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CONTENTS
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry CQ-1 Chapter 17 Electrochemistry CO-87

Chapter 2 Structure of Atom CQ-5 Chapter 18 Chemical Kinetics CO-95
Chapter 3 Classification of Elements Chapter 19 Surface Chemistry CQ-103
and Periodicity in Properties CQ-11 Chapter 20 General Principles and
Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Processes of Isolation of
Structure CQ-15 Elements CQ-109
Chapter 5 States of Matter CO-21 Chapter 21 The p-Block Elements
Chapter 6 Thermodynamics CQ-25 (Group 15 to 18) CQ-113
Chapter 7 Equilibrium CO-33 Chapter 22 The d- and f- Block Elements CQ-119
Chapter 8 Redox Reactions CQ-41 Chapter 23 Coordination Compounds CQ-125
Chapter 9 Hydrogen CO-45 Chapter 24 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes CQ-133
Chapter 10 The s-Block Elements CO-49 Chapter 25 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers CQ-143
Chapter 11 The p-Block Elements Chapter 26 Aldehydes, Ketones and

(Group 13 and 14) CO-53 Carboxylic Acids CQ-151
Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Chapter 27 Amines CO-165

Principles and Techniques CO-57 Chapter 28 Biomolecules CQ-175
Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons CQ-65 Chapter 29 Polymers CO-181
Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry CO-73 Chapter 30 Chemistry in Everyday Life CQ-187
Chapter 15 The Solid State CQ-77 Answer Keys CA-1
Chapter 16 Solutions CO-81 Hints and Explanations CA-9
Some Basic Concepts of
CHAPTER1
Chemistry
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Topic 1: Atomic and Molecular Masses, 6. The amount ofarsenic pentasulphide that can be obtained
Mole Concept and Molar Masses when 35.5 g arsenic acid is treated with excess 8i S in the
presence of cone. HCI (assuming 100% conversion) is
1. Number of atoms in 560 g of Fe (atomic mass 56 g mot- 1) (1) 0.25 mol (2) 0.50 mol
is
(3) 0.333 mot (4) 0.125 mot
(l) twice that of70 g N (2) half that of20 g H (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-1)
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) none ofthe above 7. 5 moles of AB2 weigh 125 x 10-3 kg and 10 moles of
(AIEEE 2002) A2B2 weigh 300 x 10-3 kg. The molar mass ofA (MA) and
molar mass ofB (MA) in kg moi- 1 are
2. If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1 / 12, mass of carbon
(I) MA = 10 X 10-3 and MB = 5 X 10-3
atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass
of one mole of substance will (2) MA= 50 x 10-3 and MB = 25 x 10-3
(l) decrease twice. (3) MA= 25 x 10-3 and M8 = 50 x 10-3
(2) increase two fold. (4) MA= 5 x 10-3 and M8 = 10 x 10-3
(3) remain unchanged.
(JEE Main 2019,April)
(4) be a function ofthe molecular mass ofthe substance.
(AIEEE 2005) Topic 2: Percentage Composition
8. In an organic compound ofmolar mass 108 g mo1- 1 C, H
3. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg/PO4)2
and N atoms are present in 9: 1 : 3.5 by weight. Molecular
will contain 0.25 mol ofoxygen atoms?
formula can be
(1) 0.02 (2) 3.125 X 10-2
(1) C6H 8N2 (2) C 7H ION
(3) 1.25 X 10-2 (4) 2.5 X 10-2
(3) C 5 H 6N3 (4) C4Hl8N3
(AIEEE 2006) (AIEEE 2002)
4. The amount of oxygen in 3.6 mot of water is 9. An organic compound having molecular mass 60 is
found to contain C = 20%, H = 6.67% heating it gives
(1) 115.2 g (2) 57.6g
NH3 alongwith a solid residue. The solid residue gives
(3) 28.8 g (4) 18.4 g
violet colour with alkaline copper sulphate solution. The
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-1) compound is
(1) CH3 NCO (2) CH 3CONH 2
5. A+ 2B+ 3C � AB 2C 3
(3) (NH 2 )2CO (4) CH3CH 2CON H2
Reaction of 6.0 g ofA, 6.0 x 1023 atoms of B, and 0.036 (AIEEE 2005)
mol ofC yields 4.8 g of compound AB2Cy If the atomic
mass of A and C are 60 and 80 amu respectively, the 10. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an
atomic mass ofB is (Avogadro no.= 6 x 1023 ): empty container at 25 °C. The fraction ofthe total pres
(1) 70 amu (2) 60 amu sure exerted by oxygen is
(3) 50 amu (4) 40 amu ( 1) 1/2 (2) 2/3
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2) 1 273
3) x (4) 1/3
( 3 298
(AIEEE 2007)
JEE MAIN - CHEMISTRY
11. Experimentally it was found that a metal oxide has for boron (atomic mass= 10.8) from the reduction ofboron
mula M0_98O. Metal M, is present as M2+ and M3+ in its trichloride by hydrogen?
oxide. Fraction ofthe metal which exists as M3+ would be (1) 89.6 L (2) 67.2 L
(1) 4.08% (2) 6.05% (3) 44.8 L (4) 22.4 L
(3) 5.08% (4) 7.01% (AIEEE 2003)
(JEE Main 2013)
18. 25 mL ofa solution of barium hydroxide on titration with
12. A gaseous compound of nitrogen and hydrogen contains 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a litre value
12.5% (by mass) of hydrogen. The density of the com of35 mL. The molarity ofbarium hydroxide solution was
pound relative to hydrogen is 16. The molecular formula (1) 0.07 (2) 0.14
ofthe compound is (3) 0.28 (4) 0.35
(2) N3 H (AIEEE 2003)
(4) N2 H4
19. Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) are mixed
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2)
in the following manner. 480 mL of 1.5 M first solution
13. An organic compound contains C, H and S. The mini + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution. What is the molarity
mum molecular weight of the compound containing 8% of the final mixture?
sulphur is (atomic weight of S = 32 amu) (1) 1.20 M (2) 1.50 M
(1) 600 g mo1- 1 (2) 200 g mo1- 1 (3) 1.344 M (4) 2.70 M
(3) 400 g mo1- 1 (4) 300 g mo1- 1 (AIEEE 2005)
20. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol CHpH
14. An unknown chlorohydrocarbon has 3.55% of chlorine. is supplied. What is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol
If each molecule of the hydrocarbon has one chlorine in the solution?
atom only; chlorine atoms present in 1 g of chlorohydro (1) 0.190 (2) 0.086
carbon are
(3) 0.050 (4) 0.100
(Atomic wt. of Cl= 35.5 u; Avogadro constant= 6.023 x (AIEEE 2011)
1023 mol-')
21. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 mL of
(1) 6.023 X 1 020 (2) 6.023x10 9
0.5 (M) HCl with 250 mL of 2(M) HCI will be
(3) 6.023 X 1021 (4) 6.023 X 10 23
(1) 1.0 0 M (2) 1.75 M
(JEE Main 2018, Online)
(3) 0.975 M (4) 0.875 M
15. A 10 mg effervescent tablet containing sodium bicar (JEE Main 2013)
bonate and oxalic acid releases 0.25 mL of CO2 at
T = 298.15 K and p = l bar. If molar volume of CO 2 is 22. The amount of BaSO4 formed upon mixing 100 mL of
25.0 L under such condition, what is the percentage of 20.8% BaC12 solution with 50 mL of9.8% 8zSO4 solution
sodium bicarbonate in each tablet? will be: (Ba= 137, Cl= 35.5, S = 32, H = I and O= 16)
[Molar mass ofNaHCO3 = 84 g mol- 1] (1) 23.3 g (2) 11.65 g
(2) 8.4 (3) 30.6 g (4) 33.2 g
(l) 3 3.6
(3) 16.8 (4) 0.84
(JEE Main 2019, January) 23. The volume of 0.1 N dibasic acid sufficient to neutralize
1 g of a base that furnishes 0.04 mol of OH- in aqueous
16. The percentage composition of carbon by mole in solution is
methane is (1) 40 0 mL (2) 600 mL
(1) 75% (2) 80% (3) 200mL (4) 800 mL
(3) 25% (4) 20% (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2)
(JEE Main 2019,April) 24. 1 g ofa carbonate (M 2CO 3) on treatment with excess HCI
produces 0.0 1186 mo! ofCO2 . The molar mass ofM2 CO3
Topic 3: Stoichiometry and Stoichiomeric in g mo1- 1 is
Calculations (1) 118.6 (2) 11.86
17. What volume ofhydrogen gas, at 273 Kand 1 atm pres (3) 1186 (4) 84.3
sure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental (JEE Main 2017, Offline)
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SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY CQ-3
25. Excess ofNaOH (aq) was added to 100 mL ofFeCl/aq) (1) 136.8g (2) 17.1 g
resulting into 2.14 g of Fe(OH)3 . The molarity of FeCl3 (3) 68.4 g (4) 34.2 g
(aq) is (Given: Molar mass of Fe= 56 g mo1- 1 and molar
mass of C l = 35.5 g mol- 1) (JEE Main 2019, January)
(1) 0.2M (2) 1.8 M 32. The hardness of a water sample (in terms of equivalents
(3) 0.3 M (4) 0.6 M of CaCO3) containing 10-3 M CaSO4 is
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1) (Molar mass ofCaSO4 = 136 g mol- 1)
(1) 10 ppm (2) 50 ppm
26. What quantity (in mL) of a 45% acid solution of a mono-
protic strong acid must be mixed with a 20% solution (3) 90 ppm (4) 100 ppm
of the same acid to produce 800 mL of a 29.875% acid (JEE Main 2019, January)
solution?
33. 8 g of NaOH is dissolved in 18 g of Hp. Mole fraction
(1) 330 (2) 316
of NaOH in solution and molality (in mo! kg-1) of the
(3) 320 (4) 325
solution respectively are
(1) 0.2, 22.20 (2) 0.2, 11.11
27. A sample of NaCIO3 is converted by heat to NaCl with (3) 0.167, 11.11 (4) 0.167, 22.20
a loss of 0.16 g of oxygen. The residue is dissolved in (JEE Main 2019, January)
water and precipitated as AgCI. The mass of AgCI (in g)
obtained will be (Given: Molar mass of AgCI = 143.5 g 34. The volume strength of l M Hp 2
is (Molar mass of
moJ- 1) Hp2 = 34 g moJ- 1)
(1) 0.35 (2) 0.41 (1) 5.6 (2) 16.8
(3) 0.48 (4) 0.54 (3) 11.35 (4) 22.4
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (JEE Main 2019, January)
28. For per gram of reactant, the maximum quantity ofN2 gas 35. 100 mL of a water sample contains 0.8 1 g of calcium
is produced in which of the following thermal decompo- bicarbonate and 0.73 g of magnesium bicarbonate. The
sition reactions? (Given: At. wt.: Cr = 52 u, Ba = 137 u) hardness of this water sample expressed in terms of
(1) (NH 4\Crpis) ➔ N/g) + 4Hp(g) + Crp/s) equivalents of CaCO3 is (molar mass of calcium bicar-
bonate is 162 g moJ- 1 and magnesium bicarbonate is
(2) 2NH4NO3 (s) ➔2N/g) + 4Hp(g) + O/g)
146 g mol- 1)
(3) Ba(N3\(s) ➔Ba(s) + 3N/g)
( 1) 5,000 ppm (2) 1,000 ppm
(4) 2NH 3 (g)➔N/g) + 3H/g) (3) lO0ppm (4) 10,000ppm
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (JEE Main 2019,April)
29. A solution of sodium sulfate contains 92 g of Na+ ions
36. 0.27 g of a long chain fatty acid was dissolved in 100 cm3
per kilogram of water. The m olality of Na+ ions in that
of hexane. 10 mL of this solution was added dropwise
solution in mo! kg- 1 is
to the surface of water in a round watch g lass. Hexane
(1) 12 (2) 4 evaporates and a monolayer is formed. The distance from
(3) 8 (4) 16 edge to centre of the watch glass is 10 cm. W hat is the
(JEE Main 2019, January) he ight of the monolayer?
[Density of fatty acid = 0.9 g cm-3; n = 3]
30. For the following reaction, the mass of water produced
from 445 g ofC57H 110O6 is (1) 10-6 m (2) 10-s m
(3) 10- m 2 (4) 10--4 m
(1) 490 g (2) 445 g
37. The strength of 11.2 volume solution is Hp 2 is [Given
(3) 495 g (4) 890 g that molar mass ofH = 1 g mo1- 1 and O = 16 g moI- 1]
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) 13.6% (2) 3.4%
31. The amount of sugar (C 12H 2p 1) required to prepare 2 L (3) 34% (4) 1.7%
of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is (JEE Main 2019,April)
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CQ-4 JEE MAIN - CHEMISTRY
38. For a reaction, (1) 1.08 (2) 1.35

(3) 1.48 (4) 1.51
N/g) + 3H/g) ➔ 2NH/g)
Identify dihydrogen (H2) as a limiting reagent in the
following reaction mixtures. 40. The minimum amount of O/g) consumed per gram of
(1) 56 g ofN2 + 10 g ofH2 reactant for the reaction is (Given atomic mass: Fe = 56,
(2) 35 g ofN2 + 8 g ofH2 0 = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31, C = 12, H = 1)
(3) 28 g ofN2 + 6 g ofH2 (1) 4 Fe(s) + 3 O/g) ➔ 2 Fep/s)
(4) 14 g ofN2 + 4 g ofH2 (2) P/s) + 5 O/g) ➔ PPwCs)
(JEE Main 2019,April) (3) C3Hg(g) + 5 O/g) ➔ 3 CO/g) + 4 Hp(!)
39. What would be the molality of20% (mass/mass) aqueous (4) 2 Mg(s) + O/g) ➔ 2 MgO(s)
solution of KI?
(Molar mass of KI = 166 g mo1-1)
NUMERICAL VALUE QUESTIONS
41. To a mixture ofNaCI and Na 2CO 3 with a mass of 1.243 g which contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen only, and
was added to 50 mL of 0.24 M HCl (excess). The mix- m-toluidine. Compute the mass of the organic compound
ture was warmed to expel CO2 and then the unreacted that would produce 10 g m-toluidine.
HCI was titrated with 0.1 M NaOH. The titration required
22.9 mL of the NaOH solution. The percentage of NaCl 46. A solution with a volume of 500 mL contained a mixture
in the original mixture was _ _ __ of so;- and s2 O;- . A 100 mL portion of the solution
was found to react with 80 mL of0.05 M cr0;- in a basic
42. A mixture is known to contain both NaHCO3 and Na2CO3• solution to give cr0; . The only sulphur containing prod-
One gram of this mixture is dissolved in enough water to uct formed is so;-. After the reaction, the solution was
make 50 mL solution. This solution is added to 50 mL treated with excess of 0.2 M BaC12 solution, which pre-
of 0.3 M HCl solution. The reaction mixture is heated cipitated BaSO4 • Thi s solid was filtered, dried and found
to drive off all of the CO2 gas, and then 25 mL of reac- to weigh 0.933 g. What is the concentration of so;- in
tion mixture is titrated with 0.1 M NaOH solution. The the original so lution?
titration required 20 mL ofNaOH solution. The approx-
imate percentage of Na2CO3 in the original mixture is 47. An 13.8 g sample of ~CO3 was treated in such a way
that all of its carbon was used in the formation of the
compound ~Zn3[Fe(CN)6Ji. The mass (in grams) of this
43. A sample of mercury (II) sulphide contains 82.6% mer- product is _ _ __
cury by mass. The mass of HgS that can be made from
[Given: Atomic weight of K = 39 u, Zn = 65.5 u,
30 g of mercury is [At. wt. of Hg = 201, S = 32]
C= l 2 u, N= l4u]
44. A sample of a copper ore with a mass of 0.4 g was dis- 48. Under the right conditions, ammonia can be converted
solved in acid. A solution of potassium iodide was added, to nitrogen monoxide, NO, by the following reaction:
which reduces Cu 2+ to Cu + and oxidizes 1- into 1; . The NH3 +02 ➔ NO + H 2 O.
produced 1; requires exactly 30 mL of 0.02 M Na2 Sp3 How many grams of Hp could be formed from a mix-
to convert into r- again. If the ore contained copper ture of 51 g ofNH3 and 48 g of 0 2?
carbonate (CuCO3) , what is the percentage by mass of
CuCO3 in the ore? 49. Vitamin Ks contains 76.27% carbon by mass and has a
molecular mass 173.21 g mol- 1• How many carbon atoms
45. An organic compound is used commercially to pre- are in one Ks molecule?
vent premature drop of certain fruits from the tree. It is
70.58% carbon, 5.13% hydrogen, 5.49% nitrogen, and 50. 100 g of 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 aqueous solution of density
18.8% oxygen. If eaten, the organic compound reacts 1.5 gcm- 3 is mixed with 100 g of 0.1 M H 2SO4 of density
with water in the body to produce an innocuous product, 1.1 gcm-3. The pH of the final solution is _ _ __
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CHAPTER2

Topic 1: Developments Leading to the Bohr's 6. Ionization energy of gaseous Na atoms is 495.5 kJ mo1- 1•
Model of Atom The lowest possible frequency of light that ionizes a
sodium atom is (h = 6.626 x 10-34 J s, NA= 6.022 x 1023
1. T he energy required to break one mole of Cl-Cl bonds
mol- 1)
in Cl2 is 242 kJ mo1- 1• The longest wavelength of light
capable of breaking C l-Cl bonds is (c = 3 x 10 8 m s- 1 and (1) 7.50 X 104 S-1 (2) 4.76 X 1014 S- 1
NA = 6.02 x 1023 moi- 1) (3) 3.15 x 10 15 s- 1 (4) 1.24 x l 0 15 s- 1
(1 ) 494 nm (2) 594 nm (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
(3) 640 nm (4) 700 nm
(AIEEE 2010) 7. Ejection of the photoelectron from metal in the
photoelectric effect experiment can be stopped by
2. A gas absorbs a photon of355 nm and emits at two wave- applying 0.5 V when the radiation of250 nm is used. The
lengths. If one of the emissions is at 680 nm, the other is at work function of the metal is
(1) 325 nm ~~~ (2) 743 nm (1) 4 eV (2) 4 .5 eV
(3) 5 18 nm (4) 1035 nm
(3) 5 eV (4) 5.5 eV
(AIEEE 2011)
3. If A0 and A be the threshold wavele ngth and wavelength
of incident light, the velocity of photoelectron ejected 8. W hich of the following statements is false?
from the metal surface is
(1) Photon has momentum as well as wavelength.
(2) Splitting of spectral lines in electrical field is called
Stark effect.
(3) Rydberg constant has unit of energy.
(3) (4)
(4) Frequency of emitted radiation from a black body
goes from a lower wavelength to higher wavelength
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2) as the temperature increases.
4. Excited hydrogen atom emits light in the ultraviolet (JEE M ain 2018, Online)
region at 2.47 x 10 15 Hz. W ith this frequency, th e energy
of a sing le photon is (h = 6.63 x 10-34 J s) 9. Which of the graphs shown below does not represent
the relationship between incident light and the electron
(1) 8.041 X 10- 4o J (2) 2.680 X 10- 19 J
ejected from metal surface?
(3) 1.640xl0- 18 J (4) 6. lll x10- 17 J
5. If m and e are the mass and charge of the revolving e lec-
tron in the orbit of radius r for hydrogen atom, the total (1) K.E. of
energy of the revolving e lectron w ill be <f's
(1)
1 e2
2 r
(2)
e2
r
i 0
~ Energy of
me2 1e
2
(3) (4) light
r 2 r
(JEE Ma in 2014, Online Paper-3)
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13. In Bohr series of lines hydrogen spectrum, the third

(2) Number line from the red end corresponds to which one of the
of ~s fol lowing inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr
orbits in an atom of hydrogen?
r (I)
(3)
3
4
➔
➔
2
1
(2)
(4)
5 ➔
2 ➔ 5
2
0
-----+ Frequency of
light
(AIEEE 2003)
14. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in hydro-

gen atom electron falls from infinity to stationary state I ,
(3) K.E. of would be (Rydberg constant = 1.097 x 107 m- 1)
~s
(I) 91nm (2) 9.l x lO-s nm
r (3) 406 nm (4) 192 nm

(AIEEE 2004)
0
-----+ Frequency
15. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 x 106
of light
J mo1- 1• The energy required to excite the electron in the
atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(4) K.E. of (1) 8.51 x 105 J mo1- 1 (2) 6.56 x 10 5 J mo1- 1
(3) 7.56 x 105 J mo1- 1 (4) 9.84 x 105 J mo1- 1
T 0
(AIEEE 2008)
16. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 x 10- 18 J atom- 1.The

-----+ Intensity energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) ofLi2+ is
of light (1) 8.82 x 10-17 J atom- 1
(JEE Main 2019, January) (2) 4.41 x 10-16 J atom- 1
(3) -4.41 x 10- 11 J atom- 1
10. What is the work function of the metal if the light of
(4) -2.2 x 10-15 J atom-1
wavelength 4000 A generates photoelectrons of velocity
6 x 105 ms- 1 from it? (AIEEE 2010)
(Mass of electron = 9 x 10- 31 kg; Velocity of light =

3 x 108 ms-1; Planck's constant= 6.626 x 10-34 Js; Charge 17. Energyofanelectronisgivenby E= -2. 178 x 10-
18
1( :: J
of electron = 1.6 x 10-19 J ev- 1)
Wavelength of light required to excite an electron in an
(1) 0.9 eV (2) 3.1 eV hydrogen atom from level n = l to n = 2 will be
(3) 2. 1 eV (4) 4.0 eV (h = 6.62 x 10- 34 J s and c = 3.0 x 108 m s- 1)
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) 2.816 x 10- 1 m (2) 6.500 x 10-1 m
11. The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two spectral series (3) 8.500 x 10-1 m (4) 1.214 x 10-1 m
of hydrogen spectrum is found to be about 9. The spectral (JEE Main 2013)
series are
18. The energy of an electron in first Bohr orbit of H-atom is
(1) Lyman and Paschen - 13 .6 eV The energy value of electron in the excited state
(2) Balmer and Brackett ofLi2+ is
(3) Brackett and Pfund (1) -27.2 eV (2) 30.6 eV
(4) Paschen and Pfund (3) - 30.6 eV (4) 27.2 eV
(JEE Main 2019,April) (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-I)
Topic 2: Bohr's Model for Hydrogen Atom 19. Based on the equation
12. Energy ofH-atom in the ground state is - 13.6 eV, hence 18

M =-2.0x l 0- J (~ -~)
energy in the second excited state is n2 fli
(1) - 6.8 eV (2) - 3.4 eV
the wavelength of the light that must be absorbed to
(3) - 1.5 1 eV (4) - 4.53 eV excite hydrogen electron from level n = l to level n = 2
(AIEEE 2002) w ill be (h = 6.625 x 10-34 J s, c = 3 x 10 8 m s- 1)
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STRUCTURE OF ATOM CQ-7
(1) 1.325 X 10- 7 m (2) 1.325 X 10- 10 m 26. Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation of
(3) 2.650 X 10-7 m (4) 5.300 X 10-io m wavelength of about 900 nm. Which spectral line of
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2) H-atom is suitable for this purpose?
[RH= 1 x 105 cm- 1, h = 6.6 x 10- 34 Js, c = 3 x 108ms- 1]
20. Which of the following is the energy ofa possible excited
state of hydrogen? ( l) Balmer, 00 ➔ 2 (2) Pasch en, 5 ➔ 3
(1) -6.8eV (2) -3.4eV (3) Lyman, oo ➔ 1 (4) Paschen, oo ➔ 3
(3) +6.8 eV (4) +13.6 eV (JEE Main 2019, January)
(JEE Main 2015, Offline) 27. For any given series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen,
let ~v = v max - vmin be the difference in maximum and
21. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen atom is
minimum frequencies in cm-1. The ratio ~VLyman / ~VBalmer
(Planck's constant (h) = 6.6262 x 10-34 J s; mass of elec- is
tron = 9. 1091 x l 0-31 kg; Charge of electron (e) = 1.60210
( 1) 4 : 1 (2) 9: 4
x 10- 19 C; permittivity of vacuum ( £0 ) = 8.8541 85 x
10-12kg-1m-3A2)
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 27:5
(JEE Main 2019, April)
(1) 0.529 A (2) 2.12A
(3) 1.65 A (4) 4.76 A
Topic 3: Towards Quantum Mechanical Model of
(JEE Main 2017, Offline) the Atom
22. If the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of hydrogen
28. Uncertainty in position of a partic le of 25 g in space is
atom is A, then the longest wavelength in Paschen series
1o-sm. Hence, uncertainty in velocity (m s-1) is (Planck's
of He+ is
constant h = 6.6 x 10-34J s)
5A 36A
(1 ) (2) (1) 2.1 X 10-28 (2) 2.1 X 10-34
9 5
(3) 0.5 X 10- 34 (4) 5.0x 10-24
36A 9A
(3) (4) (AIEEE 2002)
7 5
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1) 29. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g
moving with a velocity of 10 metres per second is approx-
23. The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes transition imate ly (Planck 's constant= 6.63 x 10-34 J s)
from higher orbitals to orbital of radius 211.6 pm. This ( l ) l 0-33 metre (2) l 0-31 metre
transition is associated with
(3) 10- 16 metre (4) 10-25 metre
(1 ) Paschen series. (2) Brackett series.
(AIEEE 2003)
(3) Lyman series. (4) Balmer series.
(JEE Main 2017 Online Paper-2) 30. The orbital angular momentum for an e lectron revolving
in an orbit is given by .jl(l + 1) · (h/2n). This momentum
24. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from ni = 8 to for an s-electron w ill be given by
nr = n, the plot of wave number (v) against ( ~ ) will (1) + 1/2·(h / 2n) (2) zero
2
be (The Rydberg constant, RHis in wave number unit) (3) (h/2n) (4) ✓2 · (h/2n)
( l) Linear with intercept - RH (AIEEE 2003)
(2) Non-linear 31. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass= 9.1 x
(3) Linear with slope - RH l 0-31 kg) moving with a velocity 300 m s- 1, accurate up to
(4) Linear with slope - RH 0.001 %, will be (h = 6.63 x 10-34 J s)
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) 19.2x 10- 2 m (2) 5.76x10- 2 m
(3) 1.92 x 10-2 m (4) 3.84 x 10-2 m
25. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -1 3.6 eV
The energy of second excited state of He+ ion in eV is (AIEEE 2006)
(1) - 54.4 (2) - 3.4 32. Calculate the wavelength ( in nanometre) associated with
(3) -6.04 (4) - 27.2 a proton moving at 1.0 x 103 m s- 1(mass of proton= 1.67
x 10-27 kg and h = 6.63 x 10-34 J s).
(JEE Main 2019, January)
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(1) 0.032 nm (2) 0.40 nm

(3) 2.5 nm (4) 14.0 nm (2) 2- A,
2
(AIEEE 2009)
33. In an atom, an electron is mov ing with a speed of 600 (4) .±A,
1 9
ms- with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainty with which
the position of the electron can be located is (h = 6.6 x (JEE Main 2019,April)
10-34 kg m 2 s-1, mass of e lectron m. = 9. 1 x 10-31 kg)
Topic 4: Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom
( 1) l.52xl0--4m (2) 5. 10xl0-3 m
(3) 1.92 x 10- 3 m (4) 3.84 x 10-3 m 39. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is
(AIEEE 2009) correct for an electron in 4forbital?
l
34. A stream of e lectrons from a heated filament was passed (1) n = 4 I =3 m = +4 s = + -
' ' ' 2
between two charged plates kept at a potential difference
V esu. If e and m are charge and mass of an e lectron,
(2) n = 3 I =2 m = - 2 s = + -1
respectively, then the value of hf},, (where},,, is wavelength ' ' ' 2
associated w ith electron wave) is given by l
(3) n = 4 I = 3' m = + l ' s = + -2
( 1) ✓2meV (2) meV '
(3) 2meV (4) ✓meV
(4) n=4 I = 4 m-4 s= -2_
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) ' ' ' 2
(AIEEE 2004)
35. The de Broglie's wavelength of electron present in first
Bohr orbit of 'H' atom is 40. In a multi-electron atom, which of the following orbitals
described by the three quantum number will have the same
(1) 0.529 A (2) 2nx 0 .529 A energy in the absence of magnetic and e lectric fields?
(3) 0.529 A (4) 4 x 0.529 A (I) n = 1, I = 0, m = 0
2n
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (II) n = 2, I = 0, m = 0
(III) n = 2, I = 1, m = 1
36. The de Broglie wavelength (l) associated w ith a photo-
e lectron varies with the frequency (v) of the inc ident (IV) n = 3, I = 2, m = 0
radiation as, [ Vo is threshold frequency]: (V) n = 3, I = 2, m = 0
(1) A, ex: (2) A, ex: ( 1) (I) and (II) (2) (TI) and (III)
(v-v0 ) I
(v-vo)4 (3) (III) and (IV) (4) (IV) and (V)
(AIEEE 2005)
(3) A, ex: (4) ;., oc
1 42. Which of the following statements in relation to the
3
(v- v0 )2 (v - vo )2 hydrogen atom is correct?
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) 3s Orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbita l.
(2) 3p Orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital.
37. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in nth Bohr
(3) 3s and 3p Orbita ls are of lower energy than 3d
orbit in a hydrogenic atom is equal to 1.5 n a0 (a0 is Bohr
orbital.
radius), then the value of n!Z is
(4) 3s, 3p and 3d Orbitals a ll have the same energy.
(1) 0.40 (2) 1.50
(AIEEE 2005)
(3) 1.0 (4) 0.75
(JEE Main 2019, January) 42. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
represents the highest energy of an atom?
38. Ifp is the momentum of the fastest electron ej ected from
(l) n = 3, I= 0, m1 = 0, m, = + 1/2
a metal surface after the irradiation of light having wave-
(2) n=3, l= 1, m1 =1 ,m, = +1!2
length l, then for 1.5 p momentum of the photoelectron,
the wavelength of the light should be: (3) n =3,l=2, m1 = 1, m,=+l /2
(Assume kinetic ene rgy of ej ected photoelectron to be (4) n=4, l=0,m1 = 0,m,=+1!2
very high in comparison to work function) (AIEEE 2007)
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STRUCTURE OF ATOM CQ-9
43. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence (1) The probability density of finding the electron is
electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is max imum at the nucleus.
(I) 5,0,0, + 1/2 (2) 5, I, 0,+1/2 (2) The e lectron can be found at a distance 2a0 from the
(3) 5,1,1, + l /2 (4) 5,0,1, + l /2 nucleus.
(JEE Main 2014, Offiine) (3) The magnitude of the potential energy is double that
of its kinetic energy on an average.
44. If the principle quantum number n = 6, the correct (4) T he total energy of the e lectron is maximum when it
sequence of filling of electrons will be is at a distance a0 from the nucleus.
(1) ns ➔ np ➔ (n - l)d ➔ (n - 2)/ (JEE Main 2019, April)
(2) ns ➔ (n-2)/➔ (n-l)d ➔ np
48. The graph between If//1 2
and r (radial distance) is shown
(3) ns ➔ (n - 1) d ➔ (n - 2)/ ➔ np
be low. This represents
(4) ns ➔ (n - 2)/➔ np ➔ (n - 1) d
45. Which of the following combination of stateme nts is

true regarding the interpretation of the atomic orbitals?
(I) An e lectron in an orbital of high angular momen-
tum stays away from the nucleu s than an e lectron in r
the orbital of lower angular momentum.
(II) For a given value of the principal quantum number, ( 1) 3s-orbital (2) 2s-orbital
the size of the orbit is inversely proportional to the (3) 1s-orbital (4) 2p-orbital
azimuthal quantum number. (JEE Main 2019, April)
(III) According to wave mechanics, the ground state
49. The electrons are more like ly to be found
angular momentum is equal to !!__.
2-n:
(IV) The plot of If/ vs r for various azimuthal quantum t
v,(x)
numbers, shows peak shifting towards higher r a
va lue.
b
(1 ) (I), (IV) (2) (I), (II) +- -x
(3) (I), (III) (4) (II), (III)
C
46. The 7 1st e lectron of an element X w ith an atomic number
of 71 enters into the orbital:
( 1) in the region a and c (2) in the region a and b
(I) 6p (2) 4/ (3) only in the region a (4) only in the region c
(3) 5d (4) 6s (JEE Main 2019, April)
50. Among the following, the energy of2s-orbita l is lowest in
47. Which one of the following about an electron occupying (I) K (2) H
the l s orbital in a hydrogen atom is incorrect? (The Bohr
(3) Li (4) Na
radius is represented by ac).
51. If the value ofm1 for an e lectron in an atom is -3, what is 53. The total number of orbitals associated w ith the principal
the smallest value of / that the e lectron can have? quantum number 5 is _ _ __
52. An e lectron in the g round state of the hydrogen atom
54. The number of e lectrons in barium w ith quantum number
moves at an average speed of 5 x I 06 mis. If the speed m 1 =-I jg _ _ __
is know n to an uncertainty of20%, w hat is the minimum
uncertainty in its position? The mass of an electron is 55. The energy of photon is given as: ~ e/atom = 3.03 x 10-9 J
9.l xl0-31 kg. atom- 1 then, the wavelength (A) of the proton is (Given, h
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(Planck's constant) = 6.63 x 1o-34Js, c (velocity of light) 58. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level
= 3.00 x 108 ms- 1). of an atom is - - - ~
56. In a hydrogen atom, the energy of the first excited state is 59. What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be
- 3.4 eV Then, find out the K.E. of the same orbit of the associated with the following set of quantum numbers?
hydrogen atom. n = 3, I= 1 and m =- 1
57. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom 60. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 x 10-34 Js. The
is - 328 kJ mol- 1; hence the energy of fourth Bohr orbit speed of light is 3 x 1017 n ms- 1• Which value is closest to
would be _ _ __ the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with
frequency of 6 x 10 15 s- 1?
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Classification of Elements
CHAPTER3
and Periodicity in Properties

Topic 1: Electronic Configurations of Elements and 5. Which one the follow ing sets of ions represents the
the Periodic Table collection of isoelectronic species?
( 1) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, C l- (2) Na+, Mg 2+, AP+, c 1-
1. According to the periodic law of elements, the variation
in properties of elements is re lated to their (3) K+, C l-, Mg 2+, ScH (4) Na+, Ca2+, Sc 3+, F-
( 1) atomic masses.
(AIEEE 2004)
(2) nuclear masses. 6. In which of the fo llowing arrangements the order is not
(3) atomic numbers. according to the prope rty indicated against it?
(4) nuclear neutron- proton number ratios. ( 1) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ <Na+< F- : Increasing ionic size.
(AIEEE 2003)
(2) B < C < N < 0: Increasing first ionisation enthalpy.
2. Similarity in chemical properties of the atom s of elements
(3) I < Br < F < Cl: Increasing electron gain enthalpy.
in a group of the periodic table is most closely related to
(1 ) atomic numbers. (4) Li < Na< K < Rb: Increasing metallic radius (with
(2) atomic masses. negative sign).
(3) number of principal energy levels. (AIEEE 2005)
(4) number of valence electrons. 7. Of the fo llowing sets which one does not contain
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3) isoelectronic species?
(1 ) Po!-,So ~- , C lO~ (2) cN-, N 2 , c ;-,
3. In the long form of the periodic table, the valence she ll
electronic configuration of 5s25p 4 corresponds to the (3) P o~- , co;- , No ; c4) B o ;- , co;- , No;
element present in (AIEEE 2005)
(1) Group 16 and pe riod 6
8. The increasing order of the first ionisation enthalpies of
(2) Group 17 and period 5
the e lements B, P, S and F (lowest first) is
(3) Group 16 and pe riod 5
(1 ) F<S<P<B (2) P < S< B <F
(4) Group 17 and period 6
(3) B < P <S<F (4) B <S<P<F
(AIEEE 2006)
Topic 2: Periodic Trends in Properties of Elements 9. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of
che mical reactivity of the a lkali meta ls and the halogens
4. Which one of the following g roup ings represents a collec- are given. Which of these statements gives the correct
tion of isoelectronic species? (Atomic numbers: Cs : 55, picture?
B r: 35)
(1) The reactivity deceases in the a lkali meta ls but
(1 ) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ increases in the halogens w ith increase in atomic
(2) W -, F-, Na+ number down the group.
(3) Be, A IH, c 1- (2) In both the a lkali meta ls and the ha logens the chem-
(4) Ca2 +, Cs+, Br ical reactivity decreases w ith increase in atomic
(AIEEE 2003) number down the g roup.
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(3) Chemical reactivity increases w ith increase in (3) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn: number of oxidation states
atomic number down the group in both the a lka li (4) v2+ < cr2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+: paramagnetic behaviour
metals and ha logens. (JEE Main 2013)
(4) In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the
ha logens it decreases w ith increase in atomic num- 16. Which of the following represents the correct order of
be r down the group . increasing first ionisation enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, Se and
(AIEEE 2006) A r?
(I ) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
10. Which one of the fo llowing sets of ions represents a col-
lection of isoelectronic species? (2) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
(1 ) K + ,ct- ,Ca 2+ ,Sc3+ (3) Ca< Ba<S<Se<Ar
(4) Ca<S<Ba<Se<Ar
(2) Ba 2+ ,Sr 2+ ,K+ ,s2 -
(JEE Main 2013)
2 2 2
(3) N - , 0 - , F- , S -
17. The first ioni sation potential of Na is 5. 1 eV T he value of
(4) Li+ , Na+ ,Mg 2+ ,Ca 2+ electron gain enthalpy of Na+ wi ll be
(AIEEE 2006) (1) - 5.1 eV (2) - 10.2 eV
(3) +2.55 eV (4) - 2.55 eV
11. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the
isoelectronic species? (JEE Main 2013)
(1) c ;- ,o;,co,No 18. Which one of the following has largest ionic radius?
(2) No+,c;- ,cw,N 2 (1) Li+ (2) 0 2- 2
(3) B3+ (4) F-

(3) cN- , N 2 , o ;- ,c o ;- (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
(4) N 2 ,o; , No+ , co
19. The ionic radii (in A) ofN3 -, 0 2 - and F- are, respectively
(AIEEE 2008)
(1) 1.36, 1.7 1 andl.40 (2) 1.71, 1.40 and l.36
12. T he correct sequence whic h shows decreasing order of
(3) 1.7 1, 1.36 and 1.40 (4) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
the ionic radii of the elements is
(JEE Main 2015, Offline)
(1) 0 2- > F- >Na+ > Mg2+ > A t3+
(2) AP+> Mg 2+ >Na+> F- > 0 2- 20. Which of the following atom s has the highest first ioniza-
(3) Na+ > Mg2+ >AP+> 0 2- > F- tion energy?
(4) Na+ > F- > Mg2+ > 0 2- > A IH (1) Sc (2) Rb
(AIEEE 2010) (3) Na (4) K
13. Which one of the following order represents the correct
sequence of the increasing basic nature ofthe given oxides? 21. Aqueous solution of which salt w ill not contain ions with
(I) MgO < ~O < Alp < Nap the electronic configuration ls 22s22p63s23p6?
3
(2) Nap < ~O < MgO < A tp 3 (1) NaF (2) KBr
(3) ~O <Nap< Alp 3 < MgO (3) NaCl (4) Cal 2
(4) Alp < MgO <Nap< ~O
3 (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2)
(AIEEE 2011)
22. The following statements concern e lements in the peri-
14. T he in creasing orde r of the ionic radii of the given odic table. Which of the following is true?
isoelectronic species is
(1) For Group 15 e lements, the stability of +5 oxidation
(1) c 1-, Ca2+, K+, s2- (2) s2- , c 1-, Ca2+, K+
state increases down the group.
(3) Ca2+, K+, c 1-, s2- (4) K+, s2-, Ca2+, c i-
(2) Elements of Group 16 have lower ionisation
(AIEEE 2012) enthalpy va lues compared to those of Group 15 in
the corresponding periods.
15. Wh ich of the fo llowing arrangeme nts does not represent
the correct order of the property stated against it? (3) The G roup 13 e lements are all metals.
(1 ) N i2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn 2+: ionic size (4) All the e lements in Group 17 are gases.
(2) CoH < FeH < cr3+< Sc3+: stability in aqueous solution (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2)
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CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES CQ-13
23. T he group having isoelectronic species is 29. When the first electron gain enthalpy (11esH) of oxygen is
(I ) 0 r, Na, Mg +
2
-,
2
(2) o-, r, Na+, Mg2+ -141 kJ mot- 1, its second e lectron gain enthalpy is
(3) 0 2-, r, Na+, Mg2+ (4) o-, r, Na, Mg+ ( I ) a more negative value than the first.
(JEE Main 2017, Offiine) (2) almost the same as that of the first.
(3) negative, but less negative than the first.
24. Consider the following ionization entha lpies of two
(4) a positive value.
elements A and B.
Element Ionization enthalpy (kJ mot-1) 30. The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, A l, and S
is
1st 2nd 3rd
( I ) C<S<Cs<AI (2) S < C < A l < Cs
A 899 1757 14847
(3) C < S <Al < Cs (4) S < C < Cs < A l
B 737 1450 7731 (JEE Main 2019, January)
W hich of the fo llowing statements is correct? 31. The correct option w ith respect to the Pauling electroneg-
(1) Both 'A' and 'B' belong to Group l w here 'B' comes ativity values of the e lements is
below 'A'. (1) Te>Se (2) Ga< Ge
(2) Both 'A' and 'B' belong to Group 1 where 'A' comes (3) Si <A l (4) P > S
below 'B'. (JEE Main 2019, January)
(3) Both 'A' and 'B' belong to Group 2 where 'B' comes
below 'A'. 32. The correct order of atomic radii is
(4) Both 'A' and ' B' belong to Group 2 where 'A' comes (1) N>Ce>Eu>Ho (2) Ho > N > Eu > Ce
be low 'B'. (3) Ce> Eu > H o > N (4) Eu > Ce> Ho> N
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1) (JEE Main 2019, January)
25. T he electronic configuration with the highest ionization 33. The size of the iso-electronic species c 1-, Ar and Ca2+ is
enthalpy is affected by
(1) [Ne]3s 23p1 (2) [Ne]3s 23p2 (1) azimuthal quantum number of valence shell.
(3) 2
[Ne]3s 3p 3
(4) 0 2
[Ar]3d' 4s 4p 3 (2) e lectron-e lectron interaction in the outer orbitals.
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2) (3) Principal quantum number of valence shell.
(4) nuclear charge.
26. For Na+, Mg2+, p- and 0 2- ; the correct order of increasing
ionic radii is
(1) 0 2- < p- <Na+< Mg2+ 34. The isoelectronic set of ions is
(2) Na+< Mg2+ < p- < 0 2- (1) w-, 0 2-, p- and Na+
(3) Mg2+ <Na+< p- < 0 2- (2) N 3-, Li+, Mg2+ and 0 2-
(4) Mg2+ < 0 2- <Na+< r (3) p- , Li+, Na+ and Mg2+
(4) Li+, Na+, 0 2- and p-
27. T he correct order of electron affinity is
(1) F>Cl>0 (2) F > 0 > Cl
35. In comparison to boron, beryllium has
(3) Cl > F > 0 (4) 0>F>CI
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (1) lesser nuclear charge and lesser first ionization
entha lpy.
28. In general, the properties that decrease and increase down (2) greater nuclear charge and lesser first ionization
a group in the periodic table, respectively, are entha lpy.
(1) atomic radius and electronegativity. (3) greater nuc lear charge and greater first io nization
(2) e lectron gain enthalpy and electronegativity. entha lpy.
(3) e lectronegativity and atomic radius. (4) lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionization
(4) e lectronegativity and e lectron gain enthalpy. entha lpy.
(JEE Main 2019, January) (JEE Main 2019, April)
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36. The successive ionization energies (IE) for an element A 38. If an element X forms the highest oxide of the formula
are as follows. X03, then it belongs to Group _ _ __
A ~ A+ ~ A 2+ ~ A 3+ ➔ ... 39. The group number for the inner transition element is
1 1
If the IE 1 and IE3 values are 27 kJ mo1- and 51 kJ mo1-
40. Which of the following elements form amphoteric
respectively, then the value of IE2 is _ _ _ __
oxides?
kJ moI- 1•
Be, B, Al, Ga, Sn, Zn, Ge, Cu, Mn.
37. What is the atomic number of the element which belongs
to fifth period and Group 16?
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Chemical Bonding and
CHAPTER4
Molecular Structure

Topic 1: Kossel-Lewis Approach to 7. Which one of the foll owing pairs of molecules will have
Chemical Bonding permanent dipole moments for both members?
(1) SiF 4 and NO2 (2) NO 2 and CO2
1. Among the following the maximum covalent character is
shown by the compound (3) NO 2 and 0 3 (4) SiF4 and CO2
(AIEEE 2003)
(1) SnC12 (2) A 1Cl3
(3) MgC12 (4)FeC12 8. W hich one the following ions has the highest value of
(AIEEE 2011) ionic radius?
2. Which of the following are Lewis acids? (1) Li+ (2) F-
(1 ) A1C l3 and SiC14 (2) PH3 and SiC14 (3) 0 2- (4) B3+
(3) B C13 and A1Cl3 (4) PH3 and BC13 (AIEEE 2004)
(JEE Main 2018, Offline) 9. The correct order of bond angles (smallest first) in H2 S,
3. Which of the following is a Lewis acid? NH 3, BF3 and SiH 4 is
(1) PH3 (2) B(CH 3\ (1) H 2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3
(3) NaH (4) NF3 (2) H 2S < NH 3 < BF3 < SiH4
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (3) H 2 S < NH 3 < SiH4 < BF3
(4) N H 3 < H 2 S < SiH 4 < BF3
Topic 2: Ionic or Electrovalent Bond and (AIEEE 2004)
Bond Parameteres
10. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms
4. Bond angle of 109°28' is found in in calcium carbide are
(1) NH 3 (2) Hp (1) one sigma, one p i.
+ (2) one sigma, two pi.
(4) N H4
(3) two sigma, one pi.
(AIEEE 2002)
(4) two sigma, two pi.
5. Select correct statement: (AIEEE 2005)
(1 ) W hen a covalent bond is formed, transfer of elec- 11. The molecu le hav ing sma llest bond angle is
trons takes place.
(1) NC13 (2) AsC13
(2) Pure H 2O does not conta in any ion.
(3) SbC13 ( 4) PC13
(3) A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome
(AIEEE 2012)
repulsive forces.
(4) HF is less polar than HBr. 12. The intermo lecular interaction that is dependent on the
(AIEEE 2002) inverse cube of distance between the mo lecules is
(1) ion-dipole interaction .
6. Which one of the following compounds has the sma llest
bond angle in its molecule? (2) London force.
(3) hydrogen bond.
(1 ) SO2 (2) OH 2
(4) ion-ion interaction.
(3) H2S (4) NH 3
(AIEEE 2003)
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13. T he bond angle H- X -H is the greatest in the 19. In whi ch of the following molecules/ions are all the
compound bonds not equal?
(1) PH3 (2) CH4 (1) SF4 (2) SiF4
(3) NH3 (4) Hp (3) XeF4 (4) BF;
(JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2) (AIEEE 2006)
14. The decreasing order of bond angles in BF3, NH3, PF3 and 20. The structure of IF7 is
1; is (1) trigonal bipyramidal.
(2) octahedral.
(1) 1; > NH 3 > PF3 > BF3
(3) pentagonal bipyramida l.
(2) 1; > BF3 > NH 3 > PF3 (4) square pyramidal.
(AIEEE 2011)
(3) BF3 > r; > PF3 > NH3
21. In which of the fo llowing pairs the two species are not
(4) BF3 > NH3 > PF3 > 1; isostructural?
(1) co;- and NO;
15. Which of the fo llowing statement is correct with respect (2) Pct; and SiC14
to bond angle?
(3) PF5 and BrF5
(1) The F- S- F angle in SF2 is more than 109.5°.
(2) The H- N- N angle in N 2 H 2 is approximately 180°. (4) AIFt and SF6
(3) The F- Kr- F angle in KrF4 is 90°. (AIEEE 2012)
(4) The CI- N-0 angle in NOC! is more than 120°.
22. Shapes of certain interhalogen compounds are stated
(JEE Advanced 2019)
below. Which one of them is not correctly stated?
(1) IF7 : pentagonal bipyramid
Topic 3: Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion
(VSEPR) Theory (2) BrF5 : trigonal bipyramid
(3) BrF3 : planar T-shaped
16. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules (4) ICl3 : planar dimeric
of both species is
(1) CF4 , SF4
(3) BF3, PCl 3 23. Which one of the fo llowing does not have a pyramidal
PF5, IFS
shape?
(AIEEE 2003)
(1) (CH3) 3N (2) (SiH3\N
17. Which one of the fo llowing has the regular tetrahedral (3) P(CH3\ (4) P(SiH3)3
structure?
(1) XeF4
(2) [Ni(CN)l- 24. The geometry ofXeOF4 byVSEPR theory is
(3) BF4- (1) trigonal bipyramidal.
(4) SF4 (2) square pyramidal.
(AIEEE 2004) (3) octahedral.
(4) pentagonal planar.
18. The molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF 4 are
(1) the same w ith 2, 0 and I lone pairs of electrons.
(2) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of e lectrons on 25. The group having triangular planar structure is
the central atoms, respectively. (1) NCl3, BCl3, SO3
(3) different with 0, I and 2 lone pa irs of e lectrons on (2) co;-, NO; , SO3
the central atom, respectively.
(3) N H so co;-
3
, ,
(4) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of e lectrons on 3
the central atom, respectively. (4) BF3, NF3, co;-

(AIEEE 2005) (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2)
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CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE CQ-17
26. T he incorrect geometry is represented by

