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1. Which class of arthropods has branching appendages? C. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney; Osteichthyes —
A. Trilobite. B. Uniramia. C. Arachnida. D. Crustacea. cartilaginous.
D. Agnatha — boney; Chondrichthyes — cartilaginous; Osteichthyes —
2. A grasshopper’s tracheal tubes are attached to its boney.
A. lungs. B. spiracles. C. gills. D. book lungs.
18. A cloaca is a common opening for all of the following systems EXCEPT
3. Which system does a green gland of a crayfish belong to? A. digestive. B. reproductive. C. excretory. D. circulatory.
A. Excretory. B. Digestive.
C. Reproductive. D. Circulatory. 19. Fat deposits in vertebrates have two main functions. Besides being a
long term food supply, they
4. How many stages are there in complete metamorphosis? A. create the appearance of larger size.
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five. B. help maintain body temperature.
C. provide an internal water proofing.
5. What is the function of uropods and a telson? D. remove impurities from the blood.
A. Excretion. B. Reproduction. C. Locomotion. D. Digestion.
20. Which system is NOT present in vertebrates?
6. Spiders obtain oxygen through their A. Respiratory. B. Water vascular. C. Excretory. D. Endocrine.
A. gills. B. cuticles.
C. book lungs. D. tracheal tubes. 21. An endothermic animal gets its body temperature from
A. the environment. B. other endothermic animals.
7. The “fangs” of a spider are more technically known as C. ectothermic animals. D. its own metabolic activity.
A. chelicera. B. pedipalps. C. chelipeds. D. carapaces.
22. The most efficient respiratory systems are found among the
8. Insects that transmit diseases are A. fish. B. birds. C. reptiles. D. mammals.
A. pathogens. B. parasites. C. vectors. D. virulent.
23. Which group of chordates typically reproduces using internal fertilization?
9. Which of the following has a nymph stage in its life cycle? A. Turtles, frogs, birds. B. Bats, salamanders, whales.
A. Grasshopper. B. Moth. C. Mosquito. D. Fly. C. Snakes, kangaroos, platypuses. D. Sharks, alligators, anteaters.

10. People who enjoy eating lobster are usually eating the muscles of its 24. The lungs of a mammal are located in its
A. cephalothorax and chelipeds. B. carapace and abdomen. A. alimentary canal. B. abdominal cavity.
C. telsons and uropods. D. cheliped and abdomen. C. cranial cavity. D. thoracic cavity.

11. Which of the following correctly expresses the relative placement of a 25. What is the main difference between the uterus of a human and the
vertebrate’s nerve cord and major blood vessels? uterus of a rat?
A. Both are dorsal. A. Shape. B. Function.
B. Both are ventral. C. Location in the body. D. Attachment to internal other organs.
C. The nerve cord is ventral and the blood vessels are dorsal.
D. The nerve cord is dorsal and the blood vessels are ventral. 26. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the digestive organs
through which material pass in a rat?
12. Which of the following is NOT a correct match? A. Mouth, trachea, stomach, small intestine, anus.
A. Scaly legs — frog. B. Crop and gizzard — chicken. B. Mouth, esophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine.
C. Boneless — shark. D. Free-living — lamprey. C. Mouth, stomach, rectum, large intestine, anus.
D. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, caecum, large intestine.
13. Which of these features would NOT be found in a trout?
A. Operculum. B. Swim bladder. 27. The fact that no two members of the same species are absolutely
C. Spiral valve. D. Cloaca. identical is an example of
A. diversity B. homeostasis.
14. The limbs of a salamander cannot support much weight because they C. change through time. D. structural adaptations.
A. are more like fins than legs.
B. are not attached by bone to the spine. 28. Which of the following is the BEST example of the biological principle of
C. stick out sideways from the body. structural adaptations?
D. are weak and largely non-functional. A. Pigs have litters. C. There are many breeds of dogs.
B. Snakes eat frogs. D. Cacti needles are modified branches.
15. Limbs are attached to the vertebral column as follows:
A. pelvic are on the left; pectoral are on the right. 29. The fact that some flowers close up at night and open up during the day
B. pelvic are on the right; pectoral are on the left. is an example of
C. pelvic are anterior; pectoral are posterior. A. continuity B. interactions
D. pelvic are posterior; pectoral are anterior. C. homeostasis D. structural adaptations

