Gray-Turner

What is the name of the third stage of a chemical burn of the esophagus?
period of acute corrosive esophagitis
period of chronic esophagitis
+period of stricture formation
period of late complication
period of perforation of the wall of the esophagus

What is the name of the fourth stage of a chemical burn of the esophagus? 1. period of acute
corrosive esophagitis
period of chronic esophagitis
period of stricture formation
period of organic narrowing of the esophagus
+period of late complications

For chemical burns of the esophagus in order to reduce salivation,

papaverine
suprastin
promedol
+atropine
reopoliglyukin

The symptom of Gray-Turner in acute pancreatitis is characterized by

resistance and pain in the projection area
the appearance of a yellowish-cyanotic coloration of the skin in the navel pancreas
soreness in the left rib-vertebral corner
+the appearance of cyanosis of the side walls of the abdomen
the appearance of violet-marble spots on the body in the presence of pain and tension in the
epigastric region

Laboratory indicators of acute pancreatitis

+blood amylase
ALT and AST
creatinine
coagulogram
creatinine

Symptom Spizharnogo with perforated ulcer is characterized

radiating pain in the right shoulder and supraclavicular region
+disappearance of hepatic dullness during percussion
increased pain in the epigastric region and a feeling of chills before the onset of perforation
sudden and intense pain, like a <stab in the stomach>
listening to the "silver" noise coming out of the perforation openings for auscultation of the
abdomen

Obliterating endarteritis is more often observed in .

Children
Teenagers
Women
+men
elderly

The main treatment for chronic lung abscesses

complex conservative treatment in a hospital
spa treatment
outpatient treatment
dispensary observation
+radical operation

The most common acute paraproctitis

retrorectal
+subcutaneous
ischiorectal
submucosal
pelvic rectal

The intermediate owner of Echinococcus

dog
fox
the wolf
cat
+person

Patient T., 40 years old, is at the dispensary with a diagnosis of Obliterating Endarteritis>.
The patient complains of pain in both calf muscles that appear after passing 200 meters,
which disappear after another stop and rest. Identify the clinical stage of the disease.
subclinical
functional compensation
+subcompensation
decompensation
destructive changes
Patient P., 39 years old, is in a dispensary with a diagnosis of Obliterating Endarteritis>. The
patient complains of constant pain in both lower limbs. Only 25-50 meters can go by itself.
Identify the clinical stage of the disease.
subclinical
functional compensation
subcompensation
+decompensation
destructive changes

A characteristic symptom of an external hernia of the abdomen:

<deathly silence>
<shirts>
<Obukhov hospital>
+<cough push>
<frenicus>

Characteristic signs of oblique inguinal hernia:

the hernial sac is located more medially from the spermatic cord
+the hernial sac is located outward from the spermatic cord
the contents of the hernial sac do not fall into the scrotum
the contents of the hernial sac descends into the scrotum
hernial protrusion is under the inguinal ligament

In acute appendicitis, the Sitkovsky symptom is characterized by: 1.increased pain during
percussion over the right iliac region
moving pain from the umbilical region to the right iliac region
increased pain in the right iliac region when applying jerky movements in the left iliac region
when the patient is on his back
increased pain in the right iliac region during palpation of this region in the position of the
patient on the left side
+increased pain in the right iliac region when changing the position of the patient from the
back to the left side

In acute appendicitis, the Kyummel symptom is characterized by: 1.increased pain during
percussion over the right iliac region
+moving pain from the umbilical region to the right iliac region
moving pain from the epigastric region to the right iliac region
increased pain in the right iliac region when applying jerky movements in the left iliac region
when the patient is on his back

Acute obstructive cholecystitis develops as a result of increased pain in the right iliac region
during palpation of this region in the position of the patient on the left side
.
cancer of the large duodenal papilla
metabolic disorders in the liver
strictures of the terminal part of the common bile duct
+obstruction by the stone of the neck of the gallbladder
stagnation of bile in the gallbladder

Choledocholithiasis is called .
gallbladder deformity
acute inflammation of the wall of the common bile duct
chronic inflammation of the bile duct wall
+the presence of stones in the bile duct
stricture of the terminal part of the common bile duct

The symptom of Kivuly is characteristic for

+acute intestinal obstruction
acute pancreatitis
acute appendicitis
acute cholecystitis
perforated stomach ulcers

In case of chemical burns of the esophagus, is used to relieve spasm

+papaverine
suprastin
promedol
atropine
reopoliglyukin

Preparations for oral administration in case of burns of the esophagus with caustic soda:
70% ethyl alcohol
+1.5% acetic acid
2% sodium bicarbonate solution
3% ammonia
3% hydrogen peroxide solution