( I) BF3 - trigona l planar
33. The number and type of bonds in c;- ion in CaC 2
are
( l) one CJ bond and one n- bond
(2) Hp - bent
(2) n- bonds
one CJ bond and two
(3) NF3 - trigonal planar
(3) two CJ bonds and two n- bonds
(4) AsF5 - trigonal bipyramidal
(4) two CJ bonds and one n- bond
27. T he correct statement about ICl5 and ICI~ is
34. Which of the following molecules has two sigma ( CJ) and
( I) both are isostructural. two pi (n) bonds?
(2) ICl5 is trigona l bipyramidal and IC I~ is tetrahedral. ( I) C 2H 4 (2) N2 F2
(3) C 2H 2Cl2 (4) HCN
(3) ICl5 is square pyramidal and IC I~ is tetrahedral.
(4) IC l5 is square pyramidal and IC I~ is square planar.
35. sp 3d2 Hybridization is not displayed by
(1) SF6 (2) PF5
28. T he correct statement among the fo llowing is (3) [CrF6]3- (4) BrF5
( I) (SiH3) 3N is plan ar and less basic than (CH3\N. (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1)
(2) (SiH3) 3N is pyramida l and more basic than (CH 3) 3N. 36. Which of the fo llowing conversions involves change in
(3) (SiH3) 3N is pyramidal and less basic than (CH) 3N . both shape and hybridization?
(4) (SiH3) 3N is plan ar and more basic than (CH3) 3N. (1) NH3 ➔ NH; (2) CH 4 ➔ C 2H 6
(3) Hp ➔ Hp+ (4) BF3 ➔ BF;
Topic 4: Valence Bond Theory and Hybridization (JEE Main 2018, Online)
29. Hybridization of the underline atom changes in 37. The type of hybridization and number of lone pair(s) of
( I) AIH3 changes to AIH~ electrons of Xe in Xe0F4 , respectively, are
(1) sp 3d and I (2) sp3d and 2
(2) H~ changes to 8i0+
(3) sp3d and 2 (4) sp 3d and I
(3) NH3 changes to NH;
(4) in a ll cases
(AIEEE 2002) 38. The ion that has sp3d2 hybridization for the central atom,
is
30. A square planar complex is formed by hybridization of
the fo llowing atomic orbitals
(1) [IC t4 r (2) [IC t2 r
(1 ) S, P,, Py + P, (2) S,P,,Py,P,, d (3) [IF r
6
(4) [BrFX
(3) d, s,pX , py (4) s,p,,py,P,, d (JEE Main 2019, April)
(AIEEE 2002)
Topic 5: Molecular Orbital Theory, Bonding in
31. T he maximum number of 90° angles between bond pair
Some Homonuclear Diatomic Molecules
of electrons is observed in
and Hydrogen Bonding
(l ) dsp3 hybridization.
(2) sp3d2 hybridization. 39. Increasing order of bond strength of 0 2, o; , o;- and
(3) dsp2 hybridization. o; is
(4) sp3d hybridization. (I ) o; <0 <0; <0;-
2
(AIEEE 2004)
(2) 0 2 < o; < o; < o;-
32. Which one the following does not have sp 2 hybridized
carbon? (3) o; < o;- < o; < 0 2
( I) Acetone (2) Acetamide

(3) Acetonitrile (4) Acetic acid
(4) o;- <0; <0 2 <0;
(AIEEE 2002)
(AIEEE 2004)
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40. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which 48. Which of the following has unpaired electron(s)?
of the following statements is true for these two species? (2)
(1 ) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO. 02+
(4) 2
(2) Bond length is unpredictable.
(3) Bond length in NO+ in equal to that in NO.
(4) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+ 49. Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic?
(AIEEE 2004) (1) N 2 (2) NO
41. W hich of the following molecules/ions does not contain (3) co (4) 0 3
unpaired electrons? (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
50. After unde rstanding the assertion and reason, choose the
correct option.
(AIEEE 2006) Assertion: In the bonding molecular orbi tal (MO) ofH2,
electron density is increased between the nuclei.
42. In which of the following ionisation processes, the bond
Reason: The bonding MO is lfl A + lfl8 , which shows
order has increased and the magnetic behaviour has
changed? destructive interference of the combining electron waves.
(I) N2 ➔ N; (I) Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the
correct explanation for the assertion.
(3) NO ➔ NO+ (2) Assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not
(AIEEE 2007) the correct explanation for the assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
43. W hich one of the following pairs of species have the
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
same bond order?
(I) cN- and NO+ (2) CN-and CW
(3) o; and CN- (4) NO+and CW 51. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic?
(AIEEE 2008) (I) 02 (2) B 2
(3) NO (4) CO
44. Using MO theory, predict which of the following species
has the shortest bond length? (JEE Main 2017, Offline)
(2) o;- 52. Which of the following is paramagnetic?

co 02-
(4) o; (1) (2) 2
(AIEEE 2009) (3) NO+ (4) B2

45. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, both
the species are not likely to exist? 53. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the fol-
(1) H;,He;- (2) H;+ , He 2 lowing will not be a viable molecule?
(3) H;, He;+ (4) H;, He;- (2) H ;

(JEE Main 2013)
(4) He;+
46. Stabi lity of the species Li2 , Li; and Li; increases in the (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
order of
54. Which of the following best describes the diagram below
(1) Li; < Li; < Li 2 (2) Li2 < Li; < Li; of a molecu lar orbital?
(3) L i; < Li 2 < Li; (4) Li2 <Li; <Li;
(JEE Main 2013)
47. W hich one of the following molecules is expected to

exhibit diamagnetic behaviour?
(1) N2 (2) 02
(3) s2 (4) c2 ( I) A non-bonding orbital
(JEE Main 2013) (2) An antibonding er orbital
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CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE CQ-19
(3) A bonding norbital 58. Among the following molecules/ions,

(4) An antibonding norbital c;- ,N;- ,o ;- , O2
(JEE Main 2018, Online) which one is diamagnetic and has the shortest bond
55. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the fol- length?
lowing is true w ith respect to Li; and Li ;? (2) N;-
(1) Li; is unstable and Li ; is stable (4) c;-
(2) Li ; is stable and Li ; is unstable (JEE Main 2019, April)
(3) Both are stable
59. Among the following, the molecule expected to be stabi-
(4) Both are unstable lized by anion formation is C 2, 0 2, NO, F 2
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) C2 (2) F2
(3) NO (4) 0 2
56. In which of the following processes, the bond order has
increased and paramagnetic character has changed to (JEE Main 2019, April)
diamagnetic?
60. During the change of 0 2 to o;, the incoming e lectron
(1) NO ➔ NO+ (2) N 2 ➔ N; goes to the orbital
(3) 0 2 ➔ o; (4) 0 2 ➔ o~- (1) n2py (2) <7*2pz
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3) 1t"2px (4) n2px
57. Two nand half <7 bonds are present in (JEE Main 2019, April)
(2) N 2
(4) N;
61. Molecule AB has a bond length of 1.617 A and a dipole 67. Find the total number specie(s) among the fo llowing
moment of 0.38 D. The fractional charge on each atom containing 3c-2e bond.
(absolute magnitude) is (e0 = 4.802 x 10- 10 esu) Be2H 4 , (BeH2)", B e2Cl4 , AI/CH3) 6, Al 2 Cl6, I2 Cl6, B 2H 6,
62. In the molecular orbital diagram for the molecular B 28i(CH)4
ion, N;, the number of e lectrons in the <72P molecular
68. Find the total number of chemical species in which men-
orbital is - - - - tioned bond length decreases due to back bonding.
63. The CNC bond angle in CH 3NCS is g reater BF3 (B- F) B(OMe)3 (B-0)
tha n - - - -
PF3 (P- F) H3SiNCO (N- Si)
64. If the % s-character in one Sb-H bond in SbH 3 is 1.0%.
What is the % p-character in the orbital occupied by its B3N3H6 (B-N) NO; (N-0)
lone pair? (0-0)
03
65. The number of FIF adjacent angles in IF 7 molecule
69. Find the total number of compounds whose bond order is
is----
unaffected whether the s-p mixing is considered or not.
66. The number of triatomic molecules, which are non-planar B2' C 2, N 2, 0 2 •
is - - - -
70. The number of lone pairs in BF; is - - - - -
SnCl2, BF 3, BeF2, OC12
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CHAPTERS

Topic 1: Intermolecular Forces and The Gas Laws 5. In the reaction,
2 Al(s) + 6 HCl(aq) ➔ 2Al3+ (aq) + 6Ci-(aq) + 3 H 2 (g)
1. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because
(1) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space. (1) 11.2 L H2(g) at STP is produced for every mole of
HCl(aq.) consumed.
(2) boiling point of water involved in cooking is
increased. (2) 6 L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3 L H/g)
produced.
(3) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the
food material. (3) 33 .6 L H/g) produced regardless of temperature
and pressure for every mole Al that reacts.
(4) cooking invo lves chemical changes helped by a rise
in temperature. (4) 67.2 L H/g) at STP is produced for every mole of
Al that reacts.
(AIEEE 2003)
(AIEEE 2007)
2. Among the fo llowing mixtures, dipole-dipole as the
major interaction, is present in 6. If 10-4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm3 flask
at 300 K, how many moles of water are in the vapour
( I) benzene and ethanol.
phase when equilibrium is established? (Given: Vapour
(2) acetonitrile and acetone. pressure of Hp at 300 K is 3 170 Pa; R = 0.0821 L atm
(3) KC! and water. K- 1 mot- 1)
(4) benzene and carbon tetrachloride. (1) 1.27 x 10-3 mot
(AIEEE 2006) (2) 5.56 x 10-3 mo!
Topic 2: Ideal Gas Equation (3) 1.53 x 10-2 mot
(4) 4.46 x 10-2 mot
3. For an ideal gas, number of moles per litre in terms of its (AIEEE 2010)
pressure p , temperature T and gas constant R is
7. The initial volume ofa gas cylinder is 750.0 mL. If the pres-
(1) pT
R (2)
pRT sure of gas inside the cylinder changes from 840.0 mm Hg
to 360.0 mm Hg, the final volume of the gas will be
p RT
(3) (4) ( I) 1.750 L (2) 3.60 L
RT p
(3) 4.032 L (4) 7.50 L
(AIEEE 2002)
4. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly and
irreversibly in a n isolated system. If T is the initial tem- 8. Assuming ideal gas behaviour, the ratio of density of
perature and Tr is the final temperatur~, which of the fol- ammonia to that of hydrogen chloride at same tempera-
lowing statements is correct? ture and pressure is (Atomic wt. of Cl = 35.5 u)
( l ) ( Tr)i,rev > (Tr)rev (1) 1.46 (2) 0.46
(2) Tr> Ti for reversible process but Tr = Ti for irrevers- (3) 1.64 (4) 0.64
ible process. (JEE Main 2018, Online)
( ) (Tf)rev = (Tf)irrev
3
(4) Tr= ~ for both reversible and irreversible processes. 9. 0.5 moles of gas A and x moles of gas B exert a pres-
sure of 200 Pa in a container of volume I O m3 at I 000 K.
(AIEEE 2006)
Given R is the gas constant in J K- 1 mo1-1, x is
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(1) The most probable speed inc reases.

2R 2R
(l) 4 + R 2 (2) The fraction of the molecules with the most proba-
( ) 4 -R
ble speed increases.
4+R (3) The distribution becomes broader.
(3) 2R (4) \ - /
(4) The area under the distribution curve remains the
same as under the lower temperature.
(AIEEE 2005)
10. T he volume of gas A is twice than that of gas B. The 16. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is denoted by C*,
compressibility factor of gas A is thrice than that of gas B average speed by C and mean square speed by C then for
at same temperature. The pressures of the gases for equal a large number of molecules the ratio of these speeds are
number of moles are
(1) C*: C: C = 1.128: 1.225: I
( 1) 3pA = 2p8 (2) 2pA = 3p8
(2) C*: C : C = 1 : 1.128 : 1.225
(3) PA= 3pB ( 4) PA= 2Ps
(3) C*:C:C= l:1.125:1.128
(4) C*: C: C = 1.225: 1.128: I
Topic 3: Kinetic Molecular Theory of Gases (JEE Main 2013)

17. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particu-
11. Based on kinetic theory of gases fo llowing laws can be
lar gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. T he ratio of number of the ir
proved
mo lecule is
(1) Boyle's law (2) C harles' law
(1) 1:4 (2) 7: 32
(3) Avogadro's law (4) all of these
(3) 1:8 (4) 3: 16
(AIEEE 2002)
12. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas,
between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels 18. The temperature at which oxygen molecules have the
same root mean square speed as helium atoms have at
(1) in a c ircular path.
300 K is (Atomic masses: He = 4 u, 0 = 16 u)
(2) in a wavy path.
(1) 300 K (2) 600 K
(3) in a straight line path.
(4) with an accelerated velocity. (3) 1200 K (4) 2400 K
13. In van der Waals equation of state of the gas law, the con- 19. Which of the fo llowing is not an assumption of the kinetic
stant 'b' is a measure of theory of gases?
(1) intermolecular repulsions. ( 1) A gas consists of many identical particles which are
(2) intermolecular collisions per unit volume. in continual motion.
(3) Volume occupied by the mo lecules. (2) Gas particles have negligible volume.
(4) intermolecular attraction. (3) At high pressure, gas particles are difficult to
(AIEEE 2004) compress.
(4) Collisions of gas particles are perfectly e lastic.
14. As the temperature is raised fro m 20 °C to 40 °C, the
average kinetic energy of neon atoms changes by a factor
of which of the fo llowing? 20. Initially, the root mean square (rms) ve locity of N 2 mol-
(1) 1/2 (2) 2 ecules at certain temperature is u. If this temperature is
doubled and all the nitrogen molecules dissociate into
(3)
313
293
(4) ~ nitrogen atoms, then the new rms velocity will be
( 1) 2u (2) 14u
(AIEEE 2004)
(3) 4u (4) u/2
15. Which o ne of the fo llowing statements is not true about
the effect of an increase in temperature on the distribu-
tion of molecular speeds in a gas? 21. Points I, II and III in the following plot respectively cor-
respond to (Vmp : most probable velocity)
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STATES OF MATTER CQ-23
shown in the figure be low. The temperature of one of the

t bulbs is then raised to Tr The final pressure Pr is
~
c0 T1
uC
.2
C
0
:g
.J:J
·c
1i5
0
(1) TiT2 l
2p ( --
Ti+T2
I
(2) l
( TiT2
P; Ti +Ti
II Ill
Speed, v ---+
(3) 2p(__L
Ti +Ti
I
l (4) 2p(~l
I Ti +Ti
(1) Vmp ofN 2 (300 K); Vmp ofO2 (400 K); Vmp of~ (300 K)
(2) Vmp ofO 2 (400 K); Vmp ofN2 (300 K); Vmp of~ (300 K) 26. At very high pressures, the compressibility factor of one
mole of a gas is given by
(3) Vmp ofN2(300 K); Vmp ofH2 (300 K); Vmp ofO2 (400 K)
(1) l + pb pb
(2)
(4) Vmp ofH 2(300 K); Vmp ofN2 (300 K); Vmp ofO2 (400 K) RT RT
(JEE Main 2019,April) 1- pb b
(3)
RT (4) l - (VRT)
Topic 4: Behaviour of Real Gases: Deviation from (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-1)
Ideal Gas Behaviour and Liquifaction of
Gases 27. Among the fo llowing, the incorrect statement is
( 1) at very large volume, real gases show ideal
22. "a" and "b" are van der Waals constants for gases.
behaviour.
Chlo1ine is more easily liquefied than ethane because
(2) at very low temperature, real gases, show ideal
(1) a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C 2H 6• behaviour.
(2) a for C l2 < a for C 2H6 but b for Cl2 > b for C2H 6. (3) at Boyle's temperature, real gases show ideal
(3) a for C½ > a for C 2 H 6 but b for Cl2 < b for C2 H 6 • behaviour.
(4) a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C 2H 6• (4) at low pressure, real gases show ideal behav iour.
23. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high pressure is
28. Consider the van der Waals constants, a and b, for the
(1) l + RT!pb (2) l
fol lowing gases.
(3) l + pb/RT (4) 1 - pb/RT
Gas Ar Ne Kr Xe
(AIEEE 2012)
a!(atm dm6 moi-2) 1.3 0.2 5. 1 4. 1
24. van der Waals equation for a gas is stated as,
b/(10- 2 dm3 mol- 1) 3.2 1.7 1.0 5.0
p = _!!!!!__a (!!_)2 Which gas is expected to have the highest critical
V-nb V temperature?
This equation reduces to the perfect gas equation, (1) Kr (2) Ne
nRT (3) Xe (4) Ar
p= - - when,
V (JEE Main 2019, April)
(1) temperature is sufficiently high and pressure is low.
(2) temperature is sufficiently low and pressure is high. 29. At a g iven temperature T, gases Ne, Ar, Xe and Kr are
(3) both temperature and pressure are very high. found to deviate from ideal gas behavior. Their equation
(4) both temperature and pressure a re very low. . . RT T
o f state 1s g iven as p = - - at .
V- b
Here, b is the van der Waals constant. Which gas w ill
25. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) containing an ideal
exhibit s teepest increase in the plot of Z (compression
gas initially at pressure P; and temperature T1 are con-
factor) vs p?
nected through a narrow tube of neglig ible volume as
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______ _, JEE MAIN - CHEMISTRY
(1) Xe (2) Kr a and b are van der Waals constants. The correct state-
(3) Ne (4) Ar ment about the gases is
(1) gas C wi ll occupy more volume than gas A; gas B
will be more compressible than gas D
30. Consider the following table : (2) gas C will occupy lesser vo lume than gas A; gas B
w ill be lesser compressible than gas D
Gas a /(k Pa dm6 mol- 1) b/(dm3 mol-1)
(3) gas C will occupy more volume than gas A; gas B
A 642.32 0.05196
will be lesser compressible than gas D
B 155.21 0.04136
(4) gas C will occupy lesser volume than gas A; gas B
C 43 1.91 0.05196
will be more compressible than gas D
D 155.21 0.4382
31. Methane is formed in landfills by the action of certain bac- by mass of N 2 O/g) decomposes to NO 2 . The resulting
teria on buried organic matter. Ifa sample of methane col- pressure _ __
lected from a landfill has a volwne of 250 mL at 750 torr
and 27 °C, how many grams of methane are in the sample? 36. The rms velocity of molecules ofa gas of density 4 kg m-3
and pressure 1.2 x l 0 5 N m- 2 is _ __
32. How many millilitres of HP vapour measured at 327°C
and 760 torr are formed when 50 mL of ammonia at 37. A real gas obeys the equation of state p(V - nb) = nRT
950 torr and 127°C reacts with oxygen according to the where b is van der Waals constant and R is the gas con-
following reaction? stant. If the pressure and temperature are such that the
molar volume of the gas is l Ob, what is the value of com-
pressibility factor?
33. W hat volume of wet methane (saturated with water
38. If 12.0 g of water is converted to steam in a 3.60 L pres-
vapour) would you have to collect at 29°C and 1 atm
sure cooker held at a temperature of 108°C, what pres-
pressure to be sure that the sample contains 244 mL of
sure would be produced?
dry methane at 950 torr. [Given that vapour pressure of
water at 29°C = 30 torr.] 39. At a given condition of temp erature, rate of change of
rms velocity of He gas is twice the rate of change of abso-
34. Boron forms a variety of unusual compounds with
lute temperature. What is the rm s velocity of He in the
hydrogen. A chemist isolated 6.3 mg of one of the boron
given condition?
hydrides in a glass bulb with a volume of385 mL at 25°C
and a bulb pressure of 11 torr. The molecular mass of the
40. At 300 K, the density of a certain gaseous molecule at 2
boron hydride in gmot- 1 is _ __
bar is double to that of dinitrogen (N2) at 4 bar. The molar
35. 2 moles ofNp/g) is kept in a closed container at 298 K mass of gaseous molecule is_ __
and under 1 atm pressure. It is heated to 596 K when 20%
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CHAPTER6

Topic 1: Thermodynamic State and Applications 5. The hottest region of Bunsen flame shown in the figure
below is:
1. Heat required to raise the temperature of I mole of sub- A---- Region 4
stance by 1° is called
-r,---- Region 3
( l ) specific heat. (2) molar heat capacity. -----1 - - - Region 2
(3) water equivalent. (4) specific gravity. _i__s:_r:::±:---~ Reg ion 1
(AIEEE 2002)
2. An idealgasexpands in volumefrom Ix 10-3 m3 to I x 10-2 m3

at 300 K against a constant pressure of I x I 0 5 N m- 2.
The work done is
(I) region 4 (2) region I
(I) -900 J (2) 900 kJ (3) region 2 (4) region 3
(3) 2780 kJ (4) - 900 kJ (JEE Main 2016, Offline)
(AIEEE 2004) 6. 11U is equal to
(1) adiabatic work. (2) isothermal work.
3. The standard enthalpy of formation (11rH0 ) at 298 K for
(3) isochoric work. (4) isobaric work.
methane, CH/g), is -74.8 kJ moI- 1 • The additional infor-
mation required to determine the average energy for C-H (JEE Main 2017,Offline)
bond formation would be 7. For which of the following reactions, 11H is equal to /1U?
(1) the dissociation energy ofH2 and enthalpy of subli- ( 1) N/g) + 3H/g) ➔ 2NH/g)
mation of carbon. (2) 2HI(g) ➔ H/g) + I/g)
(2) latent heat of vaporisation of methane. (3) 2NO2(g) ➔ Np(g)
(3) the first four ionization energies of carbon and elec- (4) 2SO/g) + O/g) ➔ 2SO/g)
tron gain enthalpy of hydrogen.
(4) the dissociation energy of hydrogen molecule, H 2 •
8. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in figure.
(AIEEE 2006)
4. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands

reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a constant tem-
perature of37.0 °C. As it does so, it absorbs 208 J of heat.
The value of q and w for the process will be (R = 8.314 J V
moJ- 1 K- 1) (In 7.5 = 2.01)
/1 UBc = - 5 kl mo1- q AB = 2 kJ moJ- 1, w AB= - 5 kJ mo1-1,
1
,
(1) q= - 208J,w= - 208J wcA = 3 kJ mo1- 1
(2) q = -208 J, w =+208 J Heat absorbed by the system during process CA is
(3) q = +208 J, w = +208 J (1) - 5 kJ moJ- 1 (2) +5 kJ mo1- 1
(4) q =+208 J, w = -208 J (3) 18 kJ mo1- 1 (4) -1 8 kJ mo1- 1
(JEE Main 2013) (JEE Main 2018, Online)
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9. Consider the reversible isothermal expans ion of an ideal ( 1) (II) and (IV) (2) (I) and (III)
gas in a closed system at two different temperatures (3) (II) and (III) (4) (I) and (IV)
T 1 and T2 (T1 < Tz). The correct graphical depiction of
the depe ndence of work done (w) on the final volume
(V) is 12. Which one of the following equations does not correctly
represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given
I wl process involving an ideal gas? (Assume non-expansion
(1) lwl (2)
work is zero)
(1) Cyclic process: q = - w
(2) Adiabatic process: t,,.U = - w
(3) Isochoric process: t,,.U = q
0 In V 0 In V (4) Isotherma l process: q = - w
13. 5 mol of an ideal gas at 100 Kare a llowed to undergo
reversible compression till its temperature becomes
200 K. If Cv = 28 J K-1 moi-1, calculate t,,.U and t,,.pVfor
this process. (R = 8.0 J K- 1 mol- 1)
0 In V 0 In V ( 1) t,,.U = 14 kJ; t,,.(pV) = 18 kJ
(2) t,,.U = 14 J; t,,.(pV) = 0.8 J
(3) t,,.U=l4kJ;t,,.(pV)=4kJ
10. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression from (4) t,,.U = 28 kJ; t,,.(pV) = 0.8 kJ
5 m 3 to 1 m 3 against a constant external pressure of
4 Nm-2 • Heat released in this process is used to increase
the temperature of 1 mole of Al. If molar heat capacity of 14. Among the following, the set of parameters that repre-
Al is 24 J mo1- 1 K- 1, the temperature of Al increases by sents path functions, is
(I) q+w (II) q
( 1) IK (2) 2 K (III) w (IV) H-TS
2
(1) (II) and (III) (2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) 3_K (4) 1 K (3) (I) and (IV) (4) (I), (II) and (III)
3
11. T he combination of plots which does not represent 15. During compression of a spring the work done is 10 kJ
isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is and 2 kJ escaped to the surroundings as heat. The change
in internal energy, t,,.U (in kJ) is
(1) - 12 (2) - 8 (3) 8 (4) 12
~
(I) p
( II)P 16. The difference between t,,.ll and t,,.U (t,,.ll - Ml), when the
combustion of one mole of heptane(l) is carried out at a
temperature T, is equal to
0 (1) - 4 RT (2) - 3 RT
(3) 4RT (4) 3 RT
(fil) pVm (IV) u 17. An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against
a constant external pressure of 1 bar. The work done in kJ is
(1) - 9.0 (2) + 10.0
(3) - 0.9 (4) - 2.0
0 0
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THERMODYNAMICS CQ-27
Topic 2: Measurement of AU and AH: Calorimetry (1) Oxygen is more electronegative.

and Enthalpy Change, !J.,H of a Reaction (2) o - ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom.
(3) o - ion will tend to resist the addition of another
18. A heat engine absorbs heat % from a source at tempera-
electron.
ture T1 and heat q 2 from a source at temperature Tr Work
done is found to be J(% + q2). This is in accordance with (4) Oxygen has hi gh electron affini ty.
(AIEEE 2004)
( 1) first law of thermodynamics.
(2) second law of thermodynamics. 24. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon mon-
oxide are - 393.5 and - 283 kJ mo1-1, respectively. The
(3) Joules equivalent law.
enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is
(4) none of these.
(1) 110.5kJ (2) - 110.5kJ
(AIEEE 2002)
(3) -676.5 kJ (4) 676.5 kJ
19. The internal energy change when a system goes from (AIEEE 2004)
state A to B is 40 kJ mo1- 1• If the system goes from A to
25. Consider the reaction: N 2 + 3H3 ➔ 2NH 3 carried out at
B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irre-
constant temperature and pressure. If tili and 11U are the
versible path what would be the net change in internal
energy? enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction,
which of the following expressions is true?
(1) 40 kJ (2) > 40 kJ
(1) tili =0 (2) tili = 11U
(3) < 40 kJ (4) Zero
(3) tili < 11U (4) tili > 11U
(AIEEE 2003)
20. Consider the reaction equil ibrium, (AIEEE 2005)
26. The exothermic formation of ClF 3 is represented by the
2SO2 (g) + O 2 (g) H 2SO3 (g); tJ/0 = - 198 kl On the
equation
basis of Le Chatelier's principle, the condition favorable
Cl 2 (g) + 3F2 (g) ~ 2ClF3 (g); 11,H =-329 kJ
for forward reaction is
( 1) lowering of temperature as well as pressure. Which of the following will increase the quanti ty ofCIF 3
(2) increasing temperature as well as pressure. in an equilibrium mixture ofC12, F 2 and ClF/
(3) lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure. ( 1) Increasing the temperature.
(4) any value of temperature and pressure. (2) Removing C l2.
(AIEEE 2003) (3) Increasing the volume of the container.
21. If at 298 K the bond energies of C- H, C- C, C = C and (4) Adding F2•
H- H are, respectively, 414,347, 615, and 435 kJ mo1-1, (AIEEE 2005)
the value of enthalpy change for the reaction H 2 C = CH2 27. The enthalpy changes for the following processes are
(g) + H 2 (g) ➔ H 3C-CH 3 (g) at 298 K w ill be listed below
(1) +250 kJ (2) - 250 kJ Cl/g) = 2Cl(g), 242.3 kJ mo1- 1
(3) + 125 kJ (4) - 125 kJ 1/g) = 2I(g), 151.0 kJ mo1-1
(AIEEE 2003) IC l(g) = I(g) + Cl(g), 21 1.3 kJ mo1- 1
22. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon I/s) = I/g), 62.76 kJ mol- 1
(1) the physical states ofreactants and products. Given that the standard states for iodine and chlorine are
(2) use of different reactants for the same product. 1/s) and C l2(g), the standard enthalpy of formation for
(3) the nature of intermediate reaction steps. IC l(g) is
(4) the differences in initial or final temperatures of (1) -14.6kJmol- 1 (2) -16.8 kJ mo1- 1
involved substances. (3) + 16.8 kJ mo1- 1 (4) +244. 8 kJ mo1- 1
2
23. The formation of the oxide ion O - (g) requires first an 28. (tili - M J) for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO)
exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below from its elements at 298 K is (R = 8.314 J K- 1 mol- 1)
O(g) +e- = O- (g);tili0 = - 142kJmol- 1 (1) -1238.78 J mol- 1 (2) 1238.78 J mol- 1
(3) -2477.57 J mo1-1 (4) 2477.57 J mo1-1
o - (g) +e- = O 2 (g); tJ/ 0 = 844kJmol-J (AIEEE 2006)
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29. Assuming that water vapor is an ideal gas, the internal 34. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is - 46.0 kJ
energy (11U) when l mol of water is vaporized at l bar mot- 1• If the enthalpy of formation ofH2 from its atoms is
pressure and 100 °C. (Given: Molar enthalpy of vapor- -436 kJ mol- 1 and that ofN2 is - 712 kJ mol- 1, the average
ization of water at l bar and 373 K = 41 kJ mo1- 1 and bond enthalpy ofN-H bond in NH3 is
R = 8.3 J mo1- 1 K- 1) will be (1) -1102 kJ mo1- 1 (2) -964 kJ mot- 1
1 1
(1) 4.1 kJ moi- (2) 3.7904 kJ moi- (3) +352 kJ mot- 1 (4) + 1056 kJ mot- 1
(3) 37.904 kJ moi-1 (4) 41.0 kJ moi- 1 (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-I)
(AIEEE 2007)
35. A gas undergoes change from state A to state B. In this
30. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution can be process, the heat absorbed and work done by the gas is
determined by the parameters indicated below: 5 J and 8 J, respectively. Now gas is brought back to A by
another process during which 3 J of heat is evolved. In
_!_ Cl 2(g) td•;,,H° )Cl(g) .;,.H • Ci-(g) .;,,.H° C i-(aq) this reverse process ofB to A
2
(1) 10 J of the work will be done by the surrounding on
The energy involved in the conversion of _!_ Cl 2 (g) to
2 gas.
C l- (g) (using the data, /1dissH 0 (Cl2 ) = 240 kJ mol- 1, (2) 10 J of the work w ill be done by the gas.
(3) 6 J of the work w ill be done by the surrounding on
11.sH 0 (CI) = -349 kJ mol-1 /1hyd H 0
(CI) = -38 1 kJ mol- 1
)
gas.
(1) +152 kJ mo1- 1 (2) -610 kJ mo1- 1 (4) 6 J of the work will be done by the gas.
(3) - 850 kJ mo1- 1 (4) + 120 kJ mo1- 1 (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2)
(AIEEE 2008)
36. The entropy change associated with the conversion of 1 kg
31. Calorific value of hydrogen gas is -143 kJ g- 1• The standard of ice at 273 K to water vapors at 383 K is
enthalpy of formation of Hp w ill be (Specific heat of water liquid and water vapor is 4.2 kJK-1
(1) - 143 kJ mo1- 1 kg-1 and 2.0 kJ K- 1 kg-1; heat of liquid fusion and vapor-
ization of water are 334 kJ kg-1 and 2491 kJ kg-1, respec-
(2) + 143 kJ mo1- 1
tively). (log 273 = 2.436, log 373 = 2.572, log 383 = 2.583)
(3) -286 kJ mo1- 1 ( 1) 7 .90 kJ kg- 1 K- 1 (2) 2.64 kJ kg- 1 K- 1
(4) +286 kJ mo1- 1 (3) 8.49 kJ kg-I K- 1 (4) 9.26 kJ kg-1 K- 1
32. The standard enthalpy of formation of NO/g) and (JEE Main 2019, January)
Np/g) are 8.0 kcal mo1- 1 and 2.0 kcal mo1- 1, respectively.
37. For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which of the
The heat of dimerization ofNO2 in kcal is
following plots does not correctly describe the relation
( 1) 10.0 (2) -6.0 between various thermodynamic quantities?
(3) +14.0 (4) - 14.0
33. For complete combustion of ethanol,

C 2 H 5 OH(I) + 3O 2 (g) ➔ 2CO2 (g) + 3H2 O(I)
the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calo-
rimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mo1-1 at 25 °C. Assuming ideality
the enthalpy of combustion, 11cH, for the reaction will be
(R = 8.3 14 J K-1 mol- 1) p
(1) -1366.95 kJ mo1- 1
(2) - 1361.95 kJ moi- 1
(3) - 1460.50 kJ mo1- 1
(4) -1350.50 kJ moi- 1
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41. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide

are - 393.5 and - 285.5 kJ moI- 1, respectively. The heat of
formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is
( I) -110.5 (2) 110.5
(3) 676.5 (4) - 676.5
T
42. A reaction at l bar is non-spontaneous at low temperature
but becomes spontaneous at high temperature. Identify the
correct statement about the reaction among the following:
(1) !!.fl is negative while l:!.S is positive.
(2) Both !!.fl and l:!.S are negative.
(3) !!.fl is positive while l:!.S is negative.
(4) Both !!.fl and l:!.S are positive.
V 43. Given:
C(graphite) + O2(g) ➔ CO2(g); t-,.,H° = - 393.5 kJ mo1-1
1
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ➔ H 2O(l); t-,.,H° = - 285.8 kJ moi- 1
38. An open vessel at 27°C is heated until two fifth of the 2
air (assumed as an ideal gas) in it has escaped from the CO2 (g) + 2H 2 O(l) ➔ CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g);
vessel. Assuming that, the volume of the vessel remains
constant, the temperature at which the vessel has been t-,.,H0
= + 890.3 kJ moi- 1
heated is Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value
(1) 500°C (2) 500 K of t-,.,H° at 298 K for the reaction
(3) 150°c (4) 750 K C(graphite) + 2Hz(g) ➔ CH/g) will be
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) - 74.8 kJ mo1- 1 (2) -144.0 kJ mo1-1
1
(3) +74.8 kJ mo1- (4) + 144.0 kJ mo1- 1
Topic 3: Enthalpies for Different Types of Reactions
44. For the reaction, A(g) ➔ A(l); !!.fl= - 3RT. The correct
39. Consider an endothermic reaction X ➔ Y w ith the acti- statement for the reaction is
vation energies Eb and Er for the backward and forward
reactions, respectively. In general
(1) IAfJJ < IMJ] *
(2) !!.fl = t-,.U 0
(3) IAfJJ > IMJ] (4) !!.H=t-,.U =0
(1) Eb<Ef
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-])
(2) Eb> Er
45. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion at constant
(3) Eb= Er
pressure. During the process
(4) there is no definite relation between Eb and Er
(1) enthalpy increases but entropy decreases.
(AIEEE 2005)
(2) enthalpy remains constant but entropy increases.
40. The standard enthalpy of formation (t-,.rH°298) for meth- (3) enthalpy decreases but entropy increases.
ane, CH4 is - 74.9 kJ mo1- 1• In order to calculate the aver- (4) Both enthalpy and entropy remain constant.
age energy given out in the formation ofa C- H bond from
this it is necessary to know which one of the following?
(1) The dissociation energy of the hydrogen mo lecule, 46. The combustion of benzene (I) gives COz(g) and HzO( l ).
G iven th at heat of combustion of benzene at constant
Hr
volume is -3263.9 kJ moJ- 1 at 25°C; heat of combustion
(2) The first four ionisation energies of carbon.
(in kJ moI- 1) of benzene at constant pressure w ill be
(3) The dissociation energy of~ and enthalpy of sub- (R = 8.3 14 J K- 1 moI- 1)
Iimation of carbon (graphite).
(4) The first four ionisation energies of carbon and ( I) -452.46 (2) 3260
e lectron affinity of hydrogen. (3) - 3267.6 (4) 4 152.6
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3) (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
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47. G iven: The reaction must be

(I) C(graphite)+Oi(g) ➔ CO2 (g); !1,H
0
=x kJ mol-
1 (1) exothermic.
(2) endothermic.
(II) C(graphite)+ ½02 (g) ➔ C O (g); !1,H = y 0
kJ mo!-' (3) one w ith negligible enthalpy change.

(4) highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature.
(AIEEE 2005)
52. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneou s
Based on the above thermochemical equations, find out process.
which one of the fo llowing a lgebraic relationships is correct? (1) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the
only criterion for spontane ity.
(1) X =y +Z (2) Z = X +y
(2) For a spontaneou s process in an isolated system, the
(3) y =2z - x (4) x = y - z
change in entropy is positive.
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous.
(4) Exothermic processes are a lways spontaneous.
Topic 4: Spontaneity, Gibbs Energy Change and
(AIEEE 2007)
Equilibrium
53. In conversion of limestone to lime,
48. For a reversible reaction: X(g) + 3Y(g) ~ 2 Z(g)
CaCO3 (s) ➔ CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
!1H = -40 kJ the standard entropies of X, Y and Z are
60, 40 and 50 JK- 1 moJ- 1 respectively. T he temperature at the values of !1H° and ti.S" are + 179. 1 kJ mo1- 1 and 160.2
which the above reaction attains equilibrium? J K- 1, respectively, at 298 K and 1 bar. Assuming that
!1H° and ti.S" do not change w ith temperature, the te m-
(1) 400 K (2) 500 K
perature above w hich conversion of limestone to lime
(3) 273 K (4) 373 K
will be spontaneous is
49. The correct relationship between free energy change in a (1) 1008 K (2) 1200 K
reaction and the corresponding equilibrium constant Kc is (3) 845 K (4) 1118K
(1) !1G 0 = - RT In Kc (2) !1G 0 - = RT In Kc (AIEEE 2007)
(3) !1G0 = RT In Kc (4) -!1G 0 = RT In Kc 54. In a fuel cell, methanol is used as fuel and oxygen gas is
(AIEEE 2003) used as an oxidiser. The reaction is
50. In an irreversible process taking place at constant T and
p and in which only pressure - volume work is be ing
done, the change in Gibbs free energy (dG) and change
A t 298 K, standard Gibbs energ ies of fonnation for
in entropy (dS), satisfy the criteria
CHp H(l), H2O (1) and CO/g) are -166.2 kJ moJ- 1,
(1) (dS) v, u < 0, (dG)T,p < 0 - 237.2 kJ moi- 1 and -394.4 kJ mo1-1, respectively. If the
standard enthalpy of combustion of methanol is - 726 kJ
(2) (dS) v, u > 0, (dG)T,p < 0
moJ- 1, e fficiency of the fuel cell will be
(3) (dS) v, u = 0, (dG)r,p = 0
(4) (dS) v, u = 0, (dG)T,p > 0 (1) 90% (2) 97%
(AIEEE 2003) (3) 80% (4) 87%
51. A schemati c plot of In K eq versus inverse of temperature (AIEEE 2009)
for a reaction is shown below 55. The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 K are 2.25
6 .0 g cm-3 and 3.3 1 g cm-3, respectively. If the standard
G ibbs energy difference (!1G0 ) is equal to 1895 J moJ-1,
the pressure at which graphite w ill be transformed into
diamond at 298 K is
(1) 9.92 x 108 Pa
(2) 9.92x l 07 Pa
2 .0 ' - - - - - - - - - (3) 9.92 x 106 Pa
(4) None of these
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56. On the basis of the following thermochemical data: The entropy change (L1S°) for the reaction
L1rG [W (aq)] = 0
0
CH/g) + 2O/g) ➔ CO/g) + 2Hp(t) is
H 2 O(I) ➔ H+(aq) + Off (aq); Lill= 57.32 kJ (1) - 3 l 2.5JK-1 moi- 1 (2) - 242.8 J K- 1 moi- 1
1 (3) -108.1 J K- moi-1 1
(4) - 37.6 J K- 1 mo1- 1
H 2 (g) + 202 (g) ➔ H 2 O(I); Lill= -286.20 kJ
The value of enthalpy of formation of OH- ion at 25 °C is
62. For the reaction, A(g) + B(g) ➔ C(g) + D(g), tJ/° and L1S°
(1) +228.88 kJ (2) -343.52 kJ
are, respectively, - 29.8 kJ mo1-1 and - 0.100 kJ K- 1 mo1-1
(3) -22.88 kJ (4) -228.88 kJ at 298 K. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
(AIEEE 2009) at 298 K is
57. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, Lill (1) 1.0 x 10- IO (2) 10
and ti.S were found to be both positive. If T. is the tem- (3) 1 (4) 1.0 X 1010
perature at equilibrium, the reaction would be sponta- (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-I)
neous when
63. Which of the following lines correctly show the
(1) T=T. (2) T. > T temperature dependence of equilibrium constant, K, for
an exothermic reaction?
(3) T > T0 (4) T. = 5T
In K
(AIEEE 2010) A
.B _1_
58. The entropy change invo lved in the isothermal revers- (0, 0) ••••• T(K)
ible expansion of 2 mot of an ideal gas from a volume of
10 dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3 at 27 °C is
(1 ) 35 .8 J mo1- 1 K- 1 (2) 32.3 J mo1- 1 K-1
(3) 42.3 J mo1- K- 1 1 (4) 38.3 J mo1- 1 K-1
(1) Band C (2) C and D
(AIEEE 2011)
(3) A and D (4) AandB
59. The incorrect expression among the following is: (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
(1) L1G = -T 64. For which of the following processes, ti.Sis negative?
/1.S,otal
(1) H/g) ➔ 2H(g)
(2) In isothermal process w reversible = -nRT In ~ (2) N/g, 1 atm) ➔ N/g, 5 atrn)
I
Lillo - T /I.So (3) C(diamond) ➔ C(graphite)

(3) In K =- - - -
RT (4) N/g, 273 K) ➔ N/g, 300 K)
(4) K = e- 1,.c 1RT
0

(AIEEE 2012) 65. The process with negative entropy change is
60. The molar heat capacity (CJ ofCDp is 10 cal at 1000 K. (1) dissociation ofCaSO/s) to CaO (s) and SO3 (g)
The change in entropy associated with cooling of32 g of (2) sublimation of dry ice
CDP vapour from 1000 K to 100 K at constant pressure (3) dissolution of iodine in water
will be (4) synthesis of ammonia from N 2 and H 2
(D = deuterium, At. mass= 2 u)
(1) 23.03 cal deg -t (2) -23.03 cal deg -t
(3) 2.303 cal deg - t (4) - 2.303 cal deg - t 66. For the chemical reaction X ~ Y, the standard reaction
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2) G ibbs energy depends on temperature T ( in K) as
61. The entropy (S°) of the following substances are:

1 1
L1,G0 (in kJ moi- 1) L1,G = 120
0
-i T.
CH4 (g) 186.2 J K- mo1-
The major component of the reaction mixture at T is
0 2 (g) 205.0 J K- 1 moi-1
(I) Y if T=300K (2) Y if T = 280 K
CO2 (g) 213.6 J K- 1 mo1- 1 (3) X ifT= 3 15 K (4) XifT=350 K
Hp (I) 69 .9 J K- 1 mo1- 1 (JEE Main 2019, January)
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67. Two blocks of the same metal having same mass and at (1) Endothermic if A> 0
temperature T 1 and T2, respectively, are brought in contact (2) Exothermic ifA > 0 and B < 0
with each other and allowed to attain thermal equilibrium (3) Endothermic if A< 0 and B > 0
at constant pressure. The change in entropy, l'lS, for this
(4) Exothermic ifB < 0
process is
69. A process will be spontaneous at all temperatures if

(1) Lill"< 0 and l'lS < 0
(2) Lill°> 0 and l'lS < 0
(3) Lill"< 0 and l'lS > 0
(3) 2C ln[ r; + T2 ] (4) 2C ln[ r; +T2 ] (4) Lill°> 0 and l'lS > 0
P 21;T2 P 4T;T2
70. The incorrect match in the following is
68. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a chemical reac- (1) ~G0 <0,K>l (2) ~G0 = 0,K =l
tion at an absolute temperature T is given by
(3) ~G0 > 0, K < I (4) ~G0 < 0, K < I
0
~ rG =A - BT (JEE Main 2019, April)
Where A and B are non-zero constants. Which of the
following is true about this reaction?
71. ~p 0
at 500 K for substance 'S' in liquid state and gas- 77. For the reaction A ➔ B, Lill" = 4 kcal mo1- 1, l'lS = 10 cal
eous state are +100.7 kcal mo1- 1 and + 103 kcal mo1- 1, mol- 1 K- 1• The reaction is spontaneous when the tempera-
respectively. Vapor pressure of liquid 'S' at 500 K is ture is greater than _ _ __
approximately equal to (R = 2 cal K-1 mol- 1)
78. What is the maximum amount of useful work that could
72. Given
probably be obtained at 37°C and 1 atm from the com-
(I) 2Fep/s) ➔ 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g); ~p 0 = +1487.0 kJ mo1- 1 bustion of 48 g of natural gas, CH/g), to give CO/g) and
(II) 2CO(g) + O/g) ➔ 2CO/g); ~,G0 = - 514.4 kJ moi- 1 Hp(l)?
Free energy change, ~,G0 for the reaction Given:
2Fep/s) + 6CO(g) ➔ 4Fe(s) + 6CO/g) will be
73. A process has Lill"= 200 J mo1-1 and l'lS = 40 JK_-1 mo1-1•
The minimum temperature above which the process will -75 - 394 -286
be spontaneous is _ _ __
74. The reaction, 186 11 7 70
MgO(s) + C(s) ➔Mg(s) + CO(g), for which ~,H = 0
+ 491.1 kJ mo1- 1 and ~,S° = 198.0 JK_- 1 mo1- 1, is not fea-

sible at 298 K. Temperature above which reaction will be 79. Calculate the change in internal energy at 25°C for the
feasible is _ _ __ reaction: 2N2 O(g) + 3O2 (g) ➔ 4NO 2 (g).
75. For silver, CP(J K-1 moi- 1) = 23 + 0.01 T. If the temper-

[Given: M ; (NP) = 81.57 kJ moi- 1 and M ; (NO2 ) =
ature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300 K to
1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of Lill" wi II be close to 33.8 kJ mol-1 ]
80. The heat of vaporization of ammonia is 21. 7 kJ mo1-1

76. Enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is 24 cal g- 1 at 200°C, and the boiling point of ammonia is -33.3°C. Esti-
if specific heat of I/s) and 1i(vap) are 0.055 and 0.031 mate the entropy change for the vaporization of liquid
cal g-1 K-1 respectively, then enthalpy of sublimation of ammonia.
iodine at 250°C in cal g- 1 is _ _ __
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CHAPTER7

Topic 1: Law of Chemical Equilibrium and
Equilibrium Constant 5. For the reaction SO 2(g) + !2 0 2(g) ~ SO3 (g) if Kp =K C
1. For the reaction equilibrium, N 2O 4(g) H 2NO2(g); the

(RTy where the symbols have usual meaning then the
value of xis (assuming ideality)
concentrations ofNp4 and NO2 at equilibrium are 4.8 x
10-2 and 1.2 x 10-2 mo! L- 1 respectively. The value of Kc ( 1) -I (2) - 1/2
for the reaction is (3) 1/2 (4) 1
(1) 3.3 x 10-2 mol L- 1 (2) 3 x 10- 1 mol L- 1 (JEE Main 2014, Offline)
(3) 3 x I 0-3 mol L- 1 (4) 3 x 103 mol L- 1 6. At a certain temperature, only 50% HI is dissociated into
(AIEEE 2003) H 2 and I2 at equi libriwn. The equilibrium constant is
(1) 1.0 (2) 3.0
2. What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction
P4(s) + 5O 2(g) ~ P4O 10 (s)? (3) 0.5 (4) 0.25
(1) Kc = [PP10]/P4) [Oil5
(2) Kc= 1/ (02)5 7. For the decomposition of the compound, represented as
NH2COONH4(s) ➔ 2NH3(g) + CO/g)
(3) Kc =[Oil5
KP= 2.9 x 1o-s atm3•
(4) Kc= [PP,o]/5[P4)[O2J
(AIEEE 2004) If the reaction is started w ith l mol of the compound, the
tota l pressure at equi librium would be
3. For the reaction, CO(g) + Cl2(g) ~ COCl2(g) the
(1) 1.94x10-2 atm.
K
_ P is equal to (2) 5.82 x 10-2 atm.
Kc (3) 7.66 x 10-2 atm.
(1) (2) 1.0 (4) 38.8 x 10-2 atm.
RT (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
(3) m (4) RT 8. A solid XY kept in an evacuated sealed container under-
(AIEEE 2004) goes decomposition to form a mixture of gases X and Y
at temperature T. The equilibrium pressure is 10 bar in
4. For the following three reactions I, II and III, the equilib- this vessel. K p for this reaction is
rium constants are given:
K,
(1) 25 (2) 100
(I) CO(g) + H 2O(g) ~ CO 2(g) + H 2(g) (3) 10 (4) 5
K,
(II) CH4(g) + Hp(g) ~ CO(g) + 3H 2(g) (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2)
9. Consider the following reversible c hemical reactions:
(III) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) ....--2-- C O 2(g) + 4H 2(g)
Which of the following relations is correct? (1)
(1) K,(K2)'12 = K3 (2) K 2K3=K, K,
6AB(g) ~ 3A 2(g) + 3B2(g) (2)
(3) K3=K,K2 (4) K/K2)3 =(K)2
(AIEEE 2008) The relation between K I and K 2 is
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14. Phosphorus pentachloride di ssociates as fo llows, in a

1
( 1) K 1K 2 = closed reaction vessel, P Cl5(g) ~ PCl3 (g) + Cl 2(g). If
3 total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction mixture is p
(3) K 2 =K1- 3
(4) K 1K 2 = 3 and degree of dissociation of PC l5 is x, the partial pres-
sure of PCl 3 w ill be
10. For the following reactions, equilibrium constants are given: (1) C:1)P (2) (~)p
1-x
S(s)+O2(g) ~ SO 2(g); K 1 = 1052
2S(s) + 3O2(g) ~ 2SO3 (g); K 2 = 10129 (3) ( x:1 )p (4) (~)p

