Professional Documents
Culture Documents
in the right eye and 6/18 in the left eye. Which of the
following statements is correct?
a the Snellen acuity in the right eye is better than the left
eye
b the denominator expresses the distance acuity in the d
tested eye
c the numerator expresses the near vision in the tested
eye
d Snellen acuity compares a tested eye to a normally
seeing eye
Patients with obstructive sleep apnoea are often
undiagnosed. Clinical features of obstructive sleep
apnoea include all of the following except:
a snoring during sleep
e
b excessive daytime somnolence
c feelings of choking during sleep
d pulmonary hypertension
e aortic stenosis
The muscle most employed in reading is:
a the medial rectus.
b the lateral rectus. c
c the superior oblique.
d the inferior oblique.
The only feature regarding antibiotic use in acute
pancreatitis which is not of importance is:
a antibiotic uptake by pancreatic necrotic tissue
b therapeutic level in serum c
c effective against Staphylococcus aureus
d broad-spectrum cover, including anaerobes
e none of the above
Cerebral aneurysms:
a usually occur on the peripheral intracranial
vessels
b can be definitively diagnosed by a CT scan
c
c are the most common cause of subarachnoid
haemorrhage in adults
d are virtually always multiple
e usually present with focal seizures
Which of the following constitute the legal standard for
the information that should be passed to a patient to
meet the requirements of ‘informed consent’?
a what a patient in that position would regard as
reasonable
b what a reasoned body of medical opinion holds as a
reasonable
c a list of all possible complications contained within a
patient information booklet
d all serious complications that occur in more than 1%
of patients
Most patients presenting with massive rectal bleeding:
a will bleed to death unless they have surgery
b usually were found to have colon cancer
c usually were found to have rectal cancer
e
d should have a capsule endoscopy performed
immediately
e should have a proctosigmoidoscopy performed before
a colonoscopy
Pelvic abscess that occurred 5 days after an anterior
resection of rectum:
a is usually due to anastomotic leak
b usually requires surgery and a Hartmann’s procedure a
c will usually settle with intravenous antibiotics
d is best detected by MRI
e is best detected by endorectal ultrasound
The most common cause of constipation is:
a slow-transit constipation
b inadequate dietary fibre and fluids
b
c obstruction from colorectal cancer
d hypothyroidism
e rectocele
Following gastric resection a patient is told that they
have a T2 N1 (stage II) cancer of the stomach. They ask
about 5-year survival, how many patients from 100 with
such a tumour would be alive at 5 years?
c
a 10
b 30
c 60
d 90
Which one of the following statements regarding the
a pulmonary laceration
b extradural haemorrhage b
c pelvic fracture
d femur fracture
e laceration to scalp
Regarding amoebic liver absesses, which one of the
following is false?
a it is an uncommon disease in Australia and is endemic
in South and Southeast Asia
b intestinal amoebiasis, which leads to liver abscess, is
e
transmitted by the faeco-oral route
c amoebic serology is usually positive in these patients
d mainstay of treatment is antimicrobial therapy
e amoebic liver abscess must never be drained by
percutaneous technique
Regarding hydatid disease, which one of the following is
incorrect?
a the human is an end host, which breaks the
development cycle of the parasite
b initial infection occurs through the alimentary tract and
is asymptomatic d
c the natural history of a hydatid cyst in the human is
one of slow progressive growth
d rupture of a hydatid cyst is a common event
e most symptoms are related to pressure effects on the
liver and surrounding organs
The INCORRECT statement regarding passage of black,
tarry stools is:
a it is usually an indication of bleeding from the upper
gastrointestinal tract
b it can be mimicked by the ingestion of iron medication c
c it is commonly a symptom of a cancer of the colon
d It can be present without other symptoms
e it is often but not universally associated with
haematemesis
Which of the following does not predispose to ischaemic
necrosis and wound breakdown?