Corticosteroid preparation for prevention of stricture of a post-chemical burn of the

esophagus
papaverine
suprastin
promedol
+prednisone
diphenhydramine

Symptom Eleker with perforated ulcer is characterized

+irradiation of pain in the right shoulder and supraclavicular region
the disappearance of hepatic dullness with percussion
increased pain in the epigastric region and feeling chills up
onset of perforation
sudden and intense pain, like <strike knife> in the stomach
listening to the "silver" noise, coming out of the perforation during auscultation of the
abdomen

Lerish syndrome is characterized

dystrophic lesions of the arteries of the distal lower limbs
atherosclerotic lesion of the mesenteric vessels
+atherosclerotic lesion of the terminal abdominal aorta and iliac arteries
angiotrophoneurosis of small terminal arteries
varicose veins of the communicative veins of the lower legs

The conditional period, which is considered a criterion for the transition of acute lung abscess
to chronic form
months
+2 months.
4 months
months
1 year

Pleural parapneumonic empyema is called

purulent pleurisy, in which the infection is carried out from distant organs
+purulent pleurisy, developing simultaneously with pneumonia
purulent pleurisy, developing after pneumonia or with purulent diseases of the mediastinum
and chest wall
purulent pleurisy, when a large abscess of the lung is opened into the pleural cavity, having a
message with a large bronchus.
purulent pleurisy, when a small abscess of the lung that does not have a message with a large
bronchus is opened in the pleural cavity

In practice, the most rare acute paraproctitis

submucosal
ischiorectal
pelviorectal
+retrorectal
Subcutaneous

The main owner of Echinococcus

+dog
home mice
pigeons
cattle
people
Obliterating atherosclerosis is observed:
in 14-17 year olds
in 20-25 year old pregnant women
in 20-30 year old men
in 40-50 year old women
+in 50-65 year old men

An unknown patient was admitted to the clinic in an unconscious state after a traffic
accident. him an emergency operation is performed .
by consent of the patient, after restoration of his consciousness
+by decision of the consultation
with the consent of his relatives, after they arrive
by decision of law enforcement agencies
by order of the head physician

An emergency operation is performed with hernia.

rolling
unraveling
postoperative ventral multi-chamber
+impaired
The irreparable

In acute appendicitis, the symptom of Bartomier-Michelson is characterized by:

increased pain during percussion
moving pain with the umbilical region to the right iliac region
movement of pain from the epigastric region to the right iliac region
increased pain in the right iliac region when applying jerky movements in the left iliac region
when the patient is on his back
+increased pain in the right iliac region during palpation of this region in the position of the
patient on the left side

A complication of choledocholithiasis is:

liver cyst
Courvasier syndrome
gallbladder cancer
cancer of the head of the pancreas
+cholangitis

Clinical signs of cholangitis:

intoxication, fever, vomiting
+pain in the right hypochondrium, the presence of jaundice, chills
general weakness, enlarged liver, dysphagia
sudden onset, fever, enlarged spleen
determination of an enlarged, painless gallbladder, jaundice, diarrhea

Patient N., 2 years ago, revealed gallstone disease. Upon admission to the hospital complains
of pain in the right hypochondrium, discoloration of feces and darkening of the color of urine.
In a bichymic blood test, the bilirubin level is 122.5 μmol / L. Determine the complication of
cholelithiasis in this patient.
cirrhosis
cancer of the large duodenal papilla
cancer of the gallbladder
+obstructive jaundice
cholemic bleeding

Symptom of Tsege-Manteuffel is characteristic for

paralytic intestinal obstruction
inversion of the cecum
infringement of the intestinal loop in the hernia gate
+inversion of the sigmoid colon
ilececal intussusception

The symptom of <Obukhov hospital> is characteristic of 1.

paralytic intestinal obstruction
inversion of the cecum
+inversion of the sigmoid colon
ilececal intussusception
infringement of the intestinal loop in the hernia gate

The symptom of Shchetkin-Blumberg is characterized

severe pain with percussion over the focus of inflammation
not involving the anterior abdominal wall in the act of breathing
sharp pain with deep palpation in the right hypochondrium at the height of inspiration
+sharp soreness with a quick withdrawal of the hand, after gradual pressure on the area of
soreness
"board" tension of the abdominal muscles

The main clinical sign of late complications of a chemical burn of the esophagus
acholia
hypersalivation
ascites
+dysphagia
Curvazier symptom

On what day do the early esophageal esophagus begin after chemical burns
1-2
2-3
3-5
5-8
+9-11