16. Which of the following animals has a heart with clearly only one 30. A litter of puppies being born to a dog is an example of
ventricle? A. continuity B. interactions
A. Salamanders. B. Alligators. C. Chickens. D. Horses. C. changes through time. D. structural adaptations

17. Which of the following BEST describes the skeletal system of the classes 31. The relationship between a carnivore (wolf) and a herbivore (rabbit) is an
of fish? example of
A. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney; Osteichthyes — A. unity B. interactions
cartilaginous. C. changes through time D. structural adaptations
B. Agnatha — cartilaginous; Chondrichthyes — cartilaginous; Osteichthyes
— boney. 32. Which levels of biological organization includes all the others listed?
A. Biome B. Ecosystem. C. Population. D. Community.

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D. Mosquito — amebic dystentry.
33. What is a group of tissues with a unifying function called?
A. Cell. B. Organ. C. Organism. D. Organ system. 48. The use of two-word names like this is called
A. taxonomy. B. dichotomy.
34. Biology is the study of C. dinomial taxomony. D. binomial nomenclature.
A. life. B. plants. C. animals. D. organisms.
49. Biologists who classify organisms are called
35. Which of the following levels of study in biology is MORE GENERAL A. organists. B. taxonomists. C. taxidermists. D. taxorganists.
than “community”?
A. Species. B. Ecosystem. C. Population. D. Organ system. 50. All taxa larger than "species" are
A. arbitrary. B. written in italics.
36. Which of the following sequences correctly specifies the study of C. biologically useless. D. artificial, defined by man.
insects?
A. Biology – botany – entomology. 51. Horses and zebras are not considered to be members of the same
B. Zoology – biology – insectology. species because they
C. Biology – zoology – entomology. A. do not interbreed. B. eat different foods.
D. Biology – zoology – microbiology. C. are of different sizes. D. have different markings.

37. Linnaeus based his classification of plants on 52. Members of the same species
A. usefulness to man. B. evolutionary changes. A. are in the same genus. B. live in the same location.
C. environmental factors. D. structural characteristics. C. interact sexually with each other. D. are all the same color and shape.

The next five questions refer to the following name for a vine maple tree: 53. The most important factor in deciding whether or not two populations of
Acer circinatum birds living on two different islands belong to the same species is their
38. The name as it is written is A. physical similarity. B. embryological similarity.
A. correct. C. environmental requirement. D. mutual reproductive capability.
B. incorrect because it should be underlined.
C. incorrect because both words should be capitalized. 54. The taxon most clearly defined by natural biological barriers is the
D. incorrect because neither word should be capitalized. A. class. B. genus. C. phylum. D. species.

39. The biological name for a vine maple tree is 55. Which kingdom includes bacteria?
A. Acer. B. circinatum. A. Fungi. B. Monera. C. Plantae. D. Protista.
C. Acer circinatum. D. none of the above.
56. The third smallest taxon is the
40. The genus name for a vine maple tree is A. order. B. class. C. family. D. phylum.
A. Acer. B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum. D. none of the above. 57. The taxon that includes the others listed is the
A. class. B. order. C. genus. D. phylum.
41. The species name for a vine maple tree is
A. Acer. B. circinatum. 58. A rare allele may become common in a small population in a relatively
C. Acer circinatum. D. none of the above. short period of time due to
A. genetic drift. B. adaptive radiation.
42. Red tide is poisonous because the C. divergent evolution. D. convergent evolution.
A. water contains toxins produced by protists.
B. shellfish accumulate toxins produced by the protists. 59. Individuals without the specializations required to survive in a changing
C. protists are dying at a high rate polluting the ocean shores. environment
D. shellfish are dying at a high rate polluting the ocean shores. A. die. B. adapt. C. evolve. D. mutate.