a excessive tension
b foreign body c
c application of vacuum
d haematoma
e irradiation
The concept of Universal Precautions is based on:
a the ‘barrier nursing’ of all patients with a nosocomial
virus infection
b the resheathing of all used needles
c the need to regard all patients as being potentially
c
infectious
d the importance of taking a detailed social history from
every patient
e the routine screening of patients for blood-borne
viruses
Eight days following a low anterior resection for
carcinoma of the rectum, a 65-year-old man developed
unilateral gross swelling of his right lower limb. Select the
correct statement:
a a diagnosis of deep venous thrombosis can confidently
be made on the basis of clinical signs
b deep venous thrombosis is unlikely as the patient had
received peri-operative prophylactic subcutaneous
e
heparin
c a past history of superficial thrombophlebitis in this
patient is almost certainly related to deep venous
thrombosis
d the short saphenous vein is usually the site of origin of
deep venous thrombosis
e ilio-femoral thrombosis is likely as it commonly follows
pelvic surgery
An acute subdural haematoma:
a shows a characteristic hyperdense extra-cerebral mass
b is often associated with only a minor head injury
a
c virtually never need surgical excision
d can always be managed with diuretic therapy
e usually causes an ipsilateral hemiparesis
The following statements apply to the patient who has
suffered a GI bleed EXCEPT:
a be pale and sweaty
b be faint and have a bradycardia b
c be faint and have a tachycardia
d require urgent resuscitation with normal saline initially
carotid artery d
c the vertebral arteries form the basilar artery
d there is no communication between the anterior and
posterior cerebral circulations
e there is a low-resistance flow pattern in the internal
carotid artery
Complications of haemorrhoidectomy include the
following EXCEPT:
a severe anal pain
b urinary retention d
c anal stricture
d pyelonephritis
e rectal bleeding
Investigations in a patient with acute small bowel
obstruction would NOT include:
a supine and erect abdominal radiographs
b blood urea and electrolyte estimation d
c gastrografin small bowel follow-through
d technetium-labelled iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan
e computed tomography of the abdomen
The treatment of choice for a perforated duodenal ulcer
in a 56-year-old man with a strong history of ulcer
disease and signs of peritonitis after 12 hours is
a conservative management with nasogastric suction
and intravenous fluids c
b vagotomy and pyloroplasty
c omental patch repair and peritoneal lavage
d highly selective vagotomy
e partial gastrectomy
The following conditions are typically associated with
ascites:
a filiariasis
b Gilbert’s disease c
c abdominal tuberculosis
d large uterine fibroids
e ectopic pregnancy
In considering pituitary tumours, the following is true:
a the tumour is always confined to the sellar
b adults frequently present with growth retardation
c prolactin-secreting tumours are best treated with
d
surgery
d ACTH-secreting tumours cause Cushing’s disease
e posterior pituitary function is almost always absent in
patients presenting with large tumours
Post-traumatic confusion may require the following
treatments except:
a i.v. sedatives
b i.v. codeine b
c i.v. morphine
d physical restraint
e oxygen supplementation
The following are critical determinants of patient
outcome following injury, EXCEPT:
a time from injury to definitive care
b presence of a well-organised regional system of
trauma care
d
c protocols and guidelines when clinical experience is
limited
d early mobilisation of teams led by doctors to most
scenes of injury
e thrombosis prophylaxis
A 24-year-old female at 32 weeks’ gestation presents
with loin pain and haematuria. The best initial radiologic
study is:
a IVP
c
b non-contrast CT scan
c renal ultrasound
d cystourethroscopy
e PET scan
Bilateral leg swelling with pitting oedema may be caused
by the following EXCEPT:
a reduced lymphatic removal of exudate
b increased capillary permeability c
c decreased filtration pressure at the arteriolar end
d reduced oncotic pressure
e excessive fluid intake
Liver transplantation:
a is contra-indicated if jaundice is present
b cannot be performed from live donors
d
c requires no immunosuppression because of the
antigen filtering system in the liver
d can be life saving in cases of fulminant hepatic failure
The investigation which will most reliably determine the
site of bleeding in a patient with massive haemoptysis
is:
a chest X-ray
d
b CT scan of the chest
c radionuclide lung scan
d bronchoscopy
e pulmonary angiogram
A 75-year-old man has what appears to be a 1-cm basal
cell carcinoma on the side of his nose immediately below
his left eye. What would be the most appropriate
treatment?
a radiotherapy e
b application of 5-fluorouracil cream
c injection of vinblastine
d excision and split-skin graft
e excision and full-thickness graft
Immunosuppression:
a is only required for organ transplants where the donor
and recipient are unrelated
b has the side effects of increased risk of infection and
b
malignancy
c aims to knockout bone marrow and stem cells
d should be doubled if two organs are transplanted (e.g.
kidney and pancreas)
From which of the following blood vessels does the
bleeding in a patient with massive haemopytsis usually
occur?
a pulmonary artery
c
b pulmonary vein
c bronchial artery
d bronchial vein
e thoracic aorta
Primary hyperparathyroidism is due, in 90% of cases,
to:
a metastatic cancer
b parathyroid cancer e
c parathyroid hyperplasia
d multiple parathyroid tumours
e a single parathyroid adenoma
The systemic inflammatory response syndrome:
a consists of at least two from a list of four categories of
physiological and haematological abnormality
b nearly always implies the presence of invasive bacterial
or fungal infection
a
c rarely occurs after cardiopulmonary bypass
procedures
d helps in the clinical differential diagnosis between
infection types
e is associated with more than a 50% mortality rate
An 80-year-old woman presents with transient right
hemiparesis, lasting 15 minutes and resolving completely.