Indication for esophageal bougienage:

gastroesophageal reflux
+cicatricial stricture of the esophagus
achalasia of the cardia
diffuse spasm of the esophagus
foreign body of the esophagus
In acute pancreatitis, cytostatics are used for
prevention of purulent complications
correction of water-electrolyte balance
decrease in the activity of pancreatic enzymes
+decrease in the excretory function of the pancreas
relieve pain

In acute pancreatitis, is used to reduce the activity of enzymes.

cytostatics
+protease inhibitors
analgesics
antispasmodics
antibiotics

A characteristic radiological sign of perforated ulcer

pneumothorax
+pneumoperitoneum
emphysema
Cloiber Bowls
intestinal pneumatosis

Pneumoperitoneum is characterized by the presence of in the

abdominal cavity
free liquid
+free
gas
infiltrate
abscess
adhesive process

With ulcerative bleeding, repeated vomiting is observed with the

addition of abundant liquid "tarry" stool
ongoing
covert
+massive
renewal
chronic

A positive symptom of Voskresensky is characteristic for 1)

pyloroduodenal stenosis
2) acute cholecystitis
3) peritonitis
+acute pancreatitis
perforated gastric ulcer

A patient, 34 years old, who is being hospitalized for lung abscess, suddenly had sharp pains
in his chest, shortness of breath. upon examination, the skin is covered with cold sweat,
acrocyanosis is noted. pulse - 96 beats. in 1 min., hell - 90/50 mmHg with percussion of the
chest in the upper sections, a box sound is determined, in the lower sections - dullness. with
auscultation, respiratory sounds are not carried out. What is the complication of lung abscess?
pulmonary hemorrhage
subcutaneous emphysema
sepsis
+pyopneumothorax
development of metastatic abscesses

Rectal disease characterized by fistula

acute paraproctitis
+chronic paraproctitis
hemorrhoids
anal fissure
prolapse of the rectum

The first stage of pulmonary echinococcosis is characterized by

the discharge of fetid sputum
+asymptomatic
the development of acute mediastinitis
pain in the chest, shortness of breath
secretion of sputum mucosa

With a combination of obliterating endarteritis and thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of

the lower extremities, the diagnosis is made:
Lerish syndrome
+Buerger's disease
obliterating atherosclerosis
thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
varicose disease

When climbing stairs, the manifestation of the symptom of "intermittent claudication" and
the appearance of pain in the muscles of the lower back and thighs when walking are
characteristic of:
thrombophlebitis of superficial veins
obliterating endarteritis
obliterating atherosclerosis
+Leriche syndrome
varicose veins

A patient with a diagnosis of gastric ulcer complicated by bleeding, blood transfusion is

carried out .
without the consent of the patient
by oral consent of the patient
+by written consent of the patient
by decision of the doctor
by order of the head physician

The criterion for a sliding hernia is:

participation in the formation of a hernial sac extraperitoneally located body +participation in
the formation of the hernial sac of the mesoperitonically located organ
participation in the formation of a hernial sac of an intraperitoneally located organ
the presence of hernia water in the hernial sac
lack of hernial contents

Inguinal hernia is most common:

in women
+in men
in children
in pregnant women
in postoperative patients

The symptom of Rowzing is characteristic of:

perforated duodenal ulcer
acute cholecystitis
acute pancreatitis
+acute appendicitis
acute intestinal obstruction

A typical clinical picture of obstructive jaundice:

yellowness of the skin, fever
bilirubinemia, fever
melena vomiting
pain, dark color of urine, cyanosis of the abdomen
+cholemia, acholia, yellowness of the sclera and skin

Courvoisier syndrome is determined by .

paralytic intestinal obstruction
strangulated hernia
appendicular infiltrate
+malignant tumor of the head of the pancreas
cirrhosis

Under Courvoisier syndrome is meant:

cirrhotic changes in the liver
+painless enlargement of the gallbladder against jaundice
sharply painful, enlarged gall bladder
enlarged, painless gallbladder without signs of jaundice
jaundice after cholecystectomy

The first phase of peritonitis is called the stage.

toxic
shock
+reactive
terminal
offset

Point to a late complication of a burn of the esophagus:

Bleeding
Esophagitis
Mediastenitis
+Esophageal stricture
Achalasia of the cardia
A violation of the reflex opening of the cardia is called
+cardiac achalasia
gastroesophageal reflux
reflux esophagitis
esophageal diverticulum
esophageal stricture

Radiological signs of achalasia of the cardia:

<pneumoperitoneum>
<pneumothorax>
<bowl of Kloiber>
+sign of <mouse tail>
<Kirkring folds>