43. Into which phylum are diatoms classified? 60. The idea that fossils are direct evidence of previously living organisms is
A. Phylum Pyrrophyta. B. Phylum Chrysophyta. consistent with
C. Phylum Euglenophyta. D. Phylum Acrasiomycota. A. Darwin’s theory of evolution.
B. Lamarck’s theory of evolution.
44. Which phylum of protists is NOT polymorphic? C. Both of these theories of evolution.
A. Phylum Sporozoa. B. Phylum Pyrrophyta. D. Neither of these theories of evolution.
C. Phylum Myxomycota. D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.
61. The ability of an organism to pass on its genes to its offspring is part of
45. What causes acrasiomycotes to develop into spore-producing the definition of
structures? A. fitness. B. radiation. C. evolution. D. adaptation.
A. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in poor feeding conditions.
B. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in good feeding conditions. 62. If a person previously had cow pox and was infected with small pox, then
C. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in poor feeding conditions. the
D. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in good feeding conditions. A. effect would be severe.
B. person would most certainly die.
46. Which pathogen and disease is mismatched? C. effect would be minimal if any even occurred.
A. Gonyaulax — red tide. B. Entameba — dysentry. D. person could become sick with any kind of pox, including chicken pox.
C. Giardia — beaver fever. D. Trypanosome — malaria.
63. During the vaccination against small pox, what did Jenner inject into
47. Which vector (carrier) and pathogen are mismatched? people?
A. Mosquito — malaria. A. Fluid from a cowpox blister.
B. Fly — Chagas disease. B. Blood from an infected cow.
C. Fly — sleeping sickness. C. Pus from an infected person.

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D. Antibiotics he developed against small pox. A. It leaves via the gullet.
B. It fuses with a lysosome.
64. Which of the following scientists was the first to see the tobacco mosaic C. It becomes a contractile vacuole.
virus? D. It becomes attached to the oral groove.
A. Miller. B. Meyer. C. Beijerinick. D. Iwanowski.
78. What phylum does an ameba belong to?
65. Which of the following scientists concluded that tobacco mosaic disease A. Phylum Ciliphora. B. Phylum Sarcodina.
was caused by organisms capable of reproduction? C. Phylum Pyrrophyta. D. Phylum Zoomastigina.
A. Miller. B. Meyer. C. Beijerinick. D. Iwanowski.
79. Which of the following BEST describes the functions of pseudopodia?
66. Which of the following scientists demonstrated that tobacco mosaic A. Ingestion and digestion. B. Movement and ingestion.
disease could be transferred from an infected plant to a healthy plant in the C. Reproduction and ingestion. D. Movement and reproduction.
juice extracted from the infected plant?
A. Miller. B. Meyer. C. Beijerinick. D. Iwanowski. 80. Conjugation is considered to be
A. sexual because new genetic combinations are produced.
67. Which of the following scientists conducted experiments that led to his B. asexual because no new genetic combinations are produced.
belief that the cause of tobacco mosaic disease was either a very small C. sexual because it requires a male and female of the same species.
bacterium or a toxin produced by the bacteria? D. asexual because organisms can conduct conjugation independently.
A. Miller. B. Meyer. C. Beijerinick. D. Iwanowski.
81. Which of the following is a correct description of reproduction by ameba?
68. The structure of Bacteriophage T4 is BEST described as an arrangement A. sexually when conditions are poor.
of B. sexually when conditions are good.
A. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of DNA. C. asexually when conditions are poor.
B. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of RNA. D. by forming cysts when conditions are good.
C. chromosomes made of DNA surrounding a core of proteins.
D. chromosomes made of RNA surrounding a core of proteins. 82. During the Plasmodium life cycle, where do the sporozoans mature?
A. Liver cells. B. Red blood cells.
69. Viral specificity, the fact that a given type of virus can only affect one kind C. Human blood stream. D. Mosquito salivary glands.
of host cell, is
A. because of toxins produced by non-host cells. 83. Which phylum of protists is LEAST likely to have flagella?
B. a result of the matching of chemical structures. A. Phylum Sarcodina. B. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
C. an indication of their relative strength or weakness. C. Phylum Zoomastigina. D. Phylum Euglenophyta.
D. nature’s way of ensuring a wide distribution of viruses.
84. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to form a fossil?
70. A “phage” (short for bacteriophage) is a type of A. Skin. B. Teeth. C. Shells. D. Bones.
A. bacterial cell.
B. virus that invades bacteria cells. 85. The fact that embryos of different animals appear similar during various
C. cell that is prone to bacterial infections. stages of their development suggests that they are
D. bacteria that is prone to viral infections. A. evolving. B. mutating.
C. genetically related. D. analogous to one another.
71. E. coli lives in
A. water. B. bacteria. 86. Industrial melanism is an example of
C. blood cells. D. intestines of mammals. A. artificial selection. B. disruptive selection.
C. stabilizing selection. D. accidental selection.
72. Which of the following sequences BEST describes the lytic cycle?
A. Infection — replication — self-assembly — lysis. 87. Which is NOT an example of artificial selection?
B. Replication — infection — self-assembly — lysis. A. Bird watching. B. Breeding race horses.
C. Lysis — replication — self-assembly — infection. C. Raising purebred dogs. D. Protecting endangered species.
D. Lysis — self-assembly — infection — replication.
88. The phenomenon of the accumulation of toxins in the tissues of
73. A lysogenic cycle differs from a lytic cycle in several ways. Which of organisms is known as
these is NOT one of them? A. extinction B. natural selection.
A. The cycle includes a period of “dormancy.” C. disruptive selection. D. biological magnification.
B. The host cell doesn’t burst open, it just eventually dies.
C. The viral chromosome joins the host cell’s genetic material. 89. Variations of a specific gene are known as
D. The genetic material of the virus is produced by the host cell. A. alleles. B. mutations. C. genotypes. D. phenotypes.