1-x
T he equi librium constant for the reaction, (AIEEE 2006)
2SO2(g) + O/g) ~ 2SO3 (g) is 15. T he equilibrium for the reaction
(1) 10154 (2) 101s1 1
SO /g) ~ SO 2(g) +- O 2(g)
2
(3) 1025 (4) 1077
is Kc = 4.9 x 10-2. The valu e of Kc for the reaction
2SO2(g)+O2(g) ~ 2SO3 (g)
Topic 2: Homogeneous and Heterogeneous w ill be
Equilibria and Applications of
(1) 416 (2) 2.40 X 10-3
Equilibrium Constants
(3) 9.8x 10-2 (4) 4.9 X 10-2
11. The equilibrium constant for the reaction (AIEEE 2006)
N 2(g) + O/g) ~ 2NO(g) at temperature Tis 4 x l o-4.
16. The first and second dissociation constants of an acid
T he value of Kc for the reaction NO(g) ~ _!_ N i(g)+ _!_ (g) H 2A are 1.0 x 10-s and 5.0 x 10-10, respectively. T he over-
. 2 2
at the same temperature 1s a ll dissociation constant of the acid w ill be
(1) 2.5 X 102 (2) 0.02 (1) 0.2x 105 (2) 5.0 x 10 5
(3) 4 X 10-4 (4) 50 (3) 5.0 X 1015 (4) 5.0 X 10-15
(AIEEE 2004, 2012) (AIEEE 2007)
12. For the reaction 17. The equilibrium constants KPt and KP, for the reactions
X ~ 2Y and Z ~ P + Q, respectively, are in the ratio
of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equa l,
(Kc = l.8x 10~ at 184 °C) then the ratio of total pressure at these equilibria is
(R = 0.083 1 kJ mol- 1K- 1) (1) 1 : 36 (2) 1:1
When K and K are compared at 184 °C it is found that (3) 1 :3 (4) 1:9
P C
(AIEEE 2008)
(1) KPis g reater than Kc .
(2) KPis less than Kc. 18. A sample of a hydrate of barium chloride weighing 61 g
was heated until all the water of hydration is removed. The
(3) KP=Kc.
dried sample weighed 52 g. T he formu la of the hydrated
(4) W hether KPis g reater than, less than or equa l to Kc
salt is (Atomic mass: Ba= 137 amu, Cl = 35.5 amu)
depends upon the total gas pressure.
( 1) BaCl2· Hp (2) BaCl2· 2Hp
(AIEEE 2005)
(3) BaC12·3Hp (4) BaC12·4Hp
13. An amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already con-
taining ammonia gas at a certain temperature and 0.50 atrn.
pressure. A mmonium hydrogen sulphide decoomposes 19. The equilibrium constants at 298 K for a reaction
to yield NH3 and H 2S gases in the flask. When the A + B ~ C + D is 100. If the in itia l concentration of a ll
decomposition reaction reaches equilibrium, the total the four species were 1 Meach, then equilibrium concen-
pressure in the flask rises to 0.84 atm. The equilibrium tratio n of D ( in mol L-1) w ill be
constant for NH4HS decomposition at this temperature is
(1) 1.1 82 (2) 0.182
(1) 0.30 (2) 0.18 (3) 0. 17 (4) 0.1 1 (3) 0.8 18 (4) 1.818
(AIEEE 2005) (JEE Main 2016, Offline)
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EQUILIBRIUM CQ-35
20. At a certain temperature in a 5 L vessel, 2 mo les of carbon 24. Two solids dissociate as follows
monoxide and 3 moles of chlorine were allowed to reach 2
A(s) ~ B(g) + C(g); KP 1 = x atm
equilibrium according to the reaction,
CO+ Cl2 ~ COCl2 D(s) ~ C(g) + E(g); KP2 = y atm 2

At equilibrium, if one mole of CO is present then The total pressure when both the solids dissociate simul-
taneously is
equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction is
(1) 2 (2) 2.5 (1) .Jx+yatm (2) 2(.Jx+ y) atm
(3) 3 (4) 4
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (3) (x + y) atm (4) x 2 +y2 atm
21. The values of K/ Kc for the fo llowing reactions at 300 K
are, respectively: (At 300 K, RT= 24.62 dm 3 atm moi- 1) 25. In whic h one of the following equilibria, KPcf. Kc?
N 2(g)+O2(g) ~ 2 NO(g) (1) C(s)+O2(g) ~ 2CO(g)
NP4(g) ~ 2 NO2(g) (2) 2 HI(g) ~ H 2(g) + 12(g)
N i(g) + 3H 2(g) ~ 2 NH 3(g) (3) NO2(g)+SO2(g) ~ NO(g)+SO3(g)
(1) 1, 24.62 dm3 atm mo1- 1, 606.0 dm6 atm 2 mo1- 2 (4) 2NO(g)~N 2(g)+ O 2(g)
(2) 1, 24.62 dm3 atm mo1- 1, 1.65 x 10-3 dm-6 atm-2 mol2 (JEE Main 2019, April)
(3) 1, 4.1 x 10- 2 dm-3 atm- 1 mol, 606 dm6 atm2 mo1- 2
(4) 24.62 dm3 atm mo1- 1, 606.0 dm6 atm2 mo 1- 2, 1.65 x Topic 3: Relationship between Equilibrium
10-3 dm-6 atm-2 mol2 Constant K, Reaction Quotient Q and
(JEE Main 2019, January) Gibbs Energy G
22. Consider the reaction 26. Standard entropies of X 2, Y 2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and
50 J K-1 moi-1, respectively. For the reaction,
N 2(g) + 3H 2(g) ~ 2NH3(g)
The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is KP.
If pure ammonia is left to dissociate, the partial pres-
sure of ammonia at equilibrium is g iven by (Assume that
to be at equilibrium, the temperature w ill be
PNH, << P.oiai at equ ilibrium)
(1) 1250 K (2) 500 K
3312K p
112
p
2 3 312 K 112
p p
2 (3) 750 K (4) 1000 K
(1) (2)
4 16 (AIEEE 2008)
K l/2p2 K 112 p 2 27. A vessel at 100 Kcontains CO2w ith a pressure of0.5 atm.
p p
(3) (4) Some of the CO2 is converted into CO on the addition of
4 16
graphite. If the tota l pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm,
(JEE Main 2019, January) the value of K p is
23. In a chemical reaction, A + 2B ........!--

2C + D, the initial (1) 3 atm (2) 0.3 atm
concentration of B was 1.5 times of the concentration of (3) 0.18 atm (4) 1.8 atm
A, but the equilibrium concentrations of A and B were (AIEEE 2011)
found to be equa l. The equilibrium constant (K) for the
aforesaid chemical reaction is 28. The fo llowing reaction is performed at 298 K.
(2) 16 2NO(g) + 0 2(g) ~ 2NO2(g)
(4) 1 The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is

86.6 kJ m o l- 1 at 298 K. What is the standard free energy
(JEE Main 2019, January) of formation of NO 2(g) at 298 K? (KP= 1.6 x 10 12)
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(1) 86600 + R(298) In (1.6 x 10 12) (1) The equilibrium constant is large suggestive of
reaction going to completion and so no catalyst is
(2) 86600 - In (1.6 X 1012) required.
R(298)
(2) The equil ibrium will shift in forward direction as the
(3) 0.5[2 X 86,600 - R(298) In (1.6 X 10 12)] pressure increases.
(4) R(298) In (1.6 X 1012)- 86600 (3) The equilibrium constant decreases as the tempera-
(JEE Main 2015, Offline) ture increases.
(4) The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not
29. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reac- affect the equilibrium constant.
tion 2A ~ B + C is 2494.2 J. At a given time, the com-
position of the reaction mixture is [A] = _!_ , [B] = 2 and
2
[C] = _!_.The reaction proceeds in the Topic 4: Factors Affecting Equilibria
2
[R = 8.314 J K-1mot-1, e = 2.7 18] 34. One of the following equilibrium 1s not affected by
(1) reverse direction because Q > Kc change in volume of the flask
(2) forward direction because Q < Kc (1) PCl5 (g) ~ PCl/g)+Cli(g)
(3) reverse direction because Q < Kc
(2) N 2 (g) + 3H2(g) ~ 2NH3 (g)
(4) forwa rd direction because Q > Kc
(JEE Main 2015, Offline) (3) N 2 (g) + 0 2(g) ~ 2NO(g)
30. At 320 K, a gas A2 is 20% dissociated to A(g). The stan- (4) SO2Cli(g) ~ SO 2 (g) + Cl2 (g)
dard free energy change at approximately (R = 8.314 J K- 1 (AIEEE 2002)
mol- 1; In 2 = 0.693; In 3 = 1.098)
35. The energies of activation for forward and reverse reac-
(1) 4763 (2) 2068
tions for A 2 + B 2 ~ 2AB are 180 kJ mot- 1 and 200 kJ
(3) 1844 (4) 4281
mot- 1, respectively. The presence of a catalyst lowers the
activation energy of both (forward and reverse) reactions
31. 5.1 g ofNH4SH is introduced in 3.0 L evacuated flask at by 100 kJ mot-1. The enthalpy change of the reaction (A2 +
327°C. 30% of the solid NH4 SH decomposed to NH3 and B 2 ➔ 2AB) in the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mot- 1)
~S as gases. The KP of the reaction at 327°C is (1) 20 (2) 300
(R = 0.082 L atm mo1- 1K- 1, Molar mass ofS = 32 g mo1- 1, (3) 120 (4) 280
molar mass ofN = 14 g mot- 1) (AIEEE 2007)
(1) 0.242 x 10-4 atrn2 (2) 1 x 10-4 atm2
36. What happens when an inert gas is added to an equil ib-
(3) 4.9 x 10-3 atm2 (4) 0.242 atm 2 rium keeping volume unchanged?
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) More product will form.
32. For the equilibrium, (2) Less product will form.
(3) More reactant will form.
2H 2O ~ Hp+ +OH-, the value of /J..G0 at 298 K is
(4) Equilibrium wi ll remain unchanged.
approximately
(1) 100 kJ mot-1 (2) - 80 kJ mo1-1
(3) 80 kJ mo1- 1 (4) - 100 kJ mot- 1 37. The increase of pressure on ice water system at constant
temperature will lead to
(1) no effect on the equilibrium.
33. For the reaction,
(2) a decrease in the entropy of the system.
2 SO 2 (g) + 0 2(g) ~ 2 SO3 (g),
(3) a shift of the equilibrium in the forward direction.
Mi = - 57 .2 kJ mo1- 1 and K c= 1.7 x 1016. (4) an increase in the Gibbs energy of the system.
Which of the following statement is incorrect? (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2)
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EQUILIBRIUM CQ-37
38. In which of the following reactions, an increase in the 45. Hydrogen ion concentration in mol L- 1 in a solution of
volume of the container will favour the formation of pH= 5.4 will be
products? (1) 3.98 X 108 (2) 3.88 X 106
(1) 2NO2 (g) ~ 2NO(g)+ O 2 (g) (3) 3.68 X 10-6 (4) 3.98 X 10-6
(AIEEE 2005)
(2) H 2 (g)+ l 2 (g) ~ 2HI(g)
46. What is the conjugate base of OH- ?
(3) 4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) ~ 4 NO(g) +6H 2 O(l)
(1) 02 (2) Hp
(4) 3O/g) ~ 2O3(g) (3) o- (4) 0 2-
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (AIEEE 2005)
39. The gas phase reaction 2NO/g) ➔ Np/g) is an 47. Four species are listed below
exothermic reaction. The decomposition ofNp4 , in equi-
(I) Hco; (II) H3O+ (III) HSO~ (IV) HSO3F
librium mixture ofNO/ g) and Np/g), can be increased
by Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
( 1) lowering the temperature. their acid strength?
(2) increasing the pressure. (1) IV < II <III <I (2) II < III <I <IV
(3) addition of an inert gas at constant volume. (3) I < III < II < IV (4) III <l< IV< II
(4) addition of an inert gas at constant pressure. (AIEEE 2008)
(JEE Main 2018, Online) 48. The pK. of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pKb of a weak
base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the
Topic 5: Acids, Bases and Salts, Ionization of corresponding salt, BA, will be
Acids and Bases
(1) 9.58 (2) 4.79
40. pH of 0.005 M calcium acetate (pK. of CH3COOH = (3) 7.01 (4) 9.22
4.74) is (AIEEE 2008)
(1) 7.04 (2) 9.37 49. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3. The
(3) 9.26 (4) 8.37 value of the ionisation constant, K. of this acid is
(AIEEE 2002) (1) 3 X 10-1 (2) 1 X 10-3
41. Which one of the following substances has the highest (3) 1 X 10-s (4) 1 X 10-7
proton affinity? (AIEEE 2012)
(1) Hp (2) H2S 50. Assuming that the degree of hydrolysis is small, the pH of
(3) NH3 (4) PH3 0.1 M solution of sodium acetate (K. = 1.0 x 10-s) will be
(AIEEE 2003) (1) 5.0 (2) 6.0
42. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide? (3) 8.0 (4) 9.0
(1) ZnO (2) Nap
(3) SO2 (4) Bp3 51. The conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is
(AIEEE 2003) (1) N3- (2) N;
43. To neutralise completely 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solu-
tion of phosphorous acid (HlO3), the volume of 0. 1 M (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3)
aqueous KOH solution required is 52. Which of the following salts is the most basic in aqueous
(1) l0mL (2) 60 mL solution?
(3) 40 mL (4) 20 mL (1) CH3COOK (2) FeC13
(AIEEE 2004) (3) Pb(CH3COO)2 (4) Al(CN\
44. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character? (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
(1) CaO (2) CO2 53. An alkali is titrated agai nst an acid with methyl
(3) SiO2 (4) SnO2 orange as indicator, which of the following is a correct
(AIEEE 2005) combination?
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JEE MAIN - CHEMISTRY
Base Acid End point 59. In a saturated solution of the sparingly soluble strong
electrolyte AglO 3 (Molecular mass = 283 g mol- 1) the
(1) Strong Strong Pinkish red to yellow equilibrium which sets in is
(2) Weak Strong Yellow to pinkish red AgI03 (s) ~ Ag+(aq)+ IO~(aq)
(3) Strong Strong Pink to colorless If the solubility product constant K,p of AgI03 at a given
(4) Weak Strong Colorless to pink temperature is 1.0 x 1o-s, what is the mass of AglO 3 con-
tained in 100 mL of its saturated solution?
(JEE Main 2018, Offline) (1) 1.0 X 10-4 g (2) 28.3 X l 0-2 g
54. Following four solutions are prepared by mixing different (3) 2.83 X 10- g 3
(4) 1.0 X 10-7 g
volumes of NaOH and HC I of different concentrations, (AIEEE 2007)
pH of which one of them wi ll be equal to 1?
60. T he pK. of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. T he pOH of an aque-
M M ous buffered solution of HA in which 50% of the acid is
(1) 100 mL-HCl + l00 mL-NaOH
10 10 ionised is
(1) 7.0 (2) 4.5
(2) 75 mL M H CI + 25 mL M NaOH
5 5 (3) 2.5 (4) 9.5
M M (AIEEE 2007)
(3) 60 mL-HC l+40 mL- NaOH
10 10 61. Solid Ba(NO)2 is gradually dissolved in a 1.0 x 10-4 M
Na 2CO3 solution. At what concentration ofBa2+ w ill a pre-
(4) 55 mL M HCl + 45 mL M NaOH cipitate begin to form? (G iven K,p for BaCO3 = 5.1 x 10-9.)
10 10
(1) 8. 1 x 10-sM (2) 8. 1 x 10-1 M
(JEE Main 2018, Online) 5
(3) 4.l xl0- M (4) 5.l x l0-5 M
55. 50 mL of0.5 M oxalic acid is needed to neutralize 25 mL (AIEEE 2009)
of sodium hydroxide solution. T he amount of NaOH in
50 mL of the given sodium hydroxide solution is 62. Addition of sodium hydroxide solution to a weak acid
(HA) results in a buffer of pH 6. If ionisation constant of
(1)40g (2)10g
HA is 10-5, the ratio of salt to acid concentration in the
(3) 20 g (4) 80 g buffer solution w ill be
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) 5 :4 (2) 1 : l0
(3) 4 :5 (4) 10 : 1
Topic 6: Buffer Solutions and Solubility Equilibria
of Sparingly Soluble Salts (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1)
63. 50 mL of0.2 M ammonia solution is treated with 25 mL

56. An aqueous solution of 1 M NaCl and 1 M HC I is
of0.2 M H CI. IfpKb of ammonia solutio n is 4.75, the pH
(1) not a buffer but pH < 7. of the mixture w ill be
(2) not a buffer but pH > 7. (1) 4.75 (2) 3.75
(3) a buffer w ith pH < 7. (3) 9.25 (4) 8.25
(4) a buffe r w ith pH > 7. (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2)
(AIEEE 2002)
64. An aqueous solution contain s an unknown concentration
57. Solubility of Ca(OH)2 is mol L-1. The solubility product of Ba2+. When 50 mL of a l M solution of Na 2 SO4 is
(Ksp) under the same condition is added, BaSO4 j ust begins to precipitate. The fi nal volume
(1) 4S3 (2) 3S4 is 500 mL. The solubility product of B aSO4 is 1 x 10- 10•
What is the original concentration ofBa2+?
(3) 4S2 (4) S3
(AIEEE 2002) (1)2xlQ-9 M (2) 1.1 x 10-9 M
(3) 1.0 X 10- 10 M (4)5x l 0-9 M
58. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB 2 is
1.0 x 10-5 mol L- 1. Its solubility produc t number will be (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
(1) 4 X lQ- 15 (2) 4 X l0- IO 65. A mixture of 100 m mol of Ca(OH)2 and 2 g of sodium
(3) l X 10- 15 (4) l X 10- 10 sulphate was dissolved in water and the volume was made
(AIEEE 2003) up to 100 mL. T he mass of calc ium sulphate formed and
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EQUILIBRIUM CQ-39
(III)
±L_
the concentration of OH- in resulting solution, respec-
tively, are (Molar mass of Ca(OH)2, Na2SO4 and CaSO4
are 74, 143 and 136 g mo1- 1, respectively; K,p of Ca(OH\
is 5.5 X 10--6)
V(ml )
(1) 1.9 g, 0.28 mol L- 1 (2) 13.6 g, 0.28 mol L- 1
(3) 1.9 g, 0.14 mol L- 1 (4) 13.6 g, 0.14 mol L- 1 (IV)
(1) 8 X 10- M12

66. If K,p of Ag2 CO3 is 8 x 10-12, the molar solubility of

Ag2CO3 in 0.1 M AgNO3 is
(2) 8 X 10- M11

•"l~ . V(ml)
10 (4) 8 X 10- 13 M
(3) 8 X 10- M (1) (II) (2) (I)
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3) (III) (4) (IV)
67. If solubility product of Zr3(PO4\ is denoted by K,p and its
molar solubility is denoted by S, then which of the follow- 69. Consider the following statements
ing relation between S and K,p is correct? (I) The pH of a mixture containing 400 mL of 0.1 M
H 2SO4 and 400 mL of 0.1 M NaOH w ill be approx-
K )u
6 1 7
_ Ksp )
imately 1.3.
(1) S =
( ------"'--
(2) S= '
144 ( 6912 (II) Ionic product of water is temperature dependent.
19 117
(III) A monobasic acid w ith K0 = 10-s has a pH = 5.
K --) The degree of dissociation of this acid is 50%.
(3) S = ( ------"' '
(4) S = ( ------"'
K -- )
929 ~~= 2 16 (IV) The Le C hatelier's principle is not appl icable to
common-ion effect.
The correct statements are
68. In an acid-base titration, 0. 1 M HCI solution was added (1) (I), (II) and (IV)
to the NaOH solution of unknown strength. Which of the
(2) (I), (II) and (III)
following correctly shows the change of pH of the titra-
(3) (II) and (III)
tion mixture in this experiment?
(4) (I) and (II)
70. What is the molar solubility of Al(OH\ in 0.2 M NaOH

(DP~
solution? Given that, solubility product of Al(OH)3 =
2.4 X 10-24
V(ml )
(1) 3 X 10- 19
(2) 12 X 10-21
(II) (3) 3 X J0-22
:Le V(ml)
(4) 12 X 10-23
71. The minimum volume of water required to dissolve 0.1 g 72. 20 mL of 0.1 M H 2SO4 solution is added to 30 mL of
lead (II) chloride to get a saturated solution (KSp ofPbC12 = 0.2 M NHpH solution. The pH of the resultant mixture
3.2 x 10-8 ; Atomic mass of Pb = 207 u) is _ __ _. is [pKb ofNHpH = 4 .7].
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73. The pH of a 0.02 M NHSI solution will be [given 77. The equilibrium concentration ratio of C to A if 2.0 mot
Kb (NHpH) = 10-s and log 2 = 0.301] each of A and B were allowed to come to equilibrium at
300Kis _ _ __
74. At a certain temperature, Kc = 0.64 for the reaction
NO2 (g) + NO(g) ~ N 2 O(g) + O 2 (g). Equal moles of A+B ~ C+ D; 1'1G 0 = 460cal
NO and NO2 are to be placed in a 5.0 L container until the
Np concentration at equilibrium is 0.05 M. How many 78. What will be pH of the resulting solution obtained by
moles of gases exist in the vessel? mixing 10 mL of0.1 N HCI and 990 mL solution o NaCl?
75. l 00 mL of 0.12 M aqueous ammonia solution is titrated 79. The pH of an aqueous solution of a sparingly soluble
with 0.12 M H2SO4 solution. The pH value at equivalence metal hydroxide M(OH\ with [M2+] = 0.05 M and solu-
point is [Given pK. for ammonia= 9.26.] bility product 5 x I 0-16 moPdm-9 at 298 K is _ _ __
76. A 1.0 M solution of acetic acid has a pH of 2.37. What 80. What will be the pH of I L of a buffer solution containing
percentage of the acetic acid is ionized in the solution? 0.Ql M NH4 Cl and 0.Ql M NHpH having pKb = 5?
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CHAPTERS

Topic 1: Redox Reactions in Terms of Electron 6. How many electrons are involved in the following redox
Transfer Reactions reaction?
Cr2O 72- + Fe2+ + C 2O;- ➔ Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO2 (Unbalanced)
1. Which of the following is redox reaction?
KNO ➔ (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) NaCl + 3
NaNO3 + KCl
(2) CaCp + 2HC1 ➔ CaCl2 + H 2C 2O4 (3) 6 (4) 5
(3) Ca(OH\ + 2NH4C l ➔ CaC12 + 2NH3 + 2Hp (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
(4) 2K[Ag(CN)2] + Zn ➔ 2Ag + ~ [Zn(CN\] 7. In a complexometric titration of metal ion with ligand
(AIEEE 2002) M(Metal ion) + L(Ligand) ➔ C(Complex) end point is
estimated spectrophotometrica lly (through light absorp-
2. Mno; is a good oxidiz ing agent in different medium tion). If 'M' and 'C' do not absorb light and only 'L'
changing to
absorbs, then the titration plot between absorbed light (A)
MnO; ➔ Mn2+ versus volume of ligand 'L' (V) would look like
➔ Mno;-
(I ) (2)
➔ MnO2
tA tA
➔ Mn2O3
Changes in oxidation number, respectively, are:
(1) 1,3, 4, 5 (2) 5, 4, 3, 2 V (Ligand) --. V (Ligand) --.
(3) 5, 1, 3, 4 (4) 2,6, 4,3
(3) (4)
(AIEEE 2002)
3. Consider the following nuclear reactions:
tA tA
238 M ➔ , N + 4He ,N ➔ AL+ 213+
92 y 2 y B
The number of neutrons in the element L is V (Ligand) --. V (Ligand) --.

(1) 142 (2) 146
(3) 140 (4) 144
(AIEEE 2004) 8. For standardising NaOH solution, which of the following
is used as a primary standard?
4. Which of the following is not formed when H 2S reacts
( I) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
with acidic K 2Cr2 O7 solution?
(2) di!. HCl
(1) CrSO4 (2) Cr/SOJ3
(3) Oxalic acid
(3) ~SO4 (4) S
(4) Sodium tetraborate
5. Hydrogen peroxide acts both as an oxidizing and as a
reducing agent depending upon the nature of the reacting 9. In the reaction of oxalate with permanganate in acidic
species. In which of the following cases Hp2 acts as a medium, the number of e lectrons involved in producing
reducing agent in acid medium? one molecule of CO2 is
(1) MnO4- (2) Cr2O;- ( 1) l (2) 10
(3) so;- (4) KI (3) 2 (4) 5
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10. 25 mL of the given HCI solution requires 30 mL of0.1 M 15. Which of the following reactions is an example ofa redox
sodium carbonate solution. What is the volume of this reaction?
HCI solution required to titrate 30 mL of 0 .2 M aqueous (I) XeF6 + Hp ➔
XeOF4 + 2HF
NaOH solution?
(2) XeF6 + 2Hp ➔ XeOl2 + 4HF
( 1) 25 mL (2) 75 mL
(3) XeF4 + Ol2 ➔ XeF6 + 0 2
(3) 50 mL (4) 12.5 mL
(JEE Main 2019, January) (4) XeF2 + PF5 ➔ [XeF]+PF6-
Topic 2: Oxidation Number
16. In which of the following reactions, hydrogen peroxide
11. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product acts as an oxidising agent?
formed by the reaction between Kl and acidified potas- (1) 12 + HP2 + 20W ➔ 21- + 2Hp + 0 2
sium dichromate solution is
(2) PbS + 48zO2 ➔ PbSO4 + 4Hp
(1) +4 (2) +6
(3) +2 (4) +3 (3) 2MnO~ + 3H2O 2 ➔ 2MnO 2 + 30 2 + 2Hp + 20W
(AIEEE 2005) (4) Hoc 1 + Hp2 ➔ Hp++ c 1- + 0 2
12. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be deter- (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1)
mined by its titration with KMnO4 solution in the pres- 17. Consider the following reaction
ence of H 2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result
when carried out in the presence ofHCI, because HCI xMnO 4- + yep~- +zH+ ➔ xMn 2 + +2yCO2 +~Hp
2
(1) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to c hl orine.
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively
(2) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.
(1) 2, 5 and 8 (2) 2 , 5 and 16
(3) reduces permanganate to Mnz+.
(3) 5,2and8 (4) 5, 2andl6
(4) oxidizes oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
(JEE Main 2013)
(AIEEE 2008)
18. The equation which is ba lanced and represents the cor-
13. In which of the following reactions Hp2 acts as a reduc- rect product(s) is
ing agent?
(I) LiO + 2KCI ➔ 2LiCI + K 2O
(I) Hz02 + 2H+ + 2e- ➔ 2H2O
(2) [CoCl(NH 3 \ r +SW ➔ Co 2+ +sNH: +c1-
(II) Hz02 -2e- ➔ 0 2 + 2H+
(3) [Mg(H2O)S+ + (EDTA)4- excessNaOH
(III) H z02 + 2e- ➔ 2OW
(IV) Hp2 +20W-2e- ➔ 0 2 +2H 2O [Mg(EDTA))2+ +6H 2O
(4) CuSO 4 + 4KCN ➔ K 2[Cu (CN)4] + K 2SO4
(1 ) (I), (II) (2) (III), (IV)
(3) (I), (III) (4) (II), (IV) (JEE Main 2014, Offline)
19. In order to oxidize a mixture of one mole of each of
14. Consider the reaction: FeCp4, Fez(Cp4) 3, FeSO4 and Fe/SO4\ in acidic
4 medium, the number of moles ofKMnO4 required is
H 2SO3 (aq) + Sn +(aq) + H 2O(I) ➔ Sn 2+(aq) + HSO~(aq)
(1) 2 (2) 1
+3W(aq)
(3) 3 (4) 1.5
Which of the following statements is correct?
(I) Sn4+ is the oxidiz ing agent because it undergoes
oxidation. 20. The correct order of the oxidation states of nitrogen in
NO, Np, NO2 and Np3 is
(2) Sn 4+ is the reducing agent because it undergoes
oxidation. (1) NO2<NO<NP3 <NP
(3) H 2SO3 is the reducing agent becau se it undergoes (2) NO2 < Np3 <NO< Np
oxidation.
(3) Np < Np3 <NO <NO 2
(4) H 2SO 3 is the reducing agent because it undergoes
reduction. (4) NP<NO<NP3 <NO2
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4) (JEE Main 2019, April)
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REDOX REACTIONS CQ-43
21. An example of a disproportionation reaction is 26. What will occur if a block of copper metal is dropped into
a beaker containing a solution of 1 M ZnSO4 ?
(1) 2MnO; + 101- + 16W ➔ 2Mn 2- +5I 2 +8H p ( I) The copper metal w ill dissolve with evolution of
oxygen gas.
(2) 2NaBr + C l2 ➔ 2NaCI + Br2
(2) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of
(3) 2KMnO4 ➔ K 2MnO 4 + M nO 2 + 0 2 hydrogen gas.
(3) No reaction will occur.
(4) 2CuBr ➔ CuBr2 + Cu
(4) The copper metal will dissolve and z inc metal will
(JEE Main 2019,April) be deposited.
Topic 3: Redox Reactions and Electrode Processes
27. Consider the following standard e lectrode potentials
22. Which of the fo llowing c hemical reactions depicts the (E0 in volts) in aqueou s solution:
oxidizing behaviour of H 2SO/ E lement M 3+/M M+fM
(1) 2HI + H2 SO4 ➔ l2 Al -1.66 +0.55
(2) Ca(OH\ + H 2 SO4 ➔ CaSO4 + 2Hp Tl + 1.26 - 0.34
(3) NaCl + H 2 SO4 ➔ NaHSO 4 + HC I B ased on these data, which of the following statements is
correct?
(4) 2PC l5 + 8iSO4 ➔ 2POCl3 + 2HCI + SO2Cl2
(AIEEE 2006) (1) Tl+ is more stable than Al+
(2) Tl3+ is more stable than Al3+
23. In aqueous solution the ionization constants for carbonic
(3) Al+ is more stable than A l3+
acid are K 1 = 4.2 x 10-7 and K 2 = 4 .8 x 10- 11 .
(4) Tl+ is more stable than Al3+
Select the correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M solu-
tion of the carbonic acid.
( I) T he concentration of H+is double that of co;- . 28. Consider the following reduction processes:
(2) T he concentration of co;- is 0.034 M . Zn2+ + 2e- ➔ Zn(s); E 0 = - 0.76 V

Ca2+ + 2e- ➔ Ca(s); E 0 = - 2.87 V
(3) T he concentration of co;- is greater than of
HCO~ . Mg2+ + 2e- ➔ Mg(s); E° = - 2.36 V
(4) T he concentrations of H+ and HCO~ are approxi- N i2+ + 2e- ➔ N i(s); E 0 = - 0.25 V
mately equa l.
T he reducing power of the metals increases in the
(AIEEE 2010)
orde r is
24. T he metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an (I) Ca < Zn < Mg < N i
aqueous solution of its salts is (2) N i <Zn <Mg<Ca
(1) Ag (2) Ca (3) Zn <Mg<Ni <Ca
(3) Cu (4) Cr (4) Ca< Mg<Zn <Ni
(JEE M ain 2014, Offiine) (JEE Main 2019, January)
25. G iven 29. G iven that E;,m,o = + 1.23 V;

Fe +(aq)+e- ➔ Fe +(aq);E 0 = +o.77V
3 2
Al3+(aq)+3e- ➔ Al(s);E0 = - 1.66V
➔ 2Br- ;E =+ 1. 09V
0
Br2 (aq)+2e- 0
£ Au
,.
/ Au
=+l .4V
Considering the electrode potentials, which of the follow-
ing represents the correct order of reducing power? The strongest oxidizing agent is
( I) Fe2+ <Al < Br- (2) Br-< Fe2+ < A l (l ) Au3+ (2) 02
(3) Al < Br-< Fe2+ (4) Al < Fe2+ < Br- (3) S2 0 ;- (4) Br2
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2) (JEE M ain 2019, April)
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30. Given: (1) Ce4 + < Pb4 + < Bi 3+ < Co3+

Co3 + + e- ➔ Co2 +; E0 = + 1.81 V (2) Bi3+ < Ce+4 +< Pb4+ < Co3+
Pb4+ + 2e- ➔ Pb2+; £ 0 = + 1.67 V (3) Co3+ < Ce4+ < Bi3+ < Pb4+
Ce + + e- ➔ Ce +; E = + 1.61 V
4 3 0
(4) Co3+ < Pb4+ < Ce4+ < Bi3+
Bi 3+ + 3e- ➔ Bi; £ 0 = +0.20 V (JEE Main 2019, April)
Oxidizing power of the species will increase in the
order
31. The number of electron involved in the conversion of 36. Oxidation state of Cr in Cr05 is _ _ _ __
MnO~ to Mn02 is _ _ _ __
37. O.ot mol of FeS,, (iron (II) sulphide) required 0.06 mol
of AO!- for complete oxidation. The species formed
32. In Ba(HlO2) 2 the oxidation number of phosphorus is
are FeO, SO2 , and A2+. The value of n is _ _ _ __
33. In bleaching powder (CaOCl2), the oxidation states 38. 1575 g of oxalic acid (COOH\ ·xHp are dissolved in
of chlorine are x and y. Value of (redox can be removed) water and the volume made upto 250 mL. On titration,
x + y is _ _ __ 16.68 mL of this solution requires 25 mL ofN/15 NaOH
solution for complete neutralization. The value of x is
34. Given balanced chemical equation for oxidation of phos-
phorous (III) sulphide by nitric acid. The product include
NO and SO2. 39. The equivalent weight of a metal carbonate 0.84 g
of which reacts exactly with 40 mL of N/2 H 2 SO4 is
aP4 S6 +bH++ cNo; ~ dNO + eH3 PO4 + JSO 2 + gH2 O
What is the value of (a + g)?
40. If 6 X 10-3 mol of ~crp7 reacts complete ly with
35. In the redox reaction, 9 x 10-3 mol of X + to give XO; and Cr3+ then the value
11
xNO; + yAs 2 S 3 + zH2 O ~ AsO!- + NO++ so;- + H+· ofn is _ _ __

What is the value of(xly)?
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CHAPTER9

Topic 1 : Preparation and Properties of 5. The most abundant elements by mass in the body of a
Dihydrogen, H2 healthy human adult are: Oxygen (6 1.4%); Carbon
(22.9%), Hydrogen (1 0.0%); and Nitrogen (2.6%). The
1. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen weight which a 75 kg person would gain if all 'H atoms
from water gas (CO + H2), which of the following is the are replaced by 2H atoms is
correct statement?
(1) 7.5 kg (2) 10 kg
(1) CO and H2 are fractionally separated using differ-
(3) 15 kg (4) 37.5 kg
ences in their densities.
(JEE Main 2017, Offiine)
(2) CO is removed by absorpti on in aqueous Cu 2Cl2
solution. 6. In the manufacture of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2) ,
(3) H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd. which of the fo llowing is correct statement?
(4) CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the presence ( 1) CO is oxidized to CO2 with steam in the presence of
of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2 in a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2 in alkali.
alka li. (2) CO and H2 are separated based on difference in their
(AIEEE 2008) densities.
(3) Hydrogen is isolated by diffusion.
2. Very pure hydrogen (99.9%) can be made by which of the (4) H2 is removed by occlusion with Pd.
following processes?
(1) Reaction of methane with steam. 7. The isotopes of hydrogen are
(2) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular (1) tritium and protium only
weight. (2) protium and deuterium only
(3) Electrolysis of water. (3) protium, deuterium and tritium
(4) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water. (4) deuterium and tritium only
(AIEEE 2012) (JEE Main 2019, January)
3. Which physical property of di hydrogen is wrong? 8. The total number of isotopes of hydrogen and number of
radioactive isotopes among them, respectively, are
( 1)Colourless gas
(2) Odourless gas ( 1) 3 and 1 (2) 3 and 2
(3) Tasteless (3) 2 and 1 (4) 2and0
(4) Non-inflammable gas (JEE Main 2019, January)
Topic 2: Hydrides and Water
4. Identify the reaction which does not liberate hydrogen
9. Which one of the following processes will produce hard
(1) reaction of lithium hydride with B 2H6 . water?
(2) electrolysis of acidified water using Pt electrodes. (1) Saturation of water with CaCO3•
(3) reaction of zinc with aqueous alkali . (2) Saturation of water with MgCO3•
(4) allowing a solution of sodium in liquid ammonia to (3) Saturation of water with CaSO4 •
stand.
(4) Addition of Na2SO4 to water.
(AIEEE 2003)
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10. Permanent hardness in water cannot be cured by 16. The correct statements among (I) to (IV) are
(I) boiling. (I) saline hydrides produce H2 gas when reacted with
(2) ion exchange method. Hp.
(3) Calgon's method. (II) reaction ofLiAIH4 with BF3 leads to B 2 H 6 .
(4) treatment with washing soda. (III) PH3 and CH 4 are electron - rich and e lectron -
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-1) precise hydr ides, respectively.
(IV) HF and CH4 are called as molecular hydrides.
11. Which one of the following statements about water is ( 1) (I), (11), (III) and (IV)
false?
(2) (III) and (IV) only
(1) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water.
(3) (I), (III) and (IV) only
(2) Water is oxidised to oxygen during photosynthesis.
(3) Water can act both as an acid as a base. (4) (I), (II) and (III) only
(4) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding (JEE Main 2019,April)
in the condensed phase. 17. The temporary hardness of a water samp le is due to
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) compound X. Boiling this sample converts X to com-
pound Y. X and Y, respectively, are
12. The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and iron in a
(I) Mg(HCO)2 a nd Mg(OH\
water sample from an underground lake was found to be
1000 ppb, 40 ppb, I 00 ppm and 0.2 ppm, respectively. (2) Ca(HCO3\ and Ca(OH)2
This water is unsuitable for drinking due to high concen- (3) Mg(HCO)2 and MgCO3
tration of (4) Ca(HCO3\ and CaO
(I) iron. (2) fluoride. (JEE Main 2019, April)
(3) lead. (4) nitrate.
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) Topic 3: Hydrogen Peroxide (H2 O2), Heavy Water
(020) and Dihydrogen as a Fuel
13. A water sample has ppm level concentration of following
anions 18. Which of the following could act as a propellant for
F- = 10· so2- = 100· No- =
' 4 ' 3
so rockets?
The anion/anions that make/makes the water sample (1) Liquid hydogen + liquid nitrogen
unsuitable for drinking is/are (2) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon
(I) only F- (3) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen
(2) only so;- (4) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen
(AIEEE 2003)
(3) only NO;
19. From the following statements regarding Hp 2
, choose
(4) both so;- and NO; the incorrect state ment:
(JEE Main 2017, Offline) (I) It decomposes on exposure to light.
(2) It has to be stored in plastic or wax line d glass
14. The temporary hardness of water is due to
bottles in dark.
( 1) Na2 SO4 (2) NaCl
(3) It has to be kept away from dust.
(3) Ca(HCO3\ (4) CaCl2 (4) It can act only as an oxidizing agent.
(JEE Main 2019, January) (JEE Main 2015, Offline)
15. HF has highest boiling point among hydrogen halides, 20. Identify the incorrect statement regarding heavy water.
because it has ( I) It reacts with SO3 to form deuterated sulphuric acid
( 1) strongest van der Waals' interactions (D 2 SO4) .
(2) lowest ionic character (2) It is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors.
(3) strongest hydrogen bonding (3) It reacts w ith CaC2 to produce cp 2
and Ca(OD\.
(4) lowest dissociation enthalpy (4) It reacts with A1 4C 3 to produce CD4 and Al(OD\.
(JEE Main 2019,April) (JEE Main 2016, Online paper-I)
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HYDROGEN CQ-47
21. Hp 2
is (2) reduc ing agent in basic medium, but not in acidic
(1) an oxidizing agent. medium.
(2) a reducing agent. (3) oxidizing and reducing agent in acidic medium, but
not in basic medium.
(3) both oxidiz ing and reducing agent.
(4) oxidizing and reducing agent in both acidic and basic
(4) neither oxidizing nor reducing agent. medium.
22. In the reaction, (JEE Main 2019, January)
2FeSO4 + H 2 SO 4 + Hp 2
➔ Fe/SO4\ + 2Hp , the ox idiz- 25. The correct statements among (D to (IV) regarding H 2 as
ing agent is a fue l are
(2) H2SO 4 (I) It produces less pollutants than petrol.
(4) both 8iSO4 and Hp 2
(ID A cylinder of compressed dihydrogen weighs ~30
times more than a petrol tank produc ing the sam e
23. Hydrogen peroxide oxidizes [Fe(CN)l- to [Fe(CN)6]3- in amount of energy.
acidic medium but reduces [Fe(CN)y- to [Fe(CN)6]4- (III) Dihydrogen is stored in tanks of me ta l a lloys like
in alka line medium. T he other products formed are, NaNi5•
respectively
(IV) On combustion, values of energy released per gram
(1) (Hp + 0 2) and (Hp+ OH-) of liquid dihydrogen and LPG are 50 and 142 kJ,
respectively.
(2) Hp and (Hp + 0 2)
(3) Hp a nd (Hp+ OH-) ( 1) (I) and (III) only (2) (II) and (IV) only
(4) (Hp + 0 2) and Hp (3) (ID, (III) and (IV) only (4) (I), (II) and (III) only
(JEE Main 2018, Offiine) (JEE Main 2019, January)
24. The chemical nature of hydrogen peroxide is

(1) oxidizing agent in acidic medium, but not in basic
medium.
26. A commercial sample of hydrogen perox ide is labelled as 29. The number of protons that can be accepted by hydra-
IO volume. Its percentage strength is nearly zine is _ _ __
27. The total number of neutrons present in D 2O 18 molecule 30. The number of moieties available for H-bonding in one
is _ _ _ _ molecule of H 2SO4 is _ _ __
28. The mass number of the e lement obta ined when tritium
undergoes /3-decay is _ _ __
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CHAPTER10

Topic 1: Group 1 Elements: Alkali Metals 6. B oth lithium and magnesium display several similar
properties due to the diagona l relationship; however, the
1. K02 is used in space and submarines because it one whic h is incorrect, is
(1) absorbs CO2 and increase 0 2 concentration. (1) both fo rm nitrides.
(2) absorbs moisture. (2) nitrates of both Li and Mg yie ld N0 2 and 0 2 on
(3) absorbs CO2" heating.
(4) produces ozone. (3) both fo rm basic carbonates.
(AIEEE 2002) (4) both fo rm soluble bicarbonates.
2. An alloy of Na and K is
7. A meta l M reacts with nitrogen gas to afford Mp. M 3N
( I) liquid at room temperature.
on heating at high temperature gives back Mand on reac-
(2) used in specially designed thermometers. tion with water produces a gas B. Gas B reacts with aque-
(3) both ( I) and (2) ous solution ofCuS04 to form a deep blue compound. M
(4) none of these and B, respectively, are
(AIEEE 2002) (1) Li and NH3 (2) A l and N 2
(3) Ba and N 2 (4) Na and NH 3
3. The ionic mobility of alkali meta l ions in aqueou s solu-
tion is maximum for
8. A white sodium salt dissolves readi ly in water to give a
solution which is neutral to litmus. When silver nitrate
solution is added to the aforementioned solution, a white
(AIEEE 2006) precip itate is obta ined which does not dissolve in dil.
nitric acid. T he anion is
4. Which of the following statements about Nap2 is not
correct? (2) so~-
(1 ) It is diamagnetic in nature. (3) ci- (4) s 2
-
(2) It is a derivative ofHp 2

. (JEE Main 2018, Online)
(3) Nap2 oxidizes Cr3+ to CrO~- in acid medium. 9. In K0 2, the nature of oxygen species and the oxidation
(4) It is the super oxide of sodium. state of oxygen atom are, respectively,
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2) (1) oxide and - 2
(2) superoxide and - 1/2
5. T he main oxides fo rmed on combustion of L i, Na and K (3) peroxide and -1/2
in excess of air is, respectively,
(4) superoxide and -1
(1) Lip, Nap2 and K0 2•
(2) Li20, Nap and K0 2 •
10. The metal that form s nitride by reacting directly with N 2
(3) Li0 2, Nap2 and ~O. of air, is
(4) Lip 2
, Nap 2 and K0 2• (I) K (2) L i
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) (3) R b (4) Cs
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11. The metal used for making X-ray tube window is 17. The incorrect statement is
( 1) Mg (2) Na ( 1) lithium is the strongest reduc ing agent among the
(3) Be (4) Ca alkali metals.
(JEE Main 2019, January) (2) lithium is least reactive w ith water among the alkali
metals.
12. Sodium metal on dissolution in liquid ammonia gives a (3) LiNO3 decomposes on heating to give LiNO 2 and
deep blue solution due to the formation of
02.
( 1) sodium-ammonia complex (4) LiCI crystallizes from aqueous solution as LiCI·
(2) sodamide 2Hp.
(3) sodium ion-ammonia complex (JEE Main 2019,April)
(4) ammoniated e lectrons
Topic 2: Group 2 Elements: Alkaline Earth Metals
13. A metal on combustion in excess air forms X. X upon 18. A metal M forms water soluble MSO4 and inert MO. MO
hydrolysis with water y ie lds Hp2 and 0 2 along with in aqueous solution forms insoluble M(OH)2 soluble in
another product. The metal is NaOH. Metal M is
(1) Na (2) Rb (1) Be (2) Mg

(3) Mg (4) Li (3) Ca (4) Si
(JEE Main 2019, January) (AIEEE 2002)
14. The correct statement(s) among (I) to (II) with respect 19. Oxidation number of Cl in CaOCl2 (bleaching powder) is
to potassium ions that are abundant within the cell fluids (1) zero, since it contains Cl2 •
is/are (2) -1 , since it contains c 1-.
(I) They activate many enzymes (3) + 1, since it contains Clo-.
(II) They participate in the oxidation of glucose to (4) + 1 and - I since it contains Clo- and c 1-.
produce ATP (AIEEE 2002)
(III) Along w ith sodium ions, they are responsible for
20. The substance not like ly to contain CaCO is
the transmission of nerve signa ls
(I) a marble statue.
( 1) (I) and (II) only (2) (I) and (III) only
(2) calcined gypsum.
(3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (III) only
(3) sea she lls.
(4) dolomite.
15. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal (AIEEE 2003)
ions is 21. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom ofa
( l ) Li+> Na+> K+ >Cs+ > Rb+ ship to
(2) Na+> Lt > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ ( 1) keep away the sharks.
(3) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+ (2) make the ship lighter.
(3) prevent action of water and salt.
(4) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(JEE Main 2019,April) (4) prevent puncturing by under-sea rocks.
(AIEEE 2003)
16. A hydrated solid X on heating initia lly gives a monohy-
22. The solubility of carbonates decrease down the magne-
drated compound Y. Y upon heating above 373 K leads to
sium group due to a decrease in
an anhydrous white powder Z. X and Z, respectively, are
( 1) lattice energies of solids.
( 1) washing soda and soda ash.
(2) hydration energies of cations.
(2) baking soda and dead burnt plaster.
(3) inter-ionic attraction.
(3) washing soda and dead burnt plaster.
(4) baking soda and soda ash. (4) entropy of solution formation.
(JEE Main 2019,April) (AIEEE 2003)
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THE s-BLOCK ELEMENTS CQ-51
23. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which 29. Which one of th e following a lka line earth metal sul-
are similar. But the two e lements differ in phates has its hydration entha lpy greater than its lattice
( I) exhibiting maximum covalency in compound. entha lpy?
(2) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides. ( 1) BeS04 (2) BaS04
(3) forming covalent ha lides. (3) SrS04 (4) CaS04
(4) forming polymeric hydrides. (JEE Main 2015, Offline)
(AIEEE 2004) 30. Which of the alkaline earth metal halides given below is
essentia lly covalent in nature?
24. One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction with an
(2) BeCl2
excess of water gives
(1) one mole of ammonia. (3) SrCl2 (4) CaCl2
(2) two moles of nitric acid. (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2)
(3) two moles of ammonia.
31. The correct order of the solubility of alkaline earth metal
(4) one mole of nitric acid. sulphates in water is
(AIEEE 2004) (1) Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba (2) Mg > Sr > Ca > Ba
(3) Mg<Ca<Sr < Ba (4) Mg<Sr <Ca< Ba
25. T he charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing
power. W hich one of the following sequences represent
the increasing order of the polarising power of th e cat- 32. The commercial name for calcium oxide is
ionic species, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+and B e2+?
( I) quick lime. (2) milk of lime.
(1) Ca 2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ (3) slaked lime. (4) limestone.
(2) Mg2+ < Be 2+ < K+ < Ca 2+
33. The alkaline earth metal nitrate that does not crystall ize
(3) Be2+ < K+ < Ca 2+ < Mg2+
with water molecules, is
(4) K+ < Ca 2 + < Mg2 + < Be 2+ ( l ) Mg(N03) 2 (2) Sr(N03\
(AIEEE 2007) (3) Ca(N03)z (4) Ba(N03) 2
26. Which one of the followi ng is the correct statement?
(1) Boric acid is a protonic acid. 34. The correct match between Column I and Column II is
(2) Bery llium exhibits coordination number of six. Column I Column II
(3) Chlorides of both beryllium and alum inium have (p) Na2C03·10 Hp ( 1) Portland cement
bridged chloride structures in solid phase. ingredient
(4) B 2H 6 ·2NH 3 is known as " inorganic benzene". (2) Castner-Kellner pro-
(AIEEE 2008) cess
(r) NaOH (3) Solvay process
27. Which of the following on thermal decom position yields (s) Ca3A lz06 (4) Temporary hardness
a basic as well as an acidic oxide?
(I) (p) ➔ (2); (q) ➔ (3); (r)➔ (1); (s)➔ (4)
( I) NaN03 (2) KC10 3
(2) (p) ➔ (3); (q) ➔ (2); (r)➔ (4); (s)➔ ( 1)
(3) CaC03 (4) NH4N03
(3) (p) ➔ (4); (q) ➔ (I); (r)➔ (2); (s)➔ (3)
(AIEEE 2012)
(4) (p) ➔ (3); (q) ➔ (4); (r)➔ (2); (s)➔ (1)
28. Amongst L iCl, RbCl, BeC12 and MgC12 the compounds
with the greatest and th e least ionic character, respec- 35. The correct sequence of thermal stability of the following
tively, are carbonates is
( I) LiC l and RbCI ( 1) B aC03 < CaC03 < SrC03 < MgC03
(2) RbCI and BeCl2 (2) MgC03 < CaC03 < SrC03 < BaC03
(3) MgC12 an d BeC12
(3) MgC03 < SrC03 < CaC03 < BaC03
(4) RbCl and MgCl2
(4) BaC03 < SrC03 < CaC03 < MgC03
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36. The number of rings formed in [Ca(EDTA)]2- is 38. Cl2 gas is passed through a compound A and pro-
duces bleaching powder. The number of protons in A is
37. Among the following compounds, the number of com-

pounds which do not produce acidic or basic solutions 39. The ratio of the number of water of crystallization in gyp-
when dissolved in water is _ _ __ sum and that in plaster of Paris is _ _ __
NaCl, BeCl2 , BaCl2 , Lip, MgO, CaH2 , CaSO4 • 40. The percentage water loss when gypsum is heated to get
plaster of Paris is _ _ __
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CHAPTER11
The p-Block Elements
(Group 13 and 14)

Topic 1: Group 13 Elements:The Boron Family oxide which is used in chromatography as an adsorbent.
The metal 'M' is
1. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid state
( I) Ca (2) Al
as well as in solution of non-polar solvents such as ben-
zene. When dissolved in water, it gives (3) Fe (4) Zn
(1) AP++ 3CI- (2) A lp 3
+ 6HCI
(3) [Al(OH)6]3- (4) [Al(Hp\]3+ + 3CI- 7. Lithium a luminium hydride reacts with silicon tetrachlo-
ride to form
(AIEEE 2004)
(1) LiCI, AIH3 and SiH4 (2) Li Cl, AICl3 and SiH4
2. T he structure of diborane (B 2H 6) contains (3) LiH, AICl3 and SiC l2 (4) LiH, AIH3 and SiH4
( I) four 2c - 2e bonds and two 3c - 2e bonds . (JEE Main 2018, Online)
(2) two 2c - 2e bonds and four 3c - 2e bonds.
8. A Group 13 e lement 'X' reacts w ith chlorine gas to pro-
(3) two 2c - 2e bonds and two 3c - 3e bonds. duce a compound XCl3 . XCl3 is electron deficient and
(4) four 2c - 2e bonds and four 3c - 2e bonds. easily reacts with NH3 to form Cl3X ~ NH 3 adduct; how-
(AIEEE 2005) ever, XCl3 does not dimerise. X is
3. Heating an aqueous solution of aluminium chloride to (1) B (2) Al
dryness will give (3) Ga (4) In
(1 ) AICl3 (2) A l2 Cl6
(3) Alp3 (4) Al(OH)Cl2
9. Aluminium is usua lly found in +3 oxidation state. In con-
(AIEEE 2005)
trast, tha llium exists in + I and +3 oxidation states. This is
4. Boron cannot form which one of the following ani ons? due to
( I) BH ~ (2) B(OH)~ ( 1) inert pair effect.
(3) B O; (4) BF 3- (2) diagona l relationship.
6
(AIEEE 2011) (3) lattice effect.