Protease inhibitors in acute pancreatitis are used for

.
oppression of the excretory function of the pancreas
regulation of the water-electrolyte balance of the body
+inactivation of pancreatic enzymes
for the purpose of prevention of secondary inflammatory processes
for the purpose of relief of pain

To improve the evacuation of pancreatic enzymes into the lumen of the duodenum 12 in
acute pancreatitis,
+antispasmodics
antibiotics
analgesics
cytostatics
protease inhibitors

Vomiting with blood clots, recurring at short intervals, is observed with

bleeding
massive
+ongoing
renewal
chronic
profuse

The shock index for gastrointestinal bleeding is determined by the ratio

.
blood cells to plasma
+heart rate to systolic blood pressure
systolic blood pressure to diastolic blood pressure
heart rate to the respiratory rate of the heart rate to the number of red blood cells

The symptom of Gray-Turner is determined in

acute appendicitis
acute cholecystitis
+acute pancreatitis
thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
pyloroduodenal stenosis

The decisive diagnostic method for bronchiectasis

chest x-ray
bronchoscopy
+bronchography
sputum analysis
spirography

The most common localization of bronchiectasis

lower lobe of the right lung
middle lobe of the right lung
lower and middle lobes of the right lung
+lower lobe of the left lung
lower lobes of both lungs

Indicate the stage of rectal prolapse, if the patient has bowel prolapse during an act
of defecation and heavy physical exertion, then the bowel is self-adjusting
subclinical stage
+stage I
II stage
III stage
decompensated stage

The second stage of pulmonary echinococcosis is characterized by

the discharge of fetid sputum
asymptomatic
the development of acute mediastinitis
+pain in the chest, shortness of breath
secretion of sputum mucosa

The most informative diagnostic method for atherosclerosis obliterans to determine the
localization, prevalence and degree of damage to arteries (stenosis, occlusion):
thermography
rheovasography
+angiography
ultrasound
phlebography

The symptom of "intermittent claudication" is characterized by:

“duck” gait
jump on one leg
+the appearance of pain during the passage of a certain distance and the disappearance of
pain after stopping and resting
when passing a certain distance, the appearance of pain alternately in both lower limbs
a feeling of tightening the muscles of the lower extremities when walking

AT EXTREME OPERATION IS PERFORMED

appendicular infiltrate
irreversible inguinal hernia
acute edematous pancreatitis
paralytic intestinal obstruction
+ileocecal intussusception

Retrograde infringement is called:

infringement of postoperative ventral hernia
infringement of congenital hernia
infringement of part of the intestinal wall
+hernias, when several unchanged intestinal loops are located in the hernial sac, and the
injured loops of the intestine connecting them are located in the abdominal cavity
hernias, in which one of the walls of the hernial sac is an organ

Sitkovsky's symptom is determined by:

thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
paralytic intestinal obstruction
peritonitis
spastic intestinal obstruction
+acute appendicitis

The symptom of a “shirt” is determined by .

obstructive jaundice
internal hemorrhoids
+acute appendicitis
ulcerative bleeding
acute paraproctitis

The symptom of Ortner-Grekov in acute cholecystitis is characterized by

soreness with pressure between the legs of the sternocleidomasto- mastoid muscle
+increased pain in the right hypochondrium when striking on the right costal
arch sharp pain when pressing on the projection point of the bottom of the
gallbladder soreness in the left rib-vertebral corner
the disappearance of pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric region

The symptom of Mussi-Georgievsky (phrenicus symptom) in acute cholecystitis is

characterized by
+soreness when pressed between the legs of the sternocleidomastoid muscle on the right
sharp pain when striking along the right costal arch
sharp pain when pressing on the projection point of the bottom of the gall bubble
soreness in the left rib-vertebral corner
the disappearance of pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric region

Inversion of the sigmoid colon is more common:

in children
in adolescents
in men
in women
+ in the elderly

The most common cause of early postoperative intestinal obstruction is:

knot formation
intestinal inversion
intussusception
+adhesions in the abdominal cavity
infringement of intestinal loops in the hernia gate

Intestinal invagination is most common .

+in children
in adolescents during puberty
in the elderly
in men aged 40 to 60 years
in women in menopause

The second phase of peritonitis is called the stage.

