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JEE-Main-2020_ Final Revision Practice Test Papers
CHEMISTRY
Number of Questions
S.No Test Code Marks
Correct Wrong Unattempted
1 Practice Test-1
2 Practice Test-2
3 Practice Test-3
4 Practice Test-4
5 Practice Test-5
6 Practice Test-6
7 Practice Test-7
8 Practice Test-8
9 Practice Test-9
10 Practice Test-10
11 Practice Test-11
12 Practice Test-12
13 Practice Test-13
14 Practice Test-14
15 Practice Test-15
Jee-Main-2020 (Jan)_Final_Q.Papers
16 07-01-2020_Shift-01
17 07-01-2020_Shift-02
18 08-01-2020_Shift-01
19 08-01-2020_Shift-02
20 09-01-2020_Shift-01
21 09-01-2020_Shift-02
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
PRACTICE TEST-1
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. In the following reaction,
As2 S3 + H + + NO3− → NO + H2O + AsO43− + SO42−
the equivalent weight of As2 S3 is relate to molecular weight by
M M M M
1) 2) 3) 4)
14 28 7 10
27. H3 BO3 ⎯⎯⎯100ºC
→ X ⎯⎯⎯
160ºC
→Y ⎯⎯⎯→ B2O3 , then X and Y are respectively
Re d hot
1) 2)
3) 4)
30. A solution containing sulphate and sulphite ion can be easily distinguished by
1) FeSO4 2) Na2 Fe ( CN ) 5 NO 3) BaCl2 4) Na3 Co ( NO2 ) 6
31. A( aq) → B ( aq) + C ( aq) is a first order reaction
Time t
Total moles of reagent x1 x2
Reaction progress is measured with the help of titration of reagent (P). If all A, B and
mol.wt
C reacted with reagent (P) have n factors n factor : n = in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 with
eq.wt
the reagent. The k in terms of time (t), x1 and x2 is
1 x 1 2x
1) k = ln 2 2) k = ln 2
t x2 − x1 t x2 − x1
1 4x 1 8x
3) k = ln 2
4) k = ln 2
t 5 ( x2 − x1 ) t x2 − x1
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
32. On the basis of following reaction, choose the correct option for A and B, respectively
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
37. Which of the following order of alkyl halide is not correctly matched?
1) CH 3Cl CH 3 Br CH 3 I [Boiling point order]
2) CH 3Cl CH 3 F CH 3 Br CH 3 I
Polarity of C − X bond order (X = F, Cl, Br, I)
3)
1) 2) 3) 4)
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. If the photon of the wavelength 150 pm strikes an atom and one of its inner bound
electrons is ejected out with a velocity of 1.5 × 107 ms-1, the energy with which it is
bound to the nucleus is ….. 103 eV.
47. The electrolysis of acetate solution produces ethane according to reaction,
2CH3COO− → C2 H 6( g) + 2CO2( g) + 2e−
The current efficiency of the process is 90% . If the current of 0.5A is passed through
the solution for 96.45 min at 27ºC and 760 torr, then the volume of gas would be …….
48. 16g of an ideal gas SOx occupies 5.6 L at STP. The value of x for this gas is ……
49. The molal freezing point constant for water is 1.86º C/m. Therefore, the freezing point
of 0.1 m NaCl solution in water is expected to be (-) ……ºC.
50. When a saturated solution of PbCl2 is evaporated to dryness, the residue is found to
weigh 4.5 g. the Ksp for the solution is …… 10-5.
PRACTICE TEST-2
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Na2 B4O7 .10 H 2O is correctly represented as
1) Na2 B4O5 ( OH ) 4 .8H 2O 2) 2 NaBO2 .Na2 B2O3 .10 H 2O
3) Na2 B4 ( H 2O ) 4 O7 .6 H 2O 4) none of the above
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
27. An element undergoes a reaction as follows, X + 2e− → X 2− and energy released equal
to 30.86eV/atom. If the energy released is used to dissociate 4g of H 2 molecule and
equally into H + and H * , where H * is excited state of H atoms where the electron
travels in orbit whose circumference is equal to four times of its de-Broglie’s
wavelength. The least moles of X that would be required is
[ Given: Ionisation energy of H=13.6eV/atom, biding energy of H2=4.52eV/molecule]
1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4)16
28. Which of the following will undergo benzoin condensation?
1) Furfural 2) 4-nitrobenzaldehyde
3) p-N,N-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
4) all of the above
29. In the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, side reactions takes place are
I. 2OH − + Cl2 → 2OCl − + H2 II. 2 Na + 2 H 2O → 2 NaOH + H 2
III. 4OH − → O2 + 2H2 + 4e−
Choose the correct reaction and select the correct option
1) I,II and III 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) I and III
30. The emf in volts of the following cell Pt | H 2 ( g ) | BOH ( aq) || HA( aq) | H 2 ( g ) | Pt
0.1M
0.1atm 0.1M 1atm
Br + KOH
3) 2-phenylethyl isonitrile ⎯⎯⎯→ 4 LiAlH
4) 2-phenyl ethanamide ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
2
Page | 6
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
35. 23.2g of an organic compound molecular formula, Cn H 2 n+ 2 is burnt in excess of O2 ( g )
initially taken in a 44.82L steel vessel. Before reaction, the gaseous mixture ( w) is
present at a temperature of 273K with pressure of 2atm. After complete combustion
and loss of considerable amount of heat, the mixture of product and excess of O2 had a
temperature of 546K and 4.6atm pressure. The formula of compound is
1) C5 H12 2) C6 H14 3) C3 H 8 4) C4 H10
36. Which of the following statements is/are true about product obtained by treatment of
CCl3 CHO with chlorobenzene in presence of H 2 SO4 ?
I. It has one chiral centre.
II. It is used as an insecticide
III. It is not easily metabolized by animals.
IV. Its name is p, p- dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane.
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) II, III and IV 4) only IV
37. Salt A + S → B ⎯⎯⎯ BaCl
2
→ white ppt. A is paramagnetic in nature and contains about 55%
of potassium (K). Thus, A is
1) KO2 2) K 2O2 3) K 2O 4) K 2CO3
38. Under the influence of an electric field, the particles in a solution migrate towards
cathode. The coagulation of the same solution is studied using NaCl, Na2 SO4 and
Na3 PO4 solution. Their coagulating values will be maximum for
1) Na3 PO4 2) NaCl 3) Na2 SO4 4) None of these
39. IUPAC name and degree of unsaturation f the following compound is, respectively
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
42. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the following reaction?
−
CH 3 − C C − H ⎯⎯⎯
Sia2 BH
→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯
H 2O2 /OH
→B
1) Product (B) will show tautomerism and metamerism
2) Product (B) will show geometrical isomerism only
3) product (B) will show metamerism only
4) None of above
43. In a planar tetra-atomic molecule PQ3, P is at the centroid of the equivalent triangle
formed by the atoms, Q. If the P-Q bond distance is 2Å between the centres of any two
Q atoms?
1
1) 2 3Å 2) 3Å 3) 4 3Å 4) Å
3
44. Phenol on reaction with a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 produces a
compound. The degree of unsaturation and the nature of compound is
1) 5, acidic 2) 7,basic 3) 6,neutral 4) 7,acidic
45. Copper sulphate is prepared by blowing a current of air through Cu scrap and dilute
H2SO4. Dilute HNO3 is also added
1) Which combines with H2SO4 to give a very strong oxidizing mixture and oxidizes
Cu to Cu2+
2) to oxidies Cu to Cu2+ which then form CuSO4 with dilute H2SO4
3) to increase ionization of H2SO4 is give SO42− ions
4) to oxidize Fe 2+ to Fe3+ suphate, which remains in solution after crystallization of
CuSO4 .
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. The chlorate ion can disproportionate in basic solution according to the reaction
2ClO3− ClO2− + ClO4−
The equilibrium concentration of perchlorate ions for a solution initially at 0.1M in
chlorate ions at 298K is ….10−2 M
[ Given: E ºClO /ClO = 0.39V and E ºClO /ClO = 0.36V at 298K.]
− − − −
4 3 3 2
47. One atom of an element, y weighs 6.64 10−23 g . Then, the number of moles of atom in
20kg is….
48. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in cold climate. Mass of ethylene glycol which
should be added to 4kg of water to prevent it from freezing at -6ºC will be ….g. ( K f
for water =1.86K kg mol −1 and molar mass of ethylene glycol =62g mol-1)
49. The pK a of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA
in which 50% of the acid ionized is….
50. Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a solution of an electrolyte of
concentration 0.1M is 100 . The conductivity of this solution is 1.29S m−1 . Resistance
of the same cell when filled with 0.2M of the same solution is 520 . The molar
conductivity of 0.2M solution of the electrolyte will be….10-4 Sm2 mol-1
Page | 8
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
PRACTICE TEST-3
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. The total number of neutrons present in 108 mL of H2O (l) are
1) 32 NA 2) 48 NA 3) 16 NA 4) 8 NA
27. What will be the product when most acidic species among following will react with 3-
chloro prop-1-ene?
1) 2) 3) 4)
28. Nitrogen exist as N2 but phosphorus exist as P4 this is due to
1) tripe bond exist between phosphorous atom
2) p − p bond is weak in P4 3) p − p bond is strong in P4
4) multiple bonds form easily
3/2
1 1
29. For a 3s-orbital, ( 3s) =
9 3 a0
( 6 − 5 + ) e
2 − /2
where, =
2r.Z
3a0
. The maximum
1) 2)
3) 4)
Page | 10
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
42. The gaseous decomposition reaction, A( g ) → 2B ( g ) + C ( g ) is observed to be first
order over the excess of liquid water at 28ºC. It is found that after 20 min the total
pressure of the system is 200 torr and after a long time (suppose, all reactant is
consumed) it is 380 torr. The rate constant of the reaction (min -1) is (Given, vapour
pressure of H2O = 20 torr, log2 = 0.3010 and log3 = 0.4771)
1) 0.005 min-1 2) 0.004 min-1 3) 0.003 min-1 4) 0.006 min-1
43. Choose the correct option regarding product(s) of following reaction.
PRACTICE TEST-4
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Sucrose on treatment with conc. HCl produces
1) Glucose 2) Glucose + fructose 3) Fructose 4) Laevunilic acid
+ +
27. When N 2 is converted into N2 and O2 is converted into O2 , then the bond strength
respectively.
1) Increase, increases 2) Decreases, decreases
3) Increases, decreases 4) Decreases, Increases
3
28. A rigid and insulated tank of 6 m volume is divided into the two compartments. One
compartment of volume 4 m3 contains an ideal gas at 0.8314 MPa and 400 K while the
second compartment of volume 1m3 contains the same gas at 8.314 MPa and 500 K. If
the partition between the two compartments is ruptured, the final temperature of the
gas will be
1) 417 K 2) 523 K 3) 323 K 4) 517 K
29. Consider the following carbohydrate molecules:
CHO
CHO CHO CHO
H OH
H OH HO H HO H
HO H OH OH
H HO H H
H OH
HO H H OH H OH
H OH OH
H H OH HO H
CH 2OH CH 2OH CH 2OH
CH 2OH
( A) ( B) (C ) ( D)
Among the given molecules, the epimeric pair is
1) A and B 2) A and D 3) C and B 4) C and A
30. When a mixture of NO and NO2 is passed through an aqueous solution of ammonium
sulphate, we get
1) A dibasic acid whose anhydride in solid state forms a cyclic trimer
2) A dibasic acid which has no dehydrating property
3) A diatomic gas which on reaction with acetylene (C2 H 2 ) under electric spark gives
a monobasic acid whose ion is pseudo halide
4) A dibasic acid whose negative ion (di) has all bonds equal with bond angle (90º)
Reaction, A + B ⎯⎯ → C + D , follows rate law; R = K A B starting with 1 M of
1/2 1/2
31.
each A and B. The time taken for concentration of A become 0.1 M will be
[Given, K = 4.606 10−4 s −1 ]
1) 1000 s 2) 100.5 s 3) 2000 s 4) 5000 s
32. The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, La, Pm and Yb in +3 oxidation state is
1) Yb3+ Pm3+ Ce3+ La3+ 2) La3+ Pm3+ Ce3+ Yb3+
3) La3+ Ce3+ Pm3+ Yb3+ 4) Yb3+ Ce3+ Pm3+ La3+
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
33. For a hypothetical hydrogen like atom, the potential energy of the system is given by
− ke2
U ( r ) = 4 , where r is the distance between the two particles. If Bohr’s model of
r
quantisation of angular momentum is applicable, then velocity of particle is given by
nh n2h2 n3h3 n2h2
1) 2) 3) 4)
16ke 2 m3/2 8k 2e 2 4 m3 2k 2e3 3m 4 8k 1/2e 2 m3/2
34. The product obtained by condensation polymerization reaction between A and B is
[X]. A can be prepared by reaction of 1, 6 – dicyanohexane with water in presence of
acid and B can be prepared by the reduction of the same compound. Here, [X] is
1) nylon – 6 2) nylon – 6, 6 3) nylon – 4, 6 4) Buna - N
35. Consider the following series of reactions.
( A) ⎯⎯⎯
KOH
→( B) (gas turns red litmus blue)
(C) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Zn+ KOH
→( B) (gas)
( A) ⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→ Gas (does not support combustion)
Identify A, B and C
1) A = NH 4 NO3 , B = N 2 , C = KNO3 2) A = NH 4 NO2 , B = NH 3 , C = KNO2
3) A = ( NH 4 )2 SO4 , B = NH3 , C = KNO2 4) A = NH 4Cl , B = N 2 , C = KNO3
36. During electro – osmosis of Al ( OH )3 solution
1) The solution particles move towards anode
2) The dispersion medium moves towards cathode
3) The solution particles move towards cathode
4) The dispersion medium moves towards anode
37. An organic compound having molecular formula C9 H10O is supplied to a student to
determine the structural formula of compound, he observe that compound forms an
orange red precipitate with 2, 4 – DNP reagent and yellow precipitate on heating with
I 2 / NaOH . It neither reduces Tollen’s reagent or Fehling solution nor it decolorises
bromine water solution. On drastic oxidation with CrO3 , it produces a carboxylic acid
having molecular formula C7 H 6O2 . Identify the correct compound A.