(4) lanthanoid contraction.
5. In the following sets of reactants which two sets best (JEE Main 2019, January)
exhibi t the amphoteric character of Alp 3 ·xHp?
10. The relative stability of + 1 oxidation state of Group 13
Set I : A lp 3
·xHp (s) and oH-(aq) elements follows the order
Set 2: A lp 3
·xHp (s) and Hp(l) (1) Al < Ga < Tl< In (2) Tl < In < Ga < Al
Set 3: A lp 3
·xHp (s) and W(aq) (3) Ga <Al < In <Tl (4) Al < Ga< In <Tl
Set 4 : A lp 3
·xHp (s) and NH/aq) (JEE Main 2019, January)
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 3
11. Diborane (B 2 H6) reacts independently with 0 2 and Hp to
(3) 2 and 4 (4) 3 and 4
produce, respectively
( 1) Bp 3
and H 3B03 (2) Bp 3
and [BH4 J-
6. When metal ' M ' is treated with NaOH, a white gelatinous
(3) H 3B0 3 and Bp3 (4) HB0 2 and H 3B03
precipitate 'X' is obtained, which is soluble in excess of
NaOH. Compound 'X' when heated strongly gives an (JEE Main 2019, April)
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12. The correct statements among I to III regarding Group 13 17. Example of a three-dimensio na l silicate is
e lement oxides are, (I) Zeolites (2) U ltramarines
(I) Boron trioxide is acidic. (3) Feldspars (4) Beryls
(II) Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric. (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
(III) Oxides of indium and thallium are basic.
18. The correct match between Column I and Column II is
( I) (I) and (II) only
Column I Column II
(2) (1), (II) and (III)
(A) Silica gel (i) Transistor
(3) (I) and (III) only
(B) Silicon (ii) Ion-exchanger
(4) (II) and (III) only
(JEE Main 2019,April) (C) Silicone ( iii) Drying agent
(D) Silicate (iv) Sealant
13. The alloy used in the construction of aircrafts is
( 1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(1) Mg - Al (2) Mg - Zn
(2) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(3) Mg-Sn (4) Mg-Mn
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-I)
Topic 2: Group 14 Elements:The Carbon Family
19. In graphite and diamond, the percentage of p -characters
14. In silicon dioxide, of the hybrid orbitals in hybridizatio n are, respectively,
(1) each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen (1) 33 and 25 (2) 33 and 75
atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two sili-
(3) 50 and 75 ~~~ (4) 67 and 75
con atoms.
(2) each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen
atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two sili- 20. Correct statements among (I) to (IV) regarding silicones
con atoms. are
(3) silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms. (I) They are po lymers w ith hydrophobic character.
(4) there are double bonds between silicon and oxygen (II) T hey are biocompatible.
atoms. (III) In general, they have high thermal stability and
(AIEEE 2005) low dielectric strength.
(IV) Usually, they are resistant to oxidation and u sed as
15. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases
steadily in the sequence: g reases.
(1) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
(1) PbX 2 « SnX 2 « GeX 2 « SiX 2
(2) (I), (II) and (III) only
(2) GeX 2 « SiX2 « SnX 2 « PbX2 (3) (I) and (II) only
(3) SiX 2 « GeX2 « PbX2 « SnX2 (4) (I), (II) and (IV) only
(4) SiX 2 « GeX2 « SnX 2 « PbX 2
21. The one that is extensively used as a piezoelectric
(AIEEE 2007) material is
16. The gas evolved on heating CaF2 and SiO2 w ith concen- (1) tridymite. (2) amorphous silica.
trated H 2 SO4 , on hydrolysis gives a white gelatinous pre- (3) quartz. (4) mica.
cipitate. The precipitate is (JEE Main 2019, January)
(1) hydrofluosilicic acid.
22. The chloride that cannot get hydrolyzed is
(2) silica gel.
(3) silic ic acid. (1) CC14 (2) PbC14
(4) calciumfluorosilicate. (3) SnCl4 (4) SiCl4
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-I) (JEE Main 2019, January)
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THEP -BLOCK ELEMENTS (GROUP 13 AND 14) CQ-55
23. The hyd1ide that is not electron deficient is 28. The correct order of catenation is
(2) B 2H 6 (1) C > Sn > Si "" Ge
(4) AIH3 (2) C > Si > Ge "" Sn
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3) Si >Sn> C > Ge
24. The eleme nt that does not show catenation is (4) Ge>Sn >Si >C
( 1) Ge (2) Si (JEE Main 2019, April)
(3) Sn (4) Pb
29. The basic structural unit of feldspar, zeolites, mica, and
(JEE Main 2019, January) asbestos is
25. T he element that shows greater ability to fo rm pn - pn
multiple bonds is
( 1) Sn (2) C R
(3) Ge (4) Si
I
(4) -f~i-0-rn (R=Me)
(JEE Main 2019, January) R
26. C60, an allotrope of carbon contains
( 1) 12 hexagons and 20 pentagons.
30. The C - C bond length is maximum in
(2) 18 hexagons and 14 pentagons.
(3) 16 hexagons and 16 pentagons. ( 1) graphite (2) c 10
(4) 20 hexagons and 12 pentagons. (3) c6o (4) diamond
(JEE Main 2019,April) (JEE Main 2019, April)
27. The amorphous form of silica is

( 1) tridymite (2) kieselguhr
(3) cristobalite (4) quartz
31. Find the number ofH2 molecules formed from the hydro- 36. Find the number of six membered rings in C 84 .
lysis of one mole of diborane.
37. Among the following, find the number of elements that
32. The maximum number of boron atoms that lie in one show catenation property.
plane for the anionic part of borax is _ _ __ C, Si, P, S, 0, N, Ge
38. W hen SnCp4 is heated in absence of air, find the dif-

33. The number of sp3 hybridized atoms in sodium peroxob-
orate is _ _ __ ference in oxidation states of carbon atom s in gaseous
products.
34. When one mole of ammonium a lum is heated, the num- 39. Find the number of water of crystallization in molecule
ber of moles of gaseous product is _ _ __ of butter of tin.
35. The number of Hp molecules required for complete 40. How many of the Groupl4 e lements have higher value of
hydrolysis of one mole ofboraz ine is _ _ __ IE1 as compared to Pb?
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Organic Chemistry-
CHAPTER12 Some Basic Principles and
Techniques

Topic 1: Tetravalence of Carbon: Shapes of Organic 4. For which of the following molecule significantµ ,t. O?
Compounds and Structural Representations Cl CN
of Organic Compounds
1. Among the following four structures I to I'½ it is true that

(I) (II)
(I) CH3
I
C 2H5 - CH- C3H7
(II) 0 CH3 CN
II I OH SH
CH3 -C-CH-C2H5
(III) H
I
H- C@ (III) (IV)
I
H
(IV) CH3 SH
OH
I
C2H5 - CH- C2H5 ( 1) Only (I)
(1) all four are chiral compounds. (2) (I) and (II)
(2) only I and II are chiral compounds. (3) Only (III)
(3) only III is a chiral compound. (4) (III) and (IV)
(4) only II and IV are chiral compounds. (JEE Main 2014, Offiine)
(AIEEE 2003)
5. In allene (C3HJ, the type(s) of hybridisation of the car-
2. Amongst the following compound, the optica lly active bon atoms is (are)
a lkane having lowest molecular mass is ( 1) sp and sp3
(2) sp2 and sp
(1) H3C ~ CH3 (2)
H3C ~ (3) only sp2
CH
(4) sp2 and sp3
(3) H (4)
~ Ha
H3C-f--<J
C2Hs Topic 2: Nomenclature of Organic Compounds and
H3C CH3
Isomerism
(AIEEE 2004)
6. Racemic mixture is formed by mixing two
3. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion 0.72 g of
(1) isomeric compounds.
water and 3.08 g of CO2 • The empirical formu la of the
hydrocarbon is (2) chiral compounds.
(2) C6H5 (3) meso compounds.
(4) C 2H 4 (4) enantiomers with chiral carbon.
(JEE Main 2013) (AIEEE 2002)
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7. Geometrical isomerism is not shown by 12. Which of the following will have meso-isomer a lso?
(I) I , l-dichloro-1-pentene (I) 2-Chlorobutane
(2) 1,2-dichloro-l-pentene (2) 2-Hydroxyopanoic acid
(3) 1,3-dichloro-2-pentene (3) 2,3-Dichloropentane
(4) 1,4-dichloro-2-pentene (4) 2-3-Dichlorobutane
8. Following types of compounds (as I, II) 13. Of the five isomeric hexan es, the isomer which can give
two monochlorinated compounds is
(I) CH3CH = CHCH3 (II) CH 3-CH- OH
I (1) n-hexane. (2) 2,3-dimethylbutane.
CH2CH3
(3) 2,2-dimethylbutane. (4) 2-methylpentane.
are studied in terms of isomerism in (AIEEE 2005)
(I) chain isomerism.
14. Which types of isomerism is shown by 2,3-dichlorobu-
(2) position isomerism. tane?
(3) conformers.
( 1) Diastereo (2) Optical
(4) stereoisomerism.
(3) Geometric (4) Sturctural
(AIEEE 2002)
(AIEEE 2005)
9. Which of the following compounds has incorrect IUPAC
nomenclature? 15. Which of the following molecules is expected to rotate
the plane of plane-polarised light?
(I) 0 (2) CH3CHCH2CHO
II I (1) CHO
CH3CH2CH2COC2H5 CH3
(Ethylbuanoate)
H
O+H
3-Methyl butanal
(3) 0 (4) CH3CHCHCH3

II I I
CH3CHCCH2CH3 H 3C OH
I CH 2OH
2-Methyl-3-butanol
CH3
2-Methyl-3-pentanone
(AIEEE 2002) (2)~
10. The IUPAC name of the compound SH
HIIIIIH• ,,111IIH
(I) 3,3-dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane
(2) 1, l-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol Ph
Ph
(3) 3,3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol
(4) 1, l-dimethyl-3-hydroxy cyclohexane (4) COOH
(AIEEE 2004)
11. For which of the following parameters the structural iso-
H
,N j H
mers C 2HpH and CHpCH3 would be expected to have

the same values? H
(Assume ideal behaviour) (AIEEE 2007)
( 1) Heat of vaporisation
16. The IUPAC name of the follow ing compound is
(2) Gaseous densities a t the same temperature and
pressure
(3) Boiling points
(4) Vapour pressure at the same temperature
(AIEEE 2004)
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ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES CQ-59
(1) 3-ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane 24. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
(2) 1, l-diethy l-2,2-dimethylpentane
(3) 4,4-dimethyl-5,5-diethylpentane
(4) 5,5-diethy l-4,4-dimethylpentane
(AIEEE 2007)
(1) 4-methyl-3-ethy lhexane
17. The correct decreasing order of priority for the fu nctional (2) 3-ethyl-4-methy lhexane
groups of organic compounds in the fUPAC system of
(3) 3,4-ethylmethylhexane
nomenclature is
(4) 4-ethyl-3-methy lhexane
(1) -COOR , -SO3H, --CONH2, -CHO
(2) -SO3H, -COOR, --CONH2, -CHO (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
(3) -CHO, -COOR, - SO3H, - CONH2 25. W hich of the following compounds will exhibit geomet-
(4) --CONH2, --CHO,-SO3H, -COOR rical isomerism?
(AIEEE 2008) (1) 3-Phenyl-1-butane
18. The absolute configuration of the following structure is (2) 2-Phenyl-1-butane
(3) 1, l-Dipheny l-1-propane
HO,C\---------/CO,H (4) I-Phenyl-2-butene
HO H H OH 26. The optically inactive compound from the following is

( 1) 2-chloropropanal
(1) S,S (2) R, R (2) 2-chloropentane
(3) R, S (4) S, R (3) 2-chlorobutane
(AIEEE 2008) (4) 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
19. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-1)
(1) propene. (2) 2-methy lpropene.
27. W hich of the following pairs of compounds are posi-
(3) 2-butene. (4) 2-methy l-2-butene.
tional isomers?
(AIEEE 2009)
20. The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of

the molecular formula CH3- CH = CH--CH(OH)-CH3 is
( 1)3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6 (2) CH - CH - CH - C - CH and
(AIEEE 2009)
3 2 2 II 3
0
21. Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism.
CH - CH - CH - CHO
3 I 2
(1) Lactic acid (2) 2-Pentanone
CH3
(3) Phenol (4) 2-Butene
(AIEEE 2011) (3) CH - CH - CH - C- CH and
3 2 2 II 3
22. How many chiral compounds are possible on monochlo- 0

rination of 2-methy lbutane? CH - CH - C - CH - CH
3 2 II 2 3
(1) 8 (2) 2 0
(3) 4 (4) 6
(4) CH - CH - C- CH - CH and
(AIEEE 2012) 3 2 II 2 3
0
23. Which one of the following acids does not exhibit optical
isomerism?
(1) Lactic acid (2) Tartaric acid
(3) Maleic acid (4) a-Am ino acids
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3) (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2)
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28. The number of structural isomers of C 6H 14 is 33. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
(1) 3 (2) 4
m s ~ 6
29. The absolute configuration of:
:f:," CH3
( 1) 3-Bromo- 1,2-dimethylbut-l -ene
(2) 3-Bromo-3-methyl-1,2-dimethylprop-l-ene
(3) 2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
(1) (2R, 3R) (2) (2R, 3S)
(3) (2S, 3R) (4) (2S, 3S)
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) 34. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
30. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
( 1) 4 ,4-dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid.
(2) 2-methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid.
(1) 1-ethy l-2,2-dimethylcyclohexane (3) 3-hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid.
(2) 2,2-dimethy l-l-ethylcyclohexane (4) 4-methy l-3-hydroxypentanoic acid.
(3) 1, l-dimethyl-2-ethylcyclohexane (JEE Main 2019,April)
(4) 2-ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane 35. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
31. In the following structure, the double bonds are marked

as I, II, III and IV:
(1) 5-chloro-4-methyl-1 -nitrobenzene.

(2) 2-chloro- l -methyl-4-nitrobenzene.
(3) 3-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene.
Geometrical isomerism is not possible at site(s) (4) 2-methyl-5-nitro-l -chlorobenzene.
(1) I (2) III (JEE Main 2019,April)
(3) I and III (4) III andIV 36. The IUPAC name for the following compound is
32. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
( 1) 4-methyl-3-ethylhex-4-ene. ( 1) 3-methyl-4-(3-methylprop-l-enyl)-1-heptyne.
(2) 3-ethy l-4-methy lhex-4-ene. (2) 3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en- l -yne.
(3) 4-ethy l-3-methy lhex-2-ene. (3) 3-methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-ynyl)- 1-heptene.
(4) 4,4-diethyl-3-methylbut-2-ene. (4) 3 ,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept- l -en-6-yne.
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (JEE Main 2019,April)
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ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES CQ-61
Topic 3: Fundamental Concepts in Organic 42. The major product of the following reaction is
Reaction Mechanism
37. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution

by SN2 mechanism because of (i) Br,!hv
(1) insolubility. (2) instability. (ii)KOH (dil.)
(3) inductive effect. (4) steric hindrace.

(AIEEE 2005)
((J
38. The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among the O NH
nucleophiles
(I) CH3-c-o-
(1)
(D
~
H
(2)
~
ll
0
(II) CHp -
(III) CN-
HC-o-~
(IV) O
3 ~-o-
- II
0
(I) (I), (II), (III), (IV) (2) (IV), (III), (II), (I)
(3) (II), (III), (I), (IV) (4) (III), (II), (I), (IV)
(AIEEE 2005) Topic 4: Methods of Purification of Organic
Compounds and Qualitative and Quantita-
39. CH3 Br + Nu- ➔ CH3 - Nu+ Br- tive Analysis of Organic Compounds
The decreasing order of the rate of above reaction with
43. CH3Mgl is an organometallic compound due to
nucleophiles (Nu-) I to IV is
(1) Mg - I bond (2) C - I bond
[Nu- = (I)Ph0- , (II)Ac0- , (III)H0- , (IV)CHp]
(3) C- Mg bond (4) C - H bond
(1) IV>IIl>l>II (2) IV> IIl >II> I
(AIEEE 2002)
(3) I> II> III> IV (4) II> IV> III> I
(AIEEE 2006) 44. In the following benzyl/allyl system
40. The electrophile, E+ attacks the benzene ring to generate R - CH=CH2 o r O R

the interm ediate (j complex. Of the following, which (j
complex is of lowest energy? (R is alkyl group)
a-,
decreasing order of inductive effect is
(1)
Q
H E
(2)
H
(I)
(2)
(3)
(CH3) 3 C
CH3C8i
➔
➔
(CH3\CH
(CH 3 \CH
(CH) 2CH ➔ CH3 CH 2
➔
➔
CH3CH2 -
(CH3 ) 3 C -
(CH) 3 CH -
&:
N02 N0 2 (4) (CH3) 2 C ➔ CH3 CH2 ➔ (CH3\CH -
()("
(AIEEE 2002)
(3) (4) 45. In the anion HCoo- the two carbon-oxygen bonds are
found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it?
E
( 1) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridised.
(AIEEE 2008)
(2) The C = 0 bond is weaker than the C - 0 bond.
41. Which amongst the following is the strongest acid?
(3) The anion HCoo- has two resonating structures.
( 1) CHBr3 (2) CHl3 (4) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from
(3) CH(CN\ (4) CHC13 the acid molecule.
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46. Which one of the following has the minimum boiling 51. The order of stability of the following carbocations is
point?
(I) n-Butane (2) Isobutane
(3) I-Butene (4) 1-Butyne
(AIEEE 2004)
47. The increasing order of stability of the following free rad-

icals is
(1) II> III> I
(2) I > II > III
(3) III> I> II
(4) IIl > II > I
(JEE Main 2013)
52. Match the organic compounds in Column I with the Las-
saigne's test results in Column II appropriately:
(4) (CH3 ) 2 C H <(CH 3 \ C<(C6 H 5 ) 3 C<(C6 H 5 ) 2 CH
Column I Column II
(AIEEE 2006)
(A) Aniline (i) Red colour with FeC13
48. Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring (B) Benzene sulfonic (ii) Violet colour w ith
(1) activates the ring towards e lectrophilic substitution. acid sodium nitroprusside
(2) renders the ring basic. (iii) Blue colour w ith hot
(3) deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic substitution. (C) Thiourea and acidic solution of
(4) deactivates the ring towards electrophilic substitu- FeSO4
tion. (1) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iii)
(AIEEE 2007)
(2) (A) - (iii); (B) - (ii); (C) - (i)
49. Arrange the carbanions, (3) (A) - (ii); (B) - (iii); (C) - (i)
(4) (A) - (iii); (B) - (i); (C) - ( ii)
in order of the ir decreasing stability:
- -
53. At 300 K and I atm, 15 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon
(1) C 6 H 5 CH 2 > CCl 3 > (CHJ 3 C > (CH3 ) 2 CH
requires 375 mL air containing 20% 0 2 by volume for
-
(2) (CH3 ) 2 CH> CC13 > C 6 H 5 CH2 > (CH3 ) 3 C complete combustion. After combustion the gases occupy
- - 330 mL. Assuming that the water formed is in liquid form
(3) CCl 3 > C 6 H 5 CH2 > (CH3 ) 2 CH> (CH3 \ C and the volumes were measured at the sam e temperature
-
and pressure, the formula of the hydrocarbon is
(4) (CH3 \ C>(CH 3 }i CH >C6 H 5 CH 2 >CCl 3
(2) C 3H 6
(AIEEE 2009)
(4) C 4H 8
50. The correct order of increasing basicity of the given con- (JEE Main 2016, Offline)
jugate (R = CH) is
54. 5 L of an alkane requires 25 L of oxygen for its complete
(1) Rcoo- <HC=C <NH; < R -
combustion. If all volumes are measured at constant tem-
perature and pressure, the alkane is
(2) Rcoo- < H C = C < R- < NH;
( 1) isobutane
(2) ethane
(3) butane
(4) propane
(AIEEE 2010) (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-I)
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O RGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES CQ-63
55. Wh ich of the following statements is not true about parti- 58. The ratio of mass percent of C and H in an organic
tion chromatography? compoun d (CJIPz) is 6 : 1. If one molecule of the
( I) Mobile phase can be a gas. above compound (C)-Ipz) contains ha lf as much oxy-
gen as required to burn one molecule of compound CJir
(2) Separation depends upon equilibration of solute
completely to CO2 and Hp. The empirical formula of
between a mobile and a stationary phase.
compound CJIPz is
(3) Paper chromatography is an example of partition
chromatography. (1) C2HP (2) C3HP2
(4) Stationary phase is a fine ly d ivided solid absorbent.
(3) C2HP3 (4) C 3Hp 3
(JEE Main 2017, Online) (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
56. A mixture contammg the following four compounds 59. The correct match between items of Column I and
is extracted with I M HCI. T he compound that goes to Column II is
aqueous layer is
H Column I Column II
( YN'--- (A) Coloured impurity (i) Steam distillation
(II)v (B) M ixture of o-nitro- (ii) Fractional
phenol and p-nitro- distillation
phenol
(Yo'--- (C) Crude naphtha (i ii) Charcoal treatment

(III) V (D) Mixture of glycerol (iv) Distillation under
and sugars reduced pressure
(1) (II) (2) (IV) (1) (A) ➔ (iii), (B) ➔ (iv), (C) ➔ (i), (D) ➔ (ii)
(3) (I) (4) (III) (2) (A) ➔ (iii), (B) ➔ (i), (C) ➔ (iv), (D) ➔ (ii)
(JEE Main 2017, Online) (3) (A) ➔ (iii), (B) ➔ (i), (C) ➔ (ii), (D) ➔ ( iv)
(4) (A) ➔ (i), (B) ➔ ( iv), (C) ➔ (iii), (D) ➔ (ii)
57. Which of the following compounds will be suitable for
Kj eldah l's method for nitrogen estimation?
(I) O""' (2) O NO, 60. Two compounds I and II are e luted by column chromatog-
raphy (adsorption ofl > II). W hich one of the fol lowing is
a correct statement?
(1) I moves faster and has higher Rf va lue than II.
(3) O"!C" (4) 01

::::,._N
(2)
(3)
(4)
II moves faster and has higher Rf va lue than I.
I moves slower and has higher Rf value than II.
II moves slower and has higher Rf value than I.
(JEE Main 2018, Offline) (JEE Main 2018, Online)
6 1. How many geometrical isomers are possible for the 63. How many valence e lectrons are there in nitrogen atom in
following compound? case of a nitrene?
~ C OOH 64. The number of 3° carbon atoms in 2,2,4,4-tetramethyl-

HC ~ ~ pentane is _ __
3
65. Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur. T he minimum molecular

62. How many ethers are possible for the formula C5H,p weight of insuli n is _ __
including stereoisomers?
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66. The total number of contributing structures for hypercon- How many structural isomers are possible when one of
jugation in CH3 CH=CH2 is - - - the hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine atom?
67. How many cyclic and acyclic isomers can be made by the 69. The maximum number of stereoisomers that could exist
formula C3H6O? for the compound below?
Cl Cl
~
68. The molecular formula of diphenylmethane
Cl Cl
70. The percentage ofN2 in urea is about - - -
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CHAPTER13
~s
Topic 1 : Alkanes CHO
1. Underlined carbon is sp3 hybridised in

(1)
(3)
CH 3.CH = CH2
CH3.C.ONH2
(2)
(4)
CH3.C.H 2NH 2
CH3CH2 .CN
(AIEEE 2002)
(1)
¢ Cl
(2)
Cl
2. On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating

it with ultraviolet light, it forms only one mono chloroal-
kane. This alkane could be
(1)
(3)
propane
isop entane
(2)
(4)
pentane
neopentane
(3)
Q" Cl
(4) ¢'' Cl
(AIEEE 2003)
3. The gas evolved on heating, CH3MgBr in methanol is
(1) methane (2) ethane
6. Which of these factors does not govern the stability of a
conformation in acycl ic compounds?
(3) propane (4) HBr
( 1) Steric interactions
(2) Torsional strain
4. Consider the reaction: (3) Electrostatic forces of interaction
Ph -----<H~ P
(4) Angle strain
CH2
7. In the followi ng skew conformation of ethane,
H' -C- C- H" dihedral angle is
H
H~ 2 9°
(3)
(4)
an equimolecular mixture of(l ) and (2).
H+H
CH2 CI (1) 58°
w H
(2) 149°
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3) 151 ° (4) 120°
5. The major product of the following reaction is
8. Heating of 2-chloro- 1-phenylbutane with EtOK/EtOH
6 Cl
(i) Cl,}hv
(ii)H2O,!J.
gives X as the major product. Reaction of X with
Hg(OAc)/ Hp followed by NaBH4 gives Y as the major
product. Y is
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OH C6 H5CH2 '- /CH 3

Ph~ (2) C=C
OH Ph~ H/ '- CH3
(I) (2)
OH C5H5" / CH(CH3h
(3) H/C=C'- H
(3) Ph ~ (4) Ph~
H5C6 CH2CH2 '-

(JEE Main 2019, April) (4) /C=CH 2
H3C
Topic 2: Alkenes (AIEEE 2010)
9. Butene- I may be converted to butane by reaction with 15. In the presence of peroxide, HC I and HI do not give
(1) Zn - HCI (2) Sn - HCI anti-Markovnikov's addition to alkenes because
(3) Zn - Hg (4) Pd/H2 (1) one of the steps is endothermic in HCI and HI.
(AIEEE 2003) (2) both HCI and HI are strong acids.
10. Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads (3) HCI is oxidiz ing and the HI is reducing.
to the formation of (4) all the steps are exothermic in HC I and HI.
(I) primary alcohol. (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3)
(2) secondary or tertiary alcohol. 16. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene forms
(3) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols. the compound B CH 3 CH = CHCH3 ~ A Ht )
B.
(4) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols. The compound B is
(AIEEE 2005) (1) CH 3CH 2CHO (2) CH3COCH 3
11. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives (3) CH 3C8iCOCH3 (4) CH 3CHO
two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular mass of (AIEEE 2008)
44 u. The alkene is
17. Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methylhexanal
(1) ethane (2) propene upon ozonolysis?
(3) I -butene (4) 2-butene
(AIEEE 2010)
12. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical
isomerism is
(l ) 2-methyl-2-pentene
(2) 3-methyl-2-pentene
(3) 4-methyl-l-pentene
(4) 3-methyl-1-pentene
(3) H, C ~ (4) & CH,
(AIEEE 2010)
13. The hydrocarbon with seven carbon atoms containing a (JEE Main 2015, Offline)
neopenty l and a vinyl group is
(1) 2,2-dimethyl-4-pentene. 18. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
(2) 4,4-dimethylpentene.
(3) isopropy l-2-butene.
(4) 2,2-dimethyl-3-pentene.
14. The ma in product of the fo llowing reaction is (I) 4-methyl-3-ethylhex-4-ene.

C 6 H 5 CH2 CH(OH)CH(CH 3 ) 2 ? (2) 3-ethyl-4-methy lhex-4-ene.
(3) 4-ethyl-3-methylhex-2-ene.
H5C6 '- / H
(I) C=C (4) 4,4-diethyl-3-methylbut-2-ene.
H/ '- CH(CH3)2
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HYDROCARBONS CQ-67
19. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound? 23. The major product of the following reaction is
CH3 CH3
Hrx:, CX) (i) Br2

(ii)EtOH
ro··
CH3 OEt OEt
(1)
(2)
(3)
3-Bromo-1 ,2-dimethylbut-l-ene
3-Bromo-3-methyl-1 ,2-dimethylprop-1-ene
2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
(1)
/7
(2)
c6
(3)
(X)OE
t (X)OE
I
Br
(4)
OEt
20. The IUPAC name of the following compound is /7 /7

CH3 OH
I I
H3C-CH-CH-CH2 -COOH
(1) 4,4-dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid.
Cl
(2) 2-methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid.
(3)
(4)
3-hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid.
4-methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid. µ
h _ ( i ) H B _ r-
(ii)alc. KOH
(JEE Main 2019, April) 0
21. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is Cl
~ Cl
(1)
0
0
OH
(2)
0
OH
Cl
CH3
( 1) 5-chloro-4-methyl- 1-nitrobenzene.
(2)
(3)
(4)
2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene.
3-chloro-4-methyl- l-nitrobenzene.
2-methyl-5-nitro- l-chlorobenzene.
(3)
0
0
(4)
0
t>
22. T he IUPAC name for the following compound is
CXX H
CH2 -CI
CH2 HCI
(1) 3-methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne.
(1)
CO:",
(2) 3,5-dimethy l-4-propylhept-6-en- l -yne. CH3
(3)
(4)
3-methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-ynyl)-1-heptene.
3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-l-en-6-yne.
(2)
ext:", Cl
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Topic 3: Alkynes
30. Acetylene does not react with

(1) Na
(2) amrnoniacal AgN03
(3) HCI
(4) NaOH
(AIEEE 2002)
31. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid
26. Which one of the following alkenes when treated with
ammonia is
HCI y ie lds maj orly an anti Markovnikov product?
(1) CH 3C8iCHP=CCH2CH 2CH 3
(1) CHp - CH= CH 2 (2) C l - CH = CH 2
(2) CH 3CH2C=CH
(3) H 2N - CH = CH 2 (4) F3C - CH = CH 2
(JEE Main 2019,April) (3) CH 3CH=CHCH3
(4) CH 3CH2C=CCH2CH3
27. The major product(s) obtained in the following reaction
is/are (AIEEE 2008)
32. The treatment ofCH3MgX with CH 3C = C-H produces

(1) CH 3 - CH= CH 2 (2) CH 3C = C - CH3
(3) CH3CH = CHCH 3 (4) CH4
(l ) OHC~CHO and OHC-CHO (AIEEE 2008)
OHC 33. 2-Hexyne gives trans-2-hexene on treatment with

(2) ~ CHO (l ) Pt/H2 (2) Li/NH 3
(3) OHC~CHO (3) Pd/BaS04 (4) LiAIH4
0 1Bu
(AIEEE 2012)
(4) OHC~ 34. Which amongst the following is the strongest acid?
CHO
(JEE Main 2019,April) (1) CHBr3 (2) CHI3
(3) CH(CN)3 (4) CHCl3
28. The major product of the following addition reaction is
c12m,o
(2) H3C -CH- CH2
I I
OH Cl
0
)\CH3
(4) H3C
(JEE Main 2019,April) 0
29. But-2-ene on reaction with alkaline KMnO 4 at e levated

temperature followed by acidification will give
(1) CH3-CH-CH-CH3
I I
(1)
CrJ" 0
(2)
o6"
CX;H
OH OH
(2)
(3)
(4)
one molecule of CH 3CHO and one molecule of
CH 3COOH
2 molecules of CH 3COOH
molecules ofCH3CHO
(3)
CH 3
(4)
O=t CH3
(JEE Main 2019,April) (JEE Main 2019, January)
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HYDROCARBONS
36. The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of alkynes 41. The reagent needed for the given conversion is
w ith Ph , / H
(I) NaBH 4 (2) Na/liq.NH3 Ph -C::::C -Ph ~ C=C
H/ '-Ph
(3) Sn- HCI (4) H 2- Pd/C, BaS04
(I) Cat. Hydrogenation (2) H/ Lindlar Cat.
(JEE Main 2018, Offiine) (3) Li/NH3 (4) LiAIH4
37. When 2-butyne is treated w ith H/ Lindlar's catalyst, (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2)
compound X is produced as the major product and
when treated with Na/liq.NH3 it produces Y as the major
42. Which of the fo llowing molecules is least resonance
product. Which of the foll owing statements is correct? stabilised?
(1) X w ill have higher dipole moment a nd hig her

boiling point than Y. ( !) 0 (2)
0~
~
0
(2) Y w ill have higher dipole moment and hig her
(3)
boiling point than X .
X will have lower dipole moment and lower boiling (3) (4) 0 0
point than Y.
(4) Y w ill have higher dipole moment and lower boiling
point than X. 43. Which of the following compounds is most reactive to an
(JEE Main 2018, Online) aqueous solution of sodium carbonate?
38. T he correct order for acid strength of compounds

CH = CH, CH3- C = CH and CH2 = CH2 is as fo llows: (1) 0 (2) I I
0,
(1) CH = CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 - C = CH
(2) CH3 - C = CH > CH = CH > CH 2 = CH 2 (3) /\ (4) "
(3) CH3 - C= CH > CH2 = CH 2 > H C = CH (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2)
(4) HC =CH> CH3 - C =CH> CH 2 = CH 2
44. The increasing o rder of nitration of the fo llowing
(JEE Main 2019, January) compounds is
0 6 6' 0
39. The major product of the fo llowing reaction is Cl
(i) DCI ( I equiv.) )

CH 3C=CH (i i) DI
(I) CH3CD(I)CHD(CI) (2) CH3CD(Cl)CHD(I)

(3) CH3CD2CH(Cl)(I) (4) CH3C(I)(Cl)CHD2 (I) (II) (Ill) (IV)
(JEE Main 2019,April) (1) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)
(2) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)
Topic 4: Aromatic Hydrocarbon
(3) (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
(4) (I) < (II) < (IV) < (III)
40.aMeMe II
+/
N
I "-Et 45. The compounds A and B in the fo llowing reaction are,
OH- 1rBu
0
respectively:
The alkene formed as a major product in the above elim-
ination reaction is ,o.,,u,, A-, B
~
aMe OM,
(1) Me (2) CH2 = CH2 (1) A = Benzyl alcohol, B = Benzyl cyanide
(2) A = Benzy l chloride, B = Benzy l cyanide
(3) (4) (3) A = Benzyl alcohol, B = Benzyl isocyanide
(4) A = Benzyl chloride, B = Benzyl isocyanide
(AIEEE 2006) (JEE Main 2019, January)
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46. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic?
(1) Q (2) 0 N
H
(3) 0 N
(4) Q
47. T he maj or product of the following reaction is

(i) AICl3 (anhyd.)
49. W hich compound(s) ou t of the following is/are not
(ii) H2O
aromatic?
V 0 0 0
EB
(I)
EB
(II) (Ill) (IV)
(1) (I) and (III) (2) (II), (III) and (IV)

(3) (III) and (IV) (4) (II)
50. Which of the following compounds wi ll produce a

precipitate with AgN03?
Br
( I)
O
Br
I
Br
(2)
6 Br
tration reaction?
(JEE M ain 2019, January)
48. What will be the maj or product in the following mononi-

(3)
6 (4)
6
51. The maj or product of the following reaction is
HO~ ( i ) H CI
v - ( - i i ) ~ - C - 1-(A-nh-yd-
.)-
3
X)
( 1) Ck
u
(2) ~ UO
(2) Cl~
~
N02
~ N ~
H I
#
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HYDROCARBONS CQ-71
( 1) (VI) < (I) < (III) < (II)
u
(2) (II) < (III) < (I) < (VI)
(3) HO, , ) : )
(3) (I) < (II) < (III) < (VI)
(4) (VI) < (II) < (I) < (III)
(4) HO~
~h (JEE Main 2019, January)

54. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following
compounds towards electrophilic aromatic substitution
reactions is
6 0 6"'
Cl
52. Among the following four aromatic compounds, which
one w ill have the lowest me lting point?
(l)c¢0H
0
(I) (II) (Ill)
(1) (II) < (I) < (III) (2) (III) < (II) < (I)
OH
(3) (III) < (I) < (II) (4) (I) < (III) < (II)
0 (JEE Main 2019, April)
55. The major product obtained in the g iven reaction is
(2)
(1) H3Coo....__ ,,...-CH~ ,,...-CH3

OH I CH2 CH
(3)
(O /.1/
:::::...,_
(4) 00 /.1/
(2) H,C O o' cH,;CH" CH-CH,
(3) H3C y Y 0
vy1
53. The increasing order of reactivity of the following
compounds towards aromatic electrophilic substitution
reaction is CH3
CH,CHn
u
(4)
(I) (11) (Ill) (IV)


56. The number of disubstituted products of benzene is 59. The number of moles of proton which can be easily given
by 1-butyne is _ _ __
57. The dihedral angle between two C-H bonds in the stag- 60. The number ofresonating structures for Dewar's benzene
gered conformation of ethan e i s _ _ _ _ is _ _ __
58. The total number of benzene derivatives with the molec-

ular formula C 6 H 3Cl3 is _ _ __
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CHAPTER14 Environmental Chemistry

Topic 1 : Atmospheric Pollution (3) methane and 0 3 in atmosphere.
(4) methane and CO in atmosphere.
1. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the
collected rain water will have a pH value
(1 ) slightly lower than that of rain water without thun- 6. Photochemical smog consists of excessive amount of X,
derstorm. in addition to a ldehydes, ketones, peroxy acetyl nitrile
(2) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is (PAN), and so forth . X is
not there. (1) CH4 (2) CO
(3) uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm. (3) CO2 ( 4) 03
(4) which depends on the amount of dust in air. (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-1)
(AIEEE 2003) 7. Identify the pollutant gases largely responsible for the
discoloured and lustreless nature of marble of the Taj
2. The soldiers of Napolean army while at Alps during
Mahal.
freezing winter suffered a serious problem as regards to
the tin buttons of their uniforms. White metallic tin but- ( I) S02 and N02 (2) S02 and 0 3
tons got converted to grey powder. This transformation is (3) CO2 and N02 (4) 0 3 and CO2
related to (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1)
(1) an interaction with nitrogen of the air at very low 8. Which of the following is a set of greenhouse gases?
temperatures.
(1) CO2, CH 4 , Np, 0 3
(2) an interaction with water vapour contained in the
humid air. (2) 0 3, N 2 , CO2, N02
(3) a change in the partial pressure of oxygen in the air. (3) CH 4, 0 3 , N 2 , S02
(4) a change in the crystalline structure of tin. (4) 0 3, N 2 , CO2, N02
3. The smog is essenti ally caused by the presence of 9. Identify the wrong statements in the following.
(I) 0 2 and 0 3. (1) Chl orofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer
(2) 0 3 and N 2• depletion.
(3) oxides of sulphur and nitrogen. (2) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming.
(4) 0 2 andN2• (3) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from
(AIEEE 2004) the Sun to reach the Earth.
(4) Acid rai ns are mostly because of oxides of nitrogen
4. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide and sulphur.
plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was (AIEEE 2008)
( I) methylamine. (2) ammonia.
10. The reaction that is not involved in the ozone layer deple-
(3) phosgene. (4) methyl isocynate.
tion mechanism in the stratosphere is
(JEE Main 2013)
. .
(I) CF2 Cl 2 ( g ) ~ C l(g) + C F2 C l(g)
5. Global warming is due to increase of
(1) methane and nitrous oxide in atmosphere.
(2) methane and CO 2 in atmosphere.
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(3) CH4 + 2 0 3 ➔ 3 CH 2 = 0 + 3 Hp 18. Assertion: Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the upper

stratosphere.
(4) HOCl(g) ~OH(g) + Cl (g)
Reason: Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radia-
(JEE Main 2019, January) tion reaching the Earth.
11. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), an eye irritant is produced by (1) Assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is
the correct explanation for the assertion.
( 1) photochemical smog (2) organic waste (2) Assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is
(3) acid rai n (4) classical smog not the explanation for the assertion.
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
12. Taj Mahal is being slowly di sfigure d and di scolore d. T his (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
is primarily due to (JEE Main 2019, April)
( 1) g lobal warming (2) acid rain 19. Excessive re lease of CO2 into the atmosphere results in
(3) water pollution (4) soil pollution
(1) g lobal warming (2) polar vortex
(3) fo rmation of smog (4) depletion ofozone
13. T he higher concentration of which gas in a ir can cause (JEE Main 2019, April)
stiffness of flower buds?
20. T he layer of atmosphere between 10 km to 50 km above
(2) CO2 the sea level is called as
(4) co
(1) troposphere (2) thermosphere
(3) stratosphere (4) mesosphere
14. T he molecule that has minimum/no role in the formation
of photochemical sm og, is
21. The regions of the atmosphere, where clouds form and
(1) N 2 (2) CH2 = 0
where we live, respectively, are
(3) 0 3 (4) NO
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) troposphere and stratosphere
(2) stratosphere and troposphere
15. T he compound that is not a comm on component of pho- (3) troposphere and troposphere
tochemical smog is
(4) stratosphere and stratosphere
(2) H C-C-OONO (JEE Main 2019, April)
3 II 2
0 22. A ir pollution that occurs in sunlight is

(3) CH2=CHCHO (4) CF2C l2 (1) reducing smog (2) acid rain
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3) oxidizing smog (4) fog
16. T he upper stratosphere consisting of the ozone layer pro-
tects us fro m the Sun's radiation that falls in the wave- 23. T he correct set of species responsible for the photochem-
length region of ical smog is
(1) 200 - 3 15 nm (2) 400 - 550 nm ( 1) N 2, N0 2 and hydrocarbons
(3) 0.8 - 1.5 nm (4) 600 - 750 nm (2) CO2 , N02 , S02 and hydrocarbons
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3) NO, N0 2, 0 3 and hydrocarbons
17. Which is wrong with respect to our responsibili ty as a (4) N 2, 0 2, 0 3 and hydrocarbons
human being to protect our env ironment? (JEE Main 2019, April)
( 1) Restricting the use of vehicles. 24. The primary pollutant that leads to photochemical smog is
(2) Avoiding the use of floodl ighted faci lities.
(1) acrolein (2) nitrogen oxides
(3) Setting up compost tin in gardens.
(3) ozone (4) sulphur dioxide
(4) Using plastic bags.
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ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY CQ-75
Topic 2: Water Pollution 31. Water filled in two glasses A and B have BOD values of
1Oand 20, respectively. The correct statement regarding
25. BOD stands for them is
(1) Biochemical oxidation demand.
( 1) B is more polluted than A.
(2) Biological oxygen demand.
(2) A is suitable for drinking, whereas B is not.
(3) Biochemical oxygen demand.
(3) Both A and B are suitable for drinking.
(4) Bacterial oxidation demand.
(4) A is more polluted than B.
26. Addition of phosphate fertilizers to water bodies causes
32. Water samples with BOD values of 4 ppm and 18 ppm,
( 1) enhanced growth of algae.
respectively are
(2) increase in amount of dissolved oxygen in water.
(1) clean and clean
(3) deposition of calcium phosphate.
(2) highly polluted and clean
(4) increase in fish population.
(3) clean and highly polluted
(4) highly polluted and highly polluted
27. The recommended concentration of fluoride ion in drink- (JEE Main 2019, January)
ing water is up to I ppm as fluo1ide ion is required to
33. Which of the following conditions in drinking water
make teeth enam el harder by converting
causes methemoglobinemia?
[3Ca3 (PO4 ) 2 · Ca(OH\ ] to
( 1) >50 ppm of lead
(1) [3(CaF) · Ca(OH\ ] (2) [3(Ca/POJ 2 · CaF2] (2) >50 ppm of chloride
(3) [3(Ca(OH)2] • CaF2] (4) [CaF2] (3) >50 ppm of nitrate
(JEE Main 2018, Oftline) (4) > 100 ppm of sulphate
28. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) value can be a
measure of water pollution caused by the organic matter.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Topic 3: Soil Pollution
(1) Aerobic bacterial decrease the BOD value.
(2) Anaerobic bacteria increase the BOD value.
34. Regular use of which of the following fe rtilizers increases
the acidity of soil?
(3) Clean water has BOD value higher than 10 ppm.
(1) Ammonium sulphate
(4) Polluted water has BOD value higher than 10 ppm.
(2) Potassium nitrate
(3) Urea
29. A water sample has ppm level concentration of the fol- (4) Superphosphate of lime
lowing metals: Fe = 0.2; Mn = 5.0, Cu = 3.0; Zn = 5.0. (AIEEE 2007)
The metal that makes the water sample unsuitable for
35. What is DDT among the following?
drinking is
(1) Greenhouse gas
(1) Cu (2) Mn (2) A fertilizer
(3) Fe (4) Zn (3) Biodegradable pollutant
(JEE Main 2019, January) (4) Non-biodegradable pollutant
30. The pH of rain water, is approximately (AIEEE 2012)
(1) 5.6 (2) 7 .5

(3) 7.0 (4) 6.5
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36. The concentration of dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold 39. In measurement of BODx, x is generally taken as
water can go upto _ _ __
37. The maximum prescribed concentration of copper in
drinking water is _ _ __ 40. Water is considered as impure if it has BOD is greater
than _ _ _ _ ppm.
38. Hydrocarbons turn carcinogenic in concentrations above
_ _ _ _ ppm.
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CHAPTER15

Topic 1 : Amorphous and Crystalline Solids, Crystal 7. The correct statement for the molecule, Csl3, is
Lattices and Unit Cells (1) It is a covale nt molecule.
1. Number of atoms in the unit cell of Na (bee type crystal) (2) It contains Cs+ and 1; ions.
and Mg (fee type crystal) are, respectively, (3) It contains Cs3+ and 1- ions.
(1) 4, 4 (2) 4,2 (4) It contains Cs+, 1- and lattice 12 molecule.
(3) 2, 4 (4) 1, 1 (JEE Main 2014, Offline)
(AIEEE 2002) 8. In a face centred cubic lattice atoms A are at the corner
points and atoms B at the face centreed points. If atom B
2. How many unit cells are present in a cube--shaped ideal
is missing from one of the face centred points, the for-
crystal ofNaCI of mass 1 g?
mula of the ionic compound is
(1) 2.57 x 1021 unit cells
( 1) AB 2
(2) 5.14 x 1021 unit cells
(3) ~ B3
(3) 1.28 x 102 1 unit cells (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-I)
(4) 1.7 1 x 1021 unit cells
In a monoclinic unit cell, the relation of sides and angles
(AIEEE 2003) are, respective ly,
3. In a compound, atoms of e le ment Y form ccp lattice and (1) a=b,t,canda=f3=r=90°
those of e lement X occupy 213rd of tetrahedral voids. The (2) a * b * c and a = f3 = r = 90°
formula of the compound w ill be (3) a * b * c and /3 = r = 90° * a
(2) X 2Y 3 (4) a * b * c and a * f3 * r * 90°
(4) X 3Y 4 (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3)
(AIEEE 2008)
10. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice
4. Copper crystallises in fee w ith a unit cell length of with a unit cell edge of 4 .29 A. The radius of sodium
361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom? atom is, approximately,
(1) 157pm (2) 18 1 pm ( 1) 3.22 A (2) 5.72 A
(3) 108 pm (4) 127 pm (3) 0.93 A (4) 1.86 A
(AIEEE 2009) (JEE Main 2015, Offline)
5. The edge length of a face-centred cubic cell of an ionic 11. Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths (a *
substance is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm *
b c) and all axial angles different from 90°?
the radius of the anion is (1) Triclinic (2) Hexagonal
(1) 144 pm (2) 288 pm (3) Monoclinic (4) Tetragonal
(3) 398 pm (4) 618 pm (JEE Main 2019, January)
(AIEEE 2010)
Topic 2: Number of Atoms in a Unit Cell and
6. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the
Closed-Packed Structures
solid state?
(1) Silicon (2) Sulphur 12. An ionic compound has a unit cell consisting of A ions
(3) Phosphorus (4) Iodine at the corners of a cube and B ions on the centres of the
(JEE Main 2013)
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faces of the cube. The empirical formu la for this com- Topic 3: Packing Efficiency and Calculations
pound would be Involving Unit Cell Dimensions
(I ) AB (2) A 2B
19. Lithium forms body centred cubic structure. The length
(3) AB3 (4) A 3B of the side of its unit cell is 351 pm. Atomic radius of the
(AIEEE 2005) lithium wi ll be
13. Percentage of free space in cubic close-packed structure (1) 75 pm (2) 300 pm
and in body-centred packed structure is, respectively, (3) 240 pm (4) 152pm
(1) 48% and 26% (2) 30% and 26% (AIEEE 2012)
(3) 26% and 32% (4) 32% a nd 4 8% 20. CsCl crystallizes in body centred cubic lattice. If 'a' is
(AIEEE 2010) its edge length then which of the following expressions is
correct?
14. An a lloy of Cu, Au, and Ag is found to have Cu constitut-
3a
ing the ccp lattice. If Ag atoms occupy edge centers and ( I) res• + rc1_ = 3a (2) r.+r _ = -
Cs Cl 2
Au is present at body centers, the alloy has formu la
✓3a
( I) Cu4 Ag2 Au (2) Cu 4 Ag4 Au (3) res• +rc1- = 2 (4) res• +rc1- = ✓3a
(3) Cu4 Ag3Au (4) CuAgAu
15. The total number of octahedral void(s) per atom present
21. A metal crystallizes in a face-centred cubic structure. If
in a cubic close packed structure is
the edge length of its unit cell is a, the c losest approach
(1) 2 (2) 4 between two atoms in metallic crystals w ill be
(3) I (4) 3 a
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4) (1) ✓2a (2) ✓2
16. A compound of formula A2B 3 has the hep lattice. Which (3) 2a (4) 2✓2a
atom forms the hep lattice and what fraction of tetrahe-
dra l voids is occupied by the other atoms? (JEE Main 2017, Offline)
22. At I 00°C, copper (Cu) has fee unit cell structure with cell
(1) hep lattice - A, I tetrahedral voids - B edge length of x A. What is the approx imate density of
3
Cu (in g cm-3) at this temperature?
(2) hep lattice - A, _!_ tetrahedral voids - B [Atomic Mass of Cu= 63.55 u]
3
205 105
( I) (2)
. 2 . x3 x3
(3) hep lattice - B, - tetrahedral voids - A
3
211 422
(3) (4)
. 1 . x3 x3
(4) hep lattice - B, - tetrahedral voids - A
3 (JEE Main 2019, January)
(JEE Main 2019, January) 23. A solid having density of 9 x 103 kg m-3 forms face cen-
17. E lement 'B' forms ccp structure and 'A' occupies half of tered cubic crystals of edge length 200✓2 pm. W hat is
the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy all the the molar mass of the solid?
tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is [Avogadro constant = 6 x 1023 mo1-1, Jr= 3]
(I ) A 2B04 (2) ABp4 (1) 0.0432 kg mo1- 1 (2) 0.0305 kg mo1- 1
(3) A2BP (4) A 4Bp (3) 0.02 16 kg mo1- 1 (4) 0.4320 kg mo1- 1
18. The ratio of number of atoms present in a simple cubic, 24. The radius of the largest sphere which fits properly at the
body centere d cubic and face centered cubic structure cente r of the edge of a body centered cubic unit cell is
are, respectively (Edge length is represented by 'a')
(1) 8 : 1:6 (2) 1 : 2: 4 ( 1) 0.027a (2) 0.047a
(3) 4 :2 :1 (4) 4: 2: 3 (3) 0.134 a (4) 0.067 a
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THE SOLID STATE CQ-79
25. Consider the bee unit cells of the solids 1 and 2 with the Na+ CI- □ CI- Na+ c 1-
position of atoms as shown below. The radius of atom B c 1- Na+c1- Na+ □ Na+
is twice that of atom A. The unit cell edge length is 50%
more in solid 2 than in 1. What is the approx imate pack- (1) Frenkel defect
ing efficiency in solid 2? (2) Frenkel and Schottky defects
A A A A (3) Interstitial defect
A A (4) Schottky defect
A A
(AIEEE 2004)
•
A ®
A A A A 28. Which type of 'defect' has the presence of cations in the
interstitia l sites?
A 'A A 'A
(1) Vacancy defect (2) Frenkel defect
Solid 1 Solid2 (3) Metal deficiency defect (4) Schottky defect
(1) 45% (2) 75% (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
(3) 90% (4) 65%
29. Which of the following arrangements shows the sche-
(JEE Main 2019,April) matic alignment of magnetic moments of antiferromag-
26. An element has a face-centred cubic (fee) structure with netic substance?
a cell edge of a. The distance between the centres of two (1) @@@@@@
nearest tetrahedral voids in the lattice is
(2) @ ® ® ® ®@
(1 ) (2) a (3) @ ®@ ®@ ®
a 3 (4) @@ ®@@ ®
(3) (4) - a
2 2 (JEE Main 2018, Online)
(JEE Main 2019,April) 30. The ratio of number of atoms present in a simple cubic,
body centered cubic and face centered cubic structure
Topic 4: Imperfections in Solids and Magnetic are, respectively
Properties (1) 8 : 1:6 (2) 1 : 2: 4
27. What type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram (3) 4 :2 :1 (4) 4:2:3
be low? (JEE Main 2019, April)
Na+ C I- Na+c 1- Na+c 1-
c 1- □ CI- □ Na+ □ Na+