+toxic
decompensated
reactive
terminal
offset

is a characteristic symptom of achalasia of cardia

hemoptysis
+paradoxical dysphagia
heartburn
hiccups
frequent burping

Method for the treatment of achalasia of cardia:

+cardiodilation
gulping of the esophagus
installation of a Blackmore probe
Nissen operation
esophagus resection

Infusion therapy for acute pancreatitis is used for

decreased excretory function of the pancreas
+correction of water-electrolyte balance
inactivation of pancreatic enzymes
improve the evacuation of pancreatic enzymes into the lumen of the duodenum
pain relief
In acute pancreatic necrosis, the method of drainage of the stuffing box is used. by

Pikovsky
Vishnevsky
+Shalimov
Fedorov
Keru

In pyloroduodenal ulcer bleeding,

anticoagulants
cytostatics
+hemostatic drugs
protease inhibitors
antihistamines

Due to pyloroduodenal ulcer bleeding, shock develops.

hypovolemic
+hemorrhagic
hematogenous
anaphylactic
septic

Radiological sign of penetrating ulcer

flat ulcer niche
<cochlear> stomach
<cascade> stomach
+deep ulcerative niche
Pneumoperitoneum

The most common cause of nonspecific spontaneous pneumothorax is:

Rupture of pleural adhesions
Rupture of congenital lung cysts
+Rupture of subpleural pulmonary bullae
Rupture of the bronchus
Breakthrough lung abscess

With a closed chest injury, a characteristic radiological sign of lung damage is:
+Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
Mediastinal displacement to the healthy side
Expansion of the lung root
Increased heart shadow

Indicate the stage of rectal prolapse, if the patient’s bowel falls out during bowel movements
and large physical exertion, doesn’t adjust on its own, patients themselves adjust them
subclinical stage
stage I
+II stage
III stage
decompensated stage

Highly informative post-thrombophlebitis syndrome

angiography
rheovasography
+phlebography
phlebomanometry
thermometry method research in diagnosis

What is Raynaud's disease:

+Angiotrophoneurosis with damage to the small terminal arteries and arterioles
Angiotrophoneurosis with damage to the large arteries
Atherosclerotic lesion of the terminal abdominal aorta
Atherosclerotic lesion of the iliac arteries
Atherosclerosis of the popliteal, femoral arteries

The most commonly affected arteries in Raynaud's disease:

lower leg arteries
shoulder arteries
blerene artery
+finger arteries
Iliac arteries

The early postoperative period is .

the time allotted for the transfer of the patient from the operating unit to intensive care unit
the time from the end of the operation to wound healing
the time from the moment of discharge of the patient to complete recovery
+time from the end of the operation to the discharge of the patient from the hospital
the time allotted for the transfer of the patient from the intensive care unit to the surgical

Richter infringement is:

uncracked postoperative ventral hernia
infringement of a congenital inguinal hernia
hernias, when several intestinal loops are located in the hernial sac, and the injured loops of
the intestine connecting them are located in the abdominal cavity
+infringement of part of the intestinal wall, opposite to the line of attachment of the
mesentery
infringement of multi-chamber postoperative hernia

Which of these diseases are most difficult to carry out differential diagnosis in acute
appendicitis?
right-sided pleuropneumonia
restrained inguinal hernia
perforated duodenal ulcer
+Crohn's disease
acute pancreatitis

Which of these diseases is difficult to conduct differential diagnosis of acute

appendicitis? right-sided renal colic
acute cholecystitis
+Meckel diverticulitis
acute intestinal obstruction
gastrointestinal bleeding

The symptom of Kera in acute cholecystitis is characterized by

soreness with pressure between the legs of the sternocleidomasto- mastoid muscle
sharp pain when striking along the right costal arch
+sharp pain when pressing on the projection point of the bottom of the gallbladder
soreness in the left rib-vertebral corner
the disappearance of pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric region
Murphy's symptom in acute cholecystitis is characterized by
soreness with pressure between the legs of the sternocleidomasto- mastoid muscle
sharp pain when striking along the right costal arch
+intensification of pain with pressure on the projection point of the bottom of the gallbladder
and simultaneous deep act of breathing
soreness in the left rib-vertebral corner
the disappearance of pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric region

Botkin's symptom in acute cholecystitis is characterized by

soreness with pressure between the legs of the sternocleidomasto- mastoid muscle
sharp pain when striking along the right costal arch
sharp pain when pressing on the projection point of the bottom of the gallbladder
soreness in the left rib-vertebral corner
+pain in the right hypochondrium radiating to the heart

Obstructive intestinal obstruction may be a complication of:

acute pancreatitis
acute appendicitis
urolithiasis
+gallstone disease
porphyrin disease

Type of intestinal obstruction, in which there is spotting from the anus in the form of
“raspberry jelly”
obstructive small bowel obstruction
inversion of the small intestine
paralytic obstruction
spastic obstruction
+intussusception

