CODE

0
CUMULATIVE TEST-1 (CT-1)-JEE (ADVANCED)
TARGET : JEE (ADVANCED)-2013 COURSE : REVISION CLASSES
Date : 21-04-2013 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 228
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

PAPER - 1
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 66 questions.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.

INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.
B. Filling the Top-half of the ORS :
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.
9. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken
the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS
in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
10. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.
11. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
12. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
13. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
ORS.
14. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will
be taken as final.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
15. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics). Each part consists of Four
Sections.
16. For each question in Section–I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect
answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in Section–II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer(s) in this section.
18. For each question in Section–III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking
for incorrect answer(s) in this section.
19. For each question in Section–IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking
for incorrect answer(s) in this section.
 PHYSICS

PART I : PHYSICS

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A square coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If it is rotated about axis

1,2,3 or 4 with a same constant angular velocity, the amplitude of emf
generated will be E1,E2,E3 and E4 respectively. The correct order of the
amplitude of emf is :
(A) E1 = E2 > E4 > E3 (B) E4 > E1 = E2 > E3
(C) E1 = E3 > E2 > E4 (D) E1 = E3 > E4 > E2

2. In the figure shown section CDEF is fixed in the vertical plane. CD & EF are smooth and resistanceless. A
rod GH of mass 2kg is moving vertically up with initial velocity 5 ms–1 without losing contact with the fixed
arrangement. There is a uniform magnetic field 10 T in the horizontal direction as shown. The total heat
produced by the time it goes to highest point in the circuit will be

(A) 25 J (B) greater than 25 J (C) less than 25 J (D) zero

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 PHYSICS

3. A planet is revolving in an elliptical orbit around the sun as shown in figure.

The areal velocity (area swapped by the radius vector with respect to sun
in unit time) is :
1 1
(A) (r + r ) v (B) r v
4 1 2 1 2 2 2
2
1 v 1 r1
(C) (D) dependent on the position of planet from sun
2 r2

4. Figure shows a potentiometer in which resistance of rheostat is changing with time(t) as R = R0 + bt, where
R0 and b are positive constant. Which of the following graphs best represents the balance length  (from A)
with respect to time t : (Symbols have their usual meaning)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5. In the circuit shown, the galvanometer shows zero current.

The value of resistance R is :

(A) 1  (B) 10 
Space for Rough Work
(C) 4  (D) 9 

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 PHYSICS
6. A uniformly charged ring of radius R is rotated about its axis with constant linear speed v of each of its
particles. The ratio of electric field to magnetic field at a point P on the axis of the ring distant x = R from
centre of ring is (c is speed of light)

c2 v2 c v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
v c v c

7. A total charge q passes through a resistor of resistance R. The current decreases such that it becomes
half of its previous value, after every time T. Find the initial value of the current.

q q q
(A) i0 = ln 2 (B) i0 = ln 4 (C) i0 = (D) None of these
T T T n2
8. Two point mass m1 and m2 are placed at point A and B respectively as m3
shown in figure. Point A is the centre of hollow sphere of uniformly distributed
total mass m3. Consider only gravitational interaction between all masses m1 m2
and neglect other gravitational forces. Select the incorrect alternative. A a B
(A) Hollow sphere and point mass m1 moves with same acceleration. r
(B) m1 and m2 moves with same acceleration.
(C) Net force on m1 is non-zero
(D) Net force on hollow sphere and point mass m1 as a system is equal to force experienced by point mass
m2 in magnitude.

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 PHYSICS

SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 6 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. In the circuit shown the capacitor and an ideal inductor do not have energy
initially and key is switch on at t = 0. Then which of the following options
is/are true
(A) Potential difference across the capacitor at t = 0 is zero
(B) The current flowing through the battery at t = 0 is 0.5 A
(C) Potential difference across the inductor at t =  is zero
60
(D) The current flowing through the battery at t =  is A
11

10. Two conducting isolated spherical shells have charges +2C and +3C. After closing the switch select
correct alternative(s):

3C
2C

10cm Sw 20cm

(A) Electrons flows from larger sphere to smaller sphere

(B) Potential energy of system is least after rearrangement of charges.
(C) After connection there is no charge flow.
(D) Final charge on the larger sphere is double than final charge on the smaller sphere after connection.