1) 2) 3) 4)
38. The vapour pressure of two pure liquids, A and B which form an ideal solution are
1000 and 1600 torr, respectively at 400 K. A liquid solution of A and B for which the
mole fraction of A is 0.60 is contained in a cylinder by a piston on which the pressure
can be varied. The solution is slowly vapourised at 400 K by decreasing the applied
pressure. What is the composition of last droplet of liquid remaining in equilibrium
with vapour?
1) X A = 0.30, X B = 0.70 2) X A = 0.40, X B = 0.60
3) X A = 0.70, X B = 0.30 4) X A = 0.50, X B = 0.50
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
39. When an inorganic compound X having 3 centre – 2 – electron as well as 2e− − 2e−
bonds react with NH 3 gas at a certain temperature, gives a compound Y, isostructural
with benzene. Compound X with ammonia at a high temperature produces a substance
Z, then
1) X is BH 3 , Y is B2 N 2 H 3 , Z is inorganic benzene
2) X is B2 H 6 , Y is B3 N3 H 6 , Z is inorganic graphite
3) X is borax, Y is B2O3 , Z is inorganic benzene
4) Reactions insufficient to predict
40. Consider the following sequence of reactions:
1) 2) 3) 4)
41. What is the potential of an electrode which originally contained 0.1 M NO3− and 0.4 M
H + and which has been treated by 6% of the cadmium necessary to reduce all the
NO3− to NO(g) at 1 atm.
[Given, NO3− + 4H − + 3e− ⎯⎯ → NO + 2H2O , E º = 0.95V and log 2 = 0.3010 ]
1) 0.52V 2) 0.44V 3) 0.86V 4) 0.78 V
42. Molecular formula of an organic compound is C6 H 7 N . The degree of unsaturation of
the compound is 4. Which of the following may be correct molecular structure of
organic compound?
i) ii) iii)
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (i) and (iii) 4) (ii), (i) and (iii)
43. Select the correct statement(s) among following.
1) Al forms AlF63− , an octahedral complex
2) Be and Al show diagonal relationship
3) Be forms tetrahedral complex Be (C2O4 ) 2
2−
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
III. 3NO2 ( g ) + H2O ( l ) ⎯⎯ → 2HNO3 ( aq) + NO ( g ) % yield of I st , II nd and III rd are 40%,
60% and 70% respectively, then what volume of NH3 ( g ) at 1 atm and 0ºC required to
produce1075 g of HNO3 ?
1) 3413 L 2) 3500 L 3) 6826 L 4) 1750 L
45. Two liquids A and B are made of same elements and are diamagnetic. Liquid A on
treatment with KI and starch gives blue coloured solution, however liquid B is neutral
to litmus and does not give any response to starch iodide solution, then A and B will
be
1) A → H 2O2 , B → H 2O 2) A ⎯⎯ → H 2O, B ⎯⎯ → H 2O2
3) A ⎯⎯ → H 2O, B ⎯⎯ → H 2O 4) A ⎯⎯ → H 2O2 , B ⎯⎯ → D2O
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. It is known that atoms have proton, neutron, electron and nucleus. If the mass of
neutron is assumed to be half of its original value whereas that of proton is assumed to
be twice the original value, then the atomic mass of 6 C14 will be ……… %.
47. A gas bulb of 1 mL capacity contains 2.0 1021 molecules of nitrogen exerting a
pressure of 7.57 103 Nm−2 . The root mean square speed of the gas molecules is
………… ms −1
48. 1 mole of carbon dioxide gas at 300 K is expanded under adiabatic condition such that
its volume becomes 27 times. The work done during the process is + ………… cal
(Given, = 1.33 and CV = 6 cal mol −1 for CO2 )
49. 5.7 g of bleaching powder was suspended in 500 mL of water. 25 mL of this solution
on treatment with KI in the presence of HCl liberated iodine which reacted with 24.35
mL of N/10 Na2 S2O3 . The percentage of available chlorine in the bleaching powder is
...…..%.
50. Photoelectrons are liberated by ultraviolet light of wavelength 3000Å from a metallic
surface for which the photoelectric threshold is 4000Å . The de-Broglie wavelength of
electron emitted with maximum kinetic energy is ……. 10−9 m .
PRACTICE TEST-5
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Which of the following statement is correct regarding following process?
(i) Cl ⎯⎯
EA
→Cl − (ii) Cl − ⎯⎯
IE
→ Cl (iii) Cl ⎯⎯
IE
→Cl + ( iv) Cl ⎯⎯
IE
→ Cl 2+
1) |IE of Process (iv)| =|IE of Process (iii)|
2) |IE of Process (iii)| = |IE of Process (ii)|
3) |IE of Process (ii) | = |EA of Process (i)|
4) |IE of Process (iv)| = |EA of Process (i)|
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
27. In a flask containing 0.5 atm pressure of A2(g), some solid AB is added which
undergoes dissociation according to 2 AB ( s) A2 ( g ) + B2 ( g ) , K p = 0.06 atm2 .
The total pressure (atm) at equilibrium will be
1) 0.5 atm 2) 0.2 atm 3) 0.7 atm 4) 1.4 atm
28. In Duma’s method for estimation of nitrogen 0.30g of organic compound gave 50 cm3
of nitrogen gas collected at 300 K and 715 mm Hg pressure (Hint: vapour pressure of
water at 300K is 15 mm Hg) the value of percentage of nitrogen in the compound
1) 17.46 2) 28.56 3) 28 4) 15.68
29. Which of the following is a cyclic oxoacid?
1) H 4 P2O7 2) H 4 P2O6 3) H 3 P3O9 4) H 4 P5O15
kf
30. The reaction, cis Z kb
trans Z is first order in both directions. At 28ºC, the
equilibrium constant is 10−2 and the rate constant, K f = 3 10−5 s −1 . In an experiment
starting with the pure cis-form, how long would it take for half of the equilibrium
amount of trans-isomer to be formed?
1) 5.6 104 s 2) 9.8 102 s 3) 2.3 102 s 4) 7.5 103 s
31. FeCr2O4 ⎯⎯ X
→ Na2CrO4 ⎯⎯Y
→Cr2O3 ⎯⎯ Z
→Cr, then X,Y and Z are
X Y Z
1) NaOH/air carbon carbon
2) Na2CO3/air carbon carbon
3) Na2CO3/air NH4Cl Al
4) NaOH/air carbon Al
32. The oxidation number of nitrogen atoms in ammonium nitrate are
1) -3, +5 2) -3, -3 3) +5, +5 4) +2, -3
33. Consider the following reaction
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
35. What percentage of oxygen is present in the compound, CaCO3.3Ca3 ( PO4 ) 2 ?
1) 40.54% 2) 35.56% 3) 15.40% 4) 41.95%
36. The polymer [x] is obtained by reaction between 1-chloro-2-phenylethane and
potassium tertiarybutoxide, [x] follows the addition polymerization. Here, x is
1) polystyrene 2) urea formaldehyde resin
3) bakelite 4) glyptal
37. A detergent C12 H 25 SO4 Na solution becomes a colloidal solution at a concentration
− +
of 10-4M. On an average 1013 colloidal particle are present in 1 mm3. The average
number of ions contained in one colloidal particle(micelle)? {Given, NA = 6×1023}
1) 1012 2) 1013 3) 12 4) 6
38. [PdCl2 (PMe3)2] is a diamagnetic complex of pd(II). How many total isomers are
possible for [NiCl2 (PMe3)2] having oxidation state of Ni is (II) ?
1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) Zero
39. Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength in aqueous medium
(CH3 )3 N , (CH3 )2 NH , CH3CH 2 NH 2
1) (CH3 )3 N (CH3 ) 2 NH CH3CH 2 NH 2 2) (CH3 )2 NH (CH3 )3 N CH3CH 2 NH 2
3) (CH3 )3 N (CH3 ) 2 NH CH3CH 2 NH 2 4) (CH3 )3 N CH3CH 2 NH 2 (CH 3 ) 2 NH
40. The angular velocity ( ) of an electron occupying second orbit of Li2+ ion is
9 2 K 2 me 4 27 3mK 2e 4 9 3 K 2 me 4 27 2 m3 K 3e2
1) 2) 3) 4)
h3 h2 h3 h2
41. Which of the following is the correct order of stability of conformational isomers of 2-
amino ethan-1-ol?
1) Gauche > eclipsed > anti 2) Gauche > anti > eclipsed
3) Eclipsed > gauche > anti 4) Anti > eclipsed > gauche
42. A red coloured metal oxide A on treatment with conc. HNO3 gives a compound B. B
with HCl produces a chloride C which is insoluble in cold water but soluble in hot
water. C can also be formed by treating A with conc. HCl. Compounds A, B and C are
1) Fe2O3 , FeO, FeCl3 2) ZnO2 , PbO2 , ZnCl2
3) Mn2O3 , MnO, MnCl2 4) Pb3O4 , PbO2 , PbCl2
43. 10 mL of 0.2M solution of compound, Na2CO3 .NaHCO3 .2 H 2O is titrated against 0.05M
HCl, y mL of HCl is used when phenolphthalein is used as an indicator and x mL of
HCl is used when methyl orange is the indicator in two separate titrations. The value
of (x-y) will be
1) 120 mL 2) 80 mL 3) 100 mL 4) 40 mL
4− 3−
44. If P is Fe ( CN ) 6 , Q is Fe ( CN ) 6 , S is Fe4 Fe ( CN ) 6 3 , then X,Y and Z
respectively are
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
1) H2O2 / OH , H2O2 neutral medium, Co 2+ solution
−
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. Given Pt H 2( g ) ( 0.1atm) H (+aq ) (10−2 M ) MnO4− ( aq) ( 0.1M ) Mn 2+ ( aq) ( 0.01M ) Pt
The potential of the above cell will be … V.
0
EMnO −
/ Mn2 +
= 1.50V
4
47. The forward rate constant for the reversible gaseous reaction, C2 H 6 2CH3 is
3.14 102 s −1 at 200 K. If 10−5 moles of CH3 and 100 mol of C2 H 6 are present in 10 L
vessel at equilibrium, then the rate constant for the backward reaction at this
temperature is ……. 1015 Lmol −1s−1 .
48. Resistance of 0.2M solution of an electrolyte is 50 . The specific conductance of the
solution is 1.3Sm−1 . If resistance of the 0.4 M solution of the same electrolyte is 260 ,
its molar conductivity is ……. 10-4Sm2 mol-1.
49. The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2, in water is 4×10-12. The
concentration of M2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is …. 10-4 M.
50. The vapour pressure of water at 20ºC is 17.5 mm Hg. If 18g glucose (C6 H12O6 ) is
added to 178.2 g of water at 20ºC, the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be
….. mm Hg.
PRACTICE TEST-6
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Which of the following pair of molecules / ions have same value of bond order?
1) O2+ , NO, CN 2) CN , N2+ , N2 3) N2+ , NO, O2+ 4) O2+ , CN , N2+
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
27. Which of the following non essential amino acid will undergo diazo coupling
reaction?
1) Tyrosine 2) Glycine 3) Alanine 4) Aspartic acid
3− + 2− − 2+
28. The correct order of ionic size of N , Na , O , F , Mg will be
1) O 2− Na + F − N 3− Mg 2+ 2) Mg 2+ Na + F − O 2− N 3−
3) F − N 3− O 2− Mg 2+ Na + 4) F − Mg 2+ O 2− Na + N 3−
29. Ammonium carbamate dissociates as NH2COONH4 ( s) 2NH3 ( g ) + CO2 ( g ) in a
closed vessel containing ammonium carbonate in equilibrium. Ammonia is added such
that partial pressure of NH 3 becomes two times to the equilibrium pressure.
Calculate the ratio of final partial pressure of CO2 to the original partial pressure of
CO2 .
2 4 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 9 9
Which of the following is correct regarding type of bond is present in Re2 Cl8 ?
2−
30.
1) 1 + 2 + 1 2) 1 + 2 3) 1 + 1 + 1 4) 1 + 3
31. The reactant, a decomposes as follows:
correct?
1) A can be produced by action of (Zn + NaOH) on NaNO2
2) A is pink coloured, paramagnetic gas
3) A is a colouriess, diamagnetic gas which combines with aluminium on heating
4) Y is an amphoteric oxide
34. At STP, the volume of N2 gas required to cover a sample of silica gel, assuming
Langmuir mono layer adsorption is found to be 1.60cm3 per gram of the gel. The area
occupied by a nitrogen molecule is 0.32nm2. What is the surface area per gram of
silica gel? ( N A = 6 1023 )
1) 10.72m2 2) 13.71m2 3) 8.71m2 4) 3.2 10−19 m2
35. Which of the following is a correct road map for preparation of glyptal?
1) 1,2-dibromoethene + phthalic acid
2) ethene + Br2, aq KOH + phthalic acid
3) ethylene + Br2, aq KOH + terephthalic acid
4) All of the above
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
36. The angular momentum of an electron in a Bohr’s orbit of He + is 3.16 10−34 . What is
the wave number in terms of Rydberg’s constant (R) of the spectral line when an
electron emitted from this state to the excited state?
[ Given, h = 6.62 10−34 Joule-s]
16 R 5R 25 R 8R
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 9 9
37. Which of the following statements is false?
1) Hydration energy of AgF is higher than its lattice energy
2) Anhydrous MgCl2 cannot be prepared by direct heating of MgCl2.6H2O
3) The milk of magnesia used as antacid is chemically MgO + MgCl2
4) AgCl crystallises in an NaCl like structure
38. Which of the following is correct for stability of given carbocation?
H −C C
41. Amongst the following complex compound which will follow Sidgwick EAN rule?
i) Cr ( CO)3 ( NO)3 ii) ( Ph3 P ) 2 PdCl2 iii) NiBrCl ( en) 2 iv) Na3 Fe ( CN )5 NO
1) i,ii and iii 2) i and ii 3) ii and iii 4) i and iv
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
42. A gaseous compound is composed of 85.7% by mass of carbon and 14.3% by mass of
hydrogen. Its density is 22.8g/L at 300K and 1.0atm pressure. Calculate the molecular
formula of compound
1) C5 H10 2) C6 H12 3) C4 H8 4) C8 H18
43.
W ⎯
Dil
HCl
⎯ X ⎯(⎯ ⎯⎯⎯
K 2 Cr2 O7
in CH 3COOH )
→ Y ( yellow ppt.)