Types of acute intestinal obstruction, in which only conservative treatment

strangulation
obstructive
+paralytic
adhesive
intussusception

The third phase of peritonitis is called the stage.

toxic
decompensated
reactive
+terminal
Compensated

The symptom of "heartburn" is most often observed with

+gastroesophageal reflux
swelling of the esophagus
esophagus diverticulum
cicatricial stenosis of the
esophagus foreign body of the
esophagus
An informative method for the diagnosis of esophageal diverticulum:
+radiopaque study
endoscopy
Ultrasound
CT
selective angiography

After an attack of acute appendicitis,

chronic abortive appendicitis
+chronic residual appendicitis
primary chronic appendicitis
secondary chronic appendicitis
chronic recurrent appendicitis

The most formidable complication of pancreatic abscess?

intoxication
+arrosive bleeding
parapancreatic infiltrate
mesenteric thrombosis
jaundice

Which study is the most simple and affordable method for the final diagnosis of external
pancreatic fistula:
CT scan of the pancreas
Ultrasound of the pancreas
+fistulography
MRI scan
ERCP

The most informative method for the diagnosis of pancreatic cysts:

ERPC
study of the passage of barium through the intestines
biochemical study
+ultrasound
irrigoscopy

The main research method for pyloroduodenal stenosis

CT
MRI
ERCP
+fluoroscopy
colonoscopy

In the stage of compensation for pyloroduodenal stenosis, the evacuation of barium

suspension is delayed by hours
1-2
3-4
+6-12
12-18
20-24

In the stage of subcompensation of pyloroduodenal stenosis, the evacuation of barium

suspension is delayed by hours
1-2
3-4
6-12
+12-24
24-36

Symptom of Halstead is characteristic of

acute appendicitis
acute cholecystitis
+acute pancreatitis
acute intestinal obstruction
perforated duodenal ulcer

Typical place for drainage of the pleural cavity with pneumothorax:

Fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line
The third intercostal space in the anterior axillary region
The seventh intercostal space in the rear axillary region
+Second intercostal space along the midclavicular line
The choice of point does not matter

A typical place for drainage of the pleural cavity with hemothorax:

Fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line
The third intercostal space in the anterior axillary region
+Seventh intercostal space on the back axillary line
The second intercostal space along the midclavicular line
The choice of point does not matter

Indicate the stage of rectal prolapse, if the patient’s intestine falls out with a little physical
exertion, the intestine does not adjust itself
subclinical stage
stage I
II stage
+III stage
decompensated stage

What is the most dangerous complication of deep vein thrombosis of the lower veins? limbs:
Acute thrombophlebitis
Obliterating thromboangitis
Phlebitis of varicose nodes
+pulmonary embolism
pyleophlebitis

The main etiological factors of thromboembolism of mesenteric vessels:

cirrhosis
+heart disease
closed abdominal injuries
liver echinococcosis
malignancy of a stomach ulcer

Diseases characterized by ischemia and necrosis of the intestine:

Lerish syndrome
thromboangiitis obliterans
obliterating endarteritis
+thromboembolism of mesenteric vessels
obliterating atherosclerosis

The late postoperative period is .

the time allotted for the transfer of the patient from the operating unit to intensive care unit
the time from the end of the operation to wound healing
+time from the moment of discharge of the patient to full recovery
the time from the end of the operation to the discharge of the patient from the hospital
the time allotted for the transfer of the patient from the intensive care unit to the surgical

The term "Richter's hernia" means:

inguinal hernia
femoral hernia
inflammation of the hernial sac
+parietal infringement of the intestine
Irreducibility

Hernia Littre is:

retrograde infringement of the intestine
parietal infringement of the intestine
+infringement of Meckel’s diverticulum
elastic infringement
fecal infringement

In difficult diagnostic situations, is used to definitively establish the

diagnosis of acute appendicitis.
laparocentesis
ultrasound
+laparoscopy
colonoscopy
ERCP

What is the most common complication of acute appendicitis in individuals old and senile
age?
sepsis
pylephlebitis
peritonitis
+appendicular infiltrate
periappendicular abscess

Doctor's tactics for appendicular infiltrate one.

hospitalization of the patient in the coloproctology department * emergency surgery
hospitalization of the patient in the therapeutic department * conservative treatment
+hospitalization of the patient in the surgical department * conservative treatment
the patient is not hospitalized * vaccination in the clinic
the patient does not receive special treatment * observation in the clinic

Bilio-cardiac syndrome, characteristic of acute cholecystitis, is otherwise called a symptom