31. Perovskite, a mineral of titanium is found to contain given temperature is 0.92 g cm- 3, then the number of HP
calcium atoms at the corners, oxygen atoms at the face molecules per unit cell is _ _ _ __
centers and titanium atoms at the center of the cube. Oxi-
dation number of titanium in the mineral is _ _ __ 36. The number of octahedral sites per sphe re in fee structure
is _ _ _ __
32. A metal crystallizes in fee lattice and edge of the unit cell
is 620 pm. The radius of metal atom is _ _ _ __ 37. CaO and NaC l have the same crystal structure and nearly
the same ionic radii. If x is the lattice energy of NaCl, the
33. Each rubidium halide crysta llizing in the NaC l type lat- lattice energy of CaO nearly is _ _ _ _ times.
tice has a unit cell length 30 pm greater than for cor-
38. The number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell
responding potassium salt ( rK. = 133 pm) of the same
of a face-centered cubic lattice of similar atoms is
halogen. Hence, ionic radius of Rb+ is _ _ __
34. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other 39. Sodium metal crystallizes in body-centered cubic lattice
carbon atoms tetrahedra lly. The number of carbon atoms with the cell edge a = 428 pm. What is the radius of the
per unit cell is _ _ __
sodium atom?
35. Ice crystallizes in a hexagonal lattice having a volume 40. If ionic radius of Cs+ and c 1- are 169 pm and 181 pm,
of the unit cell as 132 x 10-24 cm 3 • If density of ice at the
respectively, the edgP~vlJQQ:jtf~BQQKS.IN
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CHAPTER16

Topic 1: Expressing Concentration of Solutions 7. The solubility ofN2 in water at 300 Kand 500 torr partial
and Solubility pressure is 0.01 g L- 1• The solubility (in g L- 1) at 750 torr
partial pressure is
1. Which of the fo llowing concentration factor is affected
by change in temperature? (1) 0.0075 (2) 0.005
( 1) Molarity (2) Mola li ty (3) 0.02 (4) 0.015
(3) Mole fraction (4) Weight fraction (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-1)
(AIEEE 2002) 8. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry's
20 law is not correct?
2. 6.02 x 10 molecules ofurea are present in 100 mL of its
solution. The concentration of urea solution is (1) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is
the solubility of the gas in the liquids.
(1) 0.001 M (2) 0.1 M
(2) Different gases have different KH (Henry's law
(3) 0.02 M (4) 0.01 M
constant) values at the same temperature.
(AIEEE 2004)
(3) The partial pressure of the gas in vapor phase is
3. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in the
1.02 g mL- 1• The molality of the solution is solution.
(1) 1.14 mol kg- 1 (2) 3.28 mo! kg-1 (4) The va lue of KH increases with increase of temper-
ature and KH is function of the nature of the gas.
(3) 2.28 mol kg- 1 (4) 0.44 mol kg-1
(AIEEE 2006)
4. The density (in g mL- 1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid solu- Topic 2: Vapour Pressure of Liquid Solutions and
tion, that is, 29% H 2SO4 (molar mass = 98 g mol- 1) by Ideal and Non-ideal Solutions
mass will be
9. In a mixture ofA and B, components show negative devi-
(1) 1.45 (2) 1.64
ation when
(3) 1.88 (4) 1.22
(1) A - B interaction is stronger than A - A and B - B
(AIEEE 2007)
interaction.
5. The density of a solution prepared by dissolv ing 120 g (2) A - B interaction is weaker than A - A and B - B
of urea (molar mass= 60 u) in 1000 g of water is 1.15 g interaction.
mL- 1• The molarity of the solution is (3) ~vmix > 0, ~mix> 0.
(1) 0.50 M (2) 1.78 M
(4 ) ~vmix = 0, ~min> o.
(3) 1.02 M (4) 2.05 M (AIEEE 2002)
(AIEEE 2012)
10. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive
6. Dissolving 120 g ofa compound of(mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g deviation from Raoult's law?
of water gave a solution of density 1.12 g mL- 1• The ( 1) Water - hydrochloric acid
molarity of the solution is (2) Acetone - chloroform
(1) 1.00 M (2) 2.00 M (3) Water - nitric acid
(3) 2.50 M (4) 4.00 M (4) Benzene - methanol
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11. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At (1) The solution formed is an ideal solution.
20 °C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 75 torr and that (2) The solution is non-ideal, showing positive devia-
of toluene is 22 torr. T he partial vapour pressure of ben- tion from Raoult's law.
zene at 20 °C for a solution containing 78 g of benzene (3) The solution is non-ideal, showing negative devia-
and 46 g of toluene in torr is tion from Raoult's law.
(1) 50 (2) 25 (4) n-Heptane shows positive deviation whi le ethanol
(3) 37.5 (4) 53.5 shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.
12. If two substances A and B have P1 : p~ = 1 : 2 and have 18. C hoose the correct statement with respect to the vapour
mo le fraction in solution 1 :2, then the mole fraction of A pressure of a liquid among the following.
in vapors is
( 1) Increases linearly with increasing temperature.
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.25
(2) Increases non- linearly with increasing temperature.
(3) 0.52 (4) 0.2
(3) Decreases linearly with increasing temperature.
13. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl a lcohol has a vapor (4) Decreases non-linearly with increasing temperature.
pressure of 290 mm Hg at 300 K. T he vapor pressure of (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
propyl a lcoho l is 200 mm Hg . If the mole fraction of
ethy l a lco hol is 0.6, its vapour pressure (in mm Hg) at the 19. For an ideal solution of two components A and B, which
same temperature will be of the following is true?
(1 ) 360 (2) 350 ( 1) . . < 0 (zero)
Affm1xrng
(3) 300 (4) 700 (2) . . > 0 (zero)
Affm1xrng
(AIEEE 2007) (3) A - B interaction is stronger than A - A and B - B
interactions
14. At 80 °C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 520 mm
(4) A - A, B - B and A - B interactions are identical
Hg and that of pure liquid B is 1000 mm Hg. If a mixture
of solutions A and B boils at 80 °C and 1 atm pressure,
the amoun t of A in the mixture is ( 1 atm = 760 mm Hg) 20. A solution at 20 °C is composed of 1.5 mo! of benzene
(1) 52 mo!% (2) 34 mo!% and 3.5 mo! of toluene. If the vapour pressure of pure
(3) 48 mo!% (4) 50 mo!% benzene and pure toluene at this temperature are 74.7 torr
and 22.3 torr respectively, then the total vapour pressure
(AIEEE 2008)
of the solution and the benzene mole fraction in equilib-
15. The vapor pressure of water at 20 °C is 17 .5 mm Hg. If rium with it will be, respectively,
18 g of glucose (C6H 1p 6) is added to 178.2 g of water at (1) 35.0 torr and 0.480. (2) 38.0 torr and 0.589.
20 °C, the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be
(3) 30.5 torr and 0.389. (4) 35.8 torr and 0.280.
(1 ) 17 .675 mmHg . (2) 15.750 mmHg. (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-1)
(3) 16.500 mm Hg. (4) 17.325 mm Hg.
21. 18 g glucose (C6H 120J is added to 178.2 g water. The
(AIEEE 2008)
vapour pressure of water (in torr) for this aqueou s
16. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, solution is
the vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mo! ofX (1) 759.0 (2) 7.6
and 3 mo! ofY is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, (3) 76.0 (4) 752.4
if 1 mo! of Y is fu rther added to this solution, vapour
pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour
pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in the ir pure states will 22. T he most appropriate method of making egg-albumin
be, respectively sol is
(1) 400 and 600 (2) 500 and 600 (1) Break an egg carefully and transfer the transparent
(3) 200 and 300 (4) 300 and 400 part of the content to 100 mL of 5% wN saline
(AIEEE 2009) solution and stir well.
(2) Keep the egg in boiling water for 10 min. After
17. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane removing the she ll, transfer the yellow part of the
and ethanol. Which one of the following statem ents is content to 100 mL of 5% wN saline solution and
correct regarding the behaviour of the solution? homogenise w ith a mechanical shaker.
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SOLUTIONS CQ-83
(3) Keep the egg in boiling water for 10 min. After

removing the shell, transfer the white part of the
content to 100 mL of 5% w/V saline solution and
homogenise w ith a mechanical shaker. (JEE Main 2019, April)
(4) Break an egg carefully and transfer only the yellow
part of the content to 100 mL of 5% w/V saline Topic 3: Colligative Properties and Determination
solution and stir well. of Molar Mass, Abnnormal Molar Masses
27. For an aqueous solution, freezing point is -0.1 86 °C.
23. A solution is prepared by mix ing 8.5 g of CH2C l2 and E levation of the boiling point of the same solution is
11 .95 g of CHCl3 • If vapour pressure of C8iCl 2 and (Kr= 1.86 °C mo1- 1 kg and Kb= 0.51 2 °C mo1-1 kg)
CHCl3 at 298 Kare 415 and 200 mm Hg respectively, the
(1) 0.186 °C (2) 0.0512 °C
mole fraction of CHCl3 in vapour form is (Molar mass of
(3) 1. 86 °C (4) 5.12 °C
Cl = 35.5 g mol-1)
(AIEEE 2002)
(1) 0.675 (2) 0.162
(3) 0.486 (4) 0.325 28. In a 0.2 mol aqueou s solution of a weak acid HX the
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2) degree of ionisation is 0.3. Taking Kr for water as 1.85,
the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to
24. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire com-
(1) -0.480 °C (2) -0.360 °C
position range. At 350 K, the vapor pressures of pure A
(3) -0.260 °C (4) +0.480 °C
and Bare 7 x 103 Pa and 12 x 103 Pa, respectively. The
composition of the vapor in equilibrium w ith a solution (AIEEE 2003)
containing 40 mol percent of A at this temperature is 29. Which one of the following statements is false?
(}) XA = 0.37; X 8 = 0.63 (2) xA=0.28;x8 = 0.72 (1) Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a
(3) XA = 0.4; X 8 = 0.6 (4) xA=0.76;x8 =0.24 components over a solution is proportional to its
mole fraction.
(2) Two sucrose solutions of same mo lality prepared in
25. The vapor pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and different solvents will have the same freezing point
600 mm Hg, respectively at 298 K. On mixing the two depression.
liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the (3) The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0 .01 M
volumeofthe final mixture. The mole fraction ofliquid Bis aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 > KCI
0.5 in the mi xture. The vapor pressure ofthe final solution, > CH 3COOH > sucrose.
the mole fractions of components A and B in vapor phase, (4) The osmotic pressure (TT) = MRT, where Mis the
respectively are molarity of the solution.
(1) 450 mm Hg, 0.4, 0.6 (AIEEE 2004)
(2) 500 mm Hg, 0.5, 0.5
30. Which one ofthe following aqueous solutions will exhibit
(3) 450 mm Hg, 0.5, 0.5 highest boiling point?
(4) 500 mm Hg, 0.4, 0.6 (1) 0.01 M Na 2 S04 (2) 0.015 M glucose
(3) 0.015Murea (4) 0.01 M KN03
26. L iquid 'M' and liquid 'N' form an ideal solution. The (AIEEE 2004)
vapor pressures of pure liquids 'M' and 'N' are 450 and
700 mm Hg, respectively, at the same temperature. Then 31. Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have
correct statement is (1) same boiling point but different freezing point.
xM = Mole fraction of 'M' in solution;

xN = Mole fraction of 'N' in solution;
j (2)
(3)
same freezing point but different boiling point.
same boiling and same freezing points.
(4) different boiling and differe nt freezing points.
YM = Mole fracti on of 'M ' in vapor phase;
(AIEEE 2005)
y N = Mole fraction of 'N' in vapor phase
32. A 5.25% solution of a substance is isotonic with a 1.5%
solution of urea (molar mass = 60 g moI-1) in the same
solvent. Ifthe densities of both the solutions are assumed to
be equal to 1.0 g m-3, molar mass of the substance will be
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(1) 210.0 g mot- 1 (2) 90.0 g mot- 1 38. Kr for water is 1.86 kg mot-1• If your automobile radiator
(3) 115.0 g mot- 1 (4) 105.0 g mot- 1 holds 1.0 kg ofwater, how many grams of ethy lene glycol
(C2H 6 O2 ) must you add to get the freezing point of solu-
(AIEEE 2007)
tion lowered to -2.8 °C?
33. A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl3·6NH3 (molar (1) 72g (2) 93 g
mass = 267.5 g mot-1) is passed through a cation
(3) 39 g (4) 27g
exchanger. The chloride ions obtained in solution were (AIEEE 2012)
treated with excess of AgNO3 to g ive 4.78 g of AgCI
(molar mass= 143.5 g mol-1). The formula of the com- 39. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M C 2H p H (aq),
plex is (atomic mass of Ag = 108 u). 0.100 M Mg/PO 4 )/aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and
(1) [CoCl(NH3\ ]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3) 6]Cl3 0.125 M NalO/aq) at 25°C. Which statement is true
about these solutions, assuming all salts to be strong
(3) [CoCli(NH3\]CI (4) [CoCI/NH) 3] e lectrolytes?
(AIEEE 2010) (1) They all have the same osmoti c pressure.
34. On mix ing, heptane and octane form an ideal solution. (2) 0.100 M Mg/PO4)i(aq) has the highest osmotic
At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid com- pressure.
ponents (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa, (3) 0.125 M NalO4 (aq) has the highest osmotic
respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by pressure.
mixing of25 g heptane and 35 g of octane w ill be (Given
(4) 0.500 M C 2HpH (aq) has the highest osmotic
that molar mass of heptane= 100 g mot- 1 and of octane=
pressure.
144 g mot- 1.)
(1) 144.5kPa. (2) 72.0 kPa.
40. The observed osmotic pressure for a 0.10 M solution of
(3) 36.1 kPa. (4) 96.2 kPa.
Fe(NH4\(SO) 2 at 25 °C is 10.8 atrn. The expected and
(AIEEE 2010)
experimental (observed) values of van 't Hoff factor (i)
35. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dis- will be, respectively
sociated into cations and anions in aqueous solution, the
(R = 0.082 L atrn K- 1 mo l- 1)
change in freezing point of water (t,,.Tr) when 0.01 mot of
sodium sulphate is dissolved in 1 kg of water is (Given (1) 5 and 4.42 (2) 4 and 4 .00
Kr= 1.86 K mot- 1) (3) 5 and 3.42 (4) 3 and 5.42
(1) 0.01 86 K (2) 0.0372 K
(3) 0.0558 K (4) 0.0744 K 41. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20 °C is 185 torr. When
(AIEEE 2010) 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g
of acetone at 20 °C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. T he
36. The degree of dissociation (a) of a weak electrolyte, molar mass (g mot- 1) of the substance is
A xBy is related to van ' t Hoff factor (i) by the expression: (1) 64 (2) 128
i-1 x+ y- l (3) 488 (4) 32
(1) a= (2) a=
x+ y+ l i-1 (JEE Main 2015, Offline)
x+ y+ l i- 1 42. Determination of the molar mass of acetic acid in ben-

(3) a= (4) a= zene u sing freezing point depression is affected by
i- 1 x+ y- 1
(1) dissociation (2) association
(AIEEE 2011)
(3) partial ionisation (4) complex formation
37. Ethylene glycol is used as antifreeze in a cold climate. (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2)
Mass of ethy lene glycol which should be added to 4 kg of
water to prevent it from freezing at -6 °C w ill be (Given 43. An aqueous solution of a salt MX2 at certain temperature
that Kr for water = 1.86 °C molat- 1, and molar mass of has a van 't Hoff factor of 2. The degree of dissociation
ethy lene glycol = 62 g mot- 1.) for this solution of the salt is
(1) 204.30g (2) 400.00 g (1) 0.50 (2) 0.33
(3) 304.60 g (4) 800.00 g (3) 0.67 (4) 0.80
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SOLUTIONS CQ-85
44. The freezing point of benzene decreases by 0.45 °C when 50. For the solution ofthe gases w, x,y and z in water at 298 K,
0.2 g of acetic acid is added to 20 g of benzene. If acetic the Henry's law constants (KH) are 0.5, 2, 35 and 40 kbar,
acid associates to form a dimer in benzene, percentage respectively. The correct plot for the given data is
association of acetic acid in benzene will be (Kr for ben-
zene= 5.12 K kg moI- 1)
(1) 74.6% (2) 94.6%
Partial
(3) 64.6% (4) 80.4% pressure
(1)
45. 5 g ofNa2SO4 was dissolved in x g of Hp. The change
of water
in freezing point was found to be 3.82 °C. If Na 2SO4 is
81.5% ionised, the value of x (Kr for water = 1.86 °C kg
moi- 1) is approximately
(Molar mass ofS = 32 g mo1- 1 and that of Na= 23 g mol-1)
Partial
(1) 15 g (2) 45g pressure
(3) 25 g (4) 65 g (2)

(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1) (0, 0) Mole fraction
of water
46. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following com-

pounds, which one w ill show the highest freezing point?
(1) [Co(Hp)5C l]C l2 · Hp Partia
pressur
(2) [Co(Hp\Cl2]CI · 2Hp
(3) [Co(HP)3C IJ · 3Hp (3)
(0, 0) Mole fraction
(4) [Co(Hp) 6]Cl3 of water

z
47. Elevation in the boiling point for l molal solution of
Partial Y
glucose is 2 K. The depression in the freezing point for 2 pressure
molal solution of glucose in the same solvent is 2 K. The X
w
relation between Kb a nd Kr is (4)
(0, 0) Mole fraction
(1) Kb= 1.5 Kf (2) Kb =Kr of water
(3) Kb= 0.5 Kf (4) Kb= 2 K f (JEE Main 2019, April)

51. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic
48. The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be compound XY in water is four times that of a solution of
-0.2°C, while it should have been -0.5°C for pure milk. 0.01 M BaCl2 in water. Assuming complete dissociation
How much water has been added to pure milk to make the of the given ionic compounds in water, the concentration
diluted sample? ofXY (in mol L-1) in solution is
(1) 1 Cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk. (1) 4 X 10-2 (2) 6 X 10-2
(2) 2 Cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk. (3) 4 X 10--4 (4) 16 X 10-4
(3) 3 Cups of water to 2 cups of pure milk. (JEE Main 2019, April)
(4) 1 Cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk. 52. 1 g of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute is dissolved
(JEE Main 2019, January) in 100 g of two different solvents A and B whose ebulli-
oscopic constants are in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of the
49. Freezi ng point of a 4 % aqueous solution ofX is equal to
. . h . b ·1· . tiI;,(A) .
freezing point of 12% aqueous motion ofY. If molecular e Ievat10n mt err 01 mg pomts, - ~ -, 1s
weight ofX is A then molecular weight ofY is tiT/ B)
(1) 3A (2) 2A (1) 5:1 (2) 10 : 1

(3) A (4) 4A (3) 1:5 (4) l :0.2
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53. Phenol polymerizes is aqueous solution. Assume 100% (1) -6.54 °C (2) -0.654 °C
polymerization. The number of phenol molecules under- (3) 6.54 °C (4) 0.654 °C
going polymerization in its aqueous solution containing
9.4 g of phenol per 100 g of the solution if the solution 55. Solution A contains 7 g L- 1 MgC12 and solution B con-
recorded a freezing point of -0.93 °C is tains 7 g L-1 of NaCl. At room temperature, the osmotic
(1) 4 (2) 2 pressure of
(3) 10 (4) 20 (1) solution A is greater than B.
(2) both have the same osmotic pressure.
54. A solution of urea (molar mass 56 g mol-1) boils at
100.18 °C at the atmospheric pressure. If Kr and Kb for (3) solution B is greater than A.
water are 1.86 °C molal- 1 and 0.512 °C molal-', respec- (4) cannot be determined.
tively, the above solution w ill freeze at
56. The mass of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute (molar 61. Molal depression constant for a solvent is 4 .0 K kg moi- 1•
mass= 50 g mol- 1) needed to be dissolved in 114 g octane The depression in the freezing point of the solvent for
to reduce its vapor pressure to 75%, is _ _ _ __ 0.03 mo l kg- 1 solution ofK2SO4 is _ _ _ __
(Assume complete dissociation of the electrolyte)
57. Two 5 molal solutions are prepared by dissolving a
non-electrolyte non-volatile solute separately in the sol- 62. At room temperature, a dilute solution of urea is prepared
vents X and Y. The molecular weights of the solvents are by dissolv ing 0.60 g ofurea in 360 g of water. If the vapor
. 3 pressure of pure water at this temperature is 35 mm Hg,
Mx and My, respectively, where M x = - M v. The rela-
4 lowering of vapor pressure wi ll be _ _ _ __
tive lowering of vapor pressure of the solution in Xis "m" (molar mass of urea= 60 g moJ- 1)
times that of the solution in Y. Given that the number of
moles of solute is very small in comparison to that of sol- 63. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar
vent, the value of"m" is _ _ _ __ mass = 60 g moi- 1) and I .8 g of g lucose (molar mass =
180 g mol- 1) in 100 mL of water at 27°C. The osmotic
58. A solution containing 62 g ethy lene glycol in 250 g water pressure of the solution is _ _ _ __
is cooled to -1 0°C. If Kr for water is 1.86 K kg moi- 1, the
amount of water (in g) separated as ice is _ _ __ (R = 0.08206 L atm K- 1 mol- 1)
59. ~Hgl4 is 40% ionized in aqueou s solution. The value of 64. A 0.004 M solution ofNa2SO4 is isotonic with a 0.010 M
its van 't Hoff factor (i) is _ _ _ __ solution of g lucose at the same temperature. The apparent
degree of dissociation ofNa2SO4 is _ _ _ __
60. Molecules of benzoic acid (C6H 5COOH) dimerize in
65. For a weak monobasic acid, if pK. = 4 , then at a con-
benzene. 'w' g of the acid dissolved in 30 g of benzene
centration of 0.01 M of the acid solution, the van't Hoff
shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2 K. If the
factor is _ _ __
percentage association of the acid to form dimer in the
solution is 80, then w is _ _ __
(Given that K r= 5 K kg moJ- 1, Molar mass ofbenzoic acid
= 122 g moJ- 1)
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CHAPTER17

Topic 1: Electrochemical Cells, Galvanic Cells and (]) 2.14 volt (2) 1.80 volt
Nernst Equation (3) 1.07 volt (4) 0.82 volt
(AIEEE 2003)
1. For the following cell with hydrogen electrodes at two
different pressures p 1 and p 2 5. For a cel l reaction involving a two-electron change, the
Pt(H2)IH+(aq)[ Pt(H2) standard emf of the cell is found to be 0.295 Vat 25 °C.
The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25 °C will be
P 1
lM P2
(]) l X 10-io (2) 29.5 X J0-2
emf is given by
(3) 10 (4) 1 X 10 10
RT p RT p (AIEEE 2003)
(I) - log ____1_ (2) - log ____1_
F , P2 2F , P2
6. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A,
B and Care, respectively, +0.5 V,-3.0 V and - 1.2 V The
RT Pi RT I p
(3) - log - (4) - og - 2 reducing powers of these metals are
F , Pi 2F , Pi
(1) B> C> A (2) A>B>C
(AIEEE 2002) (3) C > B>A (4) A>C> B
2. Which of the following reaction is possible at anode? (AIEEE 2003)
(1) F2 + 2e-➔ 2p- 7. The standard emf of a cell, involving one electron change is
found to be 0.591 V at 25 °C. The equilibrium constant of
l
(2) 2H++ - O 2 +2e- ➔ H 2 O the reaction is (F = 96,500 C moI- 1: R = 8.3 14 J K- 1 moI- 1)
2
(1) I.Ox 10 1 (2) I.O x 1030
(3) 2Crt + 7H2 O ➔ Cr2 O;- + 14H+ + 6e- (3) J.0 X 1010 (4) J.0 X 105
+ ➔ (AIEEE 2004)
2
(4) Fe Fe 3
+ + e-
(AIEEE 2002) 8. The E~+3 1M,. values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are -0.41 ,
3. For a cell given below: + 1.57, + 0.77 and + 1.97 V, respectively. For which one of
Ag [Ag+[ ICu 2+I Cu these me tals the change in oxidation state form +2 to +3
is easiest?
Ag++ e-➔ Ag, E 0 =x
(1) Cr (2) Co
eu2+ + 2e-➔ Cu , E"= y
(3) Fe (4) Mn
E" cell is
(AIEEE 2004)
(1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y
9. Consider the following E" values:
(3) y-x (4) y-2x
(AIEEE 2002) E\ 0,,. / Fe2+ = + 0.77 V £ \n,. /Sn = - 0.14 V
Under standard conditions the potential for the reaction
4. For the redox reaction:
Sn(s)+ 2Fe3 +(aq) ~ 2Fe 2+(aq) + Sn 2 +(aq) is
Zn (s) + Cu + (0.1 M) ➔ Zn + (IM) + Cu (s)
2 2
(]) 1.68 V (2) 0.63 V

taking place in a cell, E: 11 is 1. 10 Volt. Eceu for the cell (3) 0.91 V (4) 1.40V
w ill be [2.303 (RT/F) = 0 .059 1] (AIEEE 2004)
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10. In a cell that utilises the reaction: 16. The Gibbs e nergy for the decomposition of Alp3 at
500 °C is as follows:
Z n(s) + 2W(aq) ~ Zn +(aq) + H 2 (g)
2
Addition ofH2 S0 4 to cathode compartment, will

( 1) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left.
(2) increases the E and shift equilibrium to the left. The potential difference needed for e lectrolytic reduction
(3) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the right. of Al2 0 3 at 500 °C is at least
(4) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right. (1) 5.0 V (2) 4.5 V
(AIEEE 2004) (3) 3.0 V (4) 2.5 V
11. For a spontaneou s reaction, the t"l.G, equilibrium constant (AIEEE 2010)
(K) and E;en w ill be , respectively, 17. The correct order of E:,.IM va lues w ith negative sign for
( 1) - ve, > 1, +ve (2) +ve, > 1, - ve the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is
(3) - ve, < 1, - ve (4) - ve, > 1, - ve (1) Mn>Cr>Fe>Co (2) Cr>Mn >Fe>Co
(AIEEE 2005) (3) Cr>Fe>Mn >Co (4) Fe>Mn>Cr>Co
(AIEEE 2010)
12. Given the data at 25 °C,
18. The standard reduction potentials fo r Zn 2+/zn, Ni 2+JNi,
Ag + I- ➔ Agl+e-; £ 0 = 0.152 V
and Fe2+JFe are - 0.76 V, - 0.23 V and - 0.44 V, respec-
Ag ➔ Ag+ +e- ; £ 0 = -0.800 V tively. The reaction X + y i+ ➔ x 2+ + Y wi ll be sponta-
neous w hen
What is the value of log K sp for Agl?
(1) X=Ni,Y=Fe
2.303 RT = 0.059 V (2) X=Ni,Y=Zn
F
(3) X = Fe, Y = Zn
(1 ) -8. 12 (2) +8.6 12
(4) X= Zn, Y=Ni
(3) -37.83 (4) - 16.13
(AIEEE 2012)
(AIEEE 2006)
19. Given
13. The cell, Zn1Zn2+ (1 M) 11 Cu + ( 1 M) I Cu (E: 11 = 1.10 V),
2
0
was a llowed to be completely discharged at 298 K. The Ec",. c = - 0.74 V; £ Mn
r 1 r
_
0 1Mn
2+ = 1.51V,
4
Eer",0 1, _ 1c,"
re lative concentration of Zn2+ to Cu2+, that is, [Zn2+]/
= 1.33V; E ~l/0- = 1.36V
[Cu2+] is
( 1) 9.65 x 104 (2) antilog (24 .08) B ased on the data given above, strongest oxidising agent
(4) 10373
w ill be
(3) 37.3
(AIEEE 2007) (1) Cr3+ (2) Mn2+
0
14. Given £ c,,.
0
= -0.72 V, £ Fe ,. = -0.42 V . The poten- (3) MnO~ (4) c 1-
/Cr /Fe
tial for the cell Cr I Cr3+(0.l M) 11 Fe 2+(0.01 M) I Fe is (JEE Main 2013)
(I) 0.26 V (2) 0.399 V 20. Given be low are the half-cell reactions
(3) -0.339 V (4) -0.26 V
M n 2 + +2e- ➔ Mn; £ 0 = - 1.1 8 V
(AIEEE 2008)
2(Mn3+ +e- ➔ Mn 2+); £ 0 = + 1.51 V
15. The reductio n potential of hydrogen half cell will be neg-
ative if The E° for 3Mn2+ ➔ Mn + 2Mn3+ w ill be
(1) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M (1) -2 .69 V; the reactio n w ill not occur.
(2) p(H) = 2 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M (2) -2.69 V; the reaction w ill occur.
(3) p(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 2.0 M (3) -0.33 V; the reactio n w ill not occur.
(4) p(H2) = l atm and [H+] = 2.0 M (4) -0.33 V; the reaction w ill occur.
(AIEEE 2011) (JEE Main 2014, Offiine)
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ELECTROCHEMISTRY CQ-89
21. The standard e lectrode potentials (E~.IM ) of four metals 26. To find the standard potential of M3+/M e lectrode, the
following cell is constituted:
A, B, C and Dare -1.2 V, 0.6 V, 0.85 V and -0.76 V,
respectively. The sequence of deposition of metals on Pt/M/M3+ (0.00 1 mo l L- 1)/Ag+ (0.Ql mol L- 1)/Ag
applying potential is The emf of the cell is found to be 0.421 V at 298 K. The
(1) A, C , B, D (2) B, D, C , A standard potential of half reaction
(3) C, B, D, A (4) D,A,B,C M 3++ 3e- ➔ Mat 298 K will be (Given E 0 •
1
at 298 K
= 0.80 V) Ag Ag
(1) 0.32 V (2) 0.66 V

22. A variable opposite external potential (£ext) is applied to
(3) 0.38V (4) 1.28V
the cell Zn1Zn2+(1 M)IICu2+(1 M)ICu, of potential 1.1 V
When £ ext < 1.1 V and potential 1.2 V, respectively, e lec- (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2)
tron flow from 27. Electrode potential of the half-cell Hg( l ), Hg2C l2(g) Ic i-
( 1) anode to cath ode and cathode to anode. (aq) can be increased by
(2) cathode to anode and anode to cathode. ( 1) increasing [Cr]. (2) decreasing [Cr].
(3) cathode to anode in both cases. (4) decreasing Hg(I).
(4) anode to cathode in both cases.
28. If the standard e lectrode potential for a cell is 2 V at
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-1) 300 K, the equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction
Zn(s)+Cu 2+(aq) ~ Zn 2 +(aq) + Cu(s) at 300 K is
23. At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials are 1.51 V for
2 approximate ly (R = 8 JK- 1 mo1-1, F = 96000 C mol- 1)
MnO~ IM n + 1.36 V for CI2 I c 1- 1.07 V for Br21Br, and
(1) e-so (2) e - 160
0.54 V for 12 11-. At pH = 3, permanganate is expected to
(3) e320 ( 4) e l 60
ox1d1se F
. . (RT = 0.059 V ) (JEE Main 2019, January)
29. In the cell Pt(s)IH/g, 1 bar) I HCI (aq)I AgCI (s)IAg

(2) c 1- and Br- (s)IPt (s) the cell potential is 0.92 V when a 10-6 molal
HCI solution is used. The standard electrode potential of
(3) Br- and 1- (4) 1- on1y (AgCI/AgCi-) e lectrode is
[G1.ven, 2.303RT
24. G iven nF
0.06 V at 298 K]
( 1) 0.94 V (2) 0.76V
(3) 0.40 V (4) 0.20V
£~n0 / M n2+
4 = l. 5 l V. (JEE Main 2019, January)
Among the following, the strongest reducing agent is 30. For the cell Zn (s) I Zn2+(aq) II Mx+ (aq) I M (s), differ-
( 1) Cr3+ (2) c 1- ent half-cells and their standard electrode potentials are
(3) Cr (4) Mn2+ given below:
M.r1- (aq) / Au3+ (aq) / Ag+ (aq) / f eH (aq) / Fe2+ (aq) /
25. What is the standard reduction potential (£ 0
) for M (s) Au (s) Ag (s) Fe2+ (aq) Fe (s)
Fe3+ ➔ Fe?
0.80 0.77 - 0.44
Given that:
Fe2+ + 2e- ➔ Fe· £
'
0
Fe 2+ / Fe
= -0.47 V If £;,. = --0.76 V, which cathode will give a maxi-
0 120
Fe3+ + e- ➔ 0
Fe2+-' £ FeJ.+ / Fe2 +
= +0.77 V mum value of £ ;en per electron transferred?
( 1) Ag+/Ag (2) Au 3+/Au

(1) +0.057V (2) +0.30V
(3) - 0.30 V (4) - 0.057 V (3) Fe3+/Fe 2+ (4) Fe2+/Fe
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31. Given the equilibrium constant, Kc of the reaction: 36. T he limiting molar conductivities A° for NaCl, KBr and
KCI are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mot- 1, respectively. The
Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) ➔ Cu +(aq) + 2Ag(s) is 10 x 10
2 15
, cal-
A° forNaBr is
culate the £;11 of this reaction at 298 K
( I ) 128 S cm2 mo l- 1 (2) 302 S cm2 mot- 1
[ 2.303 R: at 298 K = 0.059 V ]
(3) 278 S cm2 mo t- 1 (4) 176 S cm2 mot- 1
(AIEEE 2004)
(1) 0.04736 mV (2) 0.4736 mV 37. Aluminium oxide may be e lectolysed at 1000 °C to fur-
(3) 0.4736 V (4) 0.04736 V nish a luminium metal (At. mass = 27 amu; 1 Faraday =
96,500 Coulombs). T he cathode reaction is
0 Al3+ + 3e- ➔ A l0
32. T he standard e lectrode potential £ and its tempera-
To prepare 5.1 2 kg of aluminium metal by this method
ture coefficient ( ' :; ) for a cell are 2 V and - 5 x would require
(1) 5.49 x 107 C of e lectric ity.
10---4 V K- 1 at 300 K respectively. The cell reaction is
(2) 1.83 x I 0 7 C of e lectric ity.
Zn(s) + eu 2+(aq) ➔ Zn 2+(aq ) + Cu(s) the standard
(3) 5.49 x 104 C of electric ity.
0
reaction enthalpy ( t,,,,H ) at 300 K in kJ mo1- is 1
(4) 5.49 x 10 1 C of e lectric ity.
(1) -412.8 (2) - 384.0 (AIEEE 2005)
(3) 192.0 (4) 206.4 38. T he highest e lectrical conductivity of the following aque-
(JEE Main 2019, January) ous solutions is of
( 1) 0. 1 M acetic acid.
33. Calcu late the standard cell potential (in V) of the cell in
(2) 0. 1 M chloroacetic acid.
which following reaction takes place:
(3) 0. 1 M fluoroacetic acid.
Fe2+(aq) + Ag+(aq) ➔ Fe3+(aq) + Ag(s) (4) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid.
G iven that (AIEEE 2005)
0
39.
£ Ag' /Ag =x V
Electrolyte KCI KNO3 HCI NaOAc NaCl
0
126.5
£ Fe" / Fe
=zV
Calculate A7ioAc using appropriate molar conductances
(1) x-z (2) x-y
of the electrolytes listed above at infinite dilution in Hp
(3) X + 2y - 3z (4) x+y - z
at 25 °C
(1) 5 17.2 (2) 552.7
(3) 390.7 (4) 217.5
Topic 2: Conductance of Electrolytic Solutions and
Electrolytic Cells and Electrolysis (AIEEE 2005)
34. Conductiv ity (Seimen's S) is directly proportiona l to area 40. The molar conductiv ities A ~aoAc and A ~c, at infinite dilu-
of the vessel and the concentration of the solution in it tion in water at 25 °Care 91.0 and 426.2 S cm 2 mo1- 1, respec-
and is inversely proportional to the length of the vessel, tively. To calculate A ~oAc• the additional value required is
then constant of proportiona lity is expressed in
(1) A~,o (2)
(I) S m moi- 1 (2) S2 m 2 moi-2
0
(3) S m 2 moi-1 (4) S2 m 2mol (3) A ~aOH (4) A NaCI
35. W hen during e lectrolysis of a solution of AgNO3 9650 41. Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a solution of
coulombs of charge pass through the electroplating bath, an electrolyte of concentration 0. 1 M is 100 Q . The con-
the mass of silver deposited on the cathode will be ductivity of this solution is 1.29 S m- 1• Resistance of the
(1) 1.08 g (2) 10.8 g same cell when filled with 0.2 M of the same solution is
(3) 21.6 g (4) 108 g 52 Q . The mo lar conductivity of 0.02 M solution of the
(AIEEE 2003) e lectrolyte w ill be
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E LECTROCHEMISTRY CQ-91
(1) 124 X 10-4 s m2 mo(- 1. (1) 8.96 L (2) 4.48 L

(2) 1240 x 10-4 s m 2 mo1- 1• (3) 6.72 L (4) 2.24 L
(3) 1.24 X 10-4 S m2 mo(-I. (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2)
(4) 12.4 X 10-4 S m 2 mo(- 1.
(AIEEE 2006) 47. A current of 10.0 A flows fo r 2.00 h through an electro-
lytic cell containing a molten salt of metal X. This result
42. The equivalent conductances of two strong electrolytes at in the decomposition of0.250 mo! of metal X at the cath-
infinite dilution in Hp (where ions move freely through ode. The oxidation state of X in the molten salt is (F =
2 1
a solution) at 25 °C are Aett,cooNa = 91.0 Scm equiv- 96,500 C)
and A~ci = 426.2 Scm 2equiv-'. What additional infor- (1) +1 (2) +2
mation/quantity is needed to calculate A~ of an aqueous (3) +3 (4) +4
solution of acetic acid? (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-1)
(1) A~ of chloroacetic acid (CICH2COOH)
48. How many electrons would be required to deposit 6.35 g
of copper at the cathode during the electrolysis of an
(2) A~ ofNaCI
aqueous solution of copper sulphate? (Atomic mass of
copper = 63 .5 u, NA= Avogadro's constant)
(3) A~ ofCH3COOK
NA (2) NA
(4) The limiting equivalent conductance of H+(A~+) ( 1)
20 10
(AIEEE 2007) NA
(3) (4)
43. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 0. 2
The specific conductance of the solution is 1.4 S m- 1• The (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3)
resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is
280 0. The molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the 49. How long (approximate) should water be electrolyzed
electrolyte in S m2 mo1- 1 is by passing through 100 amperes current so that the oxy-
(1) 5 X l 0-4 (2) 5 X 10-3 gen released can completely burn 27.66 g of diborane?
(Atomic weightofB = 10.8 u)
(3) 5x103 (4) 5x102
(1) 0.8 h (2) 3.2 h
(3) 1.6 h (4) 6.4 h
44. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C
and at infinite dilution is Ac and A~, respectively. The cor-
rect relationship between Ac and A~ is given as (where the 50. When an electric current is passed through ac idified
constant B is positive) water, 112 mL of hydrogen gas at NTP was collected
at the cathode in 965 s. The current passed, in ampere,
(1) Ac= A +(B)C
00
(2) Ac =A00
-(B)C
is
(3) Ac =A 00
-(B)✓
C (4) Ac= A +(B)✓
00
C (1) 1.0 (2) 0.5
(JEE Main 2014, Offiine) (3) 0.1 (4) 2.0
45. Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of
CuSO4 • The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is 51. When 9.65 A current was passed for 1.0 h into nitroben-
(At. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu) zene in acidic medium, the amount ofp-aminophenol pro-
duced is
(1) 63.5 g (2) 2 g
(3) 127 g (4) 0 g (1) 9.8 1 g (2) 10.9 g
(JEE Main 2015, Offiine) (3) 98.1 g (4) 109.0 g
46. Oxidation of succinate ion produces ethylene and carbon
dioxide gases. On passing 0.2 Faraday electricity through 52. The anodic half-cell of lead-acid battery is recharged
an aqueous solution of potassium succinate, the total vol- using electricity of 0.05 Faraday. The amount of PbSO4
ume of gases (at both cathode and anode) at STP (1 atm electrolyzed in g during the process is (Molar mass of
and 273 K) is PbSO4 = 303 g mol- 1)
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(1) 22.8 (2) 15.2 (I) 0.1 M Formic acid

(3) 7.6 (4) 11.4 (II) 0.1 M Acetic acid
(JEE Main 2019, January) (III) 0.1 M Benzoic acid
53. A~ for NaCl, HCl and NaA are 126.4, 425.9 and 100.5 S
( 1) (I) > (III) > (II) (2) (JII) > (II) > (I)
cm2 mo1- 1 respectively. Ifthe conductivity of0.00 l MHA is
5 x 10-5 S cm- 1, degree of dissociation of HA is (3) (I) > (II) > (III) (4) (III)> (I) > (II)
(1) 0.50 (2) 0.25
(3) 0.125 (4) 0.75 Topic 3: Fuel Cells and Corrosion
57. In hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen
54. Statement 1: Conductivity always increases with occurs to
decrease in the concentration of electrolyte.
( 1) generate heat.
Statement 2: Molar conductivity always increases w ith (2) remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surfaces.
decrease in the concentration of electrolyte.
(3) produce high purity water.
The correct option among the following is (4) create potential difference between the two elec-
(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect. trodes.
(2) Statement I is wrong, and Statement 2 is correct. (AIEEE 2004)
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. 58. Galvanisation is applying a coating of
(4) Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect. ( 1) Zn (2) Pb
(3) Cr (4) Cu
55. Which one of the following graphs between molar (JEE Main 2016, Offiine)
conductivity (Am) versus Jc is correct?
59. Identify the correct statement.
(1) Corrosion of iron can be minimised by forming a
contact with another metal with a higher reduction
potential.
(2) Iron corrodes in oxygen-free water.
(3) Corrosion of iron can be minimised by forming an
impermeable barrier at its surface.
(4) Iron corrodes more rapidly in salt water because its
electrochemical potential is higher.
60. The rusting of iron takes place as follows. Calculate !).(]'

(4)
for the net process.
2W + 2e- + 1/2 0 2 ➔ H 2 0(l); £

0
= +1.23 V
Fe 2
+ + 2e- ➔ Fe(s); E 0
= -0.44 V
56. The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the fol- ( 1) -322 kJ mo1-1 (2)-161 kJ mo1-1
lowing aqueous solutions is (3) - 152 kJ mo1-1 (4) -76 kJ mo1-1
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ELECTROCHEMISTRY CQ-93
61. What current would be required to deposit 1.00 m 2 of 66. The approximate time duration in hours to electroplate
chrome plate having a thickness of 0.052 mm in 4.5 h 30 g of calcium from molten calcium chloride using a
from a solution of H2 CrO/ The current efficiency is current of 5 amp is _ _ _ __
74% and density of chromium is 7.19 g cm-3 • [At. wt. of [At. mass of Ca= 40)
Cr= 52 u]
67. The reaction of tin metal with acid can be written as
62. For Cr2 O;- + 14H+ + 6e- ➔ 2Cr3+ + 7Hp; £ 0 = 1.33 V
Sn(s) + 2W (aq) ~ Sn +(aq) + H 2 (g); E;n,•isn = -0.14 V
2
At [Cr2 O;-] = 4.5 millimole, [Cr3+] = 15 millimole, E 0 is

1.067 V The pH of the solution is _ _ _ __ Assume that [Sn 2+] = 1 M and the partial pressure of
hydrogen gas is 1 atm. If cell reaction is spontaneous at
63. If a direct current deposits 20.5 g of potassium (atomic pH= 2, then potential of the cell (in V) is _ _ _ __
weight 39 u) in 1 min, then the amount (in grams) of alu-
minium (atomic weight 27 u) deposited by the same cur- 68. By how much would the oxidizing power of the
rent during the same time interval would be _ _ __ (MnO~ I Mn2+) couple change if the H+ ions concentra-
tion is decreased 100 times at 25°C?
64. The E;u = 0.135 V
0
for the reaction
69. In an electrolysis of acidulated water, 4.48 L of hydro-
I 2 (s) + Crp;-(aq) + W ➔ IO;(aq) + Cr3+(aq) + H 2O. gen was produced by passing a current of 2.14 A for
What is E cen if [Cr2 O;-]=0.0IM, [H+]=0.lM,

3 70. Two students use the same stock solution of ZnSO4 to
[IO; ] = 0.0001 M and [Cr +) = 0.001 M?
make Daniell cells in the laboratory with Cu as positive
electrode. The emf of one cell is 0.03 V higher than the
65. For the reaction NiO2 (s) + Cr(aq) + H+(aq) ➔ C l 2 (g) + other. The concentration ofCuSO4 in the cell with higher
Ni 2 +(aq) + H 2 O, the standard cell potential is 0.32 V The emf value is 0.5 M. Find out the concentration ofCuSO4
value of !!.G0 w ill be _ _ __ in the other cell (Given 2.203 RTIF= 0.06).
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CHAPTER18

Topic 1: Rate of a Chemical Reaction 5. A reaction involving two different reactants can never be
(I) unimolecular reaction.
1. ,8-partic le is emitted in a radioactive reaction when
(2) first order reaction.
(1) a proton changes to neutron.
(3) second order reaction.
(2) a neutron changes to proton.
( 4) bimolecular reaction.
(3) a neutron changes to e lectron.
(AIEEE 2005)
(4) an electron changes to neutron.
(AIEEE 2002) 6. For a reaction _1_ A ➔ 2B, rate of disappearance of A is
2
2. For the reaction: H 2 + 12 ➔ 2HI, the differential rate law re lated to the rate of appearance ofB by the expressio n
is
_ d[A] = _1_ d[B] _ d[A] = _1_ d[B]
(1) (2)
_ d[H 2] = _ d[I 2] = d[HI] dt 2 dt dt 4 dt
(1) 2
dt dt dt _ d[A] = d[B] _ d[A] = d[B]
(3) (4) 4
_ d[H 2] = _ d[l 2] = d[HI] dt dt dt dt
(2) 2 2
dt dt dt (AIEEE 2008)
( ) _ d[H 2] =- d[I 2] = d[HI] 7. Consider the reaction:
3
dt dt dt
Cl 2(aq) + H 2S(aq) ➔ S(s) + 2W(aq) + 2Ci-(aq)
The rate equation for this reaction is rate = k[Cl2][~S].
Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent w ith this
(AIEEE 2002) rate equation?
3. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and (I) Cl2 + H 2S ➔ H + + c1- + Cl+ + Hs- (slow)
B is g iven by Rate = k [A]" [B]"'. On doubling the con-
c 1+ +Hs- ➔ H + +c1- + s (fast)
centration of A and halv ing the concentration of B, the
ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction wi ll (fast equilibrium)
be as
Cl 2 + Hs- ➔ 2e1- + W + S (s low)
(1) l/2(m+n) (2) (m + n)
(4) 2<n- m) ( 1) I only (2) II only
(3) (n - m)
(AIEEE 2003) (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I no r II
(AIEEE 2010)
4. The rate equation for the reaction 2A + B ~ C is
found to be: rate k[A][B]. The correct statem ent in rela- 8. In the reaction of formation of sulphur trioxide by contact
tion to this reaction is that the process 2SO2 + 0 2 ~ 2SO3 the rate ofreaction was mea-
sured as
(1) unit of k must be s- 1•
(2) va lues of k is independent of the initial concentra- d[0 2 ] = 2.5x l 0--4 mol L- 1 s- 1
tion of A and B. dt
(3) rate of formation ofC is twice the rate of disappear- The rate ofreaction in terms of[SO2] in mo! L- 1 s- 1 w ill be
an ce of A. (1) - 1.25 X 10-4 (2) -2.50 X J0-4
(4) t 112 is a constant. (3) -3.75 X 10-4 (4) -5.00 X 10-4
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9. For the reaction, 2Np 5 ~ 4N02 + 0 2, the rate equation 14. For a reaction scheme A ~ B ~ C, if the rate of
formation ofB is set to be zero then the concentration of
can be expressed in two ways - d[NzOs] = k[N 20 5 ] and Bis given by
dt
d[N02] (2) k/2[A]
+ - ~ ~ k'[N 20 5 ]. T herefore, k and k' are re lated as
dt
(1) k=k' (2)2k= k' (4) ( ::)[A]
(3) k= 2k' (4) k=4k'
10. For the reaction, Topic 2: Integrated Rate Equations