74. A prophage is BEST described as 90. A bimodal distribution of phenotypes in any given population could
A. active viral genetic material. naturally appear through
B. dormant viral genetic material. A. artificial selection. B. disruptive selection.
C. active bacterial genetic material. C. stabilizing selection. D. directional selection.
D. dormant bacterial genetic material.
91. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of the process of
75. What feature of a paramecium is used to classify it into its phylum? natural selection?
A. Cilia. B. Oral groove. A. extinction. B. selective pressure.
C. Food vacuole. D. Contractile vacuole. C. phenotypic variation. D. reproductive success.

76. Which of the following is the BEST description of the movement of a 92. Which sequence of taxa is in proper order?
paramecium? A. Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom.
A. Gliding.B. Floating. C. Spiraling. D. Crawling. B. Genus, class, order, kingdom, phylum, species, family.
77. What happens to a food vacuole once it is formed? C. Class, genus, family, species, order, phylum, kingdom.

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D. Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom. A. It is relatively short-lived.
B. A person makes their own antibodies.
93. Unlike a plant, a plant-like protist C. It comes and goes depending on a person’s health.
A. is unicellular. B. has a nucleus. D. It can be induced by injecting a weakened pathogen.
C. uses mitochondria. D. contains chloroplasts.
109. Which of the following structures would NOT be found in a bacterial
94. A unicellular organism with membrane-bound organelles is generally cell?
considered to be a A. Ribosome. B. Lysosome.
A. plant-like protist. B. animal-like protist. C. Chromosome. D. Cell membrane.
C. fungus-like protist. D. protist of some kind.
110. What is the function of the surface chemicals on bacterial cells called
95. How many kingdoms of organisms will be studied in Biology 11? pili?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six. A. Sensory. B. Defense. C. Movement. D. Attachment.

96. Organisms are classified into kingdoms primarily by their 111. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of eubacteria?
A. habitat. B. structures. A. Anaerobic.
C. size and coloration. D. reproductive behavior. B. Common and abundant.
C. Live in harsh environments.
97. Meiosis results in the production of D. Uncommon with simple characteristics.
A. two diploid daughter cells. B. four diploid daughter cells.
C. two haploid daughter cells. D. four haploid daughter cells. 112. What shape is a bacillus bacterium?
A. Spiral. B. Elongate. C. Spherical. D. Polyhedral.
98. Which pair of bases does NOT represent a complementary base pair?
A. thymine — adenine. B. adenine — guanine. 113. Organisms that generally use oxygen, but can survive without it are
C. guanine — cytosine. D. cytosine — guanine. called
A. obligate aerobes. B. facultative aerobes.
99. The circulatory system of a typical arthropod is best described as C. obligate anaerobes. D. facultative anaerobes.
A. open with a ventral pumping vessel.
B. open with a dorsal pumping vessel. 114. Which of the following is a correct match?
C. closed with a ventral pumping vessel. A. Aerobic — plant cells — alcohol.
D. closed with a dorsal pumping vessel. B. Aerobic — animal cells — alcohol.
C. Anaerobic — plant cells — lactic acid.
100. Centipedes are members of class D. Anaerobic — animal cells — lactic acid.
A. Chilopoda. B. Diplopoda. C. Insecta. D. Uniramia.
115. A bacterium that makes its food using energy from chemicals found in
101. Millipedes are known for their its environment is termed a
A. single pair of legs per segment and herbivorous lifestyle. A. photosynthetic autotroph. B. chemosynthetic autotroph.
B. single pair of legs per segment and carnivorous lifestyle. C. photosynthetic heterotroph. D. chemosynthetic heterotroph.
C. double pair of legs per segment and herbivorous lifestyle.
D. double pair of legs per segment and carnivorous lifestyle. 116. During binary fission, bacteria will
A. divide by mitosis and double their number.
102. The major locomotory structures of an insect are attached to its B. produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote.
A. head. B. thorax. C. divide by meiosis and quadruple their number.
C. cephalothorax. D. abdomen. D. combine, exchange genetic material, and then divide.