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 PHYSICS
11. The figure shows two thin large identical parallel conducting plates placed
in air (dielectric constant = 1) with a slab of dielectric constant k placed
between them .The width of the small gap between the conducting plates is A B
d while the thickness of the dielectric slab is t. The conducting plates are
given equal and opposite charges due to which the strength of the electric air
conducting k conducting
field in air region is E as shown. The area of plates perpendicular to the plate E plate
plane of figure is A and consider it to be large. Neglect the edge effects.
(The portion ABCD has the same dimensions perpendicular to the plane of
the figure as that of plate or dielectric medium). Mark the correct options : D C

(A) The net charge in the portion ABCD (volume) is zero.

 0EA
(B) The magnitude of net charge in the portion ABCD is .
k
 0E2 At
(C) The electrostatic energy stored in the dielectric medium is
2k
 0E 2 At
(D) The electrostatic energy stored in the dielectric medium is
2k 2

12. A charged particle moves with a constant velocity ( î  ĵ )m/s in a magnetic field B  (2 î  3k̂ ) T and uniform

electric field E  (a î  bĵ  ck̂) N/C, then (assuming all quantities in S.I. unit) :
(A) a = –3 (B) b = 3 (C) c = –2 (D) a2 + b2 + c2 = 22

13. A charged particle of mass 5 × 10–5 kg and charge 1µc, is projected in magnetic field B = 10 k̂ from origin in
x-y plane. The particle moves in a circle and just touches a line y = 5 m at x = 5 3 m. Then
(A) The particle is projected at an angle 60° with x-axis
(B) The radius of circle is 10 m
(C) speed of particle is 2m/s
(D) workdone by magnetic force on the particle is zero.

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 PHYSICS
14. A solid non conducting sphere charged in such a way that in it as we move away from the centre, the
electric field decreases then which of the following statement is/are correct :
(A) the sphere in non uniformly charged
(B) the potential at surface is less than that at its centre
(C) the potential at surface is more than that at its centre
(D) the potential at surface may be less than that at its centre

SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16

A soap bubble of radius R with wall thickness t is charged to a potential V0. The bubble bursts and becomes
a spherical drop of soap solution of radius r. Now, it has potential V. Assume the soap solution to be a
conductor. Then

15. The charge carried by the soap bubble is :

(A) 40 RV0 (B) 20 RV0 (C) 40 rV (D) (A) and (C)

16. The surface area of the drop is :

(A) 4R2 (B) 4 (9t2 R4)1/3 (C) 4 (9t4 R2)1/3 (D) 4R (t + R)

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 PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18
A solid & conducting block in the shape of a cuboid has a cross sectional area of 2 cm 2, a front-to-rear
length of 18 cm and a resistance of 900 . The block's material contains 5 × 10 22 conduction
electrons/m 3. By applying a potential difference between its front and rear faces, an electric field of
magnitude 200 V/m is produced inside the block.

17. Assuming current density to be uniform, its magnitude is :

(A) 100 A/m 2 (B) 200 A/m 2 (C) 300 A/m 2 (D) 400 A/m 2

18. The drift speed of the conduction electrons is :

(A) 2.5 cm/s (B) 5 cm/s (C) 7.5 cm/s (D) 15 cm/s

SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type

This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a

single digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble below the
respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.

19. Electric field ,in a straight solid uniform cylindrical conductor of radius R = 2 cm is along the axis of the
cylinder and is given by E = K r where K = 1 × 108 Volt/Metre2 and r is the distance (In metre) from the
axis of the cylinder. If current in the cylinder is  = 16micro ampere. If the specific conductivity
z
= × 10–8 –1 m –1. Find the value of z.
5

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 PHYSICS

20. The gravitational field in a region is given by, E = 5 N/kg i + 12 N/kg j. If the origin is taken as zero
potential energy, then the magnitude of potential energy at (0, 5) is for 1 kg mass in joule is :

21. Two point charges 10–5 C and –10–5 C are released from large separation. Their masses are 100gm and
x
200gm. If velocity of approach (in m/s) of them when they are separated by distance 3m is m/s.
4
Then x is :