3A + 2B ➔ C + D,
15. Half-life of a substance A following first order kinetics
the differential rate law can be written as is 5 days. Starting with 100 g of A, amount left after 15
days is
(1) ! d[A] = d[C] = k [A]"[B]"'
3 dt dt (1) 25 g (2) 50 g
(3) 12.5 g (4) 6.25 g
(2) - d[A] = d[C] = k[A]"[B]"'
dt dt (AIEEE 2002)
➔
(3) + ! d[A] = d[C] = k[A]"[B]"' 16. For a reaction A + 2B C, rate is given by
3 dt dt d[C] f ..
+ - - = k[A][B], hence the order o the react10n 1s
dt
(4) _ _!_ d[A] = d[C] = k[A]"[B]"'
3 dt dt (1) 3 (2) 2
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4) (3) 1 (4) 0
(AIEEE 2002)
11. A + 2B ➔ C, the rate equation of this reaction is given as
Rate= k[A][B]. 17. Consider following two reactions:
If the concentration of A is kept the same but that of B is
A ➔ Product - d[A ] = k1 [A]0
doubled what will happen to rate itself? dt
(1) Halved (2) The same
(3) Doubled (4) Quadrupled B ➔ Product - d[B] = k2[B]
dt
k 1 and k 2 are expressed in terms of molarity (mol L- 1) and
12. The rate law for the reaction below is given by the expres-
time(s- 1) as
sion k[A][B]
A+B ➔ Product (1) s-1 , M s-1 L-1 (2) M s- 1, M s- 1
If the concentration of B is increased from 0. 1 to 0.3 (3) s- 1, M- 1s- 1 (4) M s- 1, s- 1
mole, keeping the value of A at 0. 1 mole, the rate con- (AIEEE 2002)
stant will be
18. Rate constant k of the first order reaction when initial
(1) 3k (2) 9k
concentration C0 and concentration C, at time t is given
(3) k/3 (4) k by equation
(JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2) kt= log C0 - log C,
Graph is a straight line if we plot
13. For an elementary chemical reaction, A 2 ---5.........,. 2A the (1) t VS log co (2) t VS log c,
. d[A] . ~ '
express10n for - - 1s (3) r- vs log C,
1
(4) log C0 vs log C1
dt
(AIEEE 2002)
(1) kJA2] - k_l[A]2 (2) 2k1[A2] - k_1[A]2
19. For the reaction system: 2NO(g)+0 2(g) ➔ 2N0 2(g)
(3) k1[A2] + k_1[A]2 (4) 2k1[A2] - 2k_ 1[A]2 volume is suddenly reduced to half its value by increas-
(JEE Main 2019, January) ing the pressure on it. If the reaction is of first order with
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CHEMICAL KINETICS CQ-97
respect to 0 2 and second order w ith respect to NO, the If the second step is the rate determining step, the order
rate of reaction will of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is
(1) diminish to one-fourth of its initial value. (1) 1 (2) 0
(2) diminish to one-eighth of its initial value. (3) 3 (4) 2
(3) increase to eight times of its initial value. (AIEEE 2006)
(4) increase to four times of its initial value.
26. Consider the reaction 2A + B ➔ Products. W hen con-
(AIEEE 2003)
centration of B a lone was doubled, the ha lf-life did not
20. T he half-life of a radioactive isotope is three hours. If the change. When the concentration of A alone was doubled,
initial mass of the isotope were 256 g , the mass of it the rate increased by two times. The unit of rate constant
remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be for this reaction is
(1) 4.0 g (2) 8.0 g (1) s- 1 (2) L moi- 1 s- 1
(3) 12.0 g (4) 16.0 g (3) no unit (4) mo1- 1 s- 1
21. In first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant 27. A radioactive element gets spilled over the floor of a
decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 Min 15 minutes. The time room. Its half-life period is 30 days. If the initial activity
taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to is 10 times the permissible value, after how many days
0.025 Mis w ill it be safe to enter the room?
(1 ) 30 minutes (2) 60 minutes (1) 100 days (2) 1000 days

(3) 7.5 minutes (4) 15minutes (3) 300 days (4) 10 days
22. The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the initia l 28. The half-life period of a first-order chemical reaction is
6.93 min. The time required for the completion of99% of
mass of the isotope was 200 g, the mass remaining after
24 hours undecayed is the chemical reaction w ill be (log 2 = 0.30 I)
(1) 46.06 min (2) 460.6 min
(1) 1.042 g (2) 4.167 g
(3) 230.3 min (4) 23.03 min
(3) 3.125g (4) 2.084 g
23. t I14 can be taken as the time taken for the concentration 29. The time for ha lf-life period of a certain reaction
A ➔ Products is I h. When the initial concentration of
3
of a reactant to drop to - of its initial value. If the rate the reactant A, is 2.0 mol L - 1• How much time does it
4 take for its concentration to come from 0.50 mol L- 1 to
constant for a first order reaction is k, then tI14 can be
0.25 mo l L- 1, if it is a zero-order reaction?
written as
(1) 1h (2) 4 h
(1) 0. 10/k (2) 0.29/k
(3) 0.5 h (4) 0.25 h
(3) 0.69/k (4) 0.75/k (AIEEE 2010)
(AIEEE 2005)
30. For a first order reaction, A ➔ Products, the concentra-
24. A reaction was found to be second order with respect to tion of A changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 min.
the concentration of carbon monoxide. If the concentra- The rate of the reaction when the concentration of A is
tion of carbon monoxide is doubled, w ith everything else 0 .01 M is
kept the same, the rate ofreaction will (1) 1.73 x 10-5 M min- 1
(1) remain unchanged. (2) triple. (2) 3.47 X 10- 4 M min- 1
(3) increase by a factor of 4. (4) double. (3) 3.47 x 10-5 M min- 1
(AIEEE 2006) (4) 1.73 x 10- 4 M min- 1
25. The following mechanism has been proposed for the (AIEEE 2012)
reaction of NO with Br2 to form N OBr:
31. For the non-stoichiometric reaction 2A + B ➔ C + D,
NO(g) + Br2 (g) ~ N OBr2 (g) the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate
NOBr2 (g) + NO(g) ➔ 2NOBr(g) experiments, all at 298 K.
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Initial Initial Initial rate of 35. T he reaction of ozone w ith oxygen atoms in the presence
Concentration (A) Concentration (B) formation of C of chlorine atoms can occur by a two-step process shown
below:
(mot L- 1 s- 1)
O/g) + C l"(g) ➔ Oi(g) + CIO"(g) (i)
0.1 M 0.1 M 1.2 x l 0-3
kI = 5.2 x 10 L mo1- s-
9 1 1
0.1 M 0.2M 1.2 X 10-3
CIO·(g) + o ·(g) ➔ Oi(g) + Cl"(g) (ii)
0.2M 0.1 M 2.4 X 10-3
k . = 2.6 x 1010 L mo1- 1 s-1
The rate law for the formation of C is 11
The closest rate constant for the overall reaction

(l ) dC = k [A][B] (2) dC = k[A]2 [B] O 3(g) + O"(g) ➔ 2Oi(g) is
dt dt
( 1) 1.4x l 0 20 L mol- 1 s- 1
(3) dC = k [A][B]2 (4) dC = k[A ]
dt dt (2) 3. 1 x 10 10 L mo1- 1s- 1
(JEE Main 2014, Offline) (3) 5.2 x 10 9 L moi- 1 s- 1

(4) 2.6 x 10 10 L mo1- 1 s- 1
32. The ha lf-life period of a first order reaction is 15 minutes.
T he amount of substance left after one hour will be (JEE Main 2016 , Online Paper-1)
1
(1) - of the original amount. 36. In the transformation of !~U to !~U, ifone emission is
2 2
4
an a-particle, what should be the other emission(s)?
(2) .!_ of the origina l amount. (1) Two W
8
(2) Two W and one W
(3) _!_ of the original amount.
16 (3) One W and one r
1 . .
(4) - of the on gmal a mount. (4) One 13+ and one 13+
32
(AIEEE 2006)
(JEE M ain 2014, Online Paper-1)
37. At 5 18 °C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of gase-
33. The reaction ous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of 363 torr, was 1.00
torr s- 1 when 5% had reacted and 0.5 torr s- 1 when 33% had
reacted. The order of the reaction is
follows first order kinetics. The pressure of a vessel con-
taining only Np 5 was found to increase from 50 mm Hg (1) 3 (2) 1
to 87.5 mm Hg in 30 min. The pressure exerted by the (3) 0 (4) 2
gases after 60 min, will be (Assume temperature rem ains (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
constant)
38. Np5 decomposes to NO2 and 0 2 and follows first order
(1) 106.25 mm Hg (2) 116.25 mm Hg
kinetics. After 50 m in, the pressure inside the vessel
(3) 125 mm Hg (4) 150 mm Hg increases from 50 mm Hg to 87.5 mm Hg. The pressure of
(JEE M ain 2015, Online Paper-1) the gaseous mixture after 100 min at constant temperature
will be
34. Decomposition of Hp2 follows a first order reaction. In
fifty minutes the concentration of H2O2 decreases from (1) 175.0 mm Hg (2) 116.25 mm Hg
0.5 to 0. 125 M in one such decomposition. W hen the (3) 136.25 mm Hg (4) 106.25 mm Hg
concentration of Hp2 reaches 0.05 M , the rate of forma- (JEE M ain 2018, Online)
tion of 0 2 will be
39. For a first order reaction, A ➔ P, ! 112 (half-life) is 10 days.
(l ) 1.34 x l 0-2 mo! min- 1
The time required for 1/4'h conversion of A (in days) is
(2) 6.93 x 10-2 mo! min- 1
(3) 6.93 x 10-4 mo! min- 1 (1) 5 (2) 3.2
(4) 2.66 L min-1 at STP (3) 4.1 (4) 2.5
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) (JEE M ain 2018, Online)
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40. If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 s and 75% of the (1) Rate= k[A][B]2 (2) Rate= k[A]2[B] 2
reaction occurs in 200 s, the order of this reaction is (3) Rate= k[A][B] (4) Rate= k[A]2[B]
(1) zero (2) 1 (JEE Main 2019,April)
(3) 2 (4) 3
45. The given plots represent the variation of the concentra-
tion of a reactant R with time for two different reactions
41. The following results were obtained during kinetic stud- (I) and (II). The respective orders of the reactions are
ies of the reaction:
2A + B ➔ Products
lo [ R ] ~
Initial Rate of
[AJ [BJ reaction (in time time
Experiment (in mot L- 1) (in mot L- 1) mot L-1 min- 1) (I) (II)
0.10 0.20 6.93 X ] 0-3
II 0.1 0 0.25 6.93 X 10-3 (1) 1, 0 (2) 1, 1
III 0.20 0.30 1.386 X 10-2 (3) 0, I (4) 0,2
The time (in minutes) required to consume half of A is 46. In the following reaction; xA ➔ yB
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 1 (4) 100
log10 [ -dt dt +0.3010
d[A]] = log [d[B]]
10
42. For the reaction, 2A + B ➔ products, when the concen- 'A' and 'B ' respectively can be
trations of A and B both were doubled, the rate of the
reaction increased from 0.3 mol L- 1 s- 1 to 2.4 mol L-1 s- 1• (1) n-Butane and iso-butane (2) C 2H2 and C6H6
When the concentration of A alone is doubled, the rate (4) Np 4 and NO2
increased from 0.3 and L- 1 s- 1 to 0.6 mol L-1 s- 1• Which (JEE Main 2019, April)
one of the following statements is correct?
47. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by the
(1) Total order of the reaction is 4. decomposition ofNP5 in CC14 as per the equation,
(2) Order of the reaction with respect to Bis 2.
2 NPsCg) ➔ 4 NO2(g) + O2(g)
(3) Order of the reaction w ith respect to Bis 1.
(4) Order of the reaction with respect to A is 2. The initial concentration ofNP5 is 3.00 mo l L-1 and it is
(JEE Main 2019, January) 2.75 mol L- 1 after 30 min. The rate of formation ofNO2 is
43. The reaction 2X ➔ B is a zeroth order reaction. If the ini- (1) 4.167 x 10-3 mol L- 1 min- 1
tial concentration ofX is 0.2 M, the half-life is 6 h. When (2) 1.667 x 10-2 mol L- 1 min- 1
the initial concentration ofX is 0.5 M, the time required to (3) 8.333 x 10-3 mol L - 1 min- 1
reach its final concentration of 0.2 M will be
(4) 2.083 x 10- 3 mol L- 1 min- 1
(1) 9.0h (2) 12.0 h
(3) 18.0 h (4) 7.2 h
(JEE Main 2019, January) Topic 3: Temperature Dependence of the Rate of a
44. For the reaction 2A + B ➔ C, the values of initial rate Reaction and Collision Theory of Chemical
at different reactant concentrations are given in the table Reactions
below. The rate law for the reaction is 48. In respect of the equation k = Ae-E, tRr in chemical kinet-
ics, which one of the following statements is correct?
Initial Rate
[AJ (mol L- 1) [BJ (mol L- 1) (mol L - 1 s- 1) (I) k is equilibrium constant.
0.05 0.05 0.045 (2) A is adsorption factor.

(3) E. is energy of activation.
0 .10 0.05 0.090
(4) R is Rydberg's constant.
0.20 0.10 0.72 (AIEEE 2003)
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49. Rate of a reactio n can be expressed by Arrhenius equa- (1) 19.67 K (2) 9.84 K
tion as: (3) 2.45 K (4) 4.92 K
k = Ae-E. tRT (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-I)
In this equation, E represents
55. T he rate of a reaction qu adrup les w hen the temperature
(1) the energy a bove which all the colliding molecules cha nges from 300 to 3 10 K. T he activation energy of this
will react. reaction is
(2) the energy below which colliding molecules w ill (Assume activation energy and pre-exponentia l fac tor are
no t react. independent of temperature; In 2 = 0.693; R = 8.3 14 J
(3) the total energy of the reacting molecules at a tem- mo1- 1 K- 1)
perature, T. (1) 53.6 kJ mo1- 1 (2) 26.8 kJ mo1- 1
(4) the fraction of molecules with energy greater than
(3) 107.2 kJ mo1- 1 ( 4) 21 4.4 kJ mo1- 1
the activatio n energy of the reaction.
(AIEEE 2006)
56. Consider the given plots for a reaction obeying
50. T he rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature
Arrhenius equation (0°C < T < 300°C): (k and E. a re
changes from 300 K to 3 10 K. Activation energy of su ch a
rate constant and activation energy, respectively)
reaction will be (R = 8.3 14 J K- 1 mo1- 1 and log 2 = 0.301)
(1) 48.6 kJ mo t- 1 (2) 58.5 kJ mo t- 1
1
(3) 60.5 kJ mo1- (4) 53.6 kJ mo 1- 1
(JEE Main 2013)
k
51. T he rate coefficient (k) for a particular reaction is 1.3 x
10- 3 M- 1 s- 1 at 100 °C and 1.3 x 10-3 M - 1 s- 1 at 150 °C.
What is the energy of activation (E.) (in kJ) for this reac-
T(°C)
tion? (R = 8.314 J K - 1 mot- 1)
(II)
(1) 16 (2) 60
(3) 99 (4) 132 Choose the correct option
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3) (1) I is right but II is wrong
52. H igher order (>3) reactions are rare due to (2) both I and II a re correct
(1) increase in entropy and activation energy as more (3) I is wrong but II is right
molecules are involved. (4) both I and II are wrong
(2) shifting of equ ilibrium towards reactants due to (JEE Main 2019, January)
elastic collisions.
(3) loss of active species on collision.
57. If a reactio n follows the Arrheniu s equ ation, the plot In k
vs 1/(R1) gives straig ht line w ith a gradient (- y) un it. The
(4) low probability of simultaneou s collision of a ll the
energy required to activate the reactant is
reacting species.
(I) yunit (2) y/R unit
(3) -y unit (4) yR unit
53. Two reactions R 1 and ~
have identical pre-exponential (JEE Main 2019, January)
factors. Activation energy of R 1 exceeds that of R 2 by
10 kJ mo1- 1• If k 1 and k2 are rate constants for reaction s 58. For a reaction, consider the plot of In k versus 1/T given
R 1 and~' respectively, at 300 K, then ln(k/ k 1) is equal to in the fig ure. If the rate constant of this reaction at 400 K
(R = 8. 134 J mo1- 1 K- 1) is 1 o-s s- 1
, then the rate constant at 500 K is
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 12
Slope = -4606 K
54. T he rate of a reaction A doubles on increasing the tem- Ink
perature from 300 to 3 10 K. By how much, the tempera-
ture ofreaction B should be increased from 300 K so that
rate doubles if activation energy of the reaction B is twice 1/T
to that ofreaction A?
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(2) 2 X 10-4 S- 1 (1) Activation enthal py to form C is 5 kJ mo1- 1 less than

(4) 4 X 10-4 s- 1 that to form D.
(JEE Main 2019, January) (2) C is the thermodynamically stable product.
(3) Dis kinetically stable product.
59. Consider the given plot of enthalpy of the following reac-
(4) Formation of A and B from Chas highest enthalpy
tion between A and B.
of activation.
A + B ➔ C + D.
Identify the incorrect statement.
60. For the reaction of H 2 w ith 12, the rate constant is 2.5 x
20+-~-----,------- 10-4 dm 3 moi- 1 s- 1 at 327°C and 1.0 dm3 moi- 1 s-1 at
527°C. The activation energy for the reaction, in kJ mo1- 1
15+--+--....,.....---+----t-----
is (R = 8.3 14 JK- 1 mol- 1)
Enthalpy
(kJ mol-1) 10 +-- .:,..,,....- +--+-- +----+- - -
(1) 166 (2) 150
(3) 72 (4) 59
Reaction (JEE Main 2019, April)
Coordinate
61. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of 66. The following data is obtained during the first order ther-
ethylene oxide into CH4 and CO is represented as mal decomposition of 2A(g) ~ B(g) + C(s ), at con-
stant volume and temperature.
-I 1.25 XI 0 4 K
log10 k(s ) = 14.34 - T
Sr. No. Time Total pressure in Pascal
The energy of activation (E.) of the reaction is I At the end of 300
10 minutes
II After comple- 200
62. Consider the decomposition of gaseous Np 5;
tion
2N 2 O 5 ➔ 4NO 2 (g)+O 2 (g). At moderate gas pressures,
it follows the mechanism g iven below: The rate constant in min- 1 is _ _ _ __
k,
67. A first-order reaction is cartied out starting with IO mol
N 2 O 5 ~ NO 2 + NO3
k_l L- 1 of the reactant. It is 40% complete in 1 h. If the same
reaction is carried out w ith an initial concentration of
NO 2 + NO 3 ~NO+ NO 2 + 0 2 5 mol L-1, the percentage of the reaction that is completed
in 1 h will be _ _ __
NO3 +NO~ 2NO2
The order w.r.t. Np 5 is _ _ __ 68. The activation energy of a reaction is 24.0 k cal mo1- 1
at 27°C and the presence of catalyst changes its activa-
63. At a certain moment, in the reaction 2N 2 O 5 ➔ 4NO 2 + 0 2 ; tion energy to one-fourth at the same temperature. The
Np 5 is decomposing at the rate of 108 mg L-1 s- 1• The approximate ratio of rate in the presence of catalyst to
production rate ofNO2 is _ _ __ rate in the absence of catalyst is 1.0 x 1OY. Then the va lue
of y is _____. (use R = 2 calmoI- 1 K- 1).
64. A first order reaction is 60% complete in 20 minutes.
How long will the reaction take to be 84% complete? 69. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 60 minutes.
What percentage will be left over after 240 minutes?
65. The concentration of a drug in the body is often expressed
in units of milligrams per kilogram of body weight. The 70. In a second-order reaction, the initial concentration of the
initial dose in an animal was 25.0 mg/kg body weight. reactant is 0.2 mol L- 1• The reaction was 40% complete
After 2.00 h, 10.0 mg/kg body weigh t is disappeared in 20 min. The time required for 75% completion of
through metabolism. If metabolism is of first order then the reaction is _ _ _ __
approximate rate of metabolism after 2 his _ _ _ __
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CHAPTER19

Topic 1 : Adsorption and Catalysis 5. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
physisorption?
1. H 2 gas is absorbed on the metal surface like tungsten.
This follows _ _ _ order reaction. ( 1) It occurs becau se of the van der Waals forces.
(1) third (2) second (2) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily.
(3) zero (4) first (3) Under high pressure, it results into multimolecular
(AIEEE 2002) layer on adsorbent surface.
(4) Enthalpy of adsorption (t:J/adsorption> is low and
2. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct positive.
for physical adsorption?
(AIEEE 2009)
(1) Adsorption on solids is reversible.
(2) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature. 6. According to Freundlich a dsorption isotherm, which of
the fo llowing is correct?
(3) Adsorption is spontaneous.
(4) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are X
(1) - oc po
negative. m
(AIEEE 2003)
X l
(2) - ocp
3. Identify the correct statements regarding enzymes. m
(1) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can
(3) ~oc pl/11
normally function at very high temperature (T ~
m
1000 K).
(2) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that the (4) All the above are correct for different ranges of
posses well - defined active sites. pressure.
(3) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can (AIEEE 2012)
not be poisoned.
7. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of ace-
(4) Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that tic acid solution (0.06 N) in a flask. After an hour it was
are very specific in their action. filtered and the strength of the filtrate was fo und to be
(AIEEE 2004) 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram
4. In Langmuir's model of a gas on a solid surface of charcoa l) is
(1) the rate of dissociation of adsorbed molecules (1) 36 mg (2) 42 mg

from the surface does not depend on the surface (3) 54 mg (4) 18 mg
covered. (JEE Main 2015, Offiine)
(2) the adsorption at a single site on the surface may
involve multiple molecules at the same time. 8. The following statements re late to the adsorption of gases
on a solid surface. Identify the incorrect statement among
(3) the mass of gas striking a given area of surface is
them.
proportional to the pressure of the gas.
(4) the mass of gas striking a given area of surface is (1) Enthalpy of adsorption is negative.
independent of the pressure of the gas. (2) Entropy of adsorption is negative.
(AIEEE 2006)
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(3) On adsorption, the residual forces on the surface are 13. If x gram of gas is absorbed by m gram of absorbent at
increased.
pressure p, the plot of log~ versus log p is linear. The
(4) On adsorption decrease in surface energy appears m
as heat. s lope of the plot is (n and k are constants and n > I)
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-1) (1) 2k (2) log k
9. For a linear plot oflog(x/m) versu s log pin a Freundlich 1
adsorption isotherm, which of the fo llowing statements is (3) n (4)
n
correct? (k and n are constants)
(1) log( l /n) appears as the intercept.
(2) Both k and 1/n appear in the slope term. 14. Which one of the following is not a property of physical
adsorption?
(3) l /n appears as the intercept.
(4) Only 1/n appears as the s lope. ( I) Higher the pressure, more the adsorption.
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) (2) Lower the temperature, more the adsorption.
(3) Greater the surface area, more the adsorption.
10. A particular adsorption process has the following charac-
(4) Unilayer adsorption occurs.
teristics: (i) It arises due to van der Waals forces and (ii) it
is reversible. Identify the correct statement that describes (JEE Main 2018, Online)
the above adsorption process. 15. Adsorption of a gas fo llows Freundlich adsorption iso-
(1) Adsorption is monolayer. therm. In the given p lot, x is the mass of the gas adsorbed
(2) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature. X
on mass m of the adsorbent at pressure p. - is propor-
(3) Enthalpy of adsorption is greater than 100 kJ moJ- 1• tional to m
(4) Energy of activation is low.
11. Adsorption of a gas on a surface follows Freundlich ---

---- --_____ ___ .,: 2 unit
- ------
adsorption isotherm. Plot of log ~ versus log p gives 4 unit
m
a straight line with slope equal to 0.5, then
( ; is the mass of the gas adsorbed per gram of adsorbent)

Log p
( 1) adsorption is proportional to the pressure.
(2) adsorption is proportional to the square root of ( I) p 2 (2) pl/4
pressure.
(3) p'f2 (4) p
(3) adsorption is proportiona l to the square of pressure.
(4) adsorption is independent of pressure.
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2) 16. Which of the following is not an example of heterogene-
ous catalytic reaction?
12. Match the catalysts to the correct processes:
(1) Ostwald's process.
Catalyst Process (2) Combustion of coal.
(A) TiC13 ( i) Wacker process (3) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils.
(B) PdCl2 (ii) Z iegler - Natta (4) Haber's process.
polymerization (JEE Main 2019, January)
(iii) Contact process 17. Among the following reactions of hydrogen with ha lo-
(iv) Deacon's process gens, the one that requires a catalyst is
H + 1 ➔ 2 HI
(1) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)
(1) 2 2
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i) (2) H 2 + Cl2 ➔ 2 HC I
(3) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iv) (3) H 2 + Br2 ➔ 2 HBr
(4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i) (4) H 2 + F 2 ➔ 2HF
(JEE Main 2015, Offline) (JEE Main 2019, January)
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SURFACE CHEMISTRY CQ-105
18. Given 23. The volume of a colloidal particle, Ve as compared to the

Gas H2 CH 4 CO2 SO2 volume of a solute particle in a true solution v, could be
Critical Temperature/K 33 190 304 630 (1) Ve "" 1 (2) ~ "" 1023
On the basis of data given above, predict which of the v; v;
following gases shows least adsorption on a definite
amount of charcoal?
(2) CH4 (3)
(4) H 2 (AIEEE 2005)
24. The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide
19. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption iso- and colloidal gold is positively and negatively charged,
therm. x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass rn of the respectively. Which of the following statements is not
adsorbent. The plot of log~ versus logp is shown in the correct?
rn (1) Magnesium chloride solution coagulates the gold
given graph. ~ is proportional to sol more readily than the iron (III) hydroxide sol.
rn
(2) Sodium sulphate solution causes coagulation in
both sols.
(3) Mixing the sols has no effect.
log..!!_ ~2
m (4) Coagulation in both sols can be brought about by
3
electrophoresis.
log p (AIEEE 2005)
(1) p 213 (2) p 3/2 25. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are
(3) p3 (4) p 2 0.50, 0.01 , 0.10 and 0.005, respectively. The correct order
of their protective powers is
(1) D <A< C < B (2) C < B < D < A
20. The aerosol is a kind of colloid in which
(3) A<C<B<D (4) B < D<A <C
(1 ) solid is dispersed in gas
(AIEEE 2008)
(2) gas is dispersed in solid
(3) gas is dispersed in liquid 26. The coagulating power of electrolytes having ions Na+,
(4) liquid is dispersed in water AP+ and Ba2+ for arsenic sulphide solution increases in
(JEE Main 2019,April) the order
(1) Na + < Ba 2 + < Al3+
21. A gas undergoes physical adsorption on a surface and
follows the given Freundlich adsorption isotherm equation (2) Ba 2+ <Na+< Al3+
(3) Al3+ <Na+< Ba 2+
~= kp05
rn (4) A l3 + < Ba 2 + < Na+
Adsorption of the gas increases with (JEE Main 2013)
( l ) decrease in p and increase in T
27. Gold numbers of some colloids are: Gelatin: 0.005-0.0 1,
(2) decrease in p and decrease in T
Gum Arabic: 0.15-0.25; Oleate: 0.04-1.0; Starch: 15-25.
(3) increase in p and decrease in T
Which among these is a better protective colloid?
(4) increase in p and increase in T
(1) Gelatin (2) Starch
(3) Oleate (4) Gum Arabic
Topic 2: Colloids (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2)
22. Alum is widely used to purify water since 28. The Tyndall effect is observed only when following con-
(1) it forms complex with day particles. ditions are satisfied:
(2) it coagulates the mud particles. (I) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much
(3) it exchanges Caz+ and Mg2+ ions present in hard water. smaller than the wavelength of the light used.
(4) its sulphate ion is water pmifier. (II) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not much
(AIEEE 2002) smaller than the wavelength of the light used.
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(III) T he refractive indices of the dispersed phase and 34. An exam ple of solid sol is
dispersion medium are a lmost similar in magni- (I) bu tter. (2) paint.
tude.
(3) ha ir cream . (4) gem stones.
(IV) T he refractive indices of the dispersed phase and (JEE M ain 2019, January)
dispersion medium differ g reatly in magnitude.
35. Among the colloids cheese (C), milk (M) and smoke (S),
(I) (I) and (III) (2) (II) and (III)
the correct combination of the dispersed phase and dis-
(3) (I) and (IV) (4) (I I) and (IV) persion medium, respectively is
(JEE Main 2017, Offline) (1) C: liquid in solid; M: liquid in solid; S: solid in gas
29. Among the fo llowing, the correct statement is (2) C: liquid in solid; M: liquid in liquid; S: solid in gas
(1) Hardy Schulze law states that bigger the size of the (3) C: solid in liquid; M: liquid in liquid; S: gas in solid
ions, the greater is its coagulating power. (4) C: solid in liquid; M: solid in liquid; S : solid in gas
(2) sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic. (JEE M ain 2019, Ja nuary)
(3) one would expect charcoal to absorb chlorine more
36. Among the followi ng, the false stateme nt is
than hydrogen sulphide.
(1) it is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing
(4) Brownia n movement is more pronounced for
electrified sand carr ying charge opposite to the one
smaller particles than for bigger particles.
on clouds from an aeroplane.
(JEE M ain 2017, Online Paper-1)
(2) Tynda ll effect can be used to distinguish between a
colloidal solution and a true solution.
30. Which of the following statements about colloids is false?
(3) lyophilic sol can be coagulated by adding an electro-
(1) Freezing point of colloida l solution is lower than lyte.
true solution at same concentratio n of a solute.
(4) latex is a colloidal solution of rubber particles
(2) Colloidal particles can pass through ordinary filter which are positively charged.
paper. (JEE Main 2019, Ja nuary)
(3) When silver nitrate solution is added to potassium
iodide solution, a negatively charged colloidal solu- 37. 10 mL of 1 mM surfactant solution forms a monolayer
covering 0.24 cm2 on a polar substrate. If the polar head
tion is formed.
is approximated as a cube, what is its edge length ?
(4) W hen excess of electrolyte is added to colloida l
solution, colloidal particles w ill be precipitated . (I) 1.0 pm (2) 2.0 pm
(JEE M ain 2018, Online) (3) 0.1 nm (4) 2.0 nm
31. For coagulation of arsenious sulphide sol, which one of the
fo llowing salts solutions will be most effective? 38. T he correct option among the fo llowing is
(1) BaC12 (2) A1C l3 (I) colloidal medicines are mo re effective because they
have small surface area.
(3) NaCl (4) Nal04
(2) addition of a lum to water makes it unfit for drinking.
(3) colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be
32. Hemoglobin and gold sol are examples of precipitated by e lectrophoresis.
(1) positively and negatively charged sols, respectively. (4) Brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster if
(2) positively charged sols. the viscosity of the solution is very high.
(3) negatively charged sols. (JEE Main 2019,April)
(4) negatively and positively charged sols, respectively. 39. Peptization is a
(JEE Main 2019, January) (1) process of bringing colloidal molecule into solu-
33. The electrolytes usua lly used in the electroplating of gold tion.
and silver, respectively, are (2) process of converting precipitate into colloidal
solution.
(1) [Au(CN\t and [Ag(CN\t
(3) process ofconverting a colloidal solution into precipi-
(2) [Au(CN)2t and [AgCl2t
tate.
(3) [Au(OH)S and [Ag(OH)X
(4) process of converting soluble particles to form
(4) [Au(NH3\]+ and [Ag(CN) 2t colloidal solution.
(JEE Main 2019, January) (JEE Main 2019,April)
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SURFACE CHEMISTRY CQ-107
40. Among the following, the incorrect statement about (3) the osmotic pressure of a colloidal solution is of
colloids is higher order than the true solution at the same con-
(I) they can scatter light. centration.
(4) the range of diameters of colloidal particles is
(2) they are larger than small molecules and have high
molar mass. between I and I 000 nm.

41. For a gas adsorbed on a particular adsorbent at O °C, the 45. In a linear plot for log(x/m) vs log p, if the slope is
plot of log (x/m) vs log p where p is in atm has a slope 45° and the intercept on log(x/m) is 0.3010, then
and intercept as shown in the following figure. The mass amount of gas adsorbed in grams at 0.5 atm pressure is
of the gas adsorbed by 10 g of the adsorbent at 0.2 atm is
46. The number of sols among the following that are liquid
l
aerosols are _ _ _ __
Fog, soap lather, smoke, clouds, mist, foam rubber, dust,
perfume spray, moisturizing cream.
log L 45°
m 47. The coagulation of 100 mL ofa colloidal solution of gold
is completely prevented by adding 0.08 g of starch to it
0.301
before adding 10 mL of 10% NaCl solution. The gold
number of starch is _ _ _ __
log p ------->
48. The number of phases in colloidal system is _ _ __
42. The coagulation of IO cm3 of gold sol is completely pre-
vented by addition of 0.025 g of starch of it. The gold 49. The coagulation of 200 mL of a positive colloid took
number of starch is _ _ __ place when 0.73 g HCI was added to it without changing
the volume much. The flocculation value of HCI for the
43. Among the following, the number of substances that will colloid is _ _ __
adsorb water vapor is _ _ _ __
50. Gold number of gum Arabic is 0.15. The amount of
Silica, alumina, charcoal, calcium chloride, calcium
gum Arabic required to protect 100 mL of red gold sol
carbonate, powdered cellulose, Kieselguhr, Fuller's earth.
from coagulation by 10 mL of 10% NaCl solution is
44. The number of phases present in a colloidal solution is
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General Principles and Processes
CH APTER 20
of Isolation of Elements

Topic 1: Occurrence of Metals and Concentration 6. The correct match between Column I (ores) and Column II
of Ores (metals) is
Column I Column II
1. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by
Froth~ floatation method? (Ores) (Metals)
(A) Siderite (i) Zinc
(1) Magnetite (2) Malachite
(B) Kaolinite (ii) Copper
(3) Galena (4) Cassiterite
(AIEEE 2004, JEE Main 2016, Offiine) (C) Malachite (iii) Iron
(D) Calamine (iv) A luminium
2. Which one of the following ores is known as malachite?
(1) (A) ➔ (iii); (B) ➔ (iv); (C) ➔ ( i); (D) ➔ (ii)
(1) Cup
(2) (A) ➔ (i); (B) ➔ (ii); (C) ➔ (iii); (D) ➔ (iv)
(2) Cu2 S
(3) (A) ➔ (ii); (B) ➔ (iii); (C) ➔ (iv); (D) ➔ (i)
(3) CuFeS2
(4) Cu(OH\ · CuC03 (4) (A) ➔ (iii); (B) ➔ (iv); (C) ➔ ( ii); (D) ➔ (i)
3. Calamine is an ore of 7. The ore that contains the metal in the form of fluoride is
(1) aluminium. (2) copper. (1) cryo lite. (2) malachite.
(3) iron. (4) zinc. (3) magnetite. (4) sphalerite.
4. In the leaching method, bauxite ore is digested with a 8. Assertion: For the extraction of iron, haematite ore is
concentrated solution ofNaOH that produces 'X'. When used .
CO2 gas is passed through the aqueous solution of 'X',
Reason: Haematite is a carbonate ore of iron.
a hydrated compound 'Y' is precipitated. 'X' and 'Y'
respectively, are ( 1) Assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is
(1) NaA10 2 and Al2(C0)3 · x Hp
(2) Assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is
(2) Al(OH)3 and Alp 3
• x H 20 not the explanation for the assertion.
(3) Na[Al(OH)4 ] and Alp3 · x Hp (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Na[Al(OH)4 ] and Al/C03) 3 · x Hp (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
9. The one that is not a carbonate ore is
5. The ore that contains both iron and copper is
(1) malachite. (2) calamine.
(1) copper pyrites. (2) malachite.
(3) siderite. (4) bauxite.
(3) dolomite. (4) azurite.
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10. The idea of froth floatation method came from a person X Topic 3: Thermodynamic Principles of Metallurgy
and this method is related to the process Y of ores. X and
Y, respectively, are 17. The following reaction occurs in the blast furnace where
iron ore is reduced to iron metal:
(1) Fisher Woman and concentration
Fep/s) + 3CO(g) ~ 2Fe(I) + CO/g)
(2) Washer Woman and concentration
Using the Le Chatelier's principle, predict which one of
(3) Fisher Man and reduction
the following w ill not disturb the equilibrium?
(4) Washer Man and reduction
(1) Addition ofFep3 (2) Removal of CO2
(3) Removal of CO (4) Addition of CO2
Topic 2: Extraction of Crude Metal from (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2)
Concentrated Ore 18. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, metal is
finally obtained by the oxidation of cuprous sulphide with
11. Cyanide process is used for the extraction of
(1) Fep3 (2) Cup
(1) barium. (2) silver.
(3) SO2 (4) CO
(3) boron. (4) zinc.
(AIEEE 2002)
19. The correct statement regarding the given Ellingham
12. The form of iron obtained from blast furnace is diagram is
(1) steel. (2) cast iron.
(3) pig iron. (4) wrought iron.
13. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the

extraction of Al, which of the following statements in
false? L0
E
(1) Alp3 is mixed w ith CaF2 which lowers the melting :;:?
point of the mixture and brings conductivity. G
<l
(2) Al 3+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al.
(3) Na3AIF6 serves as the electrolyte.
(4) CO and CO2 are produced in this process. 2 3
0°C
14. In the isolation of metals, calcination process usually 500°C Temp. (°C) 2000°c
results in
(1) at 1400°C, Al can be used for the extraction of Zn
(1 ) metal carbonate. (2) metal oxide. from ZnO.
(3) metal sulphide. (4) metal hydroxide. (2) at 500°C, coke can be used for the extraction of Zn
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-1) from ZnO.
15. Sodium extract is heated w ith concentrated HNO3 before (3) coke cannot be used for the extraction of Cu from
testing for halogens because Cup.
(4) at 800°C, Cu can be used for the extraction of Zn
(1) Ag2S and AgCN are soluble in acidic medium.
from ZnO.
(2) silver halides are totally inso luble in nitric acid.
(3) s2- and cN-, if present, are decomposed by cone.
HNO3 and hence do not interfere in the test. 20. The reaction that does not define calcination is
(4) Ag reacts faster with halides in acidic medium.
(1) Fe2 O 3 ·xH 2 O~Fe 2 O 3 +xH 20
(2) 2Cu 2 S + 302 ~ 2Cup + 2SO2
16. Extraction of copper by smelting uses silica as an addi-
tive to remove (3) ZnCO3 ~ ZnO+CO2
(1) Cup (2) FeS
(3) FeO (4) Cu 2 S (4) CaCO3 ·MgCO3 ~ CaO+MgO+2CO 2
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GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS CQ-111
21. The pair that does not require calcination is 27. Hall-Heroult's process is given by
( I) ZnO and MgO (1) Cu 2+ (aq) + H/ g) ➔Cu (s) + 2W (aq)
(2) ZnO and Fep3 •x Hp
(2) Crp3 + 2 Al ➔ A lp 3 + 2 Cr
(3) ZnC03 and CaO
(3) 2 Alp 3
+3C ➔ 4 Al + 3C02
(4) Fep3 and CaC03 ·MgC03
Coke, 1673 K
(JEE Main 2019, January) (4) ZnO+ C Zn+ CO
22. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram he lps to pre- (JEE Main 2019, January)
dict the feasibility of its 28. In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is formed at the
(1) electrolysis (2) zone refining cathode. The cathode is made out of
(3) vapor phase refining (4) thermal reduction ( I) pure aluminium. (2) carbon.
(JEE Main 2019,April) (3) copper. (4) platinum.
Topic 4: Electrochemical Principles of Metallurgy
and Oxidation Reduction 29. The correct statement is
(1) leaching of bauxite using concentrated NaOH solu-
23. Refining of impure copper with zinc impurity is to be tion gives sodium a luminate and sodium silicate.
done by e lectrolysis using e lectrodes as: (2) the Hall-Heroult process is used for the production
Cathode Anode of aluminium and iron.
(1) pure copper pure z inc (3) pig iron is obtained from cast iron.
(2) pure zinc pure copper (4) the blistered appearance of copper during the metal-
(3) pure copper impure copper lurgical process is due to the evolution of CO2 .
(JEE Main 2019, April
(4) pure zinc impure z inc
(AIEEE 2002)
Topic 5: Refining
24. Aluminium is extracted by the e lectro lysis of
30. Which method of purification is represented by the
(1 ) alumina. following equation?
(2) bauxite.
523 K 1700K
(3) molten cryolite. Ti(s) + 21 2 (g) Ti(s) + 212 (g)
(4) alumina mixed w ith molten cryolite. (1) Zone refining (2) Cupellation
(AIEEE 2002) (3) Poling (4) van Arkel
(AIEEE 2012)
25. Outing the process of electrolytic refining of coppe r,
some metals present as impurity settle as ' anode mud '. 31. The Mond process is used for the
These are
( 1) pmification of Ni
(1) Sn and Ag (2) Pb and Zn (2) extraction of Mo
(3) Ag and Au (4) Fe and N i (3) pmification of Zr and Ti
(AIEEE 2005) (4) extraction of Zn
26. Which of the following factors is of no significance for (JEE Main 2019, April)
roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not subj ecting
32. The correct match between Colunm I (refining methods)
the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
and Colunm II (metals) is
(1) Meta l sulphides are thermodynamically more stable
than CS2• Column I Column II
(2) CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS 2 • (Refining methods) (Metals)
(3) Metal sulphides are less stable than the correspond- (A) Liquation (i) Zr
ing oxides. (B) Zone Refining (ii) Ni
(4) CO2 is more volatile than CS2 . (C) Mond Process (iii) Sn
(AIEEE 2008) (D) van Arkel Method (iv) Ga
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(1) (A) ➔ (iii); (B) ➔ (i); (C) ➔ (ii); (D) ➔ (iv) (2) metals with low boiling point containing impurities
(2) (A) ➔ (ii); (B) ➔ (iii); (C) ➔ (iv); (D) ➔ (i) with high boiling point.
(3) (A) ➔ (iii); (B) ➔ (iv); (C) ➔ (ii); (D) ➔ (i) (3) metals with high me lting point containing impuri-
ties with low melting point.
(4) (A) ➔ (ii); (B) ➔ (iv); (C) ➔ (i); (D) ➔ (iii)
(4) metals with low melting point containing impurities
(JEE Main 2019, April) with high melting point.
33. The correct statement is 35. In order to refine " blister copper", it is melted in a
(I) aniline is a froth stabilizer. furnace and is stirred w ith green logs of wood. The pur-
(2) zincite is a carbonate ore. pose is
(3) sodium cyanide cannot be u sed in the metallurgy of (1) to expel the dissolved gases in blister copper.
silver. (2) to bring the impurities to surface and oxidize
(4) zone refining process is used for the refining of them.
titanium. (3) to increase the carbon content of copper.
(JEE Main 2019, April) (4) to reduce the metallic oxide impurities with hydro-
34. Liquation method is used for the purification of carbon gases liberated from the wood.
(1) metals with high boiling point containing impuri-

ties w ith low boiling point.
36. How many of the following elements are reduced from 39. The total number of oxy salts ores among the following is
their oxides to crude metal using pyrometallurgy?
Fe, Na, Cu, Pb, Sn, Al, Cr, Ni, Hg, Zn, Mg and K Cerussite, Epsom salt, chalcocite, limonite, lanarkite,
zincite, kieserite and anglesite.
37. How many of the following substances can act as an
acidic flux? 40. The number of ores among the following that are roasted
is _ _ _ __
CaO,SiO2 ,MgO, Na 2 O,P4 O 10 ,CaSiO 3 ,P4 O 8 and Ca 3 (PO4 ) 2 •
C halcopyrite, argentite, sphalerite, azurite, cinnabar,
38. The percentage ofNi in the composition of sta inless steel galena and pyrargyrite.
is_ _ _ __
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The p-Block Elements
CH APTER 21
(Grou s15to18)

Topic 1: Group 15 Elements (3) Alp 3 < Si02 < so2 < Pp3
(4) Si02 < so2 < Alp3 < P20 3
1. PC13 and PCl 5 both exist; NC13 exists but NC15 does not
(AIEEE 2004)
exist. It is due to
(1) lower electronegativity of P than N. 7. The number of hydrogen atom(s) attached to phosphorus
atom in hypophosphorous acid is
(2) lower tendency ofN to form covalent bond.
( 1) zero. (2) two.
(3) availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N.
(3) one. (4) three.
(4) statement is itself incorrect.
(AIEEE 2005)
(AIEEE 2002)
8. Three reactions involving H 2PO; are given below:
2. Number of P - 0 bonds in Pp 10 is
(1) 17 (2) 16 (I) H 3P04 + H 20 ➔ H 2PO; + H p+
0) 15 ~~~~ ~ 6 (II) H2Po; + H20 ➔ HPo~- + Hp+
(AIEEE 2002)
(III) H 2PO; +Off ➔ H 3P04 +02-
3. One of the following species acts as both Bronsted acid
In which of the above does H 2Po; act as an acid?
and base
( l ) (I) only (2) (II) only
(1) H 2PO; (2) HP032-
(3) (I) and (II) (4) (III) only
(3) HPO~- (4) all of these (AIEEE 2010)
(AIEEE 2002)
9. Which of the following statements is wrong?
4. What may be expected to happen when phospine gas is ( I) Nitrogen cannot form dn- pnbond.
mixed with chlorine gas? (2) Single N- N bond is weaker than the single P- P
(1) The mixture only cools down. bond.
(2) PC15 and HCl are formed and the mixture warms (3) N 20 4 has two resonance structures.
up. (4) The stability of hydrides increases from NH3 to
(3) PC15 and HCl are formed and the mixture cools BiH3 in Group 15 of the periodic table.
down. (AIEEE 2011)
(4) PH3 · Cl2 is formed with warming up.
10. The correct order of bond dissociation energy among N 2,
(AIEEE 2003)
0 2, o; is shown in which of the following arrangements?
5. The conjugate base ofHl04- is (I) N2 > 0 ;> o2 (2) o ;> 02 > N 2
( I) P0!- (2) HP0~- (3) N 2 >02 > O; (4)
0 2 > O; >N 2
(3) Hl04 (4) PP s (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2)
(AIEEE 2004) 11. Which of the following arrangements represents the
6. Among Al20 3, Si02, Pp3 and S02 the correct order of increasing order (smallest to largest) of ionic radii of the
given species 0 2-, s 2-, N 3- , p 3- ?
acid strength is
(1) so2 < Pp3 < Si02 < Alp 3
c1) o 2- <NJ-< s2- < p3- w-
(2) o 2- < p3- < < s2-
(2) Alp3 < Si02 < Pp3< so2

m ~<~<~<~ ~ ~<~ < ~ < ~
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------
.,....~-• JEE MAIN - CHEMISTRY
12. Assertion: Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main compo- (I) (II) (I) (II)
nents in the atmosphere but there do not react to form
(1) <2 >2 (2) > 2 <2
oxides of nitrogen,
Reason: The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen
(3) > 2 >2 (4) < 2 <2
requires high temperature. (JEE Main 2018, Online)
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the rea- 19. The number of P - 0 bonds in Pp6 is
son is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
(1) 6 (2) 9
(2) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
(3) 12 (4) 18
(3) Both the assertion and reason are incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the rea-
son is the correct explanation for the assertion. 20. Among the oxides of nitrogen: Np 3, Np4 and Np 5; the
molecule(s) having nitrogen-nitrogen bond is/are
(1) only Np5 (2) N 2O3 and Np5
13. Which of the following compounds has a P - P bond?
(4) Np3 and Np4
(1) H 4 P2 0 5 (2) H 4 P2 0 6
(3) H 4 P2 0 7 (4) (HPO 3 ) 3
21. Np3 is
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2) (1) an acidic oxide and the anhydride ofHNO 2 •
14. The species in which the N-atom is in a state of sp-hybri- (2) an acidic oxide and the anhydride of8iNPi-
disation is (3) a neutral oxide and the anhydride ofHNO 3•
(2) No; (4) a basic oxide and the anhydride ofHNO 2•
(4) No; 22. Based on the compounds of Group 15 elements, the

