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ASB 4301 – AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS

PART A (20x1=20 marks)

S.No Questions CO BTL


1 When a propeller airplane in ground-roll during take-off 1 1
experiences headwind, which of the following statements
is TRUE?
(a) The drag on the airplane decreases
(b) The thrust from the propellers increases
(c) The wing lift decreases
(d) The ground-roll distance increases.
2 While flying at Mach 2.0, 11 km altitude and producing the 1 2
same thrust, what is the correct order from the lowest thrust
specific fuel consumption (tsfc) to the highest tsfc?
(a) Turbofan, Ramjet, Turbojet
(b) Ramjet, Turbojet, Turbofan
(c) Turbofan, Turbojet, Ramjet
(d) Turbojet, Turbofan, Ramjet
3 A jet aircraft is initially flying steady and level at its 1 1
maximum endurance condition. For the aircraft to fly
steady and level, but faster at the same altitude, the pilot
should
(a) increase thrust alone.
(b) increase thrust and increase angle of attack.
(c) reduce angle of attack alone.
(d) increase thrust and reduce angle of attack.
4 The pilot of a conventional airplane that is flying steady and 1 1
level at some altitude, deflects the port side aileron up and
the starboard aileron down. The aircraft will then
(a) pitch, nose up
(b) roll with the port wing up
(c) pitch, nose down
(d) roll with the starboard wing up.
5 A NACA 0012 airfoil has a trailing edge flap. The airfoil is 2 1
operating at an angle of attack of 5°with un-deflected flap.
If the flap is now deflected by 5° downwards, the 𝐶𝐿 versus
𝛼 curve
(a) shifts left and slope increases.
(b) shifts left and slope stays the same.
(c) shifts right and slope increases.
(d) shifts right and slope stays the same
6 An airplane requires a longer ground roll to lift-off on hot 2 2
summer days because
(a) the thrust is directly proportional to weight of the aircraft
(b) the thrust is directly proportional to free-stream density
(c) the lift-off distance is directly proportional to freestream density.
(d) the runway friction is high on hot summer days
7 The maximum limit load factor for a civil aircraft is in the range of 2 1
(a) 5.0 – 8.0
(b) 8.0 – 10.0
(c) 2.0 – 5.0
(d) 0.0 – 2.0
8 Under cruising conditions of Mach 0.5,Which of the following aircraft has 2 1
maximum propulsive efficiency?
(a) Turboprop engine
(b) Turbofan engine
(c) Turbojet engine
(d) Ramjet engine
9 The load factor of an aircraft turning at a constant altitude 3 1
is 2. The coefficient of lift required for turning flight as
compared to level flight at the same speed will be
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
10 The primary purpose of a trailing edge flap is to 3 1
(a) increase Cl,max
(b) avoid flow separation
(c) reduce wave drag
(d) reduce induced drag
11 What is the primary purpose of the tail rotor system 3 1
(a) To make a coordinated turn
(b) Keep straight level in auto rotation
(c) Maintain heading during forward flight
(d) Counteract the torque effect of the main rotor
12 When a helicopter blade flaps up, its centre of gravity moves closer to its 3 1
axis of rotation, giving the blade a tendency to :
(a) stabilize its rotational velocity
(b) Bend
(c) Accelerate
(d) Decelerate
13 What is the lift differential between the advancing and retreating main 4 1
rotor blades is known as
(a) transverse flow effect
(b) Disymmetry of lift
(c) Flap back
(d) Flap forward lifting
14 Which one of the following is favorable for an airplane 4 1
operation?
(a) Tail wind in cruise and head wind in landing
(b) Tail wind both in cruise and landing
(c) Head wind both in cruise and landing
(d) Head wind in cruise and tail wind in landing
15 The critical Mach number for a flat plate of zero thickness, 4 2
at zero angle of attack, is _________
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1
16 Which one of the following criteria leads to maximum turn 4 1
rate and minimum radius in a level turn flight?
(a) Highest possible load factor and highest possible velocity
(b) Lowest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
(c) Highest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
(d) Lowest possible load factor and highest possible velocity
17 An aircraft in trimmed condition has zero pitching moment 5 1
at
(a) its centre of gravity
(b) 25% of its mean aerodynamic chord.
(c) 50% of its wing root chord.
(d) its aerodynamic centre
18 The upward bending of the rotor blades resulting from the combined forces 5 1
of lift and centrifugal force is
(a) inertia
(b) coning
(c) flapping
(d) Blade hinging
19 The critical Mach number of an airfoil is attained when 5 1
(a) the freestream Mach number is sonic.
(b) the freestream Mach number is supersonic
(c) the Mach number somewhere on the airfoil is unity.
(d) the Mach number everywhere on the airfoil is supersonic
20 In turbulent air, high airspeeds in helicopter should be avoided primarily 5 1
because of the possibility of
(a) An abrupt pitch up
(b) Retreating blade stall
(c) Dynamic roll over
(d) low frequency vibrations
PART B (20X2=40 marks)