22. The potentiometer wire AB is made of two parts AN and

NB of cross sectional radii 2r and r respectively.The
material of both parts is same.A cell is connected between
A andB. The potential gradient in the part AN is
1V/m.Potential difference between two points Cand D
(shown in figure) separated by 20 cm is found to be
t
0.5 V.The separation between C and N is cm. Then t is A C N D B
3

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 CHEMISTRY

PART- II - CHEMISTRY

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 8 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

23. PCl5 + H2O  H3PO4 + HCl

heat
nH3PO4  (HPO3)n + nH2O
upto 316 º C

The mass of PCl5 is required to prepare 320 gm of cyclic meta phosphoric acid (HPO3)n is :
(A) 208.5 gm (B) 417 gm (C) 1042.5 gm (D) 834 gm

24. Calculate relative rate of effusion of O2 to CH4 through a container containing O2 and CH4 in 3 : 2 mass ratio.
3 2 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
4 4 2 2 2

25. At 1400 K, Kc = 2.5×10–3 for the reaction CH4(g) + 2H2S(g) CS2(g) + 4H2(g) . A 10.0L reaction vessel
at 1400 K contains 2.00 mole of CH4, 3.0 mol of CS2, 3.0 mole of H2 and 4.0 mole of H2S. Then
(A) This reaction is at equilibrium with above concentrations.
(B) The reaction will proceed in forward direction to reach equilibrium
(C) The reaction will proceed in backward direction to reach equilibrium
(D) The information is insufficient to decide the direction of progress of reaction

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 CHEMISTRY
26. Which of the following planes of FCC (face centred cubic) does not pass through the center of at least one
octahedral void? The void may be present fully or partially within the cube.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

M
27. 40 ml of solution of a weak monsobasic acid (Ka = 2  10–12 at 25°C) is treated with M/12 Barium
4
hydroxide solution. The concentration of H+ ions at the equivalence point is :
(A) 5  10–13 M (B) 5  10–2 M (C) 4 2  10–13 M (D) 2 5  10–13 M

28. Select the correct statement(s) :

(A) When T  or Ea  0 then k  A
(B) Arrhenius equation is applicable for first order reaction only.
(C) Arrhenius equation is applicable for radioactive decay.
(D) The rate of a catalyzed reactions always independent of the concentration of the catalyst.

29. 20 gm of an impure mixture containing equal no.of moles of NaHC2O4, H2C2O4 and Na2C2O4 requires 40 ml
0.2 M NaOH for complete neutralisation. 40 gm of same mixture requires V ml 0.4 M KMnO4 in acid medium
for complete oxidation. The value of V is :
(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 16 (D) 80

30. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g glucose,10 g urea and 10 g sucrose are
dissolved in 250 mL of water to form separate solutions is : [P1, P2 and P3 are osmotic pressure of glucose,
urea and sucrose solution respectively]
(A) P1 > P2 > P3 (B) P3 > P1 > P2 (C) P2 > P1 > P3 (D) P2 > P3 > P1

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 CHEMISTRY

SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

31. Among the plots which represents Charle's law for a given amount of gas.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

32. Which of the following statements are correct :

(A) A metal that crystallises in the F.C.C. structure has coordination number twelve
(B) Cubic and rhombohedral are two crystal systems.
(C) In orthorhombic crystal system all axial (crystallographic) angles are identical.
(D) Number of next nearest neighbours in the F.C.C. structure is twelve.

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 CHEMISTRY
33. A radioactive element X decays by the sequence and with half life given below :
 2
X  Y  Z
30 min . 2 days

which of the following statements about this system are correct?

(A) After two hours, less than 10% of the initial X is left
(B) An intermediate nuclide exists between Y and Z
(C) Atomic number of X and Z are same
(D) The mass number of Y is greater than X

34. 100 ml of 0.1 M aq. soluiton of HNO2 (Ka = 10–5) is titrated using 0.1 M barium hydroxide solution, then :
(log3=0.48, log2=0.30)
(A) pH of solution at equivalent point of titration is 8.85.
(B) pH of solution at equivalent point of titration is 8.91.
(C) pH of solution after adding 20 ml of Ba(OH)2 solution is 4.82.
(D) pH of solution after adding 100 ml of Ba(OH)2 solution is 12.7.