Mussey-Georgievsky
Kera
Murphy
+Botkin
Kerte

An indication for emergency surgery in acute cholecystitis is:

chronic recurrent cholecystitis
biliary colic
acute cholecystopancreatitis with jaundice syndrome
acute cholecystitis without signs of peritonitis
+acute cholecystitis with a clinical picture of peritonitis

What is the term "choledocholithotomy"?

opening of the lumen of the common bile duct
drainage of the common bile duct
+opening of the lumen of the choledochus and removal of stones from it
application of an anastomosis between the choledochus and duodenum
blind stitching on the common bile duct

What type of intestinal obstruction, in which only conservative therapy

strangulation
obstructive
invagination
adhesive
+spastic

X-ray method of research, confirming the pathology of the colon guts

fibrocolonoscopy
laparoscopy
laparocentesis
+irrigoscopy
fibrogastroduodenoscopy

Endoscopic examination method confirming the pathology of the colon

irrigoscopy
laparoscopy
laparocentesis
+fibrocolonoscopy
fibrogastroduodenoscopy

If the source is not identified, peritonitis is called

cancerous
fibrous
+cryptogenic
tertiary
primary

The most informative method for the diagnosis of peritonitis

irrigoscopy
+laparoscopy
computed tomography
fibrogastroduodenoscopy
abdominal x-ray

Complication of gastroesophageal reflux:

+Esophagitis
Perforation
Bleeding
esophageal stricture
esophageal cancer

Uncharacteristic complication of a foreign body of the esophagus:

Bleeding
Perforation
Esophagitis
Mediastenitis
+cicatricial stricture of the esophagus

The most common clinical and morphological form of acute pancreatitis:

+edematous pancreatitis
fatty pancreatic necrosis
hemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis
purulent pancreatitis
fatty pancreatic necrosis with enzymatic peritonitis

The most characteristic for acute pancreatitis are pain:

aching
+girdle
cramping
dagger
stupid

A patient with pancreatitis in the first three days is prescribed:

table 15
table 5a
table 9
table 10
+hunger

In the stage of decompensation of pyloroduodenal stenosis, the evacuation of

barium suspension is delayed by more than hours
5
10
15
20
+24

The symptom of “splashing noise” in the stomach is determined by

ulcerative bleeding
malignancy
penetration
+pyloroduodenal stenosis
perforation

With a suspicion of malignancy of a stomach ulcer, the patient is assigned

.
computed tomography
+biopsy
irrigoscopy
fluoroscopy
autopsy

The main radiological signs of pyopneumothorax:

Rounded shadow, intense, homogeneous with a clear outline
A rounded cavity with a liquid level and refocal infiltration
Intense dimming with multiple shallow cavities without clear contours
+Collagen lung with fluid level in the pleural cavity
Intense shadow of a triangular shape

The patient is 27 years old. Lung disease denied in the past. An hour ago, in full health,
suddenly there were severe pains in the left half of the chest, a feeling of lack of air. The
temperature is normal. Breathing over the left lung is not heard, with percussion - a boxed
sound. The mediastinum is percussion shifted to the right. Your diagnosis:
Exudative pleurisy
Myocardial infarction
Pulmonary tuberculosis
+Spontaneous pneumothorax
A restrained diaphragmatic hernia

Hemorrhoidal nodes are often localized on hours on the dial

1, 6
2.5, 8, 12
+3, 7, 11
2, 6, 8
4, 10

Symptom characteristic of acute ileofemoral thrombosis:

Atrophy of the leg muscles
Lymphostasis
Hypotrichosis
+Blue and white phlegmazia
The appearance of skin induction
Disease developing due to thromboembolism of mesenteric vessels
acute strangulation intestinal obstruction
intussusception
+acute paralytic intestinal obstruction
acute obstructive intestinal obstruction
acute spastic intestinal obstruction

Acute thrombophlebitis is characterized by:

the formation of a blood clot in the lumen of a vein
inflammation of the vein wall
+inflammation of the vein wall and the formation of a thrombus in its lumen
narrowing of the lumen of the vein
obliteration of the lumen of the vein

A simultaneous operation is .
sequential execution of all stages of one operation
the execution of the steps of one operation at different times
an operation performed using endovascular surgical devices
+simultaneous performance of several operations to one patient
an operation performed under x-ray control

With infringement of the small intestine, the following type of acute intestinal obstruction
develops:
intussusception
paralytic intestinal obstruction
spastic intestinal obstruction
+strangulation intestinal obstruction
obstructive intestinal obstruction

A sliding hernia is called:

+hernia, in which one of the walls of the hernial sac is an organ
hernias formed in the area of the postoperative scar
hernias when several intestinal loops are located in the hernial sac
hernias with several hernial sacs
congenital correctable hernia

What is the most common complication of acute appendicitis in children?