(JEE Main 2016, Offline) incorrect statement(s) is (are)
(1) Bip5 is more basic than Np5•
15. The pair in which phosphorous atoms have a formal oxi-
dation state of+ 3 is (2) NF3 is more covalent than BiFr
(1) pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids. (3) PH3 boils at lower temperature than NHr
(2) orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids. (4) The N-N single bond is stronger than the P- P sin-
(3) pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids. gle bond.
(4) orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids. 23. Good reducing nature of HlO2 is attributed to the pres-
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) ence of
16. The number of P-OH bonds and the oxidation state of (1) Two P - OH bonds. (2) One P - H bond.
phosphorus atom in pyrophosphoric acid (H4 Pp7), (3) Two P - H bonds. (4) One P - OH bond.
respectively, are (JEE Main 2019, January)
( 1) five and four. four and five.
(2) 24. The pair that contains two P - H bonds in each of the
(3) four and four. (4)
five and five. oxoacids is
(JEE Main 2017 Online, Paper-2) (1) H 4 Pp5 and H4 Pp 6
17. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas by the (2) HlO 2 and H4Pp5
thermal decomposition is (3) HlO3 and HlO2
(1) (NH 4\Crp 7
(2) NH 4NO 2 (4) H 4 Pp and HlO3
5
(3) (NH4\S0 4 (4) Ba(N3\ (JEE Main 2019, January)
25. The number of pentagons in C 60 and trigons (triangles) in
18. (I) (II) white phosphorus, respectively, are
H - N-- - N --- N (1) 20 and 3 (2) 12 and 4
In hydrogen azide (above) the bond orders of bonds (3) 12 and 3 (4) 20 and 4
(I) and (II) are (JEE Main 2019, April)
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THEp -BLOCK ELEMENTS (GROUPS 15 TO 18) CQ-115
Topic 2: Group 16 Elements ( 1) H2S03 > H2S04 > H2SP1
26. Which of the following turns lead acetate paper black? (2) H2S04 > H2SP1 > H2S03
(3) H2SP 1 > H2S03 > H2S04
(4) H2SP1 > H2S0 4 > H2S03
27. Which of the following statements is true?
34. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no cova-
(I) Hl03 is a stronger acid than H 2S0r lent bond(s)?
(2) In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCI.
(3) HC104 is a weaker acid than HC!Or
(1) KC!, H 2S04 (2) KC!
(4) HN03 is a stronger acid than HNOr
(3) KC!, B 2H6 (4) KC! , B 2H 6, PH3
(AIEEE 2006)
28. Which of the following statements regarding sulphur is
35. In the following reaction, predict the compound (A)
incorrect?
formed and the number of d-orbitals involved in bonding
( l) The vapour at 200 °C consists mostly of S 8 rings. of compound (A).
(2) At 600 °C the gas mainly consists of S 2 molecules. PC l5 + S02 ~ A + POCl3
(3) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4
in its compounds. (1) S03 and two d-orbita l.
(4) S 2 molecule is paramagnetic. (2) SOC12 and one d-orbital.
(AIEEE 2011) (3) S03 and one d-orbital.
(4) SOC12 and no d-orbital involved in bonding.
29. Which of the following is the wrong statement?
36. The oxoacid of sulphur that does not contain bond
(l ) 0 3 molecule is bent.
between sulphur atoms is
(2) Ozone is v iolet-black in solid state.
(1) H2SP6 (2) H2SP3
(3) Ozone is diamagnetic gas.
(4) ONCI and ONO- are not isoelectronic. (3) H2SP1 (4) H2SP4
(JEE Main 2013) (JEE Main 2019, April)
30. Identify the incorrect statement: Topic 3: Group 17 Elements
(I) The S- S- S bond angles in the S 8 and S 6 rings are
37. Concentrated hydrochloric acid when kept in open a ir
the same.
sometimes produces a cloud of white fumes. The expla-
(2) Rhombic and monoclinic sulphur have S8 molecules.
nation for it is that
(3) S 2 is paramagnetic like oxygen.
( 1) concentrated hydrochloric acid emits strongly
(4) S 8 ring has a crown shape. sme lling HCl gas all the time.
(JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2) (2) oxygen in the air reacts with the emitted HCI gas to
31. The number ofS=O and S-OH bonds present in peroxo- form a cloud of chlorine gas.
disulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid, respectively, are (3) strong affinity ofHC l gas for moisture in air results
(1) (4 and 2) and (4 and 2) in forming of droplets of liquid solution which
appears like cloudy smoke.
(2) (2 and 4) and (2 and 4)
(4) due to strong affinity for water, concentrated hydro-
(3) (4 and 2) and (2 and 4)
choloric acid pulls moisture of air towards itself. This
(4) (2 and 2) and (2 and 2) moisture forms droplets of water and hence the cloud.
32. Which one of the following is an oxide? 38. Which among the following factors is the most important
(1) Ba02 (2) Si02 in making fluorine the strongest oxidising halogen?
(3) K0 2 (4) Cs02 (1) Electron affinity
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2) (2) Bond dissociation energy
(3) Hydration enthalpy
33. The correct sequence of decreasing number of n-bonds in
(4) Ionisation entha lpy
the structures ofH2S03, H 2S04 and 8iSP7 is (AIEEE 2004)
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39. T he correct order of the thermal stabili ty of hydrogen 47. The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold
ha lides (H - X) is and dilute a queous NaOH are
( I) HI > HBr > HC l > HF (1) c 1- and c 10-. (2) c 1- and eto; .
(2) HF > HC I > HBr > HI
(3) Clo- and eto;. (4) eto; and ClO; .
(3) HCI < HF > HBr < HI
(4) Hl> HC l < HF>HBr (JEE Main 2017, Offline)
(AIEEE 2005) 48. Total number of lone pair of e lectrons in r; ion is
(1) 6 (2) 9
40. W hat products are expected from the di sproportionation
reaction of hyp ochlorous acid? (3) 12 (4) 3
(1) HCI0 3 and Cl20 (2) HC I0 2 and HC10 4 (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
(3) HCI and C lp (4) HC l and HC10 3 49. Iodine reacts with concentrated HN03 to yield Y along
w ith other products. The oxidation state of iodine in Y is
(AIEEE 2006)
(I) 5 (2) 7
41. Identify the incorrect statement among the following . (3) 3 (4) I
(1) Br2 reacts with hot and strong NaOH solution to (JEE Main 2019, January)
give NaBr, NaBr04 and Hp .
50. Chlorine on reaction with hot and concentrated sodium
(2) Ozone reacts with S02 to give SOr hydroxide gives
(3) Silicon reacts with NaOH(aq) in the presence of a ir
to give Na2Si0 3 and Hp . ( I ) c 1- and eto; (2) c 1- and eto-
(4) Cl2 reacts with excess ofNH3 to give N 2 and HCI. (3) eto; and eto; (4) c 1- and Clo;
(AIEEE 2007)
42. Among the fo llowing oxoacids, the correct decreasing
order of acid strength is Topic 4: Group 18 Elements
(1) HOCl > HCI02 > HC10 3 > HC10 4
51. The number of lone pairs of Xe in XeF2 , XeF4 and XeF6 ,
(2) HC10 4 > HOCI > HC10 2 > HC10 3 respectively, are
(3) HC10 4 > HCI0 3 > HCI0 2 > HOCl ( I) 3,2, 1 (2) 2, 4, 6
(4) HCI0 2 > HC10 4 > HC10 3 > HOCl (3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 6, 4,2
(JEE Main 2014, Offline) (AIEEE 2002)
43. Which among the following is the most reactive? 52. Which one the following statement regarding he lium is
incorrect?
( 1) Br2 (2) 12
(1) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen
(3) IC l (4) C l2
because it is lighter and non - inflammable.
(2) It is used in gas - cooled nuclear reactors.
44. T he least number of oxyacids are formed by (3) It is used to produce a nd sustain powerfu l supercon-
(1) nitrogen (2) sulphur ducting reagents.
(3) fluorine (4) chlorine (4) It is used as cryogenic agent for carrying out exper-
iments at low temperatures.
(AIEEE 2004)
45. Chlorine water on standing loses its colour and forms
53. W hich one of th e following reactions of xenon com-
(1) HCl only. (2) HOCI and HOC12 • pounds is not feasible?
(3) HCI and HOCI. (4) HC l and HC10 2 •
( I) 2XeF2 + 2Hp ~ 2Xe + 4HF + 0 2
(2) XeF6 + RbF ~ Rb[XeF7 ]
46. T he non-metal that does not exhibit positive oxidation
state is (3) Xe0 3 + 6HF ~ XeF6 + 3H 2 0
(1) chlorine. (2) iodine. I
(4 ) 3XeF4 + 6Hp ~ 2Xe + Xe03 + 12HF +
(3) fluorine. (4) oxygen. 20 2

(AIEEE 2009)
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THEp -BLOCK ELEMENTS (GROUPS 15 TO 18) CQ-117
54. Which of the following series correctly represents rela- (3) Ionic.
tions between the e lements from X to Y? (4) Dipole- dipole.
X ➔Y (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-1)
( I) 3Li ➔ 19K Ionization enthalpy increases. 58. Identify the pair in which the geometry of the species is
(2) 9
F ➔ Br Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign
35
T-shape and square-pyramidal, respectively,
increases.
(1) CIF3 and IO; (2) ICI; and ICI5
(3) 6
C ➔ 32Ge Atomic radii increases.
(4) 18
Ar ➔ 54Xe Noble character increases. (3) Xe0F2 and XeOF4 (4) IO; and I02 F2-
55. Which of the following xenon -OXO compounds may
not be obtained by hydrolysis of xenon fluorides? 59. Xenon hexafluoride on partial hydrolysis produces com-
pounds 'X' and 'Y'. Compounds ' X' and 'Y' and the oxi-
(1) Xe0l2 (2) XeOF4
dation state of Xe are, respectively,
(3) Xe03 (4) Xe04
(1) Xe0/+4) and Xe0/+6)
(2) XeOF/+6) and Xe0/+6)
56. Which one has the highest boiling point?
(3) XeOl/+6) and Xe02(+4)
(1) Ne (2) Kr
(4) XeOF/+6) and XeOl/+6)
(3) Xe (4) He
(JEE Main 2015, Offiine) (JEE Main 2018, Online)
57. Which intermolecular force is most responsible in allow- 60. The noble gas that does not occur in the atmosphere is
ing xenon gas to liquefy? (1) He (2) Kr
(3) Ne ~~~~ (4) Ra
(1 ) Instantaneous dipole- induced dipole.
(2) Ion-dipole.
61. The most common oxidation state of sulphur is _ _ _. 67. M is a pale yellow solid. It hydrolyzes to POCl3 in moist
air and finally gets converted into phosphoric acid. M
62. The number of common oxidation states which phospho- exists as an ionic solid. T he number of atoms present in
rus can show in its compounds is _ _ _ . its anion is _ __
63. The number of lone pairs of e lectrons on Xe atom in 68. How many elements are produced when mercuric nitrate
XeF4 is _ _ _. is heated?
64. Amongst the following, the number of interhalogen 69. How many peroxy linkages are present in pyrophosphoric
molecules/ions is _ __ acid?
Xe03, BrO;, CIF, XeF2, OF2, XeF 4, ICt;, Clo-, IBr;
70. Xenon hexafluoride reacts with silica to form a xenon
65. The oxidation state of chlorine in HCI03 is _ _ _. compound X. The oxidation sta te of Xe in X is _ _ _.
66. Amongst the following, the number of metals which are

rendered passive in the presence of cone. HN03 is _ _ _.
Sn, Pb, Fe, Cr, Zn, N i, Hg, Al, Cu.
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The d- and f- Block
CH APTER 22
Elements
Topic 1: General Properties of the Transition 6. Iron exhibits +2 and +3 oxidation states. Which of the
Elements (~Block) following about iron is incorrect?
(1) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than the ferric
1. Which of the following ions has the maximum magnetic
oxide.
moment?
(2) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic than
(1) Mn2+ (2) Fe2+
corresponding ferric compounds.
(3) Ti2+ (4) cr2+
(3) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the corre-
(AIEEE 2002) sponding ferric compounds.
2. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), (4) Ferrous compounds are more easily hydrolyzed
manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are, respectively, 23, 24, than corresponding ferric compounds.
25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have (AIEEE 2012)
the highest second ionisation enthalpy?
7. Which series of reactions correctly represents chemical
(1) V (2) Cr reactions related to iron and its compound?
(3) Mn (4) Fe
(1) Fe dil. tt,so, ) FeSO4 ) Fe (SO ) 2 4 3
(AIEEE 2003)
~Fe
3. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (At. no. of 0 2 , heat dil. tt,so, Heat
Fe = 26) ion is (2) Fe FeO FeSO4 Fe
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Fe
Clz , heat
) FeCl 3 Heat, air
FeCl 2 ~ Fe
(3) 5 (4) 6 o2, heat
(4) Fe l Fe3O 4
C0 ,600 ' C
FeO co, 100 °c Fe
(AIEEE 2003)
4. Of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms, (JEE Main 2014, Offline)
the highest oxidation state is achieved by which one of 8. Which one of the fo llowing exhibits the largest number
them? of oxidation states?
(1) (n - l )d 8ns2 (2) (n - l )d 5ns2 (1) Ti (22) (2) V (23)
(3) (n - 1)d 3ns2 (4) (n - l )d 5ns- 1 (3) Cr (24) (4) Mn (25)
5. In context with the transi tion elements, which of the fol- 9. Which of the fo llowing compounds is metallic and ferro-
lowing statements is incorrect? magnetic?
(1) In addition to the norma l oxidation states, the zero (1) Mn02 (2) TiO2
oxidation state is also shown by these elements in (3) CrO2 (4) vo2
complexes.
(2) In the highest oxidation states, the transition metal
show basic character and form cationic complexes. 10. In the following reactions, ZnO is, respectively, acting as
a/an
(3) In the highest oxidation states of the first five transi-
tion elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s and 3d e lectrons (I) ZnO + Nap ➔ Na 2ZnO 2
are u sed for bonding. (II) ZnO + CO2 ➔ ZnCO3
(4) Once the d 5 configuration is exceeded, the tendency (1) acid and acid. (2) acid and base.
to involve all the 3d e lectrons in bonding decreases. (3) base and acid. (4) base and base.
(AIEEE 2009)
iwwl}l.JEEB,oOKS. fN
11. Which of the following ions does not liberate hydrogen 18. Consider the hydrated ions ofTi2 +, v2 +, Ti3+, and Sc3+. The
gas on reaction with dilute acids? correct order of their spin-only magnetic moments is
(I) Mn2+ (2) Ti2+ (3) v2+ (4) Cr2+ (I) y z+ < Ti2+ < Ti3+ < Sc3+
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-2) (2) Sc3+ < Ti3+ < Ti 2+ < yz+
12. Four successive membe rs of the first row transition ele- (3) Ti3+ < Ti2+ < Sc3+ < y z+
ments are listed below with atomic numbers . Which one (4) Sc3+ < Ti3+ < y 2+ < Ti2+
of them is expected to have the highest E~,.1M,. value?
(I) Mn (Z= 25) (2) Fe (Z = 26)
19. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies is
(3) Co (Z = 27) (4) Cr (Z =24)
(JEE Main 2013) (1) Ti<Mn<Zn<Ni (2) Ti < Mn < N i < Zn
13. The highest value of the calculated spin-only magnetic (3) Mn<Ti<Zn<Ni (4) Zn<Ni<Mn<Ti
moment (in BM) among all the transition metal com- (JEE Main 2019, April)
plexes is
20. The metal that g ives hydrogen gas upon treatment w ith
(1) 5.92 (2) 6.93 both acid as well as base is
(3) 3.87 (4) 4.90
(1) magnesium (2) mercury
(3) zinc (4) iron
14. The transition e lement that has lowest enthalpy of atomi- (JEE Main 2019, April)
zation is
21. The pair that has similar atomic radii is
(I) Fe (2) Cu
(1) Mn and Re (2) Ti and Hf
(3) V (4) Zn
(3) Sc and Ni (4) Mo and W
15. The element that usually does not show variable oxida-
tion states is Topic 2: Some Important Compounds of Transition
( 1) Sc (2) V (3) Ti (4) Cu Elements
(JEE Main 2019, January) 22. A red solid is insoluble in water. However it become sol-
16. The statement that is incorrect about the interstitial com- uble if some KI is added to water. Heating the red solid
pounds is in a test tube results in liberation of some violet colored
fumes and droplets of a metal appear on the cooler parts
(1) they are chemically reactive.
of test tube. The red solid is
(2) they are very hard.
(3) they have me tallic conductivity. (1) (NH.J2Crp 7 (2) Hgl 2
(4) they have high me lting points. (3) HgO (4) Pbp 4
(JEE Main 2019,April) (AIEEE 2003)

17. The correct match between Column I (catalysts) and 23. What wou ld happen when a solution of potassium chro-
Column II (products) is mate is treated w ith an excess of dilute nitric acid?
Column I (Catalyst) Column II (Product) ( 1) Cr3+ and Crp;- are formed.
(A) vp 5
(i) Polyethylene (2) Cr2O;- and Hp are formed.
(B) TiCI/Al(Me\ (ii) Ethana l
(3) CrO!- is reduced to +3 state of Cr.
(C) PdC12 (iii) H2s0.
(D) Iron Oxide (iv) NH 3 (4) CrO!- is oxidised to +7 state of Cr.
(AIEEE 2003)
(I) (A) ➔ (iii); (B) ➔ (iv); (C) ➔ (i); (D) ➔ (ii)
24. Which one of the following nitrates will leave be hind a
(2) (A) ➔ (ii); (B) ➔ ( iii); (C) ➔ (i); (D) ➔ (iv)
metal on strong heating?
(3) (A) ➔ (iii); (B) ➔ (i); (C) ➔ (ii); (D) ➔ (iv)
(1) Ferric nitrate (2) Copper nitrate
(4) (A) ➔ (iv); (B) ➔ (iii); (C) ➔ (ii); (D) ➔ ( i) (3) Manganese nitrate (4) Silver nitrate
(JEE Main 2019, April) (AIEEE 2003)
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THE d- AND f BLOCK ELEMENTS CQ-121
25. Excess of Kl reacts w ith CuSO4 solution and then

Na 2Sp3 solution is added to it. W hich of the statements (1) Cr2+ (2) MnO;-
is incorrect for this reaction? (3) M nO!- (4) cu+
(1) Cu2l 2 is redu ced. (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-1)
(2) Evolved 12 is reduced.
4KOH, 0 2
(3) Na 2Sp3 is oxidised . 32. A
(4) Cul 2 is formed.
4HCI
(AIEEE 2004) 3B 2~ + MnO2 + 2Hp
( Purple)
26. Calome l (Hg2C12) on reaction w ith ammo nium hydroxide

H2 0 , KI
gives 2A+2 KOH+:i:2
(I) HgNH 2 C l (2) NH 2- Hg- Hg- C I In the above sequence of reactions, ~ and _Q, respec-
(3) Hgp (4) HgO tively are
(AIEEE 2005) (1) Kl and K.MnO4 (2) MnO2 and K1O 3
27. Copper becomes green when exposed to moist air for a (3) KlO 3 and MnO2 (4) Kl and ~MnO4
long period. This is due to (JEE Main 2019, January)
(1) the formation of a layer of cupric oxide on the sur- 33. Thermal decomposition of a M n compound (X) at 513
face of copper. K results in compound Y, MnO2 and a gaseous product.
(2) the formatio n of a layer of basic carbonate of cop- MnO2 reacts w ith NaCl and concentrated H 2 SO4 to g ive a
per on the surface of copper. pungent gas Z. X, Y, and Z, respectively, are
(3) the formation of a layer of cupric hydroxide on the
surface of copper. (I) ~MnO4 , ~MnO4 and Cl2
(4) the formation of basic copper sulphate layer on the (2) ~MnO4 , K.MnO4 and SO2
surface of the metal. (3) K.MnO 4 , ~MnO4 and Cl2
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3) (4) ~MnO4 , K.MnO4 and C l2
28. T he colour ofK.MnO 4 is due to (JEE Main 2019, April)
( 1) d-d transition.
(2) L ➔ M charge transfer transition. Topic 3: The Lanthanoids and Actinoids
(3) <J - <J* transition 34. Most common oxidation states of Ce (Cerium) are
(4) M ➔ L charge transfer transition.
(1) +3, +4 (2) +2, +3
(3) +2, +4 (4) + 3, +5
29. Which of the following statements is fa lse? (AIEEE 2002)
(I) CrOt is tetrahedral in shape 35. Ce3+, La3+, Pm 3+ and Yb3+ have ionic radii in the increas-
ing order as:
(2) Cr2 O;- has Cr - 0 - Cr bond
( 1) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
(3) Na 2 Cr2 O 7 is a primary standard in volumetry
(2) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(4) Na 2 Cr2 O 1 is less soluble than K 2 Cr2 O 7
(3) La3+ = CeH < Pm2 + < Yb3+
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2) (4) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
30. The reaction of z inc w ith dilute and concentrated nitric (AIEEE 2002)
acid, respectively, produces 36. The radius ofLa3+ (Atomic number of La= 57) is 1.06 A.
(1) NO 2 and Np. (2) Np and NOr W hich one of the fo llowing given values w ill be closest
(3) NO 2 and NO. (4) NO and Np. to the radius ofLu3+ (Atomic number of Lu = 71)
(JEE Main 2016, Offiine) (1) 1.60 A (2) 1.40 A
31. Which o ne of the fo llowing species is stable in aqueous (3) 1.06 A (4) 0.85 A
solution? (AIEEE 2003)
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37. A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic num- 43. Identify the incorrect statement among the following.
ber is a characteristic of elements of (1) d-Block elements show irregular and erratic
( 1) high atomic masses. (2) d-block. chemical properties among themselves.
(3) f-block. (4) radioactive series. (2) La and Lu have partially filled d orbital and no other
(AIEEE 2003) partially filled orbitals.
(3) The chemistry of various lanthanoids is very similar.
38. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the lantha-
(4) 4/and 5/orbital are equally shielded.
noids. Which of the following statements about cerium is
(AIEEE 2007)
incorrect?
(1) The common oxidation states of cerium are + 3 44. Larger number of oxidation states is exhibited by the acti-
and +4. noids than those by the lanthanoids, the main reason being
(2) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent. (1) 4 f orbitals more diffused than the 5/orbitals.
(3) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in (2) lesser energy difference between Sf and 6d than
solutions. between 4/ and 5d orbitals.
(4) The + 3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than (3) more energy difference between 5/ and 6d than
the +4 oxidation state. between 4 /and 5d orbitals.
(AIEEE 2004) (4) more reactive nature of the actinoids than the
lanthanoids.
39. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that (AIEEE 2008)
(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius.
45. Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dom-
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state. inated by its + 3 oxidation state, which of the following
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius. statements is incorrect?
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state. (I) Because of the large size of the Ln(III) ions the
(AIEEE 2005) bonding in its compounds is predominantly ionic in
character.
40. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the
(2) The ionic sizes of Ln(III) decrease in general with
main cause of lanthanide contraction?
increasing atomic number.
( 1) Poor shielding of one of 4f electron by another in
(3) Ln(III) compounds are generally colourless.
the subshell.
(4) Ln(III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character.
(2) Effective shielding of one of 4felectrons by another
(AIEEE 2009)
in the subshell.
(3) Poorer shielding of 5d electrons by 4/electrons. 46. In the context of lanthanoids, which of the following
(4) Greater shielding of 5d electron by 4felectrons. statements is not correct?
(AIEEE 2005) ( I) All the members exhibit +3 oxidation state.
(2) Because of simi lar properties, the separation of lan-
41. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to thanoids is not easy.
(1) the appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 4f (3) Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation
electrons from the nuclear charge. of compounds in +4 state for all the members of the
(2) the appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 5d series.
electrons from the nuclear charge. (4) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the mem-
(3) the same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu. bers w ith increasing atom ic number in the series.
(4) the imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 4f (AIEEE 2011)
electrons from the nuclear charge. 47. The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid
(AIEEE 2006) series of elements by and large means
42. The atomic numbers of three lanthanoid elements X , Y (1) increase in both atomic and ionic radii.
and Z are 65, 68 and 70, respectively. The basic character (2) decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii.
of their hydrox ides w ill decrease as (3) decrease in both atomic and ionic rad ii.
( 1) X >Y > Z (2) X > Z > Y (4) increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii.
(3) Z > Y > X (4) Z > Y > X (JEE Main 2019, January)
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THE d- AND f BLOCK ELEMENTS CQ-123
48. T he lanthanide ion that wou ld show color is (1) mercury. (2) tin.
(I) 3
Gd + (2) 3
Sm + (3) sodium. (4) magnesium.
(3) La3+ (4) Lu 3+ (AIEEE 2003)
(JEE Main 2019,April) 54. C onsider the following equilibrium
49. The maximum number of possible oxidation states of
AgCl ..1- + 2NH3 ~ [Ag(NH3)J+ + C l -
actinoids are shown by
(1) nobelium (No) and lawrencium (Lr) White precipitate of AgCl appears on adding w hich of the
(2) actinium (Ac) and thorium (Th) followi ng?
(3) berkelium (Bk) and Californ ium (Cf) (1) NH3
(4) neptunium (Np) and plutonium (Pu) (2) Aqueous NaCl
(JEE Main 2019,April) (3) Aqueous HN03
(4) Aqueous NH4 Cl
50. The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and plu- (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2)
tonium, respectively, are
(1) 6 and 7 (2) 6 and 4 55. An aqueous solution of a salt X turns blood red on
treatment w ith SCN- and blue on treatment with
(3) 7 and 6 (4) 4 and 6
KiFe(CN\], X a lso give a positive chromyl chloride
test. The salt X is
Topic 4: Some Applications of ~ and f-Block (1) CuC12 (2) FeC13

Elements (3) Cu(N0)2 (4) Fe(N0 3 ) 3
51. If Fe 3+ and Cr3+ both are present in group III of qualita- (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-1)
tive ana lysis, then distinction can be made by: 56. The cation that will not be precipitated by H 2S in the
(I) addition of NHpH in presence of NH4C l when presence of dilute HCl is
only Fe(OH\ is precipitated. (1) Cu2+ (2) Pb2+
(2) addition of NHpH in presence of NH4C l when (3) As3+ (4) Co2+
Cr(OH \ and Fe(OH)3 both are precipitated and on
adding Br2 wate r and NaOH, Cr(OH\ dissolves.
(3) Precipitate of Cr(OH\ and Fe(OH)3 as obtained in 57. A pink coloured sal t turns blue on heating. The presence
(2) are treated with cone. HCl when only Fe(OH\ of which cation is most li kely?
dissolves. (1) Cu 2+ (2) Fe2+
(4) both (2) and (3). (3) Zn 2+ (4) Co2+
52. Which one of the foll owing stateme nts is correct? 58. The transition me tal ions responsible for colour in ruby
(1) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead test in the and emerald are, respective ly
reducing flame. (1) Co3+ and Cr3+. (2) Co3+and Co3+.
(2) From a mixed ppt. of AgC l and Agl, ammonia solu- (3) Cr3+ and Cr3+. (4) Cr3+ and Co3+.
tion dissolves only AgCI.
(3) Ferric ions give a deep g reen ppt. on adding potas-
sium ferrocyanide solution. 59. A solution conta ining a group IV cation gives a precipi-
(4)
2
On boiling a solution having K+,ca +andHco; tate o n passing H2S. A solution of this precipitate in di!.
ions we get a ppt. ofK2Ca(C03) 2 H Cl produces a whi te precipitate with NaOH solution
and bluish-white precipitate w ith basic potassium ferro-
(AIEEE 2003)
cyanide. The cation is
53. For making good quality mirrors, plates of float glass are (1) Co2+ (2) Ni2+
used. T hese are obtained by floating molten glass over
(3) Zn 2+ (4) Mn2+
a liquid metal which does not solidify before glass. The
metal used can be (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-])
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60. The incorrect statement is (3) Ferric ion gives blood red colour with potassium
(I) Cu2+ salts give red coloured borax bead test in thiocyanate.
reducing flame. (4) Cu2+ ion gives chocolate coloured precipitate w ith
(2) Cu2+ and Ni2+ ions give black precipitate with H 2 S in potassium ferrocyanide solution.
presence ofHCI solution. (JEE Main 2018, Online)
61. The number of e lements among the ones given below CoO, Fe2 O 3 , FeO, Cr2 O 3 , VF2 , MnO2 , Mn2 O 3 , TiO 2 ,
having higher density than N i is _ __
Sc2 0 3 , Co2 0 3 •
Ti, Co, Pd, Ag, Fe, W, Re, Au, Pt, Os
66. The number of colored species among the following
62. How many of the following exhibit their highest oxida- is_ _ __
tion state with fluorine?
VOSO 4 , VF2 , Cu 2 F2 , MnO2 , Mn 2 O 3 , Fe2 O 3 , ZnCl2 , AgF.
Ti, V, Cr, Mn, Co and Zn
67. The highest oxidation state exhibited by a d-block ele-
63. The number of transition metals among the following is ment is _ _ __
Fe, Ru, Hg, Cd, Ag, Pt, Zn, Au 68. How many of the fo llowing e lements do not form inter-
stitial hydrides?
64. The total number of pairs hav ing e lements of almost Fe, Co, Ru, Rh, V, Sc, Mn, Ir, Pt, Tc
equal atomic radii among the following is
Rh and Ir; N i and Pd; Ag and Hg; Zr and Hf; Rh and Hf; 69. The number of electrons involved in reduction ofKMnO4
in basic medium is _ _ __
MoandW
65. How many of the following compounds contain a cation 70. The number of electrons present in the 5/ orbital in
corresponding to a magnetic moment of BM? M ground state of N p (atomic number= 93) is _ _ __
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CH APTER 23 Coordination Compounds

Topic 1: Definition of Some Important Terms
Pertaining to Coordination Compounds 5. The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(NH3 ) 4 c1 2 r is
(I) +3 (2) +2
1. In the coordination compound, K 4 [Ni(CN)4 ] , the oxida-
(3) + l (4) 0
tion state of nickel is
(AIEEE 2005)
(1) - 1 (2) 0
6. H ow many E DTA (ethyle nediaminetetraaceti c acid) mol-
(3) +l (4) +2
ecule s are required to make an octahedral complex w ith a
(AIEEE 2003) Ca2+ ion?
2. Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu(NH 3) 4]2+ w ith cop- (1) Six (2) Three
per ions in alkaline solutions but not in acidic solutions. (3) One (4) Two
What is the reason for it? (AIEE E 2006)
(1) In acidic solutions hydration protects copper ions.
7. T he coordination number and the oxidation state of the
(2) In acidic solutions protons coordinate with ammo- e lement 'E' in the complex [E(en)/Cp 4)]NO 2 (where
nia molecules forming NH; ions and NH 3 mole- (en) is ethylenediamine) are, respectively,
cules are not avai lable.
(1) 6 and2 (2) 4 and 2
(3) In a lkaline solutions insoluble Cu (OH\ is precipi-
(3) 4 and 3 (4) 6and 3
tated which is soluble in excess of any a lkali.
(AIEEE 2008)
(4) Copper hydrox ide is an amphoteric substance.
(AIEEE 2003) 8. Consider the coordinatio n compound, [Co(NH3) 6 ]C l3 . In
the formation of this comp lex, the species which acts as
3. One mole of the complex compound Co(NH 3\ Cl3 gives the Lewis acid is
3 moles of ions on dissolutions in water. One mole of the
(1) [Co(NH 3\ ]3+ (2) c 1-
same complex reacts with two moles ofAgNO 3 solution to
(3) Co3 + (4) NH 3
yield two mo les ofAgCl(s). The structure of the complex is
(1 ) [Co(NH 3) 5C l] C l2
(2) [Co(NH 3) 3C l3] • 2 N H 3 9. A mong the fo llowing species the one w hich causes the
hig hest CFSE, t.0 as a ligand is
(3) [Co(NH ) 4 C l2 ] C l · NH3
(1) CN- (2) NH 3
(4) [Co(NH 3) 4 C l]C l2 • NH3
(AIEEE 2003)
(3) F- (4) co
4. T he coordination number of central metal atom in a com-
10. A mongst the following, identify the species w ith an atom
plex is determined by
in + 6 ox idation state:
(1) the numbe r of ligands around a meta l ion bonded by
sigma bonds.
(1) [M nO 4 r (2) [Cr(CN)6] 3-
(3) Crp 3
(4) CrO 2 Cl2
(2) the number of only anionic ligands bonded to the
metal ion.
(3) the number ofligands around a meta l ion bonded by 11. Which moelcule/ ion among the fo llowing cannot act as a
sigma and pi-bonds both. ligand in complex compounds?
(4) the number ofligands around a meta l ion bonded by (1) CO (2) CN-
pi-bonds. (4) Br
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12. Which of the following is an example of homoleptic

complex?
( I) [Co(NH) 6]Cl3 (2) Pt(NH3\ C l2]
(3) [Co(NH3\Cl2] (4)
[Co(NH3)5Cl] Cl2
(JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2) (I) 8 and 6 (2) 6 and 8
(3) 6 and 6 (4) 8and8
13. T he pair of compounds having metals in their highest
oxidation state is (JEE Main 2019, April)
2
(1) [Fe(CN)l- and [Cu(CN\] - 20. The coordination numbers of Co and Al in [Co(Cl)(en\ ]
(2) [FeC14J- and Cop3 C l and K 3[Al(Cp4) 3], respectively, are
(3) [NiCl4 ]2- a nd [CoC14 ]2- (en = ethane-1,2-diamine)
(4) MnO2 and CrO2Cl2
(1) 5 and 3 (2) 3 and 3
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1) (3) 6 and 6 (4) 5 and 6
14. The oxidation states of Cr in [Cr(HP)JC13,[Cr(C6H)2] , (JEE Main 2019, April)

and ~[Cr(CN)2 (O)/O2)(NH3)], respectively, are
Topic 2: Nomenclature of Coordination
(1) +3, + 2, and +4 (2) +3, 0, and + 6
Compounds and Isomerism in
(3) +3, 0, and +4 (4) +3, + 4, and +6 Coordination Compounds
21. Type of isomerism shown by [Cr(NH3\ NO2]Cl2 is
15. Wil kinson's catalyst is (Et= C2H 5)
( I) optical (2) ionisation
(1) [(Phl)irCI] (2) [(Etl)3RhCI]
(3) geometrical (4) linkage
(3) [(Phl)3RhCI] (4) [(Etl)/rCI] (AIEEE 2002)
22. The IUPAC name of the coordination compound
16. The coordination number ofTh in KJTh(Cp4)/OH) 2
] is K3 [Fe(CN)6 ] is
(I) potassium hexacyanoferrate (II).
(2) potassium hexacyanoferrate (III).
( I) 14 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10 (3) potassium hexacyanoiron (TD.
(4) tripotassium hexacyanoiron (II).
(AIEEE 2005)
17. T he following ligand is
23. Which of the followi ng compounds shows optical
isomerism?
( 1) [Cu(NH3 ) 3 ]2+ (2) [ZnC1 4 ]2-
(3) [Cr(C 2O 4 )]3- (4) [Co(CN) 6 ]3-
(AIEEE 2005)
( I) hexadentate (2) tetradentate
(3) bidentate (4) tridentate 24. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO2)(NH) 5]C12 is
(JEE Main 2019,April) (1) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (IID chloride.

(2) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (II) chloride.
18. The number of water molecule(s) not coordinated to cop-
(3) pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride.
per ion directly in CuSO 4 • 5H2O, is
(4) pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (IID chloride.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(AIEEE 2006)
(3) I (4) 4
25. Which of the following has an optical isomer?
( 1) [Co(HP\(en)p+ (2) [Co(en) 2(NH3)2]3+
19. The maximum possible denticities of a ligand given
be low towards a common transition and inner-transition (3) [Co(NH) 3Ctr (4) [Co(en)(NH3)2]2+
metal ion, respectively, are (AIEEE 2009)
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COORDINATION COMPOUNDS CQ-127
26. Which of the following pairs represents linkage isomers? 32. The correct statement on the isomerism associated w ith
(I) [Cu (NH) ] [PtC 14 ] and [Pt(NH 3 \ ] [CuC14 ] the following complex ions,
4
(2) [Pd (PPh3)z(NCS) 2] and [Pd(PPh)z(SCN)z] (I) [Ni(HP\NHl+
(3) [Co (NH) 5NO3]SO4 and [Co(NH 3) 5 SO 4 ] NO 3 (II) [N i(HP\(NH) 2]2+ and
(4) [PtCl2 (NH 3) 4 ] Br2 and [PtBr2(NH 3) 4 ] C l2 (III) [N i(Hp\(NH3)l+ is:
(AIEEE 2009) ( 1) (I) and (II) show only geometrical isomerism .

(2) (I) and (II) show geometrical and optical isomerism.
27. Which one of the following has an optical isomer (en =
(3) (II) and (III) show geometrical and optical isomerism.
ethy lenediamine )?
(4) (II) and (III) show only geometrical isomerism.
(I) [Zn(en)J2+ (2) [Zn(en)(NH3)J2+
(3) [Co(en )3]3+ (4) [Co(Hp)/en)]2+
(AIEEE 2010) 33. Which one of the foll owing complexes shows optical
isomerism
28. Which among the following w ill be named as dibromido-
(1) [Co(NH3\Cl2 ]C I.
bis (ethylene diamine) chromium(III) bromide?
(2) [Co(NH ) 3C IJ
(1) [Cr(en)3]Br3 (2) [Cr(en) 2Brz]Br
(3) cis-[Co(en)2C12]CI.
(3) [Cr(en) Br4 J- (4) [Cr(en)Br2]Br
(4) trans-[Co(en)2 Cl2]CI.
(AIEEE 2012)
(en= ethylenediamine)
29. Which of the following name formula combinations is (JEE Main 2016, Offline)
not correct?
34. Consider the following reaction and statements :
Formula Name
[Co(NH3) 4 Br2 ]+ + Br ➔ [Co(NH)3Br3 ] + NH3
Potassium
tetracyanoplatinate (II) (I) Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex
ion is a cis-isomer.
Pentacyanomag nate (II)
ion (II) Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex
ion is a trans-isomer.
Potassium diamine
(III) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex
tetrachlorochromate (III)
ion is a trans-isomer.
Tetraammine aquaiodo
(IV) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex
(4 ) [Co(NH3)/Hp)I]S04 cobalt (III) sulphate
io n is a cis-isomer.
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2) The correct statements are
30. An octahedral complex with molecular composition ( 1) (I) and (III) (2) (III) and (IV)
M-SNH3 -Cl·SO4 has two isome rs, A and B. The solution (3) (II) and (IV) (4) (I) and (II)
of A gives a white precipitate w ith AgNO3 solution and (JEE Main 2018, Offline)
the solution ofB gives white precipitate with BaC l2 solu-
35. The total number of possible isomers for square planar
tion. The type of isomerism exhibited by the complex is
[Pt(Cl)(NO2)(NO3)(SCN)]2- is
(1) linkage isomerism.
(1) 8 (2) 12
(2) ionisation isomerism.
(3) 16 (4) 24
(3) coordinate isomerism.
(4) geometrical isomerism.
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4) 36. Which of the following complexes will show geometrical
isomerism?
31. T he number ofgeometric isomers that can exist for square ( l ) Aquachlorobis (ethylenediamine) cobalt(II) chloride
planar [Pt (Cl) (py) (NH3) (NHpH)t is (py = pyridine) (2) Pentaaquachlorochromium(III) chloride
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Potassium amminetrichloroplatinate(II)
(3) 6 (4) 2 (4) Potassium tris (oxalate) chromate(III)
(JEE Main 2015, Offline) (JEE Main 2018, Online)
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37. A reaction of cobalt (III) chloride and ethylenediamine in The number of unpaired electron(s) in the nickel and
a I: 2 mole ratio generates two isomeric products A (vio- geometry of this complex ion are, respectively
let colored) and B (green colored). A can show optical (I) one, tetrahedral. (2) two, tetrahedral.
activity, but B is optically inactive. What type of isomers (3) one, square planar. (4) two, square planar.
does A and B represent?
(AIEEE 2006)
(1) Geometrical isomers
(2) Coordination isomers 42. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co
(3) Linkage isomers (atomic number 27), wi ll the magnitude of ~ 0 be the
(4) Ionization isome rs highest?
(JEE Main 2019, January) ( 1) [Co(CN)6)3- (2) [Co(CP4\)3-
38. The one that will show optical activity is (3) [Co(HP\J3+ (4) [Co(NH 3\ )3+
(en = ethane-1,2-dia mine) (AIEEE 2008)
A
ITTB 43. Which of the following facts about the complex
B~A
[Cr(NH 3\ ]Cl3 is wrong?
( 1) The complex is paramagnetic.
(1)
(2) The complex is an outer orbital complex.
B (3) The complex gives white precipitate with silver
A nitrate solution.
(4) The complex involves d 2sp 3 hybridisation and is
octahedral in shape.
(2)
(AIEEE 2011)
A
44. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with four
(3)
AB~ n
~
monodentate ligands LI' L2, L 3 and L4 absorb wavelengths
in the region of red, green, yellow and blue, respectively.
The increasing order ofligand strength of the four ligands is
(1) L4< L3< L2< L1 (2) Ll<L3<L2<L4
B (3) L3 < L 2 < L4 <L 1 (4) L 1<L2 < L4 <L3
BITTB (JEE Main 2014, Offline)
45. The correct statement about the magnetic properties of

[Fe(CN)l- and [FeFl - is (Z = 26):
(4) B~B
( 1) Both are paramagnetic.
A
(2) Both are diamagnetic.
(JEE Main 2019,April) (3) [Fe(CN)J3- is diamagnetic, [FeFJ3- is paramag-
39. The species that can have a trans-isomer is netic.
(en = ethane-1,2-diamine, ox = oxalate) (4) [Fe(CN)l- is paramagnetic, [FeFl- is diamag-
(1) [Zn(en)C12] (2) [Pt(en)Cl2] netic.
(3) [Cr(en)/ox)r (4) [Pt(en)zCtz]2+
(JEE Main 2019,April) 46. Which one of the following complexes will most likely
absorb visible light? (At. Nos.: Sc= 21, Ti= 22, V = 23,
Topic 3: Bonding in Coordination Compounds Zn= 30)
4
40. Which one of the following complexes is an outer orbital (1) [Sc(HP)l+ (2) [Ti(NH3\ ] +
complex? (3) [V(NH3)6]3+ (4)

[Zn(NH3\]2+
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4- (2) [Ni(NH3)J 2+ (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3)
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Mn(CN\]4-
47. N ickel (Z = 28) combines w ith a uninegative monoden-
(AIEEE 2004)
tate ligand to form a diamagnetic complex [N iLl -- The
41. N ickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative monoden- hybridisation involved and the numbers of unpaired elec-
tate ligand x- to form a paramagnetic complex [NiX4]2-. trons present in the complex are, respectively
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(1) sp3, two (2) dsp2, zero (1) [ZnC 14 ]2- > [NiC14 ]2- > [CoC14 ]2- > [MnC14 ]2-
(3) dsp2, one sp 3, zero
(4) (2) [CoC14] 2 - > [MnC14] 2- > [NiC14 ]2- > [ZnC14 ]2-
(3) [NiC14 ]2- > [CoC14 ]2- > [MnC 14 ]2- > [ZnC14 ]2-
48. Which of the following compounds is not coloured (4) [MnC14 ]2- > [CoC14]2- > [NiC14 ]2- > [ZnC14 ]2-
yellow?
(1) ~[Co(NO2) 6] (2) (NHJ3 [As (Mop 10) 4]
54. In Wilkinson's catalyst, the hybridisation of central metal
(3) BaCrO4 ( 4) ZnJFe(CN)6]
ion and its shape are, respectively,
(I) sp3d, trigonal bipyramidal. (2) sp3, tetrahedral.
49. When concentrated HC l is added to an aqueous solution (3) dsp2, square planar. (4) d2sp3, octahedral.
of CoC12, its colour changes from reddish pink to deep
blue. Which complex ion gives blue colour in this reac-
tion? 55. Two complexes [Cr(HP \]C l3 (A) and [Cr(NH) 6]Cl3 (B)
(2) [CoC16] 3
- are violet and yellow colored, respectively. The incorrect
statement regarding them is
(4) [Co(H 2 o)J+
(1) L'.'10 values of (A) and (B) are calculated from the
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2) energies of violet and yellow light, respectively.
50. Which of the following complex ions has electrons that (2) both are paramagnetic w ith three unpaired elec-
are symmetrically filled in both ! 28 and e orbitals? trons.
8
(3) both absorb e nergies corresponding to their com-
(1) [ CoF6 ] 3 - (2) [Co(NH JS+ plementary colors.
(3) [Mn(CN)6]4- (4) [FeFS - (4) L'.'10 values for (A) is less than that of (B).
56. The complex that has highest crystal field splitting energy
51. Identify the correct trend given below:
(L'i.,) is
(Atomic Nos.: Ti: 22, Cr: 24 and Mo: 42)
(1) [Co(NH) /Hp)]C l3 (2) KJCoC1 4 ]
(1 ) of [Cr(Hp)J2+ > [Mo(HP)l+ and L'10 of
L'.'10
[Ti(HP)l+ > [Ti(HP\]2+ (4) ~[Co(CN\]
(2) of [Cr(HP\J2+ > [Mo(HP)l+ and L'.'10 of

L'.'10
[Ti(HP)l+ < [Ti(HP\ ]2+ 57. The difference in the number of unpaired electrons of a
(3) of [Cr(Hp\]2+ < [Mo(HP)l+ and L'.'10 of
L'.'10 metal ion in its high-spin and low-spin octahedral com-
[Ti(~O)l+ > [Ti(HP\ ]2+ plexes is two. T he metal ion is
(4) of [Cr(Hp)6]2+ < [Mo(HP) l+ and L'.'10 of
L'.'10 (1) N i2+ (2) Fe2+
[Ti(HP\ ]3+ < [Ti(Hp)6]2+ (3) Co2+ (4) Mn2+
52. The correct combinatio n is 58. The pair of metal ions that can give a spin-only magnetic
(1) [N i(CN)S- _ tetrahedral; [Ni(CO) ] - paramag- moment of 3.9 BM for the complex [M(HP\ ]Cl2 , is
4
netic ( I) V 2+ and Co2+ (2) v + and Fe +
2 2
(2) [NiClS- - paramagnetic; [Ni(CO)4 ] - tetrahedral (3) Co2+ and Fe2+ (4) Cr2+ and Mn2+
(3) [N iC 14 ]2- - square-planar; [Ni(CN) 4 ]2- - para-

magnetic 59. The metal d-orbitals that are directly facing the ligands in
(4) [N iC lS - - diamagnetic; [N i(CO)4 ] square planar ~ [Co(CN)6] are
(JEE Main 2018, Online) ( 1) dX)' and d , - y ,

X
53. The correct order of spin-only magnetic moments among

(4) dxy , d .,, and dyz
the following is (Atomic number: M n = 25, Co = 27,
Ni= 28, Z n= 30) (JEE Main 2019, January)
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60. The magnetic moment of an octahedral homoleptic ( I) (III) > (I) > (II) (2) (III) > (II) > (I)
Mn(II) complex is 5.9 BM. The suitable ligand for this (3) (II) > (I) > (III) (4) (I) > (II) > (III)
complex is
(1) ethylenediamine (2) CN-
66. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of
(3) Ncs- (4) co
[Fe(Hz0)6 ]C l2 and ~[NiC14], respectively, are
( I) -0.6L\ and -0.81'1,
61. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moment (2) -0.41'10 and -0.81'1,
of metal ions in the following low-spin complexes, (3) -2.41'10 and -1.21'1,
[V(CN)6 ] 4-, [Fe(CN)J4-, [Ru(NH 3\ ]3+, and [C r(NH)l+,
is (4) -0.41'10 and -1.21'1,
( 1) Cr2+ > Ru 3+ > Fe2+ > V2+ (JEE Main 2019, April)
(2) v + > Cr + > Ru + > Fe +
2 2 3 2 67. The incorrect statement is
(3) v + > Ru + > Cr + > Fe +
2 3 2 2
(1) the gemstone, ruby, has Cr3+ ions occupying the
(4) cr2+ > v 2+ > Ru3+ > Fez+ octahedral sites of bery l.
(JEE Main 2019,April) (2) the spin-only magnetic moment of
[Ni(NH3) 4 (Hz0)2]2+ is 2.83 BM.
62. The calculated spin-only magnetic moments (BM) of (3) the color of [CoCl(NH)J+ is violet as it absorbs
the anionic and cationic species of [Fe(Hp\]2 and the yellow light.
[Fe(CN)6] , respectively, are (4) the spin-only magnetic moments of [Fe(Hp\ ]2+
(I) 0 and 4 .9 (2) 2.84 and 5.92 and [Cr(HzO)l+ are nearly si milar.
(3) 4 .9 and 0 (4) 0 and 5.92 (JEE Main 2019,April)
(JEE Main 2019, April) 68. The complex ion that w ill lose its crystal fie ld stabiliza-
tion energy upon oxidation of its metal to +3 state is
63. The degenerate orbitals of [Cr(Hz0\]3+ are
(I)
(3)
dxz and dyz
d,, and dxz

(2)
(4)
dyz and d,,
dx'-y' and dxy

(Pheo • efB>o
<&2R5d)
and ignore pairing energy)
64. The correct statements among I to III are (I) [Co(phen)J2+ (2) [Ni(phen\]2+
(I) Valence bond theory cannot explain the color exhib- (3) [Zn(phen\] 2+ (4) [Fe(phen) l+
ited by transition metal complexes. (JEE Main 2019, April)
(II) Valence bond theory can predict quantitatively the
magnetic properties of transition metal complexes. 69. Complete removal of both the axia l ligands (along the
z-axis) from an octahedral complex leads to whic h of
(III) Valence bond theory cannot distinguish ligands as
the following splitting patterns? (relative orbita l ener-
weak and strong field ones.
gies not on scale).
(I) (II) and (III) only
(2) (I), (II) and (III)
(3) (I) and (III) only
(4) (I) and (II) only
65. Three complexes,
(I) [CoCl(NH3)sJ2+ -
- - dz2
dx2--;
(II) [Co(NH3\ Hp]3+

(3) E -d
xy
(III) [Co(NH)6]3+
absorb light in the v isible region. The correct order of the
wavele ngth of light absorbed by them is
1 = dxz,dyz
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70. In Fe(CO\, the Fe - C bond possesses (1) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and con-
( I ) n-character only. tains calcium.
(2) both a-and ncharacters. (2) Carboxypeptidase - A is an enzyme and contains
(3) ionic character. zinc.
(4) CY-character only. (3) Cyanocobalamin is B 12 and contains cobalt.
(AIEEE 2006) (4) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and con-
tains iron.
Topic 4: Bonding in Metal Carbonyls (AIEEE 2004)
71. [Co/CO\ ] displays 75. The correct match between Column I (metals) and
C olumn II (coordination compound(s)/enzyme(s)) is
( I) one Co-Co bond, four terminals CO and four bridg-
ing CO. Column I Column II
(2) one Co-Co bond, six terminals CO and two bridg- (Metals) (Coordination
ing CO. Compound(s)/Enzyme(s))
(3) no Co-Co bond, four terminals CO and four bridg- (A) Co (i) Wilkinson catalyst
ing CO.
(B) Zn (ii) Chlorophyll
(4) no Co-Co bond, six terminals CO and two bridging
(C) Rh (iii) Vitamin B 12
co.
(D) Mg (iv) Carbon ic anhydrase
72. Select the true statement from the following for metal ( I) (A)➔(iii); (B)➔(iv); (C)➔(i); (D)➔(ii)
carbonyls? (2) (A)➔( ii ); (B) ➔ (i); (C) ➔(iv); (D) ➔(iii)
(I) T he n back bonding strengthens M-C bond order as
(3) (A)➔(i); (B)➔(ii); (C)➔(iii); (D)➔(iv)
well as CO bond order.
(2) The n back bonding weakens M-C bond order as (4) (A)➔(iv); (B)➔(iii); (C)➔(i); (D)➔(i i)
well as CO bond order. (JEE Main 2019, January)

(3) The n back bonding weakens M- C bond order but
strengthens CO bond order.
76. The compound that inhibits the growth of tumors is
(4) The n back bonding strengthens M-C bond order (1) trans-[Pt(Cl)i<NH 3\ )
and weakens CO bond order.