(Clear solution)
Z(white ppt.)
Compound X will be
1) calcium carbonate 2) barium carbonate
3) sodium carbonate 4) sodium sulphate
44. The correct decreasing order of acidic strength 1º,2º,3º alcohol, H2O and RC=CH is
1) H 2O 1º 2º 3º RC CH 2) RC CH 3º 2º 1º H 2O
3) 1º 2º 3º H 2O RC CH 4) 3º 2º 1º H 2O RC CH
45. The total vapour pressure of a 4mole % solution of NH 3 in water at 393K is 100.00
torr. The vapour pressure of pure water is 34.0 torr at this temperature. Calculate the
total vapour pressure for a 5 mole % solution.
1) 84.2torr 2) 30.32torr 3) 116.5torr 4) 110.25torr
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. When the heat of a reaction at constant pressure is −2.5 103 cal and 25ºC temperature,
entropy change for the reaction is 7.4cal deg −1 , the Gibbs free energy for this reaction
will be (-……cal)
47. A mixture of H 2 SO4 , H 2C2O4 and some inert impurity weighing 4.185g was dissolved
in water and this solution is made upto 1L. 10 ml of the solution required 1.5mL f
0.2N and NaOH for complete neutralization. In another experiment, 100mL of the
same solution in hot condition required 2mL of 0.04M KMnO4 solution for complete
reaction. The weight percentage (%) of H2SO4 in the mixture was…..
48. The reaction, X → Y is an exothermic reaction. Activation energy of the reaction for
conversion of X into Y is 150kJ mol-1 . Enthalpy is 135kJ mol-1. The activation energy
for the reverse reaction, Y → X will be …. KJ mol-1
49. A 52.5% solution of a substance is isotonic with a 1.5% solution of urea (molar mass
=60g mol-1)in the same solvent. If the densities of both the solutions are assumed to be
equal to 1.0g cm-3, molar mass of the substance will be …. g mol-1
50. In a saturated solution of the sparingly soluble strong electrolyte AgIO 3 (molecular
mass = 283), the equilibrium sets as AgIO3 ( s) Ag + ( aq) + IO3− ( aq)
If the solubility product constant, K sp of AgIO3 at a given temperature is 1.0 10−8 , the
mass of AgIO3 contained in 100mL of the saturated solution is ……10-3g
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
PRACTICE TEST-7
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Consider the following reactions,
The product (A and B) obtained can be purified by which of the following method?
1) Sublimation 2) Steam distillation
3) Fractional distillation 4) Chromatography
27. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
1) XeO3 : Trigonal bipyramidal 2) XeOF4 : Square pyramidal
3) XeF2 : linear 4) CIF3 : Bent T - shaped
28. If the energy of H-atom in the ground state is – 2E, the velocity of photoelectron
emitted when a photon having energy E p strikes a stationary Li 2+ion (W = 18E) in
ground state is given by
2 ( EP − 9 E ) 5 ( EP − 9 E ) 2 ( EP − 9 E ) 2 ( EP − 18E )
1) 2) 3) 4)
5m 2 7 m
29. A tetra – atomic molecule X on reaction with nitrogen oxide (OS = 1) produces two
substances Y and Z. Y is a dehydrating agent while compound z is a diatomic gas
which shows almost inert gas behavior. The substances X, Y and Z are
1) P4 , N 2O5 , O2 2) P4 , P4O10 , Ar 3) P4 , P2O3 , O2 4) P4 , P4O10 , N 2
x
30. A graph between log and log p is a straight line at angle of 45º with intercept OA
m
x
as shown in figure. at a pressure of 2 atm will be
m
1) 4 2) 2 3) 8 4) 16
31. An amino acid contain a carboxyl group and amino group whose pK a values are 3.30
and 9.0 respectively. The value of pH at this isoelectric point is ……… and it is
a …….. amino acid. Choose the correct option that fits in the given blanks
1) 6.15, neutral 2) 2.34, acidic 3) 9.60, basic 4) 6.97, basic
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
32. Select the incorrect statement,
1) Li2CO3 and MgCO3 both are thermally unstable
2) Li2CO3 is only sparingly soluble in water and no LiHCO3 has been isolated
3) K 2CO3 cannot be made by a method similar to solvay process
4) Na2CO3 .NaHCO3 .2 H 2O is mineral called Trona.
33. The equilibrium constants at 1140 K for the following two reactions are
2CO ( g ) C ( s) + CO2 ( g ) ; K p1 = 10−12 atm−1 CO ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) COCl2 ( g ) ;
K p2 = 3 10−3 atm−1
What will be equilibrium constant, K c for the following reaction at 1140 K?
C ( s) + CO2 ( g ) + 2Cl2 ( g ) 2COCl2 ( g )
1) 8.42 108 M −1 2) 8.42 104 M −1 3) 4.21 104 M −1 4) 4.21 108 M −1
34. What will be the correct structural formula of product (C) for the following reaction?
1) 2) 3) 4)
35. In the preparation of iron from haematite ( Fe2O3 ) by the reaction with carbon,
Fe2O3 + C ⎯⎯
→ Fe + CO2
How much 70% pure iron could be produced from 140 kg of 80% pure Fe2O3 ?
1) 110 kg 2) 250 kg 3) 112 kg 4) 330 kg
36. FeCr2O4 (chromite) is converted to Cr by following steps :
Chromite ⎯⎯ I
→ NaCrO4 ⎯⎯II
→Cr2O3 ⎯⎯III
→Cr Reagents is I, II and III steps are
Step – I Step – II Step - III
1) NaHCO3 /air, heat Carbon, heat Carbon, heat
2) NaOH /air, heat Al, heat Carbon, heat
3) NaOH/ air, heat Carbon, heat Al, heat
4) Na2CO3 /air, heat Carbon, heat Carbon, heat
37. Consider the following reactios.
Which of the following option is correct for (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) regarding their types?
1) Elimination, Substitution, addition, addition
2) Addition, elimination, addition, substitution
3) Elimination, addition, substitution, addition
4) Substitution, elimination, addition, addition
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
38. Consider the following molar conductivities at 25ºC; HCl : 425−1cm2 mol −1 ;
NaCl ;125−1cm 2 mol −1 NaC (sodium crotonate); 82−1cm2 mol −1 . What is the ionisation
constant of crotonic acid, if the conductivity of a 0.01 M crotonic acid solution is
3.82 10−4 −1cm−1 ?
1) 1.5 10−5 2) 1.11 10−4 3) 2.11 10−5 4) 1.8 10−5
VQ
The volume ratio = 2 if the temperature at P is – 73ºC, then work done by the gas
VP
in process PQ and total enthalpy change in both the process will be
1) 3.325 kJ, 1400 R 2) 4.5 kJ, 2800 R
3) 7.5 kJ, 4200 R 4) 5.5 kJ, 3600 R
42. Select the correct statement among the following.
1) Co (III) is stabiliseed in presence of weak field ligands, while Co(II) is stabilised in
presence of strong field ligand
2) Four coordinated complexes of Pd (II) and Pt (II) are paramagnetic and square
planar.
4−
3) Ni ( CN ) 4 ion and Ni ( CO) 4 are diamagnetic tetrahedral and square planar
respectively.
4) Ni 2+ ion does not form inner orbital octahedral complexes
43. What will be the product when an optically active compound having IUPAC name
pent -3 – ene – 2 – ol is treated with Jones’ reagent?
1) Pentanone 2) Pent – 3 – ene – 2 – one
3) Pentan – 2 – ol 4) Propanoic acid
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
44. For a reaction, A + B → products the rate of the reaction at various concentrations are
given below.
45. A compound strontium carbide when treated with water produces an organic
compound A which can also be prepared by reaction of 1, 2 – dichloro ethane with
potassium tertiary butoxide.
Which of the following statement is correct for A?
I. A is an unsaturated compound II. A is acidic in nature
III. A is a saturated compound
IV. A undergoes cis hydroxylation on reaction with OsO4
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) I, II and IV 4) All of these
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction, H + ( aq) + OH − ( aq) H 2O ( l ) is 1012 at
certain temperature, then the E º for the reaction, is ( −) …. V.
2.303RT
2H 2O ( l ) + 2e− H 2 ( g ) + 2OH − ( aq) . [Given, = 0.6 ]
F
47. 1.0 g of monobasic acid HA in 100 g water lowers the freezing point by 0.145 K. If
N
0.45 g of same acid on 1000 mg of water requires 27 mL of NaOH solution for
9
complete neutralization, then % degree of dissociation of acid is ………%
( K f ( H 2O) = 1.86K kg mol −1 ) .
48. For a first order reaction, A ⎯⎯
→ products the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M
to 0.025 M in 40 min. The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01 M is
…… 10−4 M min −1 .
49. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions
in aqueous solution, the change in freezing point of water ( T f ) , when 0.01 mole of
sodium sulphate is dissolved in 1 kg of water, is ……… K ( K f = 1.86 K kg mol −1 ) .
50. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000ºC to furnish aluminium metal (atomic
mass = 27 u; 1 F = 96500 C).
The cathode reaction is Al 3+ + 3e− ⎯⎯ → Al To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminium metal by
this method required electricity will be ……. 107 C .
Page | 25
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
PRACTICE TEST-8
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. White phosphorus on reaction with lime water gives calcium salt of an acid X, along
with a gas Y. Which of the following statement is correct?
1) The bond angle in Y is less than that in case of ammonia
2) X on heating gives Y and O2
3) X is a tribasic acid
4) Y is more basic than amonia
27. Consider the decomposition of HNO3 as follows:
4HNO3( g) 4NO2( g) + 2H2O( g) + O2(g)
The equation is approaches to equilibrium at 800 K temperature and 15 atm pressure.
At equilibrium, partial pressure of HNO3 is 1 atm. Calculate KC at 800 K (Given, R =
8.314 J mole-1 K-1)
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 8 16
28. Identify the metal bicarbonate(s) that do/does not exist in solid and choose the correct
alternative.
i) Zn ( HCO3 ) 2 ii) Ca ( HCO3 )2 iii) LiHCO3 iv) AgHCO3
1) (i), (iii) and (iv) 2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) Only (i)
29. The kinetic data for the reaction, A( g ) + 2B ( g ) ⎯⎯
K
→C ( g ) is provided in the following
table for three experiments at 500 K.
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
31. Among the following the correct isostructural pairs are
NF3 , NO3− , BF3 , H3O+ , HN3
1) NF3 , NO3− and BF3 , H 3O + 2) NF3 , HN3 and NO3− , BF3
3) NF3 , H 3O + and NO3− , BF3 4) NF3 , H 2O+ and HN3 , BF3
32. Identify the correct increasing order of coagulation power of the following electrolytes
for the coagulation of As2 S3 solution.
CaCl2 AlCl3 K 2 SO4 Na3 PO4
I II III IV
1) III = IV < I < II 2) I = II < III < IV 3) I < II < III < IV 4) IV < III < II < I
33. Which of the following is correct statement about birth control pills?
1) Progesterone inhances ovulation
2) Control estrogen only
3) Contain progesterone only
4) Contain a mixture of estrogen and progesterone derivatives
34. Equivalent conductivity of BaCl2 , H 2 SO4 and HCl are y1 , y2 and y3S cm−1eq−1 ,
respectively at infinite dilution. If conductivity of saturated BaSO4 solution is yScm −1 ,
then K sp of BaSO4 will be
y2 2.5 y −2 500 2.5 105 y 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
( y1 + y2 − 2 y3 ) 2 ( y1 + y2 − 2 y3 ) 2 y1 + y2 − 2 y3 ( y1 + y2 − 2 y3 ) 2
35. Identify the correct sequence of increasing number of -bond in structures of the
following molecules.
I. H 2 SO3 II. H 2 S2O5 III. H 2 S 2O6
1) III < II < I 2) I < II < III 3) II = III < I 4) II < I < III
36. Choose the incorrectly matched polymer with their structure and name.
1) 2)
3) 4)
37. O2 and SO2 gases are filled in ratio of 1 : 3 by moles in 6 L (closed container) at
temperature of 27ºC. The partial pressure of O2 is 1.20 atm, the concentration of SO2
would be
1) 1.5 M 2) 2.5 M 3) 0.23 M 4) 0.073 M
38. Consider the following compounds.
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
39. Select the correct statement.
1) Dipole moment of CH 3Cl CH 3 F but reverse is true for their HCH bond angle.
2) Ka of fumaric acid is higher than maleic acid but reverse is true for their K a
1 2
3) Acidic strength of HBr HCl but reverse is true for their reducing property
4) Basic strength of PH 3 AsH 3 but reverse is true for their bond angle
40. An industrial waste water is found to contain, 9.2% Na3 PO4 and 12% MgSO4 by
weight in solution. If percentage of ionisation of Na3 PO4 and MgSO4 are 60 and 70
respectively, then its normal boiling point is
Kb ( H 2O ) = 0.60 K kg mol −1
1) 100.5ºC 2) 101.5ºC 3) 95.5ºC 4) 102.5ºC
41. CaCl2 is preferred over NaCl for clearing ice on road particularly in cold countries.
This is because
1) NaCl makes the road slippery but CaCl2 does not
2) CaCl2 is hygroscopic but NaCl is not
3) CaCl2 is less soluble in H 2O than NaCl
4) Mixture of CaCl2 / H 2O freezes at – 55ºC while that of NaCl / H 2O freezes at –
18ºC
42. Which of the following is correct regarding the major product (B) of reaction?
1) 2) 3) 4)
43. What is the possible oxidation state of chlorine present in bleaching powder?
1) + 1 2) – 1 3) Both -1 and +1 4) Zero
44. The IUPAC name and number of chiral centre (present) in the following compound, is
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
46. To 0.020 mL, 0.5 M aqueous solution of Br2 , excess of NaOH is added, so that all the
Br2 is disproportional to Br − and BrO3− . The resulting solution is free from Br − by
extraction and excess of OH − neutralized by acidifying the solution. The resulting
solution is sufficient to react with 4g of impure CaC2O4 (molecular weight = 128)
sample. The percentage purity of oxalate sample is ………%.