She is otherwise healthy and independent. Her carotid
duplex scan shows >80% stenosis of her left internal
carotid artery. Despite aspirin therapy, she has a
further episode. Which of the following statements is
true?
b
a she is best managed on warfarin therapy
b left carotid endarterectomy is indicated
c carotid stenting is a preferred option to surgery
d she is facing a cumulative 5% stroke within the next
3 years
e lowering her blood cholesterol level will reduce her
immediate risk of stroke
Which ONE of the following is correct?
a venography is an accurate method for investigating
varicose veins
b duplex scanning has little to add to the pre-operative
investigation of varicose veins
c the most frequent cause of recurrent varicose veins is
e
neovascularisation
d due to frequent, serious late complications, all patients
with varicose veins should be advised to have surgery
e patients with varicose veins and who have
haemosiderin deposits and liposclerosis at the ankle
should be treated
arterial transection
Crystal arthropathy may be seen in the following
condition:
a hyperurecaemia
b chondrodysplasia a
c haemachromatosis
d Osgood–Schlatters disease
e osteochondritis dissecans
In assessing the severity of an acute fracture, one must
always:
a examine for subcutaneous emphysema
b examine for evidence of gangrene
c
c examine the status of the neurovascular system of the
fractured part
d examine for a temperature and arrhythmia
e examine for evidence of a fat embolism
Degenerative arthritis is a common condition
characterised by:
a joint pain, stiffness, contracture and deformity
b recurrent haemarthroses, joint swelling and a charcot
joint a
c high temperature, exquisite joint pain and
constitutional symptoms
d flitting arthralgia, skin rash and sore throat
e single joint swelling, conjunctivitis and urethritis
The HNPCC syndrome:
a is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern
b tends to affect younger patients
c has a predilection for cancer in the proximal colon e
d is often associated with metachronous colorectal
cancers
e is linked to hereditary adenomatous polyposis
Absolute contraindications to performing neuraxial
(epidural or spinal) local anaesthetic blockade include all
of the following except:
a coagulopathy
e
b patient refusal
c systemic sepsis
d local infection at insertion site
e pre-existing neurologic deficit
Adrenal masses occur in:
a <1% of the population
b 3–7% of the population
b
c 10–20% of the population
d 40–50% of the population
e >66% of the population
The following treatments are appropriate for a
high-output enterocutaneous fistula EXCEPT:
a a high-fibre diet
b total parenteral nutrition a
c intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement
d sandostatin
e skin care by an enterostomal therapist
Liver metastases may be treated by all of the following
except:
a arterial embolisation
b cryotherapy d
c laparoscopic resection
d open lobectomy
e regional chemotherapy
Universal precautions:
a protect operating theatre staff from electric shocks
b prevent polluted air from entering the operating
theatre c
c impose a physical barrier between patients and carers
d are only to be used when operating on patients
e protect only against bacterial pathogens
A 72-year-old woman presents with left iliac fossa pain,
fever and abdominal distension. Abdominal X-ray reveals
two dilated loops of small bowel. The most likely
diagnosis is:
a left ureteric calculus d
b tubo-ovarian abscess
c irritable bowel syndrome
d acute diverticulitis
e sigmoid volvulus
Desmoid tumours:
a are increasingly commoner in woman as they
age
b occur in the root of the mesentry in association
b
with the FAP syndrome
c cause death by metastasis
d tend not to recur locally
e metastasise to regional lymph nodes
An enterocutaneous fistula that occurs 5 days after a
small bowel resection for Crohn’s disease may be
associated with the following EXCEPT:
a anastomotic breakdown
b persistent intestinal obstruction distal to the fistula
e
c the presence of an inadequately drained abscess
adjacent to the anastomosis
d traumatic enterotomy during adhesion lysis, which has
been overlooked
e recurrent Crohn’s disease
The cause of dysphagia can often be identified by the
following EXCEPT:
a upper GI endoscopy
b barium swallow examination c
c upper abdominal ultrasound examination
d CT examination of the chest
e oesophageal manometry
Carcinoid tumour of the appendix is associated with the
following features EXCEPT:
a most are asymptomatic
b tumours less than 2 cm in size require no further
therapy other than appendicectomy
c
c it is always malignant
d carcinoid syndrome arises when hepatic metastases
have occurred
e synchronous carcinoid tumour in the distal ileum may
be present
With regards to varicose veins, which of the following is
incorrect?