35. For the reaction, X (g) + Y (g) 3Z (g). If a moles of each of X and Y per litre are taken initially in the
container, then which is/are correct at equilibrium.
[ Z]
(A) [X] – [Y] = 0 (B) 3[X] + [Z] = 3a (C) [Y] + =a (D) 3[X] + 3[Y] – 2[Z] = 3a
3
36. Choose the correct statement(s) :
(A) 1 mole of MnO4– ion can oxidise 5 moles of Fe2+ ion in acidic medium.
(B) 1 mole of Cr2 O72– ion can oxidise 6 moles of Fe2+ ion in acidic medium.
(C) 1 mole of Cu2S (Cu2S  Cu++ + SO2) can be oxidised by 1.6 moles of MnO4– ion in acidic medium.
(D) 1 mole of Cu2S (Cu2S  Cu++ + SO2) can be oxidised by 1.33 moles of Cr2O72– ion in acidic medium.

SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

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 CHEMISTRY

Paragraph for Question Nos. 37 to 38

Dinitrogen pentoxide decompose to NO2 and O2 following Ist order kinetics.

1
N2O5 (g)  2NO2 (g) + O (g)
2 2
0.2 moles of N2O5 was taken in 2L vessel and heated at 200 K. The concentration of N2O5 is measured at
diferent time intervals. Following graphs A and B were obtained from the data.
Half life of N2O5 is 2.5 × 10–3 sec.

37. Slope of straight line in graph–B is – 6670, the activation energy for the reaction is :
(A) 127.71 J (B) 127.71 KJ (C) 12.771 J (D) 12.771 KJ

38. The rate of reaction after 5 × 10–3 sec is :

(A) 6.93 mole L–1 Sec–1 (B) 3.465 mole L–1 Sec–1
(C) 6.93 mole L–1 (D) 13.86 mole Sec–1

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 CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 40
Only those atoms which form four covalent bonds produce a repetitive three dimesional structure using only
covalent bonds, e.g., diamond structure. The latter is based on a FCC lattice where lattice points are occupied
by carbon atoms. Every atom in this structure is surrounded tetrahedrally by four others. Germanium, silicon
and grey tin also crystallize in the same way as diamond.
(Given : NA = 6 ×1023, sin 54º44 = 0.8164).

39. If edge length of the cube is 3.60Å, then radius of carbon atom is
(A) 0.78 Å (B) 0.92 Å (C) 0.64 Å (D) 0.35 Å.

40. Total number of diamond unit cells in 1.2 gm of diamond sample is :

(A) 6.0 × 1021 (B) 6.0 × 1022 (C) 7.5 × 1021 (D) 5.0 × 1022.

SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type

This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is

a double digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble below
the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.

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 CHEMISTRY
41. How many number of next nearest ions present to Na+ in NaCl structure.

42. x g of Fe2(SO4)3 was dissolved in water to prepare 1 L of its aqueous solution. Upon analysis, it was
found that each mL of the above solution contains 1.2 × 10–4 NA SO42– ions. Find the value of x.

43. In a closed container NO2 was taken which dimerises to give N2O4. After some time mole fraction of N2O4 was
found to be 2/3 in the container then calculate % dimerisation of NO2.

44. The conductivity of an aqueous solution of a weak monoprotic acid is 0.000033 ohm–1cm–1 at a concentration,
0.2 M. If at this concentration the degree of dissociation is 0.015, calculate the value of 0 (ohm–1 cm2 /eqt).