47. In a measurement of quantum, efficiency of photosynthesis in green plants, it was
found that 20 quanta of red light of wavelength 5850Å were needed to release one
molecule of O2 .The average energy stored in this process is 110 kcal/mole O2
evolved. The energy conversion efficiency in this experiment is…………%
[Given, 1 cal = 4.2 Joule; N A = 6 1023 , h = 6.62 10−34 J − s ]
48. The density of solid argon is 1.65 g/mL at – 233ºC. If the argon atom is assumed to be
sphere of radius 1.54 10−8 cm , then the apparent percentage of solid argon in empty
space would be ……….. %. (At. wt. of Ar = 40)
49. A solution of glucose in water is labelled as 10% w / w . If the density of solution is
1.2gmL−1 , then the molality of the solution should be…….m.
50. 1 g of hydrogen and 112 g of nitrogen are enclosed in two separate containers each of
volume 5 L at 27ºC. If the pressure of hydrogen is 1 atm, then the pressure of nitrogen
would be …. atm.
PRACTICE TEST-9
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. A solution is 0.10 M Ba(NO3)2 and 0.10 M Sr(NO3)2. If solid, Na2CrO4 is added to the
solution, what is [Ba2+] when SrCrO4 begins to precipitate? [Ksp(BaCrO4) = 6×10-9,
Ksp(SrCrO4) = 7×10-6].
1) 8.5 10−5 M 2) 9.5 10−5 M 3) 8.5 10−9 M 4) 8.5 10−6 M
27. Choose the correct order of bond angles as marked in the following species
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
30. Which of the following is incorrect regarding oxyacids of sulphur?
1) Marshall’s acid is the more strong oxidizing agent than H 2 S 2O6 .
2) Oxidation state of Marshall’s acid is not +5.
3) Caro’s acid has one oxygen atom more than H 2 SO4 .
4) Oxidation state of sulphur atom(s) in peroxodisulphuric acid is +5.
31. Two consecutive irreversible first order reaction can be represented by
A ⎯⎯
k1
→ B ⎯⎯
k2
→C
The rate equation for A is integrated to obtain
At = A0 e− k t and Bt = k1 − k0 e− k t − e− k t .
1
k A 1 2
2 1
1 k 1 k
1) tmax = ln 2 2) tmax = ln 1
k1 + k2 k1 k1 − k2 k2
1 k
3) tmax = ln 1 4) None of these
k2 − k1 k2
32. Which of the following artificial sweetening agent is unstable at cooking temperature?
1) Aspartame 2) Sucralose 3) Alitame 4) All of these
33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1) Basic principle of peptisation is reverse of coagulation.
2) Lyophobic solution need stabilizing agent.
3) Soap and detergent lowers the interfacial surface tension between oil and water.
4) All of the above
34. Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur, yet H2S is acidic in nature, while H2O is
neutral because
1) H2S is gas at ordinary temperature while H2O is a liquid
2) H-S bond is weaker than O-H bond
3) water has higher boiling point than H2S
4) water molecule possesses H-bonding
35. Consider the following compounds
I) Cyclohex-2,4-diene-1-one II) Propan-2-one
III) Pentan-2, 4-dione
The correct decreasing order of percentage of enolic component in the given
compounds
1) I < II < III 2) II > III > I 3) I > III > II 4) III > I > II
36. A gaseous mixture of H2 and CO2 gas contains 33% by mass of CO2. The vapour
density of mixture is
1) 2.5 2) 1.5 3) 3.5 4) 4.5
37. When bromocyclohexane and sodiuim propynide are heated together, the product will
be
I) 2-cylohexylpropyne II) 1-cyclohexylpropyne
II) Propyne IV) Cyclohexene
1) I and II 2) II, III and IV
3) I, II and III 4) All four products are formed
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
38. The IUPAC name for the complex Na PtBrCl ( NO2 ) ( NH 3 ) is
1) sodium nitrochorobromo amine palatinate (II)
2) sodium aminechlorobromonitro – N platinum (II)
3) sodium aminebromochloronitro – N platinate(II)
4) Sodium aminebromochloronitro – N platinum (III)
39. Apatite is a mineral that is found in tooth enamel. When fluoride tooth pastes are used
this mineral is converted to fluoroapatite, which is more resistant to tooth decay. The
formula of apatite is Ca5(PO4)xF. What is the value of x, if the compound contains
18.45% by weight of phosphours? (Atomic weight of P = 31, Ca = 40, F = 19 and
O = 16)
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 3
40. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the
sequence
1) BF3 BCl3 BBr3 2) BCl3 BF3 BBr3
3) BBr3 BCl3 BF3 4) BBr3 BF3 BCl3
41. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of their boiling points.
I) Benzene II) 1,3,5-trimethyl benzene
III) Toluene IV) 1,2,4,5-tetramethyl benzene
1) I > II > III > IV 2) IV > III > II > I 3) I > III > II > IV 4) III > II > I > IV
42. Consider the following statements.
I) The entropy in isolated system with only p-V work is always maximized at
equilibrium.
II) It is possible for the entropy of close system to increase substantially in an
irreversible process
III) Without the help of an external agency, spontaneous process cannot be reversed.
IV) S system is zero for reversible process in an isolated system.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1) I, II, III 2) I , IV 3) II and III 4) II, III and IV
43. Which of the following will undergo oxidation reaction with MnO2?
1) Hex-3-ene-1-ol 2) Cyclohex-3-ene-1-ol
3) Hex-2-ene-1-ol 4) All of these
44. Select the incorrect statement about alkaline earth metals.
1) Solubility of hydroxides decreases down the group
2) Solubility of sulphates decreases down the group
3) Thermal stability of carbonates increases down the group
4) Basic nature increases down the group
45. Arrange the following is correct decreasing order of basicity.
1) I > II > III 2) III > II > I 3) II > I > III 4) I > III > II
Page | 31
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. For the cell,
Cd ( s) Cd ( OH ) 2 ( s ) NaOH ( aq,0.1M )
H2 ( g )(1atm) , Pt ( s) if Ecell = 0.0V 0
and ECd / Cd
= −0.39V , then calculate K sp of
2+
e)
1) 2 > 3 > 5 > 4 > 1 2) 5 > 3 > 2 > 1 > 4 3) 1 > 5 > 2 > 3 > 4 4) 3 > 5 > 1 > 2 >3
35. A vessel of uniform cross-section of length 250 cm as shown in figure is divided in
two parts by a weightless and frictionless piston. One part contains 5 moles of He(g)
and other part contains 2 moles of H 2 ( g ) and 10 moles of O2 ( g ) at the same
temperature and pressure. The reaction takes place and finally vessel cooled to 350 K
and 1 atm. What is length of He compartment?
1) 2) 3) 4)
41. Some half – cell reactions and their respective standard potentials are given as below
MnO4− ( aq) + 8H + ( aq) + 5e− ⎯⎯
→ Mn2+ ( aq) + 4H 2O (l ) ; E 0 = −1.51V
Cr2O72− ( aq) + 14H + ( aq) + 6e− ⎯⎯
→ 2Cr 3+ ( aq) + 7H 2O (l ) ; E 0 = −1.38V
Fe3+ ( aq) + e− ⎯⎯
→ Fe2+ ( aq) ; E 0 = 0.77V
Cl2 ( g ) + 2e− ⎯⎯
→ 2Cl − ( aq) ; E 0 = 1.40V
Identify the incorrect statement.
1) MnO4− is weaker oxidising agent than Cl2
2) Cr2O72− is weaker oxidising agent than Cl2
3) MnO4− is stronger oxidising agent than Fe3+
4) Cr2O72− is weaker oxidising agent than MnO4−
42. What will be the degree of unsaturation in the product when a compound having
molecular formula C4 H 6 BrCl is treated with metallic sodium in ether? Given that
halogens are present on opposite corner in a cyclic compound.
1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) 3
43. Consider the following series of reactions
Compound( P) +conc.H2SO4
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → B ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
NaOH+AgNO3
→ C ⎯⎯⎯
NH3
→ D
Imparts violet Red gas Red ppt solution
colour toflame
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
C ⎯⎯⎯→ X whiteppt.P ⎯⎯⎯
Dil.HCl
→ Q Gas (gives white fumes with HCl)
NaOH
Heat
Identify A, B, C, D, X, P and Q are
1) K 2Cr2O7 ,CrO2Cl2 ,Ag 2CrO4 , Ag(NH3 ) 2 ,AgCl, NH 4Cl and NH 3
+
44. Which of the catalyst is used for the preparation of polymer having specific
stereochemistry?
1) TiCl3 + Al (C2 H5 )3 2) TiCl4 + Al (C2 H5 )3
3) Ti (C2 H5 ) 4 + AlCl3 4) Ti (C2 H5 )3 + AlCl3
45. The best hydride donor intermediate in Cannizzaro reaction will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. In an iodometric estimation, following reactions occur
2Cu 2+ + 4I − → Cu2 I 2 + I 2
I 2 + 2 Na2 S2O3 → 2 NaI + Na2 S4O6
0.24 mole of CuSO4 was added to excess of KI solution and the liberated iodine
required 240 mL of hypo. Then the molarity of hypo solution will be………
− Ea / RT
47. For reaction, A → B the rate constant, k1 = Ae 1
1
and for the reaction, X → Y
− E / RT
X → Y the rate constant, k1 = A2e a2
. If A1 = 10 , A2 = 1012 and Ea = 800cal / mol ,
10
1
mol)
48. Consider the following reactions and their respective enthalpies ( H º) values,
1
C ( graphite) + O2 ( g ) ⎯⎯ → CO ( g ) , H10 = −110.5kJ
2
1
CO ( g ) + O2 ( g ) ⎯⎯ → CO2 ( g ) , H 20 = −282.9kJ
2
1
H 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) ⎯⎯ → H 2O ( l ) , H 30 = −285.8kJ
2
C ( graphite) + 2H 2 ( g ) ⎯⎯→CH 4 ( g ) .H 40 = −74.8kJ
The value of U º at 400 K for the reaction.
4CO ( g ) + 8H 2 ( g ) ⎯⎯→3CH 4 ( g ) + CO2 ( g ) + 2H 2O ( l ) will be (-) ________kJ.
Page | 35
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
49. An organic compound undergoes first order decomposition. The time taken for its
decomposition to 1/8 and 1/10 of its initial concentration are t1/8 and t1/10 respectively.
The value of
t 10 will be ……… (log
1/8
2 = 0.3)
t
1/10
10
50. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol has a vapour pressure of 290 mm at 300
K. The vapour pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If the mole fraction of ethyl
alcohol is 0.6, its vapour pressure at the same temperature will be ……..mm.
PRACTICE TEST-11
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. A solution of a weak acid HA and NaOH is titrated. The pH is 6.0 after 10 mL of
NaOH solution has been added and 6.60 after 20 mL of NaOH has been added. What
is the value of pKa for acid (HA) ?
1) 3.52 2) 6.60 3) 7.28 4) 6.3010
27. Which of the following statements is correct regarding vitamin-B12?
I) It is also known as cyanocobalamin.
II) Metal ion present in Vitamin –B12 is cobalt.
III) It is a CO2 carrier in carboxylation reaction.
IV) It causes isomerism reaction.
1) I, II and III 2) I, II and IV
3) I and II 4) All statements are correct
28. Which of the following is correct regarding ionization potential?
1) O22+ NO 2) O22+ NO 3) O2 NO 4) O22+ = NO
29. The following mechanism has been proposed fro the exothermic catalysed complex
reaction,
A+ B IAB ⎯⎯ → AB + I ⎯⎯ →P + A
Slow k1 k2
Fast
If k1 is much smaller than k2, the most suitable qualitative plot of potential energy (PE)
versus reaction coordinate (R) for the above reaction is
1) 2)
3) 4)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
30. How many stereogenic centres are present in firstly discovered antibiotic?(consider
R = −CH 2OH )
1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4
31. A crystal is made up of particle P,Q and R. In which P forms fcc packing, Q occupies
all the octahedral voids of P and R occupies all the tetrahedral voids of P. If all the
particles along one body diagonal are removed, then the formula of the crystal will be
1) P7Q5 R5 2) P4Q5 R7 3) P5Q4 R8 4) P5Q5 R5
32. Consider the following reaction
−
Br2 + OH Hot → ( X ) + (Y )
X + Y + H + → Br2
If (X) gives yellow precipitate with AgNO3 then (X) and (Y) are
1) Br − , BrO3− 2) BrO− , BrO4− 3) BrO2 , Br − 4) BrO3− , Br −
33. Consider the following reaction
The intermediate involved in the above reactions (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are respectively
1) carbocation, carbanion, radical, carbene
2) carbanion, carbocation, radical carbene
3) carbene, carbanion, radical, carbocation
4) carbocation, carbocation, radical, carbene
34. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of C6 H6 ( l ) is -200 kJ and resonance energy of C6 H6 ( l )
3+
4) In Co ( H 2O)6 complex in Co is d 2 sp 3 − hybridised
37. For a cell reaction, H 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → 2H 2O (l ) , S298
0
= −0.36kJ mol −1K −1 . What is the
value of H f 298 ( H 2O, l ) ?
Page | 37
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
Given, O2 ( g ) + 4H ( aq) + 4e → 2H 2O (l ) , E º = 1.22V
+ −
A) B) C) D)
The correct decreasing order of dehydration is
1) A > B > C > D 2) B > C > A > D 3) D > A > C > B 4) D > A > B > C
40. 1g of activated carbon has a surface area of 1000 m2. Considering complete coverage
as well as mono-molecular adsorption, how much ammonia at STP would be adsorbed
88
on the surface of g carbon if radius of a ammonia molecules is 10-8 cm?
7
N A = 6 1023
88
1) 12.93 litre 2) 10 litre 3) 14.93 litre 4) 102 litre
7
41. Which one of the following will produce aromatic compound or species on reaction
with base?
I) 1, 3-dimethylcyclopent-1,3-diene
II) 1, 3, 5, 7-tetramethy1-1,3,5, 7-cyclooctatetraene
III) 1, 3, 5-trimethylcyclohept-1,3,5-triene
1) I and III 2) II and III 3) I and II 4) All of these
42. Which of the following sets of species have planar structures?
1) I3+ , ICl4− , Al2Cl6 ,TeCl4 2) SCl2 , N 2O5 , SF4 , XeOF4
3) I 2Cl6 .XeF2 , BrF4− , XeF5− 4) I3− , CH3− , ClO3− , SiF62−
43. A compound CH3CH2Br is when treated with KCN produces a compound A which on
hydrolysis produces B. A on reduction gives C which on hydrolysis produces D. D on
oxidation produces B. Identify the D.