SNo Questions CO BTL


1 An airplane of mass 5000kg is flying at a constant speed of 360km/hr at the 1 1
bottom of a vertical circle with a radius of 400m as shown in the figure.
Assuming that the acceleration of gravity is 9.8m/s2
the load factor experienced at the center of gravity of the airplane is
(a) 5.65
(b) 3.55
(c) 8.1
(d) 1.23
2 A single engine, propeller driven , general aviation airplane is flying in cruise at 1 1
sea level condition with speed to cover maximum range. For drag coefficient
CD=0.025 +0.049 Cl2 and wing loading W/S=9844N/m2, the speed of airplane
is ___m/s
(a) 140
(b) 120
(c) 160
(d) 150
3 What action should the pilot take if engine failure occurs at altitude for 1 2
helicopter?
(a) Lower the collective pitch control to maintain rotor RPM
(b) Raise the collective pitch to maintain height
(c) Open the throttle as the collective pitch is raised
(d) Reduce cyclic back stick pressure during turns
4 Profile drag 1 2
(a) sum of induced drag and skin friction
(b) depends upon angle of attack
(c) is proportional to the square of the speed
(d) is inversely proportional to the square of the speed
5 What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and 2 1
other factors remains constant and airspeed is doubled?. Lift will be greater by
(a) three times
(b) two times
(c) four times
(d) ten times
6 What happens to total drag if the airspeed decreases in level flight below the 2 1
speed for maximum L/D?
(A) drag decreases because of lower parasite drag
(B) drag increases because of increased parasite drag
(C) drag decreases because of lower induced drag
(D) drag increases because of increased induced drag
7 The power-off glide range for an airplane with a maximum Lift to Drag ratio of 2 2
18, when the glide starts at an altitude of 4 km, is ______ km
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
8 Match the appropriate engine (in right column) with the corresponding aircraft 2 2
(in left column) for most efficient performance of the engine.
a. Low speed transport aircraft i. Ramjet
b. High subsonic civilian aircraft ii. Turboprop
c. Supersonic fighter aircraft iii. Turbojet
d. Hypersonic aircraft iv. Turbofan
(a) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(b) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv
© a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii
(d)a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i
9 The vertical ground load factor on a stationary aircraft parked in its hangar is: 3 1
(a) 0
(b) -1
(c) not defined
(d) 1
10 Under what conditions should a glider be operated to 3 1
ensure minimum sink rate?
(a) Maximum CL/CD
(b) Minimum CL/CD
(c) Maximum CD/CL^(3/2)
(d) Minimum CD/CL^(3/2)
11 Which of the following design parameters influence the maximum rate-of- 3 2
climb for a jet-propelled airplane?
P. Wing loading
Q. Maximum thrust-to-weight ratio
R. Zero-lift drag coefficient
S. Maximum lift-to-drag ratio’
(a) P and Q alone
(b) P, Q, R and S
(c) P, Q and S alone
(d) Q, R, and S alone
12 An aircraft in a steady climb suddenly experiences a 10% drop in thrust. After a 3 2
new equilibrium is reached at the same speed, the new rate of climb is
(a) lower by exactly 10%.
(b) lower by more than 10%.
(c) lower by less than 10%.
(d) an unpredictable quantity.
13 If an aircraft takes off with 10% less fuel in comparison to its standard 4 1
configuration, its range is
(a) lower by exactly 10%.
(b) lower by more than 10%.
(c) lower by less than 10%.
(d) an unpredictable quantity.
14 A main objective of by-pass in a turbo-fan engine is to increase 4 1
(a) mass flow rate through engine inlet
(b) turbine inlet temperature
(c) increase the exhaust nozzle
(d) compressor pressure ratio
15 The absolute ceiling of an aircraft is the altitude above which it: 4 1
(a) can never reach
(b) cannot sustain level flight at a constant speed
(c) can perform accelerated flight as well as straight and level flight at a
constant speed
(d) can perform straight and level flight at a constant speed only
16 Thrust available from a turbojet engine 4 2
(a) increases as altitude increases
(b) increases up to the tropopause and then decreases
(c) remains constant at all altitudes
(d) decreases as altitude increases
17 A symmetrical airfoil section produces a lift coefficient of 0.53 at an angle of 5 1
attack of 5 degrees measured from its chord line. An untwisted wing of
elliptical planform and aspect ratio 6 is made of this airfoil. At an angle of
attack of 5° relative to its chordal plane, this wing would produce a lift
coefficient of
(a) 0.53
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.36
18 For a given airplane with a given wing loading executing a turn in the vertical 5 1
plane, under what conditions will the turn radius be minimum and the turn
rate be maximum?
(a) Highest possible CL and lowest possible load factor
(b) Lowest possible CL and lowest possible load factor
(c) Lowest possible CL and highest possible load factor
(d) Highest possible CL and highest possible load
19 A trailing edge plain flap deflected downward increases the lift coefficient of 5 1
an airfoil by
(a) Increasing the effective camber of the airfoil.
(b) Delaying the separation of the flow from the airfoil surface
(c) Increasing the local airspeed near the trailing edge.
(d) Controlling the growth of the boundary layer thickness along the
airfoil surface
20 How could you reduce the coning angle? 5 2
(a) increase the rotor RPM
(b) decrease the rotor RPM
(c) increase the weight of the helicopter
(d) decrease the washout

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