a varicose veins are dilated, tortuous and visible when
the patient is standing
b valvular incompetence is an integral component of the
pathogenesis of varicose veins
d
c the principal superficial venous systems of the lower
limbs are the long and the short saphenous systems
d the principal route of venous drainage from the lower
limb is via the superficial venous system
e the principal driver of venous drainage from the legs in
the erect position is the calf pump
Indirect inguinal hernias:
a can hardly ever be distinguished from direct inguinal
hernias by clinical examination
b rarely occur in children
c
c can be treated by herniotomy, herniorraphy and
hernioplasty
d should not be treated laparoscopically
e arise beneath the inguinal ligament
Treatment of critically ill patients in an intensive care unit:
a increases the cost of care but does not improve the
prognosis
b is associated with a 50% survival rate overall
c
c is associated with a 15% death rate overall
d is required for 25% of all hospital patients at some
point in their illness
e is not indicated for any patient over 80 years of age
Anal fissure is characterised by the following EXCEPT:
a severe anal pain during and immediately after
defecation
b bleeding on defecation e
c a sentinel anal skin tag
d a relapsing history
e a patulous anus
Hidradenitis suppurativa:
a is a complication of cystic fibrosis
b rarely occurs in the axillae or groin
d
c may be associated with pilonidal sinus
d chronic cases are improved by excisonal surgery
e antibiotics have no role in management
Which of the following lung conditions is NOT a
common cause of massive haemoptysis?
a carcinoma of the lung
b pulmonary arteriovenous malformation a
c tuberculosis
d lung abscess
e aspergillosis
Which of the following features is not true of complete
testicular torison?
a most common between puberty and the age of
25 years
c
b is not associated with tenderness of the cord
c pain is relieved by elevation of the scrotum
d usually shows changes on colour Doppler ultrasound
e requires urgent surgical treatment
The most common form of functioning tumour of the
pancreatic islet cells is:
a gastrinoma
b insulinoma b
c somatostatinoma
d vipoma
e glucagonoma
Diverticular disease of the colon is associated with:
a thickening of the longitudinal but not circular muscle
of the colon
b narrowing of the lumen from mucosal hyperplasia
c
c increased intraluminal pressure within the colon
d high-fibre and high-fat diet
e a high incidence of anastomotic breakdown in elective
surgery
The volume of fluid replacement required in the first
24 hours in a 70-kg adult with 30% burns is
approximately:
a 2,500 mL
c
b 4,000 mL
c 7,500 mL
d 10 500 mL
e 12 500 mL
Femoral hernias:
a may occasionally appear above the inguinal ligament
in young children
b should always be repaired surgically b
c can be treated with a surgical truss
d are caused by a defect in the cribriform fascia
e may compress the femoral artery
In portal hypertension:
a there is increased portal blood volume
b there is a decrease in portal blood pressure
c there is increased splanchnic vasoconstriction a
d there is hypoproteinaemia due to increased renal
protein losses
e there is reduced splanchnic lymphatic flow
Painful perianal conditions include:
a Bowen’s disease
b second-degree haemorrhoids
c
c perianal haematoma
d anal warts
e ulcerative colitis
The following is true:
a meningiomas are the most common adult brain
tumours
b brain tumours are rare in children
c
c high-grade cerebral gliomas are invariably fatal
d metastatic cancer in the brain is uncommon
e oligodendroglioma is the most common type of
glioma
The oncologic outcome of rectal cancer is:
a improved by precise pre-operative staging, including
endorectal ultrasound
b better if the surgery is performed by a surgeon who
has large case volume of rectal cancer
c improved by multimodality therapy for high-risk cancer d
d improved by pre-operative chemotherapy alone, if
pre-operative endorectal ultrasound indicates that it is
a T3 cancer
e equivalent whether laparoscopic or conventional open
resection is performed.