1) CH3CH2COOH 2) CH3CH2CHO
3) CH3CH2CH2COOH 4) CH3CH2CN
44. The condensation polymer of phenol and formaldehyde is bakelite. Which of the
following mechanisms is involved in formation of bakelite?
1) Free radical reaction
2) Electrophilic addition reaction
3) Aromatic nucleophilic substitution reaction
4) Aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction
Page | 38
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
45. Identify the correct statements regarding roasting process and choose the correct
option
I) It is used after the concentration of ore.
II)It is used for hydrated oxide and oxysalt ore.
III) It is an exothermic process.
IV) It is the process of heating ore in air to obtain the oxide.
1) II, Ill and IV 2) I, II, Ill and IV
3) I, III and IV 4) II and IV
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. When a certain conductivity cell was filled with 0.01 M solution of KC1, it had a
resistance of 160 ohm at 25ºC and when filled with 0.005 M NaOH, it had a resistance
of 190 ohm. If specific resistance of KC1 solution is 700 ohm-cm, specific
conductance of NaOH solution is 10-4 (ohm-l cm-1)
47. H-atom is exposed to electromagnetic radiation of wavelength, 2051.2Å and excited
atom gives out induced radiations. The minimum wavelength of these induced
radiations is ……..(nm)
48. A mixture of NH4NO3 and (NH4)2HPO4 contains 30.40 mass % of nitrogen. The mass
ratio of the two components in the mixture is…..
49. The equilibrium constant for the reaction, Sn ( s) + 2Cu 2+ ( aq) Sn2+ ( aq) + 2Cu + ( aq)
at 25ºC is ……. 109
(Given, ESn0 / Sn = −0.14V , ECu
2+
0
2+
/ Cu
= 0.15V )
+
50. If 195 mg/mL of K+ ions are present in human blood, then its molarity is……M.
PRACTICE TEST-12
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option
can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Among the given four choices the non-biodegradable detergent is
CH 3 − ( CH 2 )11 SO3 Na
1)
CH 3 − ( CH 2 ) 9 − CH SO3 Na
CH 3
2)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
CH3 CH3
CH3 (CHCH2) CH SO3 Na
3
3)
4) CH3 (CH 2 )10 CH 2OSO3 Na
27. What are the products formed when xenon hexafluoride ( XeF6 ) reacts with oxide of
silicon?
1) XeO3 + SiF4 2) XeOF4 + SiF4 3) XeF4 + SiO2 4) XeSiO4 + SiF4
28. An electron moving with velocity (v) is found to have a certain value of de-Broglie
wavelength. The velocity to be possessed by the neutron to have the same de-Broglie
wavelength is
1840 v
1) 2) 1840v 3) 4) v
v 1840
29. Which of the following nucleic acid base has two possible binding sites?
1) Thymine 2) Cytocine 3) Guanine 4) Adenine
30. To what volume of 100litre of 0.5M CH 3COOH ( K a = 1.8 10 ) be diluted in order to
−5
⎯⎯⎯
HCl
CCl4
→ Major product
Cl
Cl ,2
,1
1) 2)
Cl
Cl
,2 ,3
3) 4)
33. A reaction A → B involves the following mechanism,
Step1. 2 A ⎯⎯
k1
→C ( fast)
Step2. C ⎯⎯
k2
→D (slow)
Step3. 3D ⎯⎯
k3
→B ( fast )
Page | 40
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
The rate law of the reaction may be given as
1) rate = k1 A 2) rate = k1k2 A 3) rate = k2 C D 4) rate = k1k2k3 C D
2 2
34. Which of the following will produce two different carbonyl compounds on ozonolysis
of X, out of which one is acetone and another produces diastereomer on reduction with
LiAlH 4 ?
1) 2,3,4-trimethylthex – 2- ene
2) 2,3-dimethylhex-2-ene
3) 3,4-dimethylhex-2-ene
4) all of given options
35. Match column X with column Y and select the correct alternative using the codes
given below
X Y
A Lithophone 1 Mg ( ClO4 ) 2
B Sorel cement 2 CaH 2
C Annydrone 3 BaSO4 + ZnS
D Hydrolith 4 MgCl2 .5MgO.xH 2O
1) A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2 2) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4 3) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4 4) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4
36. P2Q molecule (molar mass = 207.84g/mol) crystallises in a hexagonal lattice as shown
in fig. the lattice constants are a=10Å and b=16Å. If density of crystal is 0.5g/cm3,
then how many molecules are contained in given unit cell? (Given: N A = 6.02 1023 )
1) 2 2) 7 3) 5 4) 8
37. For the reaction, A + K2CO3 + air ⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→ B and B + Cl2 → C (pink coloured)
1) 2)
O
3) 4)
41. Hydrogen cannot be obtained by combining
1) Mg + dil.H 2 SO4 2) Zn + dil.H 2 SO4 3) Zn + dil.HNO3 4) Mg + dil.HNO3
42. All of the given substrates undergoes S N 1 reaction. Choose the correct decreasing
option regarding S N 1 reaction
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
CH 3 − C − N − CH 3 O
H CH CH − C − NH
3) 4) 3 2 2
44. Which of the following is incorrect about tetramminedithiocyanato – S cobalt (III) tris
(oxalate) – cobaltate(III)?
1) It is chelating complex and show linkage isomerism
2) It shows optical isomerism
3) It shows geometrical isomerism
4) The formula of the complex is, Co ( SCN )2 ( NH 3 )4 Co ( OX )3
45. The As2 S3 solution has negative charge. The maximum coagulating power for
precipitating it is of
1) 0.1N Zn ( NO3 )2 2) 0.1N Na3 PO4 3) 0.1N ZnSO4 4) 0.1N AlCl3
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. The vapour density of a mixture containing NO2 and N 2O4 is 30. The mole fraction of
N 2O4 in mixture is….
47. The standard electrode potential for the following reaction is +1.33V. The potential at
pH=2 will be (+….V).
Cr2O72− ( aq.1M ) + 14H ( aq) + 6e− → 2Cr 3+ ( aq,1M ) + 7H 2O (l )
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
48. The molar heat of formation of NH4 NO3 ( g ) is -367.57kJ and those of N2O ( g ) ,
H2O ( l ) are 81.46 and 285.8kJ respectively at 25ºC and 1 atm. The change in internal
energy for the reaction is (-)…..kJ.
NH4 NO3 ( s) → N2O ( g ) + 2H2O (l )
49. The solubility of AgCl in water at 25ºC is 1.79 10−3 g / L . The K SP of AgCl at 25ºC is
_______ 10−10 . (mol2L-2)
50. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of aqueous solution containing a non-volatile
solute is 0.0125. the molality of the solution is …..
PRACTICE TEST-13
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Choose the correct characteristics for the given order of hybrid orbitals of same atom
sp < sp2 < sp3
I) Bond angle between same hybrid orbitals.
II) Size III) Energy level
IV) Electronegativity
Choose the correct option.
1) I,III, IV 2) I and IV 3) II and III 4) All are correct
27. A 1.025 g sample containing a weak acid, HA (molecular weight = 82) is dissolved in
60 mL of water and titrated with 0.25 M NaOH. When half of the acid was neutralised
the pH was found to be 5.0 and at the equivalent point, the pH is 9.0. Calculate the
weight percentage of HA in sample.
1) 40% 2) 80% 3) 20% 4) 90%
28. Which of the following carbohydrate will form same osazone?
1) Glucose and fructose 2) Glucose and gluconic acid
3) Mannose and sucrose 4) Fructose and maltose
29. A reactant A forms two products as follows
A ⎯⎯k1
→ B, Activation energy, Ea ; 1
A ⎯⎯
→ C , Activation energy, Ea2 .
k2
1) 2) 3) 4)
38. One molal solution of a carboxylic acid in benzene shows the elevation in boiling
point of 1.518 K. The degree of association for dimerisation of the acid in benzene is
(Kb for benzene = 2.53 K kg mol-1)
1) 60% 2) 70% 3) 75 % 4) 80 %
39. Benzoyl chloride on reaction with H2 in presence of Pd/BaSO4 produces a compound
A. Which of the following will be the product, if A is treated with KCN in aqueous
alcohol?
1) 1- hydroxy-1,2-diphenylethan-1-one
2) 2- hydroxy-1,2-diphenylethan-1-one
3) 2- hydroxy-2,2-diphenylethan-2-one
4) 2- hydroxy-1,1-diphenylethan-2-one
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
40. When chlorine water is added to an aqueous solution of sodium iodide in the presence
of chloroform, a violet colouration is obtained, on adding more of chlorine water and
vigorous shaking, the violet colour disappears. This shows that X is converted to Y.
Then, X and Y are
1) I2, HI 2) I2, HIO4 3) I2, HIO3 4) I2, HIO
41. Arrange the following in correct order of anionic polymerization
I) CH 2 = CH − CH 3
II) CH 2 = CH − Cl
III) CH 2 = CH − CH 2CH 3
IV) CH 2 = CH − CN
1) IV > II > I > III 2) IV> III> II> I
3) II > IV > III > I 4) I > III > II > IV
42. Choose the correct product formed during following reaction.
1) 2)
3) 4)
43. Zinc on reaction with NaOH gives a salt A along with a gas X and A on reaction with
a gas Y gives white precipitate Z. Which of the following is correct?
1) X is ZnS, Z is H2 2) Z is ZnS, X is H2
3) A is Na2 ZnO2, X is H2S 4) A is Na4ZnO2, Y is Na2S
44. 6×10 mole of K2Cr2O7 reacts completely with 9×10-3 mole of Xn+ to give XO3− and
-3
3+
2) Fe ( H 2O)6 Fe ( NO2 )6 Fe ( NH 3 )6
3+ 3−
3+ 3+ 3+
3) Co ( H 2O)6 Rh ( H 2O)6 Ir ( H 2O)6
1+ 2+ 3+
4) Cr ( NH3 )6 Cr ( NH3 )6 Cr ( NH3 )6
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
Page | 46
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
46. A compound used in making Dacron has 40.8% oxygen. There are four oxygen atoms
per molecule. Then, molecular weight of the compound will be.......g.
47. 1 mole of CO2 gas at 300 K is expanded under adiabatic conditions such that its
volume becomes 27 times. The work done is …..cal.
( =1.33 and CV = 6 cal mol-1 for CO2)
48. On adding 60 g of water to an oleum sample, 740 g of H 2SO4 are obtained. The
strength of given oleum is …… %.
1) 103.8% 2) 105.9% 3) 108.8% 4) 110.5%
49. On mixing, heptane and octane form an ideal solution at 373 K, the vapour pressures
of the two liquid components (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa
respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25g heptane and 35g
of octane will be ….. kPa. (Molar mass of heptane = 100 g mol-1 and of octane = 114 g
mol-1)
50. In reaction , A + 2B 2C + D , initial concentration of B was 1.5 times of [A], but at
equilibrium the concentrations of A and B became equal. The equilibrium constant for
the reaction is …… .
PRACTICE TEST-14
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. A certain quantity of ammonium chloride is boiled with 100mL of 0.8N NaOH till no
further action occurs. Excess of NaOH required 40mL of 0.75N sulphuric acid to
neutralize it. How much ammonium chloride was used
1) 405g 2) 5g 3) 2.67g 4) 1g
27. Consider the following reaction: product B and intermediate involved in the reaction
are stated as
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
28. Photoelectric emission is observed from a surface for frequencies, v1 and v2 of the
incident radiation ( v1 v2 ) . If the maximum kinetic energies of the photoelectrons in
the two cases are in the ratio 1:k, then the threshold frequency, v0 is given by
v2 − v1 kv1 − v2 kv2 − v1 v2 − v1
1) 2) 3) 4)
k −1 k −1 k −1 k −1
29. XeF4 reacts with SbF5 to form
1) XeF6 2) XeF4 3) [XeF3]+ [SbF6]- 4) Xe[SbF4]
30. Tensile strength of polymer increases with
1) Increase in crystallinity 2) increase in melting point
3) increase in molecular weight 4) All a,b and c are true
31. Average atomic mass of magnesium is 24.32amu. The Mg is composed of 79mole %
of 24 Mg and remaining 21 mole % of 25 Mg and 26 Mg . Calculate the mole % of 25 Mg
1) 10% 2) 20% 3) 22% 4) 11%
32. What will be the final product obtained after reaction of aldohexose with bromine
water followed by calcium salt and Fenton’s reagent and methanol sequentially?
1) 1,2,3,4,5 – pentahydroxy hexanal
2) 1,2,3,4 – tetrahydroxy pentanal
3) 2,3, 4, 5 - tetramethoxy pentanal
4) 1,2,3,4,5- pentahydroxy heptanal
33. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) Metallic hydrides are deficient in hydrogen
2) Metallic hydrides conducts heat and electricity
3) Ionic hydrides do not conduct electricity in solid state
4) Ionic Hydrides are very good conductors of electricity in solid state
34. Two reactions one of first order and other of second order have same values of rate
constants k1 and k2 respectively, when concentrations are expressed in mol/dm3. If the
concentrations are expressed in mol/mL, the relationship between their rate constants,
k1 and k2 will be
1) k1 = k2 2) k1 103 = k2 3) k2 103 = k1 4) k1 = 10k2
35. A,B and C are hydroxyl compounds of the elements P,Q and R respectively. P,Q and
R are in the same period of the periodic table. A gives an aqueous solution of pH<7. B
reacts with both strong acids and strong alkalies. C gives an aqueous solution which is
strongly alkaline. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I) All the three elements are metals.
II) The atomic radius decreases in the order P,Q,R
III) The electronegativities decrease from P to Q to R
IV) P,Q and R could be P, Al and Na, respectively
1) I, II and IV 2) III and IV 3) II, III and IV 4) All are correct
36. What will be the product and degree of unsaturation present in the product for the
following reaction?
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
1) 2) 3) 4)
37. K a for the reaction, Fe 3+
( aq) + H 2O ( l ) Fe ( OH )
2+
( aq) + H 3O + is 6.5 10−4 . What is
the maximum pH value which could be used so that atleast 80% of the total iron (III)
in a dilute solution exist as Fe3+ ?