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 MATHEMATICS

PART- III - MATHEMATICS

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 8 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

45. Sum of squares of all trigonometrical ratios has minimum value

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) none of these
4
2
46. If 1, 2 be the roots of x2 – 32x + 16 = 0 and 3, 4 be the roots of x2 + 32x + 1 = 0, then  i =
i 1
(A) 0 (B) 32 (C) 2013 (D) none of these

n –1
47. If  is imaginary cube root of unity and A = (1 + )(1 + 2)(1 + 4) ..... (1  2 ) , n  N, then A =
(A) 1, if n be even (B) –2 , if n be even (C) 1, for all n  N (D) 2 , if n be odd

1
48. If ,  are the roots of x2 + ax – = 0, a  0, then the minimum value of 4 +  4 is
2a 2
(A) 2 (B) 3  2 (C) 2  2 (D) 4 – 2

49. 21/4 41/8 81/16 161/32 .........is equal to

3 5
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 2

sin  cos  sin (  )

50. The value of sin  cos  sin(  ) is
sin  cos  sin(   )
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1 + sin sin sin (D) 1 – (sin – sin)(sin – sin)(sin – sin)

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 MATHEMATICS
51. If B is a non singular matrix and A is a square matrix such that B–1AB exists, then det (B–1AB) is equal to
(A) det (A–1) (B) det (B–1) (C) det (B) (D) det (A)

1 1 1 1
52. The sum of – + – +......is
1.2 2.3 3.4 4 .5

2 4
(A) n (2e) (B) n (4e) (C) n   (D) n  
e e

SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

53. If z1 and z2 are lying on |z – 3|  4 and |z – 1| + |z + 1| = 3 respectively then which of the following integers
lie in the range of |z1 – z2|.
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 9 (D) 10

x 2  4x  3a – b c a  b c 
54. If f(x) = ,
d  (where a,b,d are integers and c prime also a and d are co-
  
x2  x  1  d
prime) then which of the following are prime ?
(A) a + c (B) a + d (C) b + d (D) c + d

 5 –3
55. If A =   and det (–3A2013 + A2014) =  2 (1 +  + 2) then, where ,, are integers
111 336 
(A)  = 2013 (B)  = 3 (C)  = 10 (D) none of these

56. If n (x + z) + n (x – 2y + z) = 2 n (x – z) is
2xz x–y x
(A) y = (B) y2 = xz (C) 2y = x + z (D) y – z =
xz z
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 MATHEMATICS

1 
57. If sin + cos = – then a value of tan   satisfies which of the following equation
5 2
(A) 2x2 – x – 1 = 0 (B) x2 – 2x – 3 = 0 (C) 2x3 – 7x2 + 2x + 3 = 0 (D) 2x2 – 5x + 3 = 0

1
58. In a G.P. the ratio of the sum of the first eleven terms to the sum of last eleven terms is and the ratio of the
8
sum of all terms without the first nine to the sum of all the terms without the last nine is 2. Then the number
of terms of the G.P. less than
(A) 15 (B) 43 (C) 38 (D) 56

SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 59 to 60

Consider ABC in Argand plane. Let A(O), B(1) and C(1 + i) be its vertices and M be the mid point of CA. Let
z be a variable complex number in the plane. Let u be another complex number defined as u = z2 + 1.

59. Locus of u, when z is on BM is

(A) circle (B) parabola (C) ellipse (D) hyperbola

60. Axis of locus of u, when z is on BM is

(A) real axis (B) imaginary axis (C) z  z  2 (D) z – z  2i

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE P1CT1210413C0-18
 MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 62

Consider the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + (a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca) = 0

(where a,b, c are distinct real numbers)

61. If the equation does not have any real roots then which of the following is always true.
(A) b > 0 (B) b < 0 (C) a > 0 (D) a < 0

62. If the graph of the quadratic polynomial is mouth opening downwards then the product of roots of the
corresponding quadratic equation is always
(A) positive (B) negative
(C) depends on the sign of b (D) can’t determine

SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type

This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is

a double digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble below
the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.

63. If |z1| = 1, |z2| = 2, |z3| = 3 and |9z1z2 + 4z1z3 + z2z3 | = 12 then the value of |z1 + z2 + z3| is

64. The number of integral solutions of the inequality log1/2 (logx – 2 (x2 – 3x + 3)) > 0.

 1 – a.b 
65. If a = log63147, b = log1891029 then value of 2   is
 a–b 

66. Number of positive integral ordered pairs of (x, y) so that 8, x, y are in H.P. is

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE P1CT1210413C0-19
Name of the Candidate Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information
shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

-------------------------------- --------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

(Space for rough work)