Extra-intestinal manifestations of ulcerative colitis include
the following EXCEPT:
a pyoderma gangrenosum
b iritis e
c sacroileitis
d sclerosing cholangitis
e eczema
considered
After a previous hysterectomy, a 55-year-old mother of 3
children complains of constipation. Defecating
proctogram showed lack of relaxation of the puborectalis
paradoxus at defecation. The most appropriate
management is:
c
a yoga taught by genuine Indian guru
b regular use of St. Mark’s anal dilator prior to defecation
c anorectal biofeedback therapy
d mandatory use of squatting posture at defecation
e avoid laxatives but teach rectal washout instead
Which of the following is correct with respect to prostate
cancer?
a compared with men under the age of 65 years,
prostate cancer in the elderly is very rarely an
aggressive cancer
b most patients diagnosed with prostate cancer present
with lower urinary tract symptoms
c 80% of men presenting with an elevated serum e
prostate specific antigen (PSA) have prostate cancer
d approximately 95% of prostate cancer patients have a
durable response (>36 months) to androgen
suppression therapy
e the obturator, internal iliac and presacral lymph
nodes are commonly involved in prostate cancer
metastases
Marasmus is characterised by the following
characteristics except:
a inadequate intake of an otherwise balanced diet
b cachexia in the adult c
c fluid retention
d decreased metabolic rate
e easy correction with standard nutrition
Carpal tunnel syndrome:
a most frequently occurs in men
b is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve at the
wrist
d
c usually causes severe weakness in the hand
d is especially associated with pregnancy and lactation
e causes decreased sensation on the dorsum of the
hand
Fluid replacement in a 70-kg adult with 30% burns
should maintain a urine flow of:
a 35 mL/hour
b 70 mL/hour b
c 105 mL/hour
d 140 mL/hour
e 175 mL/hour
Mammography screening programmes:
a reduce mortality of breast cancer, especially in women
aged between 40 and 50 years
b detect smaller cancers with a lower incidence of
axillary nodal metastases than in the unscreened
population
c show a higher incidence of lobular but not ductal b
carcinoma in situ
d include quality assurance targets of attendance
rates higher than 50% and recall rates lower
than 50%
e involve radiologists as the primary personnel
responsible for diagnosis and management
A 48-year-old woman presents with thick greenish nipple
discharge from both breasts. There is no palpable breast
lump, although both nipples are slightly retracted. The
patient does not take any medication. Mammogram and
ultrasound do not show any evidence of cancer. The
most likely diagnosis is: c
a galactorrhoea
b duct papilloma
c mammary duct ectasia
d fibroadenoma
e lobular carcinoma in situ
You are asked to see a 65-year-old woman who feels
unwell and faint. Seven days previously she underwent
an elective sigmoid colectomy for carcinoma. The
procedure was uncomplicated and until now, she had
been making an uneventful recovery. On examination
she has a temperature of 39.5◦C, a pulse rate of
100 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm
Hg. Her respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute. She
decompression a
c should be treated with sympathetomimetic agents
d is not associated with a risk of caecal perforation
e is liable to require surgical treatment
Endoscopic surgery:
a has a very limited role in general surgical practice
b is inherently unsafe because the surgeon cannot touch
the structures being operated on
c is associated with greater post-operative pain and d
immobility
d enables cholecystectomy to be performed as day case
surgery in some patients
e can only be used for part of an operation
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25 Policy
a cortisol
b adrenaline d
c noradrenaline
d aldosterone
e sex steroids
Which of the following is NOT considered an immediate
threat to life?
a fracture of T6 with a complete spinal cord transection
b splenic injury with ongoing bleeding a
c open pneumothorax
d rapidly rising intra-cranial pressures
e aspiration
Which of the following is true about a pulsatile mass in
the abdomen?
a it must be an aortic aneurysm
b an ultrasound would be the best initial investigation b
c no imaging is needed if the mass is not tender
d immediate surgery is indicated
e immediate angiography is indicated
Thyroid follicular cells arise primarily from:
a the laryngeal cartilage
b the second bronchial arch
d
c the oesophagus
d the base of the tongue
e the neural crest
A 72-year-old diabetic develops a discharge from his
midline abdominal wound 7 days after surgery for
perforated diverticular disease. The most likely cause of
the discharge is:
a a faecal fistula c
b wound haematoma
c wound infection
d deep wound dehiscence
e small-bowel fistula
The coronary artery bypass graft conduit with the
highest patency after 5 and 10 years is:
a left internal thoracic artery
b right internal thoracic artery a
c left radial artery
d right radial artery
e left or right long saphenous vein
A previously fit 55-year-old man has undergone an
emergency right hemicolectomy for a perforated caecal
carcinoma. Two days after the operation you note the
following on his fluid balance sheet – intravenous input
2 L, nasogastric aspirate 2 L, drain losses 700 mL, urine
output 500 mL. Biochemistry shows [Na+] 135 mmol/L,
[K+] 3.0 mmol/L, [Cl−] 100 mmol/L, [HCO−
3 ] 27 d
mmol/L. Which of the fluid balance regimens below
would you order for the next 24-hour period?