1) 4.60 2) 2.59 3) 7.59 4) 7.0
38. Which of the following has highest acidic strength?
1) II 2) III 3) IV 4) I
39. When an inorganic compound reacts with SO2 in aqueous medium produce X.X on
reaction with Na2CO3 gives the compound Y. Which when reacted with sulphur gives
Z which is used in photography. The compound Z is
1) Na2 S 2) Na2 S2O7 3) Na2 S2O3 4) Na2 SO3
40. The product obtained in following reaction is
O
I-I
CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − CH 2C
OH
1) 2)
3) 4)
41. 2,2- dimethyl -1-chloropropane undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction to produce an optically
inactive product. Which of the following is correct regarding the product?
i) Formation of product takes place through S N 1 reaction.
H
1) 4,4, 2) 4,6 3) 6,4 4) 4,0
43. Oxygen atom forms fcc unit cell with ‘A” atoms occupying all tetrahedral voids and ‘B’ atoms
occupying all octahedral voids. If atoms are removed from two of the body diagonals, then determine
the formula of resultant compound formed.
1) A4 B4O7 2) A8 B6O7 3) A8 B8O7 4) A6 B8O6
44. A metal carbonate on being heated strongly gives a solid that forms a green solid with CoO (cobalt
oxide). In which analytical group will the cation be precipitate and what will be the colour of
precipitate.
1) Group IV, white 2) Group III, red 3) Group II, yellow 4) Group I, white
d ( G )
45. If G = H − T S and G = H + T , then variation of EMF of a cell E, with
dT p
temperature T, is given by
H G S −S
1) 2) 3) 4)
nF nF nF nF
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00,
‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. If at 300K, H of ( NH 4Cl ) = −314.5kJ / mol ; CP = 0 then f G º for ( NH 4Cl ) at 320K,
will be (-)….kJ/mol.
S N0 2 ( g ) = 192 JK −1mol −1
S H0 2 ( g ) = 130 JK −1mol −1
SCl0 2 ( g ) = 233JK −1mol −1
0
S NH 4Cl ( g )
= 99.5 JK −1mol −1
47. The standard emf of a cell, involving one electron change is found to be 0.591V at 25ºC. The
equilibrium constant of the reaction is (1F=96500Cmol-1)……1010.
48. Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0 10−13 . The quantity of potassium bromide (molar
mass taken as 120g mol-1) to be added to 1L of 0.05M solution of silver nitrate to start the
precipitation of AgBr is …… 10 −9 g .
49. A follows first order reaction, A → Product concentration of A, changes from 0.1M to
0.025M in 40min, when concentration of A is 0.01M. The rate of reaction of A is….10-4 mol
L-1 min-1.
50. Given, EFeo
3+
/ Fe
= −0.036V EFe
o
/ Fe
= −0.439V
2+
The value of standard electrode potential for the charge, Fe3+ ( aq ) + e− → Fe2+ ( aq ) will be E.
Page | 50
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
PRACTICE TEST-15
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. When phenyl methyl ketone is treated with a mixture of formaldehyde and
methylamine, it produces a compound A. Which of the following option correctly
defines the nature of A?
1) A is basic in nature 2) A is optically inactive
3) A can undergo aldol condensation 4) A is optically active
27. Fixed volume of 0.1 M C6 H5COOH ( pKa = 4.4) solution is added into 0.2 M sodium benzoate
solution and forms a 300 mL resultant acidic buffer solution. If pH of the buffer solution is 4.7, then
the volume of benzoic acid will be
1) 450 mL 2) 250 mL 3) 300 mL 4) 150 mL
28. When a protic acid is added to NH 3 , it forms X and when a strong base is added to NH 3 , it
forms Y. Consider NH 3 = Z and arrange them in correct order of their bond angle.
1) Y Z X 2) X Z Y 3) Z Y X 4) Z X Y
29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(I) Hydrolysis of sucrose with dilute acid yields an equimolar mixture of
D-(+)- glucose and D-(+)- fructose.
(II) Acid hydrolysis of sucrose is accompanied by a change in optical rotation.
(III) In sucrose C1 of glucose and C 2 of fructose are linked by glycosidic linkage.
(IV) Aqueous solution of sucrose exhibit matarotation.
1) I, II and III 2) I and IV 3) II and III 4) II and IV
30. The decomposition of azomethane, at certain temperature takes place according to the
equation, (CH3 )2 N2 ⎯⎯ → C2 H 6 + N2 is a first order reaction. After 20 minutes, from the start,
the total pressure developed is found to be 350 mm Hg in place of initial pressure 200 mm of Hg of
azomethane. The value of rate constant k is
1) 2.303 10−2 min −1 2) 0.693 10−5 min −1 3) 6.93 10−2 min −1 4) 13.8 10−7 min −1
31. When carbolic acid is treated with a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H 2 SO4 , it produces
a mixture of compound x and y. Which of the following technique can be used for the separation of
compounds x and y.
1) Steam distillation 2) Fractional distillation
3) Sublimation 4) Chemical separation
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are wrong?
1) The electron gain enthalpy of N is almost zero while that of P is 74.3kJ / mol
2) Isoelectronic ions belong to same period of the periodic table.
3) Van der Waals radius of iodine is more than its covalent radius.
4) IE1 of N is > O, while IE2 of O > N.
33. The relative rate of effusion of O2 to CH 4 through a container containing O2 and CH 4 in 3 : 2
mass ratio will be
3 2 3 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 4 2 2 2 4
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34. 2RCl + Si ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → R2 Si ( OH ) 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ R2 SiCl2 ⎯⎯⎯
Cu powder
570 K
H2O Polymerisation
→ X . Here, the X will be
1) Linear silicone 2) Cyclic silicone
3) Cross-linked silicone 4) None of these
35. Consider the following sequence of reaction:
1) 2)
,
3) 4)
36. Consider the following data, f H º ( N2 H4 , l ) = 50 kJ / mol , f H º ( NH3 , g ) = −46 kJ / mol ,
Hvap ( N2 H 4 , l ) = 18 kJ / mol , Bond energy ( N − H ) = 393kJ / mol , binding energy
( H − H ) = 436kJ / mol . The N – N bond energy in N 2 H 4 will be
1) 200 kJ/mol 2) 500 kJ/mol 3) 700 kJ/mol 4) 190 kJ/mol
37. The reagent ‘X’ in the given reaction is
CH3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
40. When 6, 6 –dimethyl cyclohex -2-ene-l-ol react with MnO2 , it produces A. What will
be the product B when A is treated with CH 3 Li in presence of CuCl and its optical
activity. Choose the correct option.
1) 2)
3) 4)
+ MnO
41. NH4Cl + A ⎯⎯
→ microcosmic salt ⎯⎯⎯
→ B ⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→ C (violet colour bead) Identify A, B and
Heat
and C.
1) Na3 PO4 , NaPO3 , Mn3 ( PO4 ) 2 2) Na2 HPO4 , NaPO3 , Mn ( PO3 ) 2
3) Na2 HPO4 , NaPO3 , NaMnPO4 4) Na2 HPO4 , Na3 PO4 , Mn3 ( PO4 )2
42. Which of the following represents correctly the changes in thermodynamics properties
during the formation of 1 mol of an ideal binary solution?
1) 2) 3) 4)
43. The correct decreasing order of boiling point of following compounds will be :
NH 3 PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3 H 2O
I II III IV V
1) II > III > IV > I > V 2) IV > II > III > V > I
3) V > IV > I > III > II 4) II > III > IV > V > I
44. A galvanic cell is set up for a zinc bar weighing 100 g and 1.0 L of 1.0 M CuSO4
solution. How long would the cell run, if it is assumed to deliver a steady current of 1.0 A? (Atomic
mass of Zn = 65)
1) 1.1 h 2) 46 h 3) 53.6 h 4) 24.00 h
45. For any synthetic polymer the correct relation between weight average molecular mass
( M ) and number average molecular mass is
1) M n = (M )
W 2) M n = M W 3) M W M n 4) M W M n
48. The rate constant of a zero order reaction is 2.0 10−2 molL−1s −1 . If the concentration of the
reactant after 25 s is 0.5 M, the initial concentration is …… M.
49. To an evacuated vessel with movable piston under external pressure of 1 atm, 0.1 mole
of He and 1.0 mole of an unknown compound (vapour pressure 0.68 atm at 0ºC) are
introduced. Considering the ideal gas behavior, the total volume (in litre) of the gases
at 0ºC is close to …….L.
50. A 0.081 g sample of pyrolusite ore (impure MnO2 ) is treated with 1.651 g of oxalic acid
( H2C2O4 .H2O) in an acidic medium. Following this reaction the excess oxalic acid is titrated with
30.6 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 , the percentage of MnO2 in the ore will be …….% (Mn = 55)
H2C2O4 + MnO2 + 2H + ⎯⎯
→ Mn2+ + 2H2O + 2CO2
5H2C2O4 + 2MnO4− + 6H + ⎯⎯
→ 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 10CO2
Jee-Main-2020 (Jan)_Final_Q.Papers
07-01-2020_Shift-01
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. The relative strength of interionic/intermolecular forces in decreasing order is:
1) ion-dipole > dipole –dipole > ion-ion 2) dipole-dipole>ion – dipole > ion – ion
3) ion-ion > ion –dipole > dipole – dipole 4) ion-dipole > ion-ion > dipole-dipole
27. Oxidation number of potassium in K2O, K2O2 and KO2, respectively is:
1
1) +1,+2 and +4 2) +1,+4 and +2 3) +2, +1 and + 4) +1,+1 and +1
2
28. At 35ºC, the vapour pressure of CS2, is 512 mm Hg and that of acetone is 344mm Hg.
A solution of CS 2 in acetone has a total vapour pressure of 600mm Hg. The false
statement amongst the following is:
1) CS2 and acetone are less attracted to each other than to themselves
2) heat must be absorbed in order to produce the solution at 35ºC
3) Raoult’s law is not obeyed by this system
4) a mixture of 100 mL CS2 and 100 mL acetone has a volume of <200 mL
29. The atomic radius of Ag is closest to:
1) Ni 2) Cu 3) Au 4) Hg
30. The dipole moments of CCl4,CHCl3 and CH4 are in the order:
1) CH 4 CCl4 CHCl3 2) CHCl3 CH 4 = CCl4
3) CH 4 = CCl4 CHCl3 4) CCl4 CH 4 CHCl3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
31. In comparison to the zeolite process for the removal of permanent hardness, the
synthetic resin method is:
1) less efficient as the resins cannot be regenerated
2) more efficient as it can exchange only cations
3) less efficient as it exchanges only anions
4) more efficient as it can exchange both cations as well as anions
32. Among the following statements, that which was not proposed by Dalton was
1) chemical reactions involve reorganization of atoms. These are neither created nor
destroyed in a chemical reaction.
2) when gases combine or reproduced in a chemical reaction, they do so in a simple
ratio by volume provided all gases are at the same T & P.
3) matter consists of indivisible atoms.
4) all the atoms of a given element have identical properties including identical mass.
Atoms of different elements differ in mass.
33. The increasing order of pK b for the following compounds will be:
N
NH 2 − CH = NH , N NH , CH 3 NHCH 3
(A)
(C)
(B)
COOH
1)
2) COOH
COOH
3)
COOH
4)
1
35. The number of orbitals associated with quantum numbers n = 5, m5 = + is:
2
1) 11 2) 50 3) 25 4) 15
36. The purest form of commercial iron is:
1) wrought iron 2) pig iron 3) cast iron 4) scrap iron and pig iron
37. The theory that can completely/properly explain the nature of bonding in Ni ( Co) 4 is:
1) Werner’s theory 2) Crystal field theory
3) Molecular orbital theory 4) Valence bond theory
Page | 55
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
38. The IUPAC name of the complex pt ( NH 3 ) 2 Cl ( NH 2CH 3 ) Cl is:
1) Diammine(methanamine)chlorido platinum(II) chloride
2) Bisammine(methanamine)chlorido platinum(II) chloride
3) Diamminechlorido(aminomethane) platinum(II) chloride
4) Diamminechlorido(methanamine) platinum(II) chloride
39. 1-methyl ethylene oxide when treated with an excess of HBr produces:
Br
Br Br
Br
CH3
1) Br 2) Br 3) CH3 4) CH3
07-01-2020_Shift-02
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Consider the following reactions:
(A)
+ Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯
anhyd . AlCl3
→
(B) Cl Cl
+ Cl2(excess) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
anhyd . AlCl3
dark
→ Cl Cl
Cl Cl
(C)
+ CH2 = CH -Cl ⎯⎯⎯
anhyd
AlCl3
→ CH=CH2
Page | 57
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
(D)
+CH2 = CH - CH2Cl ⎯⎯⎯
anhyd
AlCl3
→ CH2-CH=CH2
⎯⎯⎯
Ac2O
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
Br2
AcOH
→B
CH3
The major product B is :
NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3
Br
Br
1) CH3 2) CH3
NHCOCH3
NHCOCH3
Br COCH3
3) CH2Br 4) CH3
Page | 58
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30. In the following reaction sequence, structures of A and B, respectively will be:
O
⎯ HBr
⎯⎯
→ A ⎯ Ether
⎯Na
⎯ → (Intramolecular product) B
CH2-Br
1) Br CH2Br
OH
&
CH2Br O
2) Br Br
OH
&
O
CH2Br
3) OH OH
Br
&
CH2Br
4) OH OH
Br
&
CH2Br
31. The number of possible optical isomers for the complexes Ma2b2 with sp3 and dsp2
hybridized metal atom, respectively, is:
Note: A and B are unidentate neutral and unidentate monoanionic ligands, respectively
1) 0 and 1 2) 2 and 2 3) 0 and 0 4) 0 and 2
–
32. The bond order and magnetic characteristics of CN are :
1
1) 3, diamagnetic 2) 2 , diamagnetic
2
1
3) 2 , paramagnetic 4) 3, paramagnetic
2
Page | 59
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
33. The equation that is incorrect is:
1) om NaBr o
m NaCl
o
m KBr
o
m KCl
2) o
m KCl
o
m NaCl
o
m KBr
o
m NaBr
o o o o o o o o
3) m NaBr m Nal m KBr m NaBr 4) m H O m HCl m NaOH m NaCl
2
34. In the following reactions, products (A) and (B), respectively, are:
NaOH + Cl2 → A + side products
Hot &conc
Root mean square speed (Vrms); most probable speed (Vmp); Average speed (Vav)
1) A − Vmp ; B − Vrms ; C − Vav 2) A − Vav ; B − Vrms ; C − Vmp
3) A − Vrms ; B − Vmp ; C − Vav 4) A − Vmp ; B − Vav ; C − Vrms
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
40. For the following reaction
CH 3CH 2CH 2 Z + Br
ks
on
tituti
s
sub
CH 3CH 2CH 2 Br + Z −
ke
Eli
mi
nat
ion
CH 3CH = CH 2 + HZ + Br −
where,
CH 3
Z − = CH 3CH 2O − ( A) or H 3C − C − O − ( B ) .