103. Which of the following lists a grasshopper’s mouthparts in an anterior to 117. In one hour, given ideal growing conditions, a small colony of 10 cells
posterior sequence? could grow to include
A. Labium ¬ mandibles ¬ maxillae ¬ labrum. A. 13 cells. B. 40 cells. C. 80 cells. D. Hundreds of cells.
B. Labium ¬ maxillae ¬ mandibles ¬ labrum.
C. Labrum ¬ maxillae ¬ mandibles ¬ labium. 118. Which of the following would increase the size of a population?
D. Labrum ¬ mandibles ¬ maxillae ¬ labium. A. Increased mortality. B. Increased emigration.
C. Decreased immigration. D. Increased natality.
104. To which body system do ocelli belong?
A. Excretory. B. Respiratory. C. Reproductive. D. Nervous. 119. A population of 1000 members is changing at the following rates: N =
10%, M = 14%, I = 18%, E = 22%. After one year, the population would be
105. Which of the following BEST describes the life cycle of a moth? A. 920. B. 992. C. 1008. D. 1080.
A. Egg ¬ nymph ¬ adult.
B. Egg ¬ larva ¬ nymph ¬ adult. 120. Bacteria grown on agar in a Petri dish is an example of
C. Egg ¬ larva ¬ pupa ¬ adult. A. carrying capacity. B. closed population.
D. Egg ¬ pupa ¬ adult. C. open population. D. cyclical changes in population size.

106. Certain types of white blood cells release proteins that clump together
foreign cells. What are these proteins called?
A. Antibiotics. B. Antibodies. C. Pathogens. D. Interferons.
107. Interleukins, proteins released by certain white blood cells, function to
A. absorb pathogens in the blood stream.
B. activate other white blood cells during an infection.
C. deactivate the immune system after an infection has passed.
D. warn body cells that there are pathogens in the blood stream.
108. Which of the following is typical of passive immunity?
121. When the density of a growing population surpasses the carrying
capacity of its environment, the organisms will
A. stop reproducing until the population size degreases significantly.
B. reduce the number of offspring per female in the population.
C. begin to die faster than new ones are produced.
D. go extinct.
122. Cyclical changes in population density exist in an environment that is
A. relatively stable over a long period of time.
B. changing rapidly.