a 2 L N saline + 3 L dextrose 5% + 50 meq KCl
b 2 L N saline + 1 L dextrose 5% + 50 meq KCl
c 1 L N saline + 3 L dextrose 5% + 100 meq KCl
d 3 L N saline + 2 L dextrose 5% + 100 meq KCl
e 1 L N saline + 1 L dextrose 5% + 100 meq KCl
Ulcerative colitis:
a is a mucosal disease that affects both the large and
small bowel
b in contrast to Crohn’s disease, does not have an
increased risk of colorectal cancer d
c surveillance for colon cancer is mandatory, starting at
diagnosis
d toxic megacolon may be the initial manifestation
e salphasalazine is most effective for acute colitis
Complete left-sided large bowel obstruction:
a should be treated by self-expandable metallic stents
b will mostly require treatment by a three-staged
b
surgical procedure
c is commonly caused by a Crohn’s disease stricture
d should be treated by Hartman’s procedure
Which of the following is not correct with respect to
upper tract urinary calculi?
a approximately 80% of upper tract stones pass
spontaneously
b calcium oxalate is the commonest component of these
stones
c
c diuresis at the time of an episode of ureteric colic
facilitates spontaneous passage of the stone
c EEG
d ultrasound
e MRI
Common causes of post-surgical pelvic abscess include:
a cholecystectomy
b appendicectomy
c laparoscopic but not conventional open anterior b
resection
d rectovaginal fistula
e use of powdered surgical gloves
A 24-year-old female secretary has constipation for
3 weeks after starting a new job. There are no other
abdominal symptoms and no family history of colorectal
cancer. The most appropriate management is:
a try taking enough dietary fibre and fluids a
b colonoscopy and anorectal physiology tests
c anorectal biofeedback therapy
d teach self digital extraction of faeces from rectum
e repeat thyroid function tests at least 3 times
The INCORRECT statement on sepsis associated with
appendicectomy for acute appendicitis is:
a may present with a pelvic abscess
b may present as a wound infection
d
c is reduced by prophylactic peri-operative antibiotics
d is increased by laparoscopic rather than open
appendicectomy
e is most often associated with anaerobic bacteria
Subarachnoid haemorrhage:
a is most commonly due to ruptured arterial venous
malformation in adults
b usually presents as an epileptic seizure as the initial
symptom d
c must be evacuated as an emergency
d is characterised by the onset of a sudden severe
headache
e is frequently due to haemorrhage from a tumour
A 73-year-old man presents with cholangitis. He has had
no previous abdominal operation. The definitive
treatment should be:
a cholecystectomy and choledocholithotomy
b ERCP and sphincterotomy with stone extraction
e
c antibiotic therapy followed by laparoscopic
cholecystectomy
d choledocholithotomy
e ERCP, sphincterotomy with stone extraction and later
consideration of cholecystectomy
In considering spinal cord compression, the following is
true:
a the most common cause is an intramedullary spinal
cord tumour
b the management of compression by a malignant
metastatic tumour is best undertaken utilizing
chemotherapy c
c the usual treatment for spinal cord compression due
to malignant tumours is urgent surgery or
radiotherapy
d spinal pain is a late feature of spinal cord compression
e metastatic tumours are rarely a cause of spinal cord
compression
Patients who suffer from chronic pancreatitis are totally
cured of their disease by:
a surgical removal of the pancreas
b endoscopic drainage of the pancreatic duct via a stent e
c total abstinence from alcohol
d all of the above
e none of the above
Without the use of prophylaxis the risk of deep calf vein
thrombosis in a patient undergoing an anterior resection
for rectal cancer is likely to be at least:
a 10% d
b 20%
c 30%
d 50%
The best evaluation of the lower urinary tract is with:
a bladder ultrasound
b cystourethroscopy
b
c voiding cystourethrogram
d triple-phase CT scan
e MRI
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