CH 3
Ks and ke, are, respectively, the rate constants for substitution and elimination and
ks
= , the correct option is
ke
1) B A and ke ( B) ke ( A) 2) B A and ke ( A) ke ( B)
3) A B and ke ( B) ke ( A) 4) A B and ke ( A) ke ( B)
41. For the reaction
2H2 ( g ) + 2NO ( g ) → N2 ( g ) + 2H 2O ( g )
the observed rate expression is, rate = k f NO H 2 . The rate expression for the
2
3) kb N2 H 2O 4) kb N 2 H 2O / NO
2
42. The ammonia (NH3) released on quantitative reaction of 0.6 g urea (NH2CONH2)
with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) can be neutralized by:
1) 100 mL of 0.2 N HCl 2) 100 mL of 0.1 N HCl
3) 200 mL of 0.4 N HCl 4) 200 mL of 0.2 N HCl
43. Within each pair of elements F & Cl, S & Se, and Li & Na, respectively, the element
that release more energy upon an electron gain are:
1) Cl, Se and Na 2) F, Se and Na 3) F, S and Li 4) Cl, S and Li
44. A chromatography column, packed with silica gel as stationary phase was used to
separate a mixture of compounds consisting of (A) benzanilide (B) aniline and (C)
acetophenone. When the column is eluted with a mixture of solvent hexane: ethyl
acetate (20:80), the sequence of obtained compounds is:
1) (B), (A) and (C) 2) (C), (A) and (B)
3) (B), (C) and (A) 4) (A), (B) and (C)
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45. Among the statement (a)-(d), the incorrect ones are:
(a) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands have very high magnetic
moments
(b) When 0 P , the d-electron configuration of Co(III) in an octahedral complex is
teg4 eg2
(c) Wave length of light absorbed by Co ( en)3 is lower than that of CoF6
3+ 3−
(d) If the 0 for an octahedral complex of Co(III) is 18,000 cm-1, the t for its
tetrahedral complex with the same ligand will be 16,000 cm-1
1) (a) and (d) only 2) (a) and (b) only
3) (b) and (c) only 4) (c) and (d) only
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal
place.(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. The Number of sp2 hybrid carbons present in “Aspartame” is ____
47. 3g of acetic acid is added to 250 mL of 0.1 M HCl and the solution made up to 500
1
mL. To 20 mL of this solution mL of 5M NaOH is added. The pH of this solution is
2
[ Given pKa of acetic acid = 4.75, molar mass of acetic acid = 60 g/mol,
log 3 = 0.4771]
Neglect any changes in volume.
48. The flocculation value of HCl for arsenic sulphide sol is 30 m mol L-1. If H2SO4 is
used for the flocculation of arsenic sulphide, the amount, in grams, of H 2SO4 in 250 ml
required for the above purpose is ______
(molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol)
49. Consider the following reactions:
NaCl + K2Cr2O7 ( s) + H 2 SO4 → ( A) + side products
conc
The sum of the total number of atoms in one molecule each of (A), (B) and (C0 is __
50. The standard heat of formation ( f H 298
0
) of ethane (in kJ/mol), if the heat of
combustion of ethane, hydrogen and graphite are -1560, -393.5 and -286 kJ/mol,
respectively is _____
Page | 62
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08-01-2020_Shift-01
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
2−
26. The number of bonds between sulphur and oxygen atoms in S 2O8 and the number of
bonds between sulphur and sulphur atoms in rhombic sulphur, respectively, are:
1) 8 & 8 2) 4 & 6 3) 8 & 6 4) 4 & 8
27. A graph of vapour pressure and temperature for three different liquids X, Y and Z is
shown below:
Page | 63
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1) 2)
3) 4)
32. The decreasing order of reactivity towards dehydrohalogenation (E1) reaction of the
following compounds is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
1) B>A>D>C 2) B>D>A>C 3) D>B>C>A 4) B>D>C>A
33. The predominant intermolecular forces present in ethyl acetate, a liquid, are:
1) London dispersion, dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
2) Dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
3) Hydrogen bonding and London dispersion
4) London dispersion and dipole-dipole
34. Which of the following statement is not true for glucose?
1) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime
2) Glucose gives Schiff’s test for aldehyde
3) Glucose exists in two crystalline forms and
4) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine to give oxime
35. When gypsum is heated to 393 K, it forms:
1) Dead burnt plaster 2) CaSO4.0.5 H2O
3) Anhydrous CaSO4 4) CaSO4. 5H2O
36. The strength of an aqueous NaOH solution is most accurately determined by titrating:
(Note: consider that an appropriate indicator is used)
1) Aq. NaOH in a burette and aq. Oxalic acid in a conical flask
2) Aq. NaOH in a volumetric flask and conc. H2SO4 in a conical flask
3) Aq. NaOH in a pipette and aqueous oxalic acid in a burette
4) Aq. NaOH in a burette and conc. H2SO4 in a conical flask
37. The most suitable reagent for the given conversion is:
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
−9 −6 −9 −9
1) XY2 ,1 10 M 2) XY ,2 10 M 3) X 2Y ,2 10 M
3
4) XY2 ,4 10 M
3 3 3
43. As per Hardy-Schulze formulation, the flocculation values of the following for ferric
hydroxide sol are in the order:
1) K 3 Fe ( CN ) 6 K 2CrO4 AlCl3 KBr KNO3
2) K 3 Fe ( CN ) 6 AlCl3 K 2CrO4 KBr KNO3
3) AlCl3 K 3 Fe ( CN ) 6 K 2CrO4 KBr = KNO3
4) K 3 Fe ( CN ) 6 K 2CrO4 KBr = KNO3 = AlCl3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
44. The major products A and B in the following reactions are:
1) 2)
3) 4)
45. The third ionization enthalpy is minimum for:
1) Fe 2) Mn 3) Ni 4) Co
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal
place.(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. Ferrous sulphate heptahydrate is used to fortify foods with iron. The amount (in
grams) of the salt required to achieve 10 ppm of iron in 100 kg of wheat is_____
Atomic weight : Fe = 55.85; S = 32.00; O = 16.00
47. What would be the electrode potential for the given half cell reaction at pH=5?
−
2 H 2O → O2 + 4 H + 4e ; Ered = 1.23V
0
(R=8.314 J mol-1 K-1; Temp = 298 K; oxygen under std. atm. Pressure of 1 bar)
48. The number of chiral centres in pencillin is_____
49. The volume (in mL) of 0.125 M AgNO3 required to quantitatively precipitate chloride
ions in 0.3 g of [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is______.
M
( )
Co NH Cl = 267.46 g/mol
3 6 3
50. The magnitude of work done by a gas that undergoes a reversible expansion along the
path ABC shown in the figure is_______.
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
08-01-2020_Shift-02
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. The correct order of the calculated spin-only magnetic moments of complexes (A) to
(D) is :
A) Ni ( CO) 4 B) Ni ( H2O)6 Cl2
C) Na 2 Ni ( CN) 4 D) PdCl2 ( PPh 3 ) 2
1) ( C) ( D) ( B) ( A) 2) ( A) ( C) ( D) ( B)
3) ( C) ( D) ( B) ( A) 4) ( A) ( C) ( B) ( D)
2. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used to estimate nitrogen for which of the following
compounds?
O
||
1) NH 2 − C − NH 2 2) C6H5 NH 2
3) CH3CH 2 − C N 4) C6H5 NO 2
3. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is:
Assertion: For hydrogenation reactions, the catalytic activity increases from group 5 to
Group 11 metals with maximum activity shown by Group 7-9 elements.
Reason: The reactants are most strongly adsorbed on group 7-9 elements.
1) Both assertion and reason are false.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation for
the assertion
3) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion.
4) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
4. Which of the following compounds is likely to show both Frenkel and Schootky
defects in its crystalline form?
1) KBr 2) AgBr 3) ZnS 4) CsCl
Only AgBr can exhibit both schootky and frenkel defect.
5. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the Bohr radius, a 0 , in Li 2 + is:
4a 0 2a 2a 4a
1) 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
9 3 9 3
6. White phosphorous on reaction with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert
atmosphere of CO 2 gives phosphine and compound (X). (X) on acidification with HCl
gives compound (Y). The basicity of compound (Y) is:
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 4
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
7. Among the compounds A and B with molecular formula C9 H18O3 , A is having higher
boiling point the B. the possible structures of A and B are:
A = HO OH A = HO OH
HO HO
B = HO B = H 3CO OCH 3
OH
OH OCH 3
1) 2)
A = H 3CO OCH 3
A = H 3CO OCH 3
OCH 3
OCH 3
B = HO
OH B = HO
OH
3) HO
4) OH
1) 2) 3) 4)
12. Among the reactions (a)-(d). the reaction(s) that does/do not occur in the blast furnace
during the extraction of iron is/are:
a) CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3 b) 3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3O 4 + CO 2
1
c) FeO + SiO 2 → FeSiO3 d) FeO → Fe + O2
2
1) (c) and (d) 2) (d) 3) (a) and (d) 4) (a)
13. The major product [B] in the following sequence of reactions is:
( i) B H
CH 3 − C = CH − CH 2CH 3 ⎯⎯ ⎯2⎯6⎯⎯ → A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
dil.H2SO4
→ B
( ii ) H 2 O 2 ,OH
CH ( CH3 ) 2
CH 3 − C − CH 2CH 2CH 3
C
H3C CH3
1) CH3 − C = CH − CH 2CH3 2)
|
CH( CH3 )
2
3) CH3 − CH − CH = CH − CH3 4) CH 2 = C − CH 2CH 2CH3
|
CH( CH3 )
|
2 CH ( CH3 )
2
14. The major product in the following reaction is :
O
+ H 3O ⎯⎯
→
CH3
OH OH O
CH3 HO CH3
1) 2)
OH O
OH
CH
3 CH
3) 4) 3
15. The increasing order of the atomic radii of the following elements is :
(a) C (b) O (c) F (d) Cl (e) Br
1) ( c) ( b) ( a ) ( d) ( e) 2) ( a ) ( b) ( c) ( d) ( e)
3) ( b) ( c) ( d) ( a ) ( e) 4) ( d) ( c) ( b) ( a ) ( e)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
16. Preparation of Bakelite proceeds via reactions:
1) Condensation and elimination
2) Electrophilic substitution and dehydration
3) Electrophilic addition and dehydration
4) Nucleophilic addition and dehydration
17. Hydrogen has three isotopes (A), (B) and (C). If the number of neutron(s) in (A), (B)
and (C) respectively, are (x), (Y) and (z), the sum of (x), (y) and (z) is :
1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) 3
18. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is:
Assertion : The pH of water increases with increase in temperature.
Reason : The dissociation of water into H + and OH − is an exothermic reaction.
1) Assertion is not true, but reason is true.
2) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation for
the assertion.
3) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion
4) Both assertion and reason are false.
1
19. Consider the following plots of rate constant versus for four different reactions.
T
Which of the following orders is correct for the activation energies of these reactions?
log k a
d c
b
1/ T
1) E d E c E d E b 2) E b E d E c E a
3) E b E a E d E c 4) E c E a E d E b
20. Two monomers in maltose are:
1) -D-Glucose and -D-Glucose 2) -D-Glucose and -D-Glucose
3) -D- Glucose and -D-Fructose 4) -D-Glucose and -D- Galactose
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
22. In the following sequence of reactions, the maximum number of atoms present in
molecule ‘C’ in one plane is ________
CH3Cl(1.eq.)
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →C
Re d hot
Cu tube
B Anydrous AlCl 3
(A is a lowest molecular weight alkyne)
23. Complexes ( ML5 ) of metals Ni and Fe have ideal square pyramidal and trigonal
bipyramidal geometries, respectively. The sum of the 900 ,1200 and 1800 L-M-L angles
in the two complexes is _________
24. At constant volume, 4 mol of an ideal gas when heated from 300 K to 500 K changes
its internal energy by 5000 J. The molar heat capacity at constant volume is ______
25. For an electrochemical cell
Sn ( s) Sn 2+ ( aq.1M) Pb2+ ( aq,1M) Pb ( s)
Sn 2 +
The ratio 2 + when this cell attains equilibrium is ___________
Pb
(Given: E 0 2+ = −0.14V.
sn Sn
2.303RT
E 0 2+ = −0.13V, = 0.06
Pb Pb F
09-01-2020_Shift-01
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
2−
26. Pd ( F )( CI )( Br )( I ) has n number of geometrical isomers. Then , the spin-only
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28. Identify (A) in the following reaction sequence :
() 3
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
i CH MgBr
A (ii ) H , H 2O
+ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯
O3 / Zn , H 2O
→ ( ii ) H + , H 2O
(iii ) Conc.H2SO4 /
1) 2)
3) 4)
29. According to the following diagram, A reduces BO2 when the temperature is :
1) 14000 C 2) 12000 C
1) 2) 3) 4)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
31. Which of these will produce the highest yield in Friedel Crafts reaction?
1) 2) 3) 4)
32. ‘X’ melts at low temperature and is a bad conductor of electricity in both liquid and
solid state. X is :
1) Carbon tetrachloride 2) Silicon carbide
3) Mercury 4) Zinc sulphide
33. The compound that cannot act both as oxidising and reducing agent is:
1) H 2O2 2) HNO2 3) H 3 PO4 4) H 2 SO3
34. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4th Bohr orbit is :
1) 2 a0 2) 8 a0 3) 4 a0 4) 6 a0
35. The correct order of heat of combustion for following alkadienes is :
a) b) c)
1) ( c ) ( b ) ( a ) 2) ( b ) ( c ) ( a )
3) ( a ) ( b ) ( c ) 4) ( a ) ( c ) ( b )
36. If enthalpy of atomization for Br2( I ) is x kJ / mol and bond enthalpy for Br2 is
y kJ / mol , the relation between them:
1) is x y 2) is x y 3) does not exist 4) is x = y
37. The electronic configurations of bivalent europium and trivalent cerium are:
(atomic number: Xe = 54, Ce = 58, Eu = 63 )
1) Xe 4 f 4 and Xe 4 f 9 2) Xe 4 f 7 and Xe 4 f 1
3) Xe 4 f 7 6s 2 and Xe 4 f 2 6s 2 4) Xe 4 f 2 and Xe 4 f 7
38. The acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides, respectively, are :
1) MgO, Cl2O, Al2O3 2) Cl2O, CaO, P4O10
3) N 2O3 , Ll2O, Al2O3 4) Na2O, SO3 , Al2O3
39. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be:
1) O2 or O2− 2) O2 or O2+ 3) O2 , O2− or O2+ 4) O2− or O2+
40. The increasing order of basicity for the following intermediates is
(from weak to strong)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
41. Complex X of composition Cr ( H 2O )6 CI n has a spin only magnetic moment of 3.83
BM. It reacts with AgNO3 and shows geometrical isomerism. The IUPAC
nomenclature of X is :
1) Dichloridotetraaqua chromium (IV) chloride dihydrate
2) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium (IV) chloride dehydrate
3) Hezaaqua chromium (III) chloride
4) Tetraaquadichlorido chromimum (III) chloride dihydrate
42. The K sp for the following dissociation is 1.6 10−5
PbCl2( s ) Pb(2aq+ ) + 2Cl(−aq )
Which of the following choices is correct for a mixure of
300mL 0.134 M Pb ( NO3 )2 and100 mL 0.4 M NaCl ?