+diffuse peritonitis
pylephlebitis
sepsis
appendicular infiltrate
periappendicular abscess

A contraindication to appendectomy is:

myocardial infarction
the presence of mental disorders in patients
+аppendicular infiltration
pregnant women
sick in old age
The symptom of Ortner-Grekov is defined at
acute appendicitis
acute pancreatitis
acute intestinal obstruction
+acute cholecystitis
perforated duodenal ulcer

Murphy's symptom is characteristic for

acute paraproctitis
+acute cholecystitis
acute intestinal obstruction
acute pancreatitis
obstructive jaundice

A positive symptom of Kera is characteristic of

acute cholecystitis
acute pancreatitis
acute intestinal obstruction
acute appendicitis
gastrointestinal bleeding

X-ray examination of the colon, in which the contrast medium is injected through the rectum
passage of barium through the gastrointestinal tract
fibrocolonoscopy
+irrigoscopy
ERCP
Diaphanoscopy

Endoscopic examination of the colon

ERCP
+fibrocolonoscopy
irrigoscopy
FGDS
MRI

The most common cause of peritonitis is .

perforation of gastroduodenal ulcer
acute obstructive cholecystitis
strangulation intestinal obstruction
infringement of hernia
+acute appendicitis

The pathological process, which is an example of local peritonitis

choledocholithiasis
Lerish syndrome
ascites fluid
+perivesical abscess
Hirschsprung's disease

How many physiological constrictions of the esophagus:

2
+3
4
5
6

The order of the pathological processes observed in acute pancreatitis:

inflammation, autolysis, degeneration
degeneration, autolysis, inflammation
+autolysis, degeneration, inflammation
autolysis, inflammation, degeneration
degeneration, inflammation, autolysis

In the first three days of the disease, acute pancreatitis is contraindicated in the use of:
Ultrasound
gastroscopy
+ERCP
fluoroscopy of the abdominal organs
laparoscopy

The symptom of Kerte is determined with

acute appendicitis
acute cholecystitis
+acute pancreatitis
acute intestinal obstruction
perforated gastric ulcer

Mayo-Robson's symptom is characteristic of

acute appendicitis
acute cholecystitis
+acute pancreatitis
acute intestinal obstruction
perforated duodenal ulcer

After resection of the stomach,

Crohn's disease may develop.
Hirschsprung’s disease
Burger’s disease
+Dumping syndrome
Raynaud's syndrome

The loop loop syndrome occurs after surgery:

Billroth-1 stomach resection
+stomach resection according to Billroth -2
Gastroectomy
proximal resection of the stomach
vagotomy with pyloroplasty

Endoscopic research method used to diagnose pathology of the stomach and duodenum
ERCP
fibrocolonoscopy
irrigoscopy
+FGDS
MRI

Meilengracht diet is prescribed for

pyloroduodenal stenosis
perforation of pyloroduodenal ulcer
+with ulcerative pyloroduodenal bleeding
acute cholecystopancreatitis
acute strangulation intestinal obstruction

According to clinical data, spontaneous nonspecific pneumothorax is suspected. The simplest

diagnostic method:
Thoracoscopy
+X-ray and chest x-ray
Pleural puncture
lung scan
Bronchoscopy

Hemorrhoids is called .
swelling of the rectal mucosa
swelling of the wall of the rectum
+expansion of the cavernous bodies of the rectum
fissure of the anus

Highly informative research method used in the diagnosis of liver echinococcosis

survey radiography of the abdominal cavity
+ultrasound
ERCP
FGDS
irrigoscopy

Post-thrombophlebitic syndrome is .
a symptom complex developing after acute thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of the lower
extremities
+symptom complex developing after deep vein thrombosis of the lower extremities
The pathological process developing as a result of atherosclerosis of the terminal aorta and
iliac arteries
inflammation of the superficial veins of the lower extremities
the formation of a blood clot in the superficial veins of the lower extremities

An early sign of postthrombophlebitis syndrome

+pain in the muscles of the leg with prolonged standing
lack of pulsation of the popliteal artery
soft tissue induction in the lower third of the leg
the formation of weeping eczema in the lower third of the lower leg
pigmentation of the skin of the foot and lower leg

Dietary table prescribed for diabetic angiopathy of the vessels of the lower extremities:
1
5
+9
15
4

An operation for a restrained inguinal hernia is performed on a mental patient

.
with the written consent of a neighbor
by the decision of the doctor of the admission department
by order of the chief physician
+with the written consent of the legal representative
without any consent