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C. undergoing succession.
D. undergoing severe selective pressures.
123. In an energy pyramid, the producers are at the
A. top and there is more energy at each successive level.
B. top and there is less energy at each successive level.
C. bottom and there is more energy at each successive level.
D. bottom and there is less energy at each successive level.
124. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be true about herbivores and
carnivores in the same ecosystem?
A. Both are part of the biota of the area.
B. The carnivores could prey on the herbivores.
C. They are both are the same trophic level.
D. The density of both populations undergoes regular fluctuations.
125. Which of the following is the BEST description of carrying capacity?
A. The maximum number of individuals a closed environment will support.
B. The maximum number of individuals a open environment will support.
C. The minimum number of individuals a closed environment will support.
D. The minimum number of individuals a open environment will support.
126. Which sequence is the most likely to occur during succession in a cedar
forest?
A. Grasses ¬ deciduous trees ¬ cedar trees.
B. Cedar trees ¬ seedlings ¬ cedar trees.
C. Moss ¬ grasses ¬ deciduous growth.
D. Lichen ¬ shrubs and grasses ¬ trees.
127. A pioneer species is
A. an ancient type of organism.
B. one which has evolved quickly.
C. one which has avoided evolution.
D. one of the first types to grow in a new area.
128. Which kingdom does NOT contain photosynthetic organisms?
A. Plant. B. Fungus.
C. Protist. D. Monera (Eubacteria).
129. During photosynthesis, the products are
A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants are oxygen and sugar.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the reactants are sugar and water.
C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are sugar and carbon dioxide.
D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are carbon dioxide and water.
130. During cellular respiration, the products are
A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants are oxygen and sugar.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the reactants are sugar and water.
C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are sugar and carbon dioxide.
D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are carbon dioxide and water.
131. Organisms use sugar to make an energy-rich molecule called
A. TAP. B. ATP. C. PAT. D. PTA.
132. Every population requires
A. a lack of predation. B. continuous resources.
C. continuous succession. D. inverted energy pyramids.
133. Extinction of one species in a stable ecosystem could do all of the
following EXCEPT
A. go unnoticed.
B. cause the collapse of the ecosystem.
C. increase the interactions between the remaining species.
D. decrease the interactions between the remaining species.
134. The process of replication ensures that daughter cells will have exact
copies of
A. chromosomes without any mutations.
B. all the genetic information for the organism.
C. suitable segments of DNA required for cell survival.
D. the genetic information to be used by those particular cells.
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135. When during the cell cycle does replication occur?
A. Just before prophase. B. S period of interphase.
C. G1 period of interphase. D. G2 period of interphase.
136. The theory of natural selection was developed by
A. Darwin.B. Mendel. C. Lamarck. D. Linnaeus.
137. The evolution of a species could be MOST ACCURATELY documented
by the
A. observation of a set of mutations.
B. change in the size of a physical feature.
C. change in the frequency of alleles in the gene pool.
D. occurrence of genotype that doesn’t change, though the corresponding
phenotype may.
138. Which of the following is TRUE of homologous structures?
A. They have the same types of tissues and the same functions.
B. They have different types of tissues and may have different functions.
C. They have different types of tissues but may have the same functions.
D. They have the same types of tissues, but may have different functions.
139. Evolution due to genetic drift is MOST LIKELY to occur in a
A. large population due to selective pressures.
B. small population due to selective pressures.
C. large population without the influence of selective pressures.
D. small population without the influence of selective pressures.
140. The genetic material of a retrovirus will organize the synthesis of
A. DNA from its RNA structure.B. DNA from its DNA structure.
C. RNA from its RNA structure.D. RNA from its DNA structure.
141. Retroviruses are significant in studies of human diseases because they
inject
A. cancer-causing genes.
B. cancer-preventing genes.
C. genetic material that produces cancer-causing genes.
D. genetic material that produces cancer-preventing genes.
142. RNA differs from DNA in all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one?
A. RNA contains uracil, where DNA doesn’t contain uracil.
B. RNA is single stranded, where DNA is double stranded.
C. RNA contains ribose, where DNA contains deoxyribose.
D. RNA is not normally found in human cells, where DNA is.
143. A pathogen is BEST described as a
A. toxic chemical. B. virus or bacterium.
C. carrier of a disease. D. disease-causing microbe.
144. The correct sequence of the parts of an earthworm’s digestive system
is
A. pharynx, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus.
B. pharynx, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
C. esophagus, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
D. esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine.
145. The lifestyle of a polychaete is best described as
A. predator. B. prey. C. producer. D. parasite.
146. Which of the following systems is likely the MOST developed in a
leech?
A. Excretory. B. Reproductive. C. Digestive. D. Circulatory.
147. The chemical secreted by a leech is medically significant because it
prevents
A. bacterial infection. B. blood clotting.
C. tissue rejection. D. skin deterioration.
148. Which of the following sets of features most accurately defines Phylum
Mollusca?
A. Marine, soft-bodied, mantle.
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B. Soft-bodied, mantle, closed circulatory system.
C. Foot, mantle, soft-bodied.
D. Marine or terrestrial, foot, open circulatory system.

149. Which of the following is LEAST likely a function of the siphon of a

clam?
A. Feeding. B. Excreting. C. Circulating. D. Reproducing.

150. A sinus of a clam is MOST correctly described as a chamber where

A. air collects for respiration.
B. blood collects to bathe tissues.
C. muscles for movement are located.
D. reproductive gametes are stored.

FOCUS – DETERMINATION – ATTITUDE – FAITH Page 6