1) Q K sp 2) Not enough data provided
3) Q Ksp 4) Q = Ksp
43. A chemist has 4 samples of artificial sweetener A,B,C and D . To identify these
samples, he performed certain experiments and noted the following observations:
i) A and D both form blue-violet colour with ninhydrin
ii) Lassaigne extract of C gives positive AgNO3 test and negative Fe4 Fe ( CN )6
3
test
iii) Lassaigne extract of B and D gives positive sodium nitroprusside test.
Based on these observations which option is correct ?
1) A: Saccharin; B: Alitame; C:Sucralose; D: Aspartame
2) A: Aspartame; B: Saccharin; C: Sucralose; D: Alitame
3) A:Aspartame; B: Alitame; C:Sacharin; D: Sucralose
4) A: Alitame; B; Saccharin; C:Aspartame; D: Sucralose
44. The major product (Y ) in the following reactions is :
CH 3
CH 3 − CH − C CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
HgSO4 , H 2 SO4
H 2O
→X
(i )C2 H5MgBr , H 2O
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(ii ) Conc.H 2SO4 / →Y
1) 2)
3) 4)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
45. B has a smaller first ionization enthalpy than Be. Consider the following statements :
I) it is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron
II) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of electrons
than the 2s electrons of Be
III) 2s electron has more penetration power than 2p electron
IV) atomic radius of B is more than Be
(atomic number B = 5, Be = 4 )
The correct statements are :
1) (I), (II) and (III 2) (I), (III) and (IV)
3) (I), (II) and (IV) 4) (II), (III) and (IV)
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal
place.(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. The molartiry of HNO3 in a sample which has density 1.4 g/mL and mass percentage
of 63% is ______ ( Molecular weight of HNO3 = 63 )
47. The mass percentage of nitrogen in histamine is ______
48. 108 g of silver (molar mass 108 g mol −1 ) is deposited at cathode from AgNO3 ( aq )
solution by a certain quantity of electricity. The volume (in L) of oxygen gas
produced at 273 K and 1 bar pressure from water by the same quantity of electricity is
49. The hardness of a water sample containing 10−3 M MgSO4 expressed as CaCO3
equivalents (in ppm) is ______
(molar mass of MgSO4 is 120.37 g/mol)
50. How much amount of NaCl should be added to 600 g of water ( = 1.00 g / mL ) to
decrease the freezing point of water to −0.20 C ?
______ ( The freezing point depression constant for water =2 K kg mol −1 )
09-01-2020_Shift-01
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. The number of SP 2 hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene is
1) 6 2) 24 3) 12 4) 18
27. The decreasing order of basicity of the following amines is
NH2
N
NH2
H
(I) ( II )
( III) ( IV )
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
1) ( III ) ( I ) ( II ) ( IV ) 2) ( II ) ( III ) ( IV ) ( I )
3) ( III ) ( II ) ( I ) ( IV ) 4) ( I ) ( III ) ( IV ) ( II )
28. Consider the following reactions,
0
(i) NaNO2/ HCl, 0-5 C
(ii) -naphthol/ NaOH
Colored Solid
[P]
Br2 /H2O
C7H6NBr3
CH3
CH CH CH
1) 2) 3
3)3
4) 3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
33. In the following reaction A is
H O
(i) Br2, hv
(iv) (CH3)2S
1) 2) 3) 4)
34. 5g of zinc is treated separately with an excess of
a) dilute hydrochloric acid and b) aqueous sodium hydroxide
The ratio of the volumes of H 2 evolved in these two reactions is
1) 1:1 2) 1: 2 3) 2 :1 4) 1: 4
35. In the figure shown below reactant A (represented by square) is in equilibrium with
product B (represented by circle). The equilibrium constant is
1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) 8
36. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of oxygen required( in ppm):
1) by anaerobic bacteria to breakdown inorganic waste present in a water body
2) for the photochemical breakdown of waste present in 1 m3 volume of a water body
3) for sustaining life in a water body
4) by bacteria to break-down organic waste in a certain volume of a water sample
37. The first and second ionization enthalpies of a metal are 496 and
4560kJ mol-1 respectively. How many moles of HCl and H 2SO4 ,respectively, will be
needed to react completely with 1 mole of the metal hydroxide?
1) 2 and 0.5 2) 1 and 1 3) 1 and 2 4) 1 and 0.5
38. Which of the following reactions will not produce a racemic product?
H3C
HCl
CH3
CH3 H
1) 2)
O
HBr
CH3CH2CH=CH2 CH3 - C CH2CH3 HCN
3) 4)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
39. The solubility product of Cr ( OH )3 at 298K is 6.0 10−31 . The concentration of hydroxide
ions in a saturated solution of Cr (OH )3 will be
1) ( 4.86 10−29 ) 2) (18 10−31 ) 3) ( 2.22 10−31 ) 4) (18 10−31 )
1 1 1 1
4 4 4 2
Pressure
Pressure
1) Time
2) Time
Pressure
Pressure
3) Time
4) Time
Page | 78
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal
place.(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. The sum of the total number of bonds between chromium and oxygen atoms in
chromate and dichromate ions is _____________
47. Consider the following reactions
( i )CH MgBr
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 3
( ii ) H O
+ B ⎯⎯⎯
Cu
573 K
→ 2-methyl- 2- butane
3
S1
S2
• • • •
•
Ideal gas • •
49. A sample of milk splits after 60 min. at 300 K and after 40 min. At 400 K when the
population of lactobacillus acidophilus in it doubles. The activation energy (in
KJ/mol) for this process is closest to________ Given, R = 8.3J −1K −1 , ln = 0.4, e −3 = 4.0
2
3
50. 10.30 mg of O2 is dissolved into a liter of sea water of density 1.03 g/ml. The
concentration of O2 in ppm is ___________
Page | 79
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
PRACTICE TEST-2:
26) 1 27) 1 28) 1 29) 4 30) 1 31) 3 32) 1 33) 1 34) 1 35) 4
36) 3 37) 1 38) 2 39) 3 40) 1 41) 1 42) 1 43) 1 44) 4 45) 4
46) 1.9 47) 500 48) 800 49) 9.5 50) 12.4
PRACTICE TEST-3:
26) 2 27) 1 28) 2 29) 3 30) 1 31) 3 32) 1 33) 2 34) 3 35) 2
36) 3 37) 2 38) 4 39) 1 40) 4 41) 2 42) 4 43) 1 44) 2 45) 4
46) 0.22 47) 156 48) 4.55 49) 6 50) 7
PRACTICE TEST-4:
26) 4 27) 4 28) 1 29) 4 30) 3 31) 4 32) 1 33) 4 34) 2 35) 2
36) 4 37) 3 38) 3 39) 2 40) 1 41) 3 42) 1 43) 4 44) 1 45) 1
46) 14.3 47) 494.26 48) 1200 49) 30.33 50) 1.2
PRACTICE TEST-5:
26) 3 27) 3 28) 1 29) 3 30) 3 31) 3 32) 1 33) 3 34) 2 35) 4
36) 1 37) 4 38) 4 39) 4 40) 3 41) 2 42) 4 43) 2 44) 3 45) 1
46) 1.41 47) 3.14 48) 6.25 49) 1 50) 17.32
PRACTICE TEST-6:
26) 3 27) 1 28) 2 29) 4 30) 1 31) 3 32) 2 33) 3 34) 2 35) 2
36) 2 37) 3 38) 4 39) 3 40) 3 41) 4 42) 3 43) 2 44) 1 45) 3
46) 4705 47) 30.35 48) 285 49) 210 50) 2.83
PRACTICE TEST-7:
26) 1 27) 1 28) 4 29) 4 30) 1 31) 1 32) 1 33) 1 34) 1 35) 3
36) 3 37) 1 38) 2 39) 2 40) 3 41) 1 42) 4 43) 2 44) 4 45) 3
46) 0.72 47) 17 48) 3.47 49) 0.05 50) 5.49
Page | 80
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
PRACTICE TEST-8:
26) 1 27) 1 28) 4 29) 1 30) 1 31) 3 32) 1 33) 1 34) 4 35) 2
36) 3 37) 4 38) 2 39) 1 40) 4 41) 4 42) 3 43) 3 44) 4 45) 3
36) 2 37) 2 38) 3 39) 4 40) 3 41) 3 42) 3 43) 3 44) 1 45) 3
46) -15 47) 0.6 48) 12.5 49) 1.72 50) 0.07
PRACTICE TEST-10:
26) 2 27) 4 28) 4 29) 4 30) 1 31) 3 32) 3 33) 3 34) 1 35) 1
36) 2 37) 4 38) 2 39) 1 40) 3 41) 1 42) 1 43) 1 44) 2 45) 4
46) 1.0 47) 288.60 48) 720.79 49) 9.0 50) 350
PRACTICE TEST-11:
26) 4 27) 2 28) 1 29) 2 30) 1 31) 3 32) 1 33) 1 34) 4 35) 1
36) 2 37) 3 38) 4 39) 2 40) 3 41) 3 42) 3 43) 2 44) 4 45) 3
36) 1 37) 4 38) 3 39) 1 40) 1 41) 3 42) 1 43) 3 44) 4 45) 4
46) 0.30 47) 1.05 48) 125.04 49) 1.55 50) 0.70
PRACTICE TEST-13:
26) 3 27) 2 28) 1 29) 1 30) 1 31) 3 32) 1 33) 2 34) 4 35) 3
36) 1 37) 2 38) 4 39) 2 40) 3 41) 1 42) 2 43) 2 44) 1 45) 2
PRACTICE TEST-14:
26) 3 27) 3 28) 2 29) 3 30) 4 31) 1 32) 3 33) 4 34) 3 35) 2
36) 1 37) 2 38) 2 39) 3 40) 1 41) 1 42) 4 43) 2 44) 1 45) 3
46) 195.14 47) 1.0 48) 1.2 49) 3.47 50) 0.77
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India. Jee-Main_Chemistry_Practice Test_Papers
PRACTICE TEST-15:
26) 2 27) 4 28) 2 29) 3 30) 3 31) 1 32) 2 33) 2 34) 1 35) 3
36) 4 37) 4 38) 4 39) 2 40) 3 41) 3 42) 1 43) 3 44) 3 45) 3
46) 8 47) 1.57 48) 1.0 49) 7 50) 82.16
Jee-Main-2020 (Jan)_Final_Q.Papers_Key
07-01-2020_Shift-01:
26) 3 27) 4 28) 4 29) 3 30) 3 31) 4 32) 2 33) 2 34) 1 35) 3
36) 1 37) 3 38) 4 39) 3 40) 4 41) 4 42) 4 43) 4 44) 2 45) 4
47) 23.00 48) 1.66
46) 10.60 to to 49) 2 50) -2.70
23.03 1.67
07-01-2020_Shift-02:
26) 4 27) 1 28) 2 29) 1 30) 3 31) 3 32) 1 33) 3 34) 1 35) 1
36) 4 37) 4 38) 1 39) 4 40) 3 41) 1 42) 1 43) 4 44) 2 45) 1
47) 5.22 48) 0.36
46) 9 to to 49) 18 50) -192. / -85
5.24 0.38
08-01-2020_Shift-01:
26) 1 27) 3 28) 3 29) 4 30) 2 31) 3 32) 3 33) 4 34) 2 35) 2
36) 1 37) 2 38) 3 39) 3 40) 2 41) 2 42) 4 43) 4 44) 4 45) 1
46) 4.95 47) 1.52 49) 26.80 50) 48
to to 48) 3 to
4.97 27.00 J
1.53
08-01-2020_Shift-02:
26) 2 27) 4 28) 3 29) 2 30) 4 31) 3 32) 2 33) 1 34) 1 35) 1
36) 4 37) 1 38) 2 39) 3 40) 1 41) 2 42) 4 43) 4 44) 4 45) 1
46) 2130 47) 13 48) 20 49) 6.25 50) 2.16
09-01-2020_Shift-01:
26) 3 27) 3 28) 4 29) 1 30) 3 31) 1 32) 1 33) 3 34) 2 35) 3
36) 1 37) 2 38) 3 39) 4 40) 4 41) 4 42) 3 43) 2 44) 3 45) 1
46) 14 47) 37.84 48) 5.67 49) 100 50) 1.76
09-01-2020_Shift-02:
26) 4 27) 3 28) 1 29) 4 30) 4 31) 1 32) 3 33) 3 34) 1 35) 2
36) 4 37) 4 38) 2 39) 2 40) 3 41) 3 42) 4 43) 3 44) 3 45) 1
48) 2.17
46) 12 47) 6.65 to to 49) 3.94 to 4.00 (or) -3.98 to -4.00 50) 10.00
66.70
2.23
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