(2) cis-[Pd(Cl\(NH 3) 2]
73. ~(CO) 10 is an organometallic compound due to the (3) cis-[Pt(Cl\(NH3) 2]
presence of
(4) trans-[Pd(C1) 2(NH3) 2]
(1) Mn - C bond. (2) Mn - Mn bond.
(3) Mn - 0 bond. (4) C- 0 bond. (JEE Main 2019, April)
(JEE Main 2019, January) 77. The compound u sed in the treatment of lead poisoning is
(1) D-penicillamine
Topic 5: Importance and Applications of
Coordination Compounds (2) desferrioxamine B
(3) Cis-platin
74. Coordination compound have great importance in bio-
(4) EDTA
logical systems. In this context whic h of the following
statements is incorrect? (JEE Main 2019, April)
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78. How many of the following molecules are given as spe- 82. The oxidation number of the central atom in the complex
cial name in the nomenclature of complexes, when they [Ru/RC02)/HP)2](SOJ3 is _ _ __
act as ligands?
NH3, PH3, Hp, 0 2, N2, NO, CO, and (CH3\0. 83. How many of the following compounds are not sp3
hybridized but still have tetrahedral structure?
79. The total number of compounds formed by monochlori-
nation of cis-[Co(NH)4C12] will be _ _ __ MnO~ ,Cro;- ,so;- ,Mno;- ,NiCl;- ,[Ni(C0)4 ],
80. How many of the following complexes are optically Cr02 Cl 2 ,Po!- ,[Ni(CN) 4 ]2- and Sio:-
active?
84. Oxidation sate of cobalt in the compound Co/C0)8 is
[Pt(NH2 CH(Ph)C00)2 ],[Be(gly)2],[Cr(en)3]Cl3, [Co(Gly)
(NH3)(Hp)C1Br], cis-[Co(NH3)4 Cl2], KJFe(CN\], cis-
85. The number of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3) 3(N0 3\ ]
[Co(NH)/en)i]Cl3, [Fe(8iO)sCCN)]Cl2, trans-[CrBrCl is _ _ __
(NH3\(en)]Cl, [Zn(NH2CH(Ph)COO)i]
81. The total number of stereoisomers of the complex
[Fe(Hp)3{(P(CH3)(Ph)(H)}CIBr] will be _ _ __
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Haloalkanes and
CH APTER 24
Haloarenes

Topic 1: Nomenclature and Methods of Preparation (1) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(2) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
1. Which of the following compound is not chiral?
(3) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
(1) 1-C hloropentane
(4) l-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
(2) 3-Chloro-2-methyl pentane
(AIEEE 2006)
(3) I-C hloro-2-methyl pentane
(4) 2-Chloropentane 6. The reaction of toluene with C l2 in presence of FeCl3
(AIEEE 2004) gives predominantly
2. Alkyl iodides can be prepared by (I) m-chlorotoluene.
(2) benzoyl chloride.
(3) benzyl chloride.
Acetone (4) o-andp-chlorotoluene.
a
(AIEEE 2007)
(3) R-OH + 12 ➔ RI+ H 2 O
Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced
(4) CH 4 + 12 ➔ CH 3 1 with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained
is diazotised a nd then heated with cuprous bromide. The
3. Reaction of one molecule ofHB r w ith one molecule of I , reaction mixture so formed contains
3-butadiene at 40 °C gives predominantly (1) mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes.
(1) 3-bromobutene under kinetically controlled condi- (2) mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes.
tions. (3) mixture of o- and p-bromoanilines.
(2) l -bromo-2-butene under thermodynamically con-
(4) mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes.
trolled conditi ons.
(AIEEE 2008)
(3) 3-bromobutene under thermodynamically con-
trolled conditi ons. 8. Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with
(4) l -bromo-2-butene under kinetically controlled con- molecular mass 72 u gives only one isomer of monosub-
ditions. stituted alky halide?
(AIEEE 2005) ( 1) Tertiary butyl chloride (2) Neopentane
4. Fluorobenzene (C6Hl) can be synthesised in the laboratory (3) Isohexane (4) Neohexane
(AIEEE 2012)
(I) by heating phenol with HF and KF.
(2) from a niline by diazotisation followed by heating 9. The major product obtained in the photo catalysed bromi-
the diazonium salt with HBF4 • nation of2-methylbutane is
(3) by direct fluorination of benzene with F2 gas. ( 1) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane.
(4) by reacting bromobenzene w ith NaF solution. (2) l-bromo-3-methylbutane.
(AIEEE 2006) (3) 2-bromo-3-methy lbutane.
5. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is (4) 2-bromo-2-methy lbutane.
Cl
6., 10. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by

(1)
(2)
Sandmeyer's reaction.
Finkelstein reaction.
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------ JEE MAIN - CHEMISTRY
(3) Swarts reaction.

6H,CH, CH2CHCH3
(3
(4) Free radical fluo1i nation.
(1) (2)
11. What is the major product expected from the fo llowing ,/,?
reaction?
CH2CH2CH2Br CH=CHCH3
Q _D
_•CI-
Where Dis an isotope of hydrogen.
(3)
6 (4)
¢ Br
(I) OCH3 (2) O CH3
15. Which hydrogen in compound (E) is easily replaceable
Cl Cl
during bromination reaction in presence of light?
D H
OD
CH3 -CH 2 -CH= CH 2
3
( ) C~L Cl
(4)
H
CH3
(1) a-Hydrogen
8 y f3
(E)
(2)
a
;<-Hydrogen
(3) &Hydrogen (4) /3-Hydrogen
12. 3-Methyl-pent-2-ene on reaction with HBr in presence
of peroxide forms an addition product. The number of 16. The major product of the following reaction is
possible stereoisomers for the product is
(1)
(3)
two.
six.
(2) four.
(4) zero.
p-OH (ii) KOH (ale.)
0
13. T he major product of the fo llowing reaction is
6
(1) 0 - 0H (2)
HO
0
0
Bcjh,
(3) (4) 0
(I) 6 B r
Br
(2) ¢ 0 0
Br Topic 2: Physical Properties and Chemical

Reactions
(3) u
~ r
(4) u
~Ir

17. SN l reaction is feasible in
(1) ~ C l + KOH ----+
Cl
(2) N + KOH -----.
14. The major product of the fo llowing reaction is
(3) @ - c 1 + KOH----+
(4) @-CH2CH2CI + KOH ----+
(AIEEE 2002)
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HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES CQ-135
18. Bottles containing C6H5I and C6H5 CH) lost their origi- 24. Which of the following reactions wi ll yield 2,2-dibromo-
nal labels. They were labelled A and B for testing. A and propane?
B were separately taken in test tubes and boiled with
(I) CH 3 - C = CH +2HBr ~
NaOH solution. The end solution in each tube was made
acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3 solu- (2) CH3CH=CHBr+HBr~
tion was added. Substance B gave a yellow precipitate.
Which one of the following statements is true for this (3) CH = CH+ 2HBr~
experiment?
(4) CH 3 - CH = CH 2 + HBr ~
(1) A was C6 H/ (AIEEE 2007)
(2) A was C6H5CHi1,
(3) B was C6H/ 25. Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing
SN2 reactivity?
(4) Addition ofHNO3 was unnecessary.
(AIEEE 2003) (1) RCH 2 X > R 3 CX > R 2 CHX
(2) RCH 2 X > R 2 CHX > R 3 CX
19. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3Mgl followed
by treatment with a saturated solution ofNH4 Cl gives (3) R 3 CX > R 2 CHX > RCH 2 X
(1) acetone. (4) R 2 CHX > R 3 CX > RCH 2 X
(2) acetyl iodide. (where X = halogen)
(3) 2-methyl-2-propanol. (AIEEE 2007)
(4) acetamide.
26. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete
(AIEEE 2004)
stereochemical inversion during a SN2 reaction, is
20. Which one of the following methods is neither meant for (I) (C2H5\CHC1 (2) (CH) 3CCI
the synthesis nor for separation of amines? (3) (CH3) 2 CHC1 (4) CH 3 CI
(I) Hinsberg method (AIEEE 2008)
(2) Hofmann method
27. Consider the following bromides:
(3) Wurtz reaction
(4) Curtius reaction ~ /'yMe Me , , / ' y Me
(AIEEE 2005)
Me Br I I
Br Br
21. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give (I) (II) (111)
(1) alkenes. The correct order of SNl reactivity is
(2) alkyl copper halides. (1) I> II> III (2) II > III> I
(3) alkanes.
(3) II> I> III (4) III> II> I
(4) alkenyl halides.
(AIEEE 2010)
(AIEEE 2005)
28. A solution of (-)-1-chloro-l-phenylethane in toluene
22. Elimination of bromine from 2-bromobutane results in racemises slowly in the presence of a small amount of
the formation of SbC15, due to the formation of
(1) equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene. (I) carbene. (2) carbocation.
(2) predominantly 2-butene. (3) free radical. (4) carbanion.
(3) predominantly I-butene. (JEE Main 2013)
(4) predominantly 2-butyne.
29. Compound (A), C8 H9Br, gives a white precipitate when
(AIEEE 2005) warmed with alcoholic AgNO3• Oxidation of(A) gives an
23. Reaction of trans-2-phenly-1-bromocyclopentane with acid (B), C 8Hp4 • (B) easily fo rms anhydride on heating.
Identify the compound (A).
alcoholic KOH produces
(1) 4-phenylcyclopentene.
C2Hs oC:B•
CC
(2) 2-phenylcyclopentene.
(3) 1-phenylcyclopentene. c1) c2) I
/0-
(4) 3-phenylcyclopentene. Br
(AIEEE 2006)
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(4) Y CH,B, (4) c1--@ -?H-@-c1 Cl

CH3 34. Which one of the following reagents is not suitable for
(JEE Main 2013) the elimination reaction?
30. In S~ reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the /"----._/ Br - ~

following compounds (1) Nal
CH 3 Cl, CH 3 CH 2 Cl, (CH) 2 CHC1and (CH 3 ) 3CC1 is (2) NaOEt/EtOH
(I) CH 3 Cl > (CH 3 \CHC1 > CH 3CH2 Cl > (CH 3) 3 CC1 (3) NaOH!Hp
(2) CH 3 Cl > CH 3 CH 2 Cl > (CH) 2CHC1 > (CH 3\CC1 (4) NaOH/H2 0 -EtOH
(3) CH 3 CH2 C l > CH 3 Cl > (CH 3\CHC1 > (CH 3) 3 CC1
35. Bromination of cyclohexene under conditions given
(4) (CH3 ) 2 CHC1 > CH 3CH2 Cl > CH3Cl > (CH 3\CC1
below yields:
31. The maj or organic compound formed by the reaction of

1,1, 1-trichloroethane with silver powder is
( 1) acetylene (2) ethene Br
0 Br,Jhv
(3) 2-butyne
32. For the compounds

(4) 2-butene
(1)
C( Br
6
Br
(3)¢
CH3 Cl, CH3 Br, CH 3I and CHl, Br
the correct order of increasing C - halogen bond length is

(I) CHl < CH 3C l < CH3Br < CH} (4)
(2) CHl < CH 3Br < CH 3Cl < CH}

Br
(3) CHl < CH 3 I < CH3B r < CH 3 C l
(4) CH 3 Cl < CH 3 Br < CHl < CH}
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-1) halides for the SNl reaction is
33. Chlorobenzne reacts with trichloroacetalde hyde in the CH 3 CHCH2 CH 3 CH 3 CH 2 CH2C l p-H 3CO- C6 H4- CH2 Cl
presence of H 2S04 as shown below: I
Cl
~ Cl O
2 l.;:) + H-~-CCl3 (I) (II) (III)
(I ) I < II <III (2) II < III <I
The maj or product formed is (3) III < I <II (4) II < I <III
Cl (JEE Main 2017, Offiine)
(1 ) c1--@ -i- @-c1 37. Which of the following, upon treatment with tert-BuONa
fol lowed by addition of bromine water, fai ls to decolour-
Cl
ize the colour of bromine?
Cl
(2) c1--@ -i -@-c1

CH2CI
(I) cY l 0
(2) ~
Ut
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HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES
(3) 001, The compound I is

(1) CH2- CH-CH3
I
Cl
I
Cl
C5H5 Cl
(4) I
(2) CH3- C - CH3
r I
(JEE Main 2017, Offline) Cl
(3) CI -CH-CH2- CH3
38. Which of the following compounds will not undergo I
Friede l Craft's reaction with benzene? Cl
(1) ~ C l (2) ~ Cl
(4) CH2- CH2- CH2
I I
Cl Cl
(3)
~Cl
- II
0
(4) A COCI
a
Br
39. T he major product of the following reaction is
NaOMe
CH3 MeOH
I C2 H50Na
0
C5H5CH2- C - CH2- CH3
6
I C2H50H
Br
(1) (2)
(1) C6 H5CH2- C = CH2
I
CH2CH 3 ~ /OMe ~ OMe
(2) C6 H5CH=C-
I
CH2CH3
(3) V (4) V
CH3
(3) C6 H5CH2- C = CHCH3
a·,
I 43. Which of the following will most readily give the
CH3
dehydroha logenation product?
CH3
(1) Br
I (2)
~
u ·,
(4) C6 H5CH2- C - CH2CH3
I
OC2Hs
(4) Br
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-I) (3)
~ Ph
KOH, CH30H (JEE Main 2018, Online)
C~CH C~CHC~C~ - - -
1 I heat
44. The major product formed in the following reaction is
Br Br
( I)
(2)
(3)
(4)
CH 2=CHCH=CHCH 2CH 3
CH2=CHC1½CH=CHCH 3
CH 3CH=CH-CH=CHCH3
CH 3CH=C=CHCH 2CH 3 Cl ~
A Cl
Na0CH3 (1 eq.)
Heat
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-I) CH3
41. In the following reaction sequence:

KOH(aq.) II (i) CH 3MgBr III
(ii) H201H'
Anhy.ZnCt, + Conc.HCI ) gives turbidity immediately
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(3)
~ Cl
CH3
(4)
c,4' CH3
Ph
y Br
KOH ale- (excess)
~

( 1) Ph~
45. T he total number of optically active compounds formed
in the following reaction is
(2) PhA)
(1) two
(3) six
(2)
(4)
four
zero
46. T he most polar compound among the following is

(3) PhD
(4) P h ~
F F
( I) ~ F (2) ~ 49. The major product of the following reaction is
CH30 ~ ~ (i) CIJCCl4
F
::::::,,._ I (ii) AICl3 (anhyd.)
A. Cl
(4) ~
F
47. T he maj or product of the following reaction is

Br
~ KOH
'" f"' ~
NH,
(1) (2)

(3) OH (4) OH
SH2CH3
(JEE M ain 2018, Online)
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HALOALKANE S AND HALOAREN E S CQ-139
(1) CH3CH2C=CH2 53. Which of the following potential energy (PE) diagrams
I represents the SNl reaction?
C0 2CH2CH3
C02CH 2CH3
I t --y~---------
(2) CH3C=CHCH3 (1) PE ./ ~
WH2CH3
Progress of reaction _.
(3) H 3C ...,..i ....,.OCH2CH3
COOCH2CH3
t -----rcn-------
(2) PE _/ \_
?CH2CH3
(4) H 3CH2C ...,..i ....,.C02CH2CH3
CH3
(JEE Main 2019, January) (3)

t
PE
-·f\:n··~---=---
J - ~
51. The maj or product of the following reaction is
CH - CH - C H - C H -~ ( i)~ c. - - >
K_OH_al_
3 2 I I 2 ( ii) NaNH 2 in liq. NH,
Br Br t
(4) PE
(I) CH 3CH = C = CH 2
CH -CH -C H -C H Progress of reaction _.
(2) 3 2 I I 2
NH2 NH2
(3) CH 3 CH = CHCH2NH2 54. Increasing rate of SNI reaction in the following
compounds is
(4) CH 3CH 2C = CH
52. Increasing order ofreactivity of the following compounds
for SNI substitution is
CH3 I
u
>-CH2-CI
(II) MeO~
(D CH3
(II) H3C~ CI
(IV ) VCI
(1 ) (II) < (III) < (IV) < (I)

(I) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)
(2) (II) < (III) < (I) < (IV)
(2) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)
(3) (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
(3) (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
(4) (I) < (II) < (IV) < (III) (4) (I) < (II) < (IV) < (III)
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55. T he maj or product of the fo llowing reaction is 58. Which one of the fo llowing is likely to g ive a precipitate
w ith AgNO3 solution?
CH3
I CH30H
( I) CH2 = CH - Cl (2) CCl4
CH -C-CHCH
3 I I 3
H Br (3) CHCl3 (4) (CH3) 3CCI
59. Assertion: Vinyl ha lides do not undergo nucleophilic
( 1)
su bstitu ti on easily.
Reason: Even though the intermediate carbocation is
stabilized by loosely held n-electron s, the cleavage is
difficult because of strong bonding.
(2) (I) Assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is
(2) Assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is
(3) not the explanation for the assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(4) Topic 3: Polyhalogen Compounds
60. The compound formed o n heating c hlorobenzene w ith

(JEE Main 2019, April) chloral in the presence concentrated sulphuric acid is
56. The maj or product 'Y' in the following reaction is (1) gammexene (2) hexachloroethane
(3) Freon (4) DDT
(AIEEE 2004)
EtONa )o X~ Y
ye,
Heat 61. The structure of the major product formed in the fo llow-
ing reaction
I l '-
(1) (2) , NaCN
DMF
is
HO
(4)
Br
,
I l . ._
(I) Y CN I
CN

57. T he increasing o rder of nucleophilicity of the fo llowing
nucleophiles is
(I) CH 3co; (II) Hp
(III) CH 3SO; (IV) Off
( 1) (I) < (IV) < (III) < (II)

(2) (II) < (III) < (IV) < (I)
(3) (IV) < (I) < (III) < (II)
(4)~
y CN
(4) (II) < (III) < (I) < (IV)

(JEE Main 2019, April) (AIEEE 2006)
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HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES CQ-141
62. Which of the following statements about the depletion of 64. Which of these statements is not true for the isomeric
ozone layer is correct? compounds ethy lene chloride and ethylidene chloride?
(I) The problem of ozone depletion is less serious at (I) Both react w ith aqueous KOH to give the same
poles because NO2 solidifies and is not available for product.
consuming c 1O· radicals. (2) Both react with alcoholic KOH to give the same
(2) The problem of ozone depletion is more serious at product.
poles because ice crystals in the clouds over poles act (3) They are derivatives of ethane.
as catalyst for photochemical reactions involving the (4) They respond to Beilstein 's test.
decomposition of ozone by c 1· and c 1O· radicals.
(3) Freons, chlorofluorocarbons, are inert chemically; 65. C hloropicrin is
they do not react with ozone in stratosphere. (1) C2H 5C(NO)2SH (2) CCl3CHO
(4) Oxides of nitrogen also do not react with ozone in (3) CCl3N O2 (4) CCl3NO3
stratosphere.
63. The trade name oftrichloroethylene is

(1) Freon. (2) Westron.
(3) Westrosol. (4) DDT.

66. Total number of compounds among the following with 68. The number of isomers (including stereoisomers) that
zero dipole moment is _ _ _ __ could be obtained by replacing two hydrogen atoms of
propane by two chlorine atoms is _ _ _ __
CC14 , CH3CI, CH2Cl2 , CHCl3, o-dichlorobenzene,
m-dichlorobenzene, p-dichlorobenzene, benzyl chloride, 69. The number of monochloro derivatives obtained when
benzyl dichloride, benzotrichloride. 3-methylheptane is subj ected to free-radical chlorination
is _ _ _ __
67. The number of chiral isomers that are possible for
2-chloro-3-bromobutan e is _ _ __ 70. The number of chloro derivatives possible when chlorine
is passed through boiling toluene is _ _ _ __
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Alcohols, Phenols
CH APTER 25
and Ethers

Topic 1 : Alcohols (3)
1. Following reaction (CH3\ CBr + Hp ➔ (CH 3\COH +

HBr is an example of
(1) elimination reaction.
(2) free radical substitution. (4)
(3) nucleophilic substitution.
(4) electrophilic substitution.
(AIEEE 2002)
(AIEEE 2004)
2. Maximum dehydration takes place that of
5. The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into pent-3-en-
6 0H 60H
0 0 2-one is
( 1) acidic permanganate.
(I) (2) (2) acidic dichromate.
(3) chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid.
(4) pyridinium chloro-chromate.
(AIEEE 2005)
6. Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give

( 1) a mixture of anisole and Mg(OH)Br.
OH
(AIEEE 2002) (2) a mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br.
(3) a mixture of toluene and Mg(OH)Br.
3. During dehydration of a lcohols to alkenes by heating
(4) a mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br.
w ith cone. H 2 SO4 the initiation step is
(AIEEE 2006)
(1) protonation of a lcohol molecule.
(2) formation of carbocation. 7. In the following sequence ofreactions,
(3) elimination of water. A Mg B HCHO C H2 0
ether
D
(4) formation of an ester.
(AIEEE 2003) the compound D is
(1) butanal. (2) n-buty l a lcoho l.
4. Among the following compound which can be dehy-
drated very easily is (3) n-propyl alcohol. (4) propanal.
(AIEEE 2007)
8. From amongst the following alcohols, the one that would

react fastest with cone. HCl and anhydrous ZnC12 is
( 1) 1-butano l.
(2) 2-butanol.
(3) 2-methylpropan-2-ol.
(4) 2-methylpropanol.
(AIEEE 2010)
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9. An unknown alcohol is treated w ith the "Lucas reagent" 14. The product of the reaction given below is:
to determine whether the alcohol is primary, secondary
or tertiary. W hich a lcohol reacts fastest and by what (i) NBS/hv X
mechanism? (ii) H2 0/K2 C03
( I) Tertiary alcohol by SN!
(2)
(3)
Secondary alcohol by SN2
Tertiary alcohol by SN2 (2) r7
y
(4) Secondary alcohol by SNI
(JEE Main 2013)
10. In the hydroboration-ox idation reaction of propene with
diborane, 1½02 and NaOH , the organic compound formed
(3) y
r ' I OH
(4) Qo
is (JEE Main 2016, Offline)
(1 ) CH 3CHpH (2) CH 3CHOHCH 3
15. Bourveault- B lanc reduction reaction involves
(3) CH 3CH2CHpH (4) (CH)3COH
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-1) ( I) reduction of an acyl halide w ith H/ Pd.
(2) reduction of an anhydride with LiAIH4 •
11. Which one of the following stateme nts is not correct? (3) reduction ofan ester with Na/C 2HpH.
(1) Alcohols are weaker acids than water. (4) reduction of a carbonyl compound with Na/Hg and
(2) Acid strength of alcohols decreases in the following HCI.
order: (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-I)
RCHpH > ~CHOH > R 3COH
(3) Carbon-oxygen bond length in methanol, CH p H is 16. The major product formed in the following reaction is
shorter than that of C - 0 bond length in phenol. PCC
OCOCH3
(Pyridinium
/ 0"- chlorochromate)
(4) The bond angle C H in methanol is I 08.9°.
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2) CHCl3
HO
12. @ -CH2 - CH= CH2 on mercuration - demercuration OH
0
produces the maj or product: (I)
CH2- CIH - CH3

(1) 0
@- OH
OH
(2) @ - CH2 -CH2- CH2 - OH H
0
(2)
(3) @ - CH2 - 7 H - 7 H2
OH OH
HO
(4 ) @ - CH2- COOH OH
0
OCOCH3
13. In the Victor-Meyer's test, the colour given by I 0 , 2° and (3)
3° alcohols are, respectively,
(1) red, colourless, blue. (2) red, blue, colourless. 0
(3) colourless, red, blue. (4) red, blue, violet. OH
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3) H
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ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
Topic 2: Phenols
(4)
21. Picric acid is
HO C00H
OH C00H
0
( I)
@NO, (2)
@OH
17. Which of the following compounds w ill most readily be
O,N*NO,
OH C00H
dehydrated to give alkene under acidic condition?
(1)
(2)
(3)
1-Pentanol
4-Hydroxypentan-2-one
3-Hydroxypentan-2-one
(3) (4)
@NH,
N02
(4) 2-Hydroxycyclopentanone
(AIEEE 2002)
22. Identify the end product in the given reaction:
18. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following
transformation?
OH
(1)0
I S03H OH
CH 3 - CH = CH - CH 2 - CH - CH 3
(1)
(3)
j,
CH 3 -CH =CH -CH 2 -CO 2 H
Tollens' reagent
CrO2Cl/ CS2
(2)
(4)
I/ NaOH
Alkaline KMnO4
~
0Na
OH
(2)
0 OH
OH
OH
(3)
0 (4) OOH I
0Na
I
19. The following compound CH 3 - CH 2 - C - CH 3 cannot
be prepared from I 23. The structure of the compound that gives a tribromo
Ph derivative on treatment with bromine water is
(1) CH3CH2COCH3 + PhMgX
(2)
(3)
(4)
PhCOCH2CH3 + CH3 MgX
PhCOCH3 + CH3CH2MgX
HCHO + PhCH(CH)CH2MgX
(l)
6
CH3
OH
(2) cSH
Q
CH3 OH
20. Consider the following reactions:
A
Ag2O
ppt
NaBH
4
ZnCl
2
Turbidity
(3)
6 (4)
OH
B~ C cone. HCI within
(AIEEE 2006)
5 minutes
'A' is
( I) CH = CH (2) CH3 - C = C - CH3
24 • o ~HCHCl + Na0H - - - O O Na+
(4) CH2 = CH2 3
(3) CH 3 - C = CH
CHO
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T he electrophile involved in the above reaction is 31. The major product of the fo llowing reaction is
+
(1) dichloromethyl cation (CHCli). ~ OH
(2)
(3)
dichlorocarbene (:CC12).
trichloromethyl anion (CClJ.

~OH (i) !SCO3
(ii) CH3I(1eq.)
~
+
(4) formyl cation (CHO). (1)
(AIEEE 2006) OH
00
25. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric
acid and then with concentrated nitric acid, gives (2)
,/,?
cc
(I) 2,4 ,6-trinitrobenzene. (2) o-nitrophenol.
(3) p-nitrophenol. (4) nitrobenzene.
(AIEEE 2008) (3)
,/,?
26. T he major product obtained on interaction of phenol with ~
~
sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide is
(1) benzoic acid. (2) salicyla ldehyde. (4)
,/,?
(3) salicylic acid. (4) phthalic acid. OCH3
(AIEEE 2009)
27. Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and
KBr03 • The major product obtained in the above reaction is 32. Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the pres-
(1) 3-bromophenol. (2) 4-bromophenol. ence of NaOH to form product A. A reacts with Br2 to
(3) 2,4,6-tribromophenol. (4) 2-bromophenol. form product B. A and B are, respectively
(AIEEE 2011)
28. Ortho-nitrophenol is less soluble in water than p- and
m-nitrophenols because
(1) o-nitrophenol is more volati le in steam than those
of m- and p-isomers.
(2) o-nitrophenol shows intramolecular H-bonding.
(3) o-nitrophenol shows intermolecular H-bonding.
(4) melting point of o-nitrophenol is lower than those
of m- and p-isomers.
(AIEEE 2012)
29. Which one of the fo llowing substituents at para-position
is most effective in stabilising the given phenoxide ion? and ~
rrr:OCH, I
Br 0
OH
(1)
(3)
- CH3
- COCH3
(2)
(4)
- OCH3
-CHpH
4
( ) ~ OCH, aa:''C\~OCH
,
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4) 0 0
30. Which one of the following compounds wi ll not be solu-
ble in sodium bicarbonate?
33. The major product of the fo llowing reaction is
(l ) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol
0
(2) Benzoic acid II
~ (i) CICH2CH2 CCI
(3) o-Nitrophenol
~ (ii) AICl3 (anhyd.)
(4) Benzene sulphonic acid
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4) MeO OH
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ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS CQ-147
(1)
~ ( 1) (III) < (II) < (I) < (IV)
(II) < (III) < (IV) < (I)
MeO AAr\A
O 0
(2)
(3) (IV) < (I) < (III) < (II)
(2) (4) (II) < (III) < (I) < (IV)
~ (JEE Main 2019, January)

MeoAAO)
(3) OMe CH3 OH
~
uo~o
6::::::,....
(i)aq. NaOH
(ii) CH3I
34. The products formed in the reaction of cumene with 0 2

followed by treatment with dil. HCI are

0 CH3
0
(2) and CH3 - OH
::::::,....
6
OH
(3)
OH
(4) 60H HC;(CH aod

3 3 (2)
h,
y Br
35. The increasing order of the pK. values of the following

compounds is OH
OH OH OH
(4) A
6¢ N02
¢OMe
Br
Br¥Br
Br

(I) (II) (Ill) (IV)
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38. An organic compound 'X' showing the following OH
solubility profile is
water
- - - - - - - - ; • insoluble
(3)
y
A0oH
and formic acid
OH
5% HCI
- insoluble
OH
x-
10% NaOH
soluble (4)
y
A 00H
and formic acid
10% NaHCO3
insoluble Cl

(1) o-toluidine (2) oleic acid
(3) m-cresol (4) benzamide Topic 3: Ethers
(JEE Main 2019,April) 41. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having same
39. The organic compound that gives following qualitative molecular formula. This is due to
analysis is ( 1) dipolar character of ethers.
(2) alcohols hav ing resonance structures.
Test Inference (3) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers.
(I) Di!. HCl Insoluble (4) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in a lcohols.
(II) NaOH solution Soluble (AIEEE 2003)
(III) Br/water Decolorization 42. The increasing order of the boiling points for the fol low-
ing compounds is
OH (I) (IV) < (III) < (I) < (II)

(4)
O
(2)
(3)
(4)
(III) < (II) < (I) < (IV)
(II) < (III) < (IV) < (I)
(III) < (IV) < (II) < (I)
40. The major products of the following reaction are
43. 2-Chloro-2-methylpentane on reaction with sodium
OH methoxide in methanol yields:
¢ Cl
(i) CHCl;y'aq.NaOH
(ii) HCHO, NaOH (cone.)
(iii) H3o• (I)
CH3
I
C2 H5 CH2C -
I
CH3
OCH3 (II)
OH
(1)
◊COOH aod methanol (I) (I) and (II) (2) All of these
(3) (I) and (III) (4) (III) only
Cl (JEE Main 2016, Offline)
OH
44. The major product formed in the fol lowing reaction is
(2)
◊COOH aod methaool ~o/HI
OH ~o~ ~
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ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS CQ-149
cc> (2) OCOH

oc,
(I)
(3)
OH
(4) OCOH ,,:;:P OH
o. . . . .
(JEE Main 2018, Offline) HI (excess) ),
A
45. On treatment of the following compound with a strong
acid, the most susceptible site for bond cleavage is
NC 0--<
~
(1)
(3)
Cl - 02
C4 - 05
~o~o~
2 5
(2) 02 - C3
(4) 05 - C6
(1)
NC x~
r : r OH
r : r OH
OH
(2)
NC
2' OH
r : rl
X.
(3) (4)
46. The major product in the fo llow ing conversion is:
CH30
-0 _ CH-CH - CH3
HBr(Excess)
Heat ?
NC I NCXI

49. What will be the major product when m-cresol is reacted
with propargyl bromide (HC = C - CH2 Br) in presence
( I) HO -~ o CH2 -CH-CH of ~co3 in acetone?
I
Y l1
_ 3
0 OH
~
Br
(2)
(I)
(2) H O_
- o ~ CH-CH
I 2
-CH3
CH3 CH3
Br
OH OH
(3) CH3 0 - _o ~ CH-CH

I 2
-CH3
Br (3)
~
CH3
(4) CQ
(4) CH30 - o
_
~ CH2 -CH-CH
I (JEE Main 2019, April)
Br
50. The product of the reaction is
CH3
OCH3 O 0 + HBr _____..
Y
Cone. HBr (excess)
Heat
(1)
OCH
, OH (2)
O CH, Br
CH=CH2
Br OH
OH
OCH
, O CH,
Y
N Br ~
(1)
y
Br-CHCH3
(2)
~
Br-CHCH3
(3) (4)
/?'
Br
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51. How many ethers will be formed when a mixture of ethyl 58. Among the following, the number of alcohols that will
and methyl alcohols is treated with cone. H2SO/ not show iodoform test is
52. Neglecting stereoisomerism, how many alcohols and CH3CHpH, CHpH, (CH)3COH, (CH3)zCHOH, CH3
ethers can be drawn for the formula C4 H 10O?
CHOHCH2CH3, CH3CH2C8zC8zOH, CH3C8zCHpH,
53. Among the following, the number of ethers that can be
prepared by Williamson's synthesis is _ _ __ (C2H5) 2CHOH, CH3CHOHCH(CH3)z
59. How many different Grignard reagents can be directly

used to prepare the following alcohol along with other
suitable compounds?
54. Among the following, the number of compounds that will

undergo haloform reaction is _ _ __
60. How many different alkenes are formed in total when
the following alkene is subjected to dehydration with
sulphuric acid?
55. The number of compounds among the following that are
less acidic than phenol is _ _ __
H3C~ CH3
m-cresol, o-cresol, water, p -cresol, methyl alcohol, ethyl
OH
alcohol, 2,4-dimethylphenol, dimethylcarbinol, p-ethyl-
phenol.
56. The total number of structural isomeric alcohols having

the molecular formula C5H,p is _ _ __
57. Find the total moles of Grignard reagent used for above
conversion
(i) H3C-Mg-Br (excess)
(ii)H20
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Aldehydes, Ketones and
CH APTER 26
Carboxylic Acids

Topic 1 : Aldehydes and Ketones 7. The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to
compounds I - V is
1. Acety lene reacts with hypochlorous acid to form
(I) HCHO (II) CH 3COCH 3
(1) Cl2CHCHO (2) C lCH 2COOH
(III) PhCOCH 3 (IV) PhCOPh
(3) CH 3COC1 (4) C lCH 2CHO
( 1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < II < III < I
(AIEEE 2002) (3) IV< III <II <I (4) III <IV <ll < I
2. On v igorous oxidation by permanganate solution (AIEEE 2006)
(CH 3\C = CHCH 2CHO gives
8. Among the following the one that g ives positive iodo-
(I) (CH) 2CO and OHCCH1 CHO form test upon reaction with 12 and NaOH is
(2) ( 1) CH 3C8iCH(OH)CH 2CH 3

(CH3)2C - CHCH 2CHO
I I (2) C6H 5 CH 2CHp H
OH OH
(3) (CH) 2CO and OHCCH2COOH
(4) (CH) 2CO and CH 2(COOH)2 (3) H C ~ C H,
3
(AIEEE 2002)
3. The IUPAC name of CH 3COCH(CH 3\ is OH

(4) PhCH(OH)CH 3
( 1) isopropylmethyl ketone
(AIEEE 2006)
(2) 2-methyl-3-butanone
(3) 4-methylisopropyl ketone 9. Which of the following on heating w ith aqueous KOH,
(4) 3-methyl-2-butanone produces acetaldehyde?
(AIEEE 2003) ( 1) CH 3COC1
4. Which one of the following reduced with zinc and hydro- (3) CHF 1CH2Cl (4) CH 3CHC12
chloric acid to g ive the corresponding hydrocarbon? (AIEEE 2009)
(1 ) Ethyl acetate (2) Butan-2-one 10. In Cannizzaro reaction given below
(3) Acetamide (4) Acetic acid
2PhCHO ow PhCH 2OH + Phc o ;
(AIEEE 2004)
the slowest step is
5. Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethy lamine in the
presence of catalytic amount of an acid forms a compound ( 1) the attack of OW at the carbonyl group.
if water during the reaction is continuously removed. The (2) the transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group.
compound formed is generally known as (3) the abstraction of proton from the carboxylic group.
(1) a Schiff's base. (2) an enamine. (4) the deprotonation of PhCHp H.
(3) an imine (4) an amine. (AIEEE 2009)
(AIEEE 2005)
11. Trichloroacetaldehyde was subjected to Cannizzaro's
6. The compound having least solubility in water is
reaction by using NaOH. The mixture of the products
(I) methanol. (2) acetaldehyde. contains sodium trichloroacetate and another compound.
(3) acetone. (4) acetophenone. The other compound is
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(1) trichloromethanol. 17. The major product of the reaction

(2) 2,2,2-trichloropropanol.
(3) chloroform.
(4) 2,2,2-trichloroethanol.
(AIEEE 2011)
12. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde

as one of the products. This confirms the presence of
(1) a viny l group.
(1)0
>=< (4)b
(2) an isopropyl group. H OH
(3) an acetylenic triple bond.
(4) two ethy lenic double bonds.
(AIEEE 2011) (3)
H
13. Silver mirror test is given by which one of the following
compounds? (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-1)
(1) Acetone (2) Formaldehyde 18. Which of the following reagents reacts differently w ith
(3) Benzophenone (4) Acetaldehyde HCHO, CH 3CHO and CH 3COCH/
(AIEEE 2011)
(1) HCN (2) NH/il\
14. Iodoform can be prepared from all except (3) N HpH
(1) ethyl methyl ketone.
19. Which is the major product formed when acetone is
(2) isopropyl alcohol.
heated with iodine and potassium hydroxide?
(3) 3-methyl-2-butanone.
(I) Iodoacetone (2) Acetic acid
(4) isobutyl alcohol.
(3) Iodoform (4) Acetophenone
(AIEEE 2012)
15. In the given transformation, which of the following is the
20. Tischenko reaction is a modification of
most appropriate reagent?
(1) Aldo! condensation.
CH= CHCOCH 3 (2) Claisen condensation.
HO 0 Reagent
(3)
(4)
Cannizzaro reaction.
Pinacol-pinacolon reaction.
21. The following reaction
0
OH
Anhyd. ~ OH
+ HCl+ HCN
(1) NH 2NH2, OW (2) Zn- Hg/HC I ZnCl2 ~ CHO
(3) Na (liq. NH3) (4) NaBH 4
is known as
(AIEEE 2012)
( 1) Perkin reaction.
16. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of (2) Gattermann - Koch Formylation.
R-CH2- OH ➔ R- CHO is (3) Kolbe's reaction.
( I) KMnO4 (4) Gattermann reaction.
(2) J<,Crp7 (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-2)
(3) CrO3 22. Oxidation of acetaldehyde with selenium dioxide produces

(4) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate) (1) ethanoic acid. (2) methanoic acid.
(JEE Main 2014, Offiine) (3) glyoxal. (4) oxalic acid.
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ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS CQ-153
23. In the following sequence ofreactions: 26. The correct statement about the synthesis of erythritol
H 2 /Pd
(C(CHPH\) u sed in the preparation of PETN is
Toulene A B BaS04
(1) the synthesis requires three a ldol condensations and
the product C is one Cannizzaro reaction.
(1) C 6H 5CH3 (2) C 6H 5CHpH (2) alpha hydrogens of eth anol and methanol are
involved in this reaction.
(3) C 6H 5CHO (4) C 6H 5COOH
(3) the synthesis requires two aldol condensations and
(JEE Main 2015, Offline) two Cannizzaro reactions.
24. In the reaction sequence (4) the synthesis requires fou r aldol condensations
between methanol and ethanol.
OW
2CH 3CHO (JEE Main 2016, Online Paper-2)
Product Bis
27. The correct sequence of reagents for the following con-
(1) CH3 -CH 2 -CH 2 -CH 2 -OH version will be
(2) CH3 -CH= CH-CHO
0
II
(3) CH 3 - C - CH 3
CHO CHO
(4) CH3 -CH 2 -CH 2 -CH3
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2) (1) CH3MgBr, [Ag(NH3) 2tOW, W /CH3OH
(2) [Ag(NH3) 2tOH-, CH3MgBr, W /CH3OH
25. Consider the reaction sequence below:
(3) [Ag(NH3) 2 tOW, W /CHpH, CH3 MgBr
OCH3
(4) CH3MgBr, W /CHpH, [Ag(NH)2t OH-
6
X is
Succinic anhydride A ~C_le_m_m_
AICl 3
e_ns_o_n'_s ---> X
reduction
28. A compound of molecular formula C 8Hp2 reacts with

acetophenone to form a single cross-aldol product in the
presence of base. The same compound on reaction w ith
(I) 6Q OH
cone. NaOH forms benzyl alcohol as one of the products.
The structure of the compound is
(2)
H
,OOa) I#
OH
OH
(3)
00
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29. Which one of the fo llow ing reactions w ill not result in the 32. The major product of the following reaction is
formation of carbon-carbon bond?
(I)
(2)
Reimer-Tieman reaction
Friedel Craft's acylation
D, (i) KOH (aqueous)
(3)
(4)
Wurtz reaction
Cannizzaro reaction
Bru ~ (ii) CrOJH+
(iii) H2S04 /t.
sequence is
30. T he major product B formed in the following reaction
CHO (i) C2H5MgBr
(ii) H20
HCI
A ____. B
(I) Br
80 OY) I
(2) Br
~I
~
80
~
MeO
(1) ~ 0~
CIA/ 61 ~ I I
Cl (3) HO ~ (4) HO
(2) (JEE Main 2019, January)
33. The major product formed in the fo llowing reaction is

Me O ~
(3)
MeO ~
~
OH 0
(4)
( 1) H3 C A A H
Meo
(JEE Main 2018, Online) 0 OH
~
0.
(i) OHCCH2COCI
(ii) H2 SO4 , heat

(2)H~
OH 0
MeO OH
(I) fX::l #
(3) H, C ~
m
MeO 0 0
0 OH
0
(4)
~I
(2) ~

MeO 0
OMe 34. The major product ' X' formed in the fo llowing reaction is
(3)~ 0 ~
Uo~ 0
6 //
CH2-C-OCH3 NaBH4
MeOH
X
(4) co OMe 0

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(4) ~CO,E1

37. Which of the following compounds reacts with ethyl
magnesium bromide and decolorizes bromine water
solution?
(!) if

0
CH3N ~
OH
(1) CH3N~
OH
OH
(2) CH3N~
(3)
0
CH3N H ~
(4) ~
OH 38. The major product obtained in the following conversion
(4) CH3NH~ IS
(JEE Main 2019, January) CH3YO
36. The major product obtained in the following reaction is No 1(

vy-M_e◊H--
Br2(1 eqv.)
2
~ O
O
O C0 Et
~f"'I NaOEV~
0
o CH3YO 0
w
CH3~
~~
00
(1)
(1) I (2)
Br OMe
0 0
0
(l) ~ C O ,E1 CH3YO CH3YO

Br
(3)
r-<'10
~
(3)
Br
w w 0
(4)

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39. In the following reaction OH OH

Aldehyde+ Alcohol~ Acetal
Aldehyde
HCHO
Alcohol
tert-BuOH
(1)
60EI
(2)
6
CH 3CHO MeOH
0 OH
6 6
The best combination is
(1) CH 3CHO and tert-BuOH (3) (4)
(2) HCHO and MeOH
(3) CH3CHO and MeOH (JEE Main 2019, January)
(4) HCHO and tert-BuOH
42. The aldehydes which will not form Grignard product w ith
(JEE Main 2019, January) one equivalent Grignard reagents are
40. In the following reactions, products A and B are
0 0
-:JlX /'-..~Jl-. . ,_ dil.NaOH
--➔ [A]
HaC HaC CHa H
0
CHO
6 O
CH3
B= CHa (III)
H3CO
( 1) (II) and (IV) (2) (II) and (III)

(3) (II), (III) and (IV) (4) (III) and (IV)
0
g'- H
tr
OH CHapO
H3C -- H 43. An organic compound ne ither reacts with neutral ferric
(3) chloride solution nor with Fehling solution. It however,
A = H3C ; B = H3C
reacts with Grignard reagent and gives positive iodoform
CH3 CH3 test. The compound is
OCCH, ((CH,
0
(1) (2)
H
OH
0
CJLc,H, c¢CH
(JEE Main 2019, January) 0 OH
41. The major product of the following reaction is 0

(3) (4)
CH3 C2H5
6
0
NaBH4 0
EtOH
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mo
u
~ I O Br NaBH4
Me0H,25°C
(I)~
~Br
(1) lJ
( ) ~OM•
2
(3) V
~OMe
48. p-Hydroxybenzophenone upon reaction with bromine in

carbon tetrachloride gives:
(4) V
~Io
(JEE Main 2019,April) ~
(1)
~ V
Brxro
45. T he major product obtained in the following reaction is HO
CH3 0 0
OHC~
(2)
;:::,-- I ;:::,-- I
w j3
::::::--... ::::::--...
HO
O CH3 0 (3)
(1) (2)
(3)
H
w O CH2 (4)
~ 0
(4)
HO
0
Br

46. Which of the following compounds will show the m axi-
49. In the following reaction
mum 'enol' content?
HCI
(1) CH 3COCH2COOC2H 5 carbonyl compound + MeOH ~ acetal
(2) CH3 COCH2COCH3 Rate of the reaction is the highest for
(3) CH 3 COCH3 (1) acetone as substrate and methanol in excess.
(4) CH3 COCH2 CONH2 (2) propanal as substrate and methanol in stoichiomet-
(JEE Main 2019,April) ric amount.
47. The major product of the following reaction is (3) propanal as substrate and methanol in excess.
(4) acetone as substrate and methanol in stoichiometric
~
v O
~ Cl
1
""" Bu_O_K_ _, .
(i)_
(ii) Conc. H2S04't.
amount.
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50. Major products of the following reaction are COCH3

~CHO
V +HCHO
(i)50% Na0H
(ii) H30+
(2)
HOOC
O I
CH20H O C O OH COOH
(1) () and
:::::---.
I (3)
OHC
O I
(2) CH30H and v

~COOH
COOH
(3) HCOOH and v

~ C H20H
(4)
HOOC
O I
(4) CH30H and HCOOH Topic 2: Carboxylic Acids

53. The general formula C"H 2"0 2 could be for open chain
51. Compound A(C9 H 100) shows positive iodoform test.
(1) diketones. (2) carboxylic acids.
Oxidation of A with KMnO/KOH gives acid B(C8 Hp 4) .
Anhydride of B is used for the preparation of phenol- (3) diols. (4) dialdehydes.
phthalein. Compound A is (AIEEE 2003)
( I) otOCH, 54. When C8i =CH-COOH is reduced w ith LiAIH4 , the

compound obtained will be
(1) CH3-CH 2- COOH (2) CH 2 = CH-CHpH
0 (3) CH3- CH2-CHpH (4) CH 3-CH2-CHO
II
( ) 0 CH2-C-H (AIEEE 2003)
2
55. Consider the acidity of the carboxylic acids:
~ CH3
(I) PhCOOH
(II) o-N02 C6 H 4 COOH
(3)
(III) p-N02 C6 H 4 COOH
(IV) m-N02 C 6H 4 COOH
which of the following order is correct?
( 1) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(2) (II) > (IV) > (III) > (I)
(3) (II) > (IV)> (I)> (III)
(4) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)
(AIEEE 2004)
56. p -Cresol reacts with chloroform in alka line medium to
52. The major product of the following reaction is give the compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to
form, the compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis
COCH3
O (i) KMnO4/KOH, 6
gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the carbox-
(ii) H 2SO4 (dil.)
ylic acid is
CH3 CH3
Q
CH(OH)COOH
COCOOH
O
(1)
( 1) #
~
HOOC OH
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ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
(3) CICH2CH 2CH 2COOH

(4) CH3COOH
2 (AIEEE 2011)
( ) Q CH(OH)COOH 62. Which of the following reagents may be used to distin-
OH guish between phenol and benzoic acid?
CH3 (1) Tollens' reagent (2) Molisch reagent
¢r
CH2COOH (3) Neutral FeCl3 (4) Aqueous NaOH
(3) (AIEEE 2011)
/,?'
63. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 under pres-
OH
sure at 125 °C yields a product which on acetylation pro-
duces C.
125°
4 B C
+CO2 5Atm
( ) QCH,COOH
OH The major product C is
(AIEEE 2005)
OH
57. Among the following acids which has the lowest pK.
value?
(I)
~ ~ O OH
lVJ (2)
No
¥ COCH3
(1) CH 3 COOH (2) HCOOH

(3) (CH3\CH - COOH (4) CH3 CH2COOH
(AIEEE 2005) COCH3
58. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the

compounds ~o
lVJ
OH
COOCH3
(II) MeOCH2C02H
Me
(3) 4
( ) &:OOH
(IV) >-C02H (JEE Main 2014, Offiine)
Me
is 64. In the reaction,
(1) II <IV <I <III (2) IV < I < IJI < II LiAIH 4
A B ale. KOH
C,
(3) IV< I< II< III (4) I< IV< III < II
the product C is
(AIEEE 2006)
(I) acetaldehyde. (2) acetylene.
59. The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl- (3) ethylene. (4) acetyl chloride.
benzene by K.Mn04 is (JEE Main 2014, Offiine)
(1) benzylalcohol (2) benzophenone
(3) acetophenone (4) benzoic acid 65. An organic compound A, C5Hp; reacts w ith Hp, NH3
and CH 3COOH as described below:
(AIEEE 2007)
0
60. A liquid was mixed with ethanol and a drop of concen- H2O II
~---. ~ CH- C- OH
trated H 2S04 was added. A compound with a fruity smell
was formed. The liquid was
(1) CHp H (2) HCHO
(3) CH 3 COCH3 (4) CH3COOH
(AIEEE 2009)
61. The strongest acid amongst the following compounds is Here A is
(1) HCOOH (I) CH3 CH = C- CHO

I
(2) CH 3CH2CH(Cl)COOH CH3
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(2) CH2= CH-TH-CHO (3) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction.

CH3 (4) Rosenmund reaction.
(3) CH3-CH2- C=C=O
I 71. What is X in the following reaction?
CH3
(4) CH3- CH2- C-

II
C=O
I CHO
c.,coON, I~ f COOH
CH2 H

66. The gas liberated by the e lectrolysis of dipotassium suc-
MeOO (1) CH3COOH
+X
Me00
(2) BrCH2COOH
cinate solution is
(3) (CH3CO)p (4) OHC-COOH
(1) ethane (2) ethyne
(3) ethene (4) propene 72. The major product obtained in the following reaction is
67. Phthalic acid reacts with resorcinol in the presence of

concentrated H 2S04 to give
(1) Phenolphthalein (2) Alizarin
(3) Coumarin (4) Fluorescein
(1) (2)
~CHO ~CHO
68. The major product formed when 1, 1,1-trichloropropane
is treated with aqueous potassium hydroxide is COOH CHO
(1) propyne (2) 1-propanol OH OH
(3) 2-propanol (4) propanoic acid
(JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4) (3)
CCCH
O (4)
CCCHO
69.©Q-~,._
COOK COOH CHO

A
73. The major product expected from the following reaction
is
COOK
A is
( I) ©XD (2) ©©
(3) ©00 (4)
n
70. In the presence of a small amount of phosphorous,

a liphatic carboxylic acids react w ith chlorine or bromine
to yield a compound in which - hydrogen has been
replaced by ha logen. This reaction is known as
(1) Wolff- kischner reaction.
(2) Etard reaction.
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0
(4)
(JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1) (JEE Main 2018, Online)
74. Phenol on treatment w ith CO2 in the presence ofNaOH

followed by acidification produces compound X as the
maj or product. X on treatment with (CH3CO)p in the
presence of catalytic amount of H 2 S04 produces
0
~,cyco,~JS
E
76. The reagents(s) required for the following conversion are
OH
A CN HO2 C CHO
~
(1) (i) B2H 6 (ii) SnCl/ HCl (iii) Hp+
(ii) Hp+
y
A1 CH, (2) (i) LiAIH4
(1) (3) (i) B2H 6 (ii) DIBAL-H (iii) Hp+
(4) (i) N aBH4 (ii) Raney N i/H2 (iii) Hp+
CO2H (JEE Main 2018, Online)
77. The increasing order of the acidity of the following

carboxylic acids is
NO2 OH Cl
(I) (II) (111) (IV)
(1) (I) < (III) < (II) < (IV)

(2) (IV) < (II) < (III) < (I)
(3) (II) < (IV) < (III) < (I)
(4) (III) < (II) < (IV) < (I)
78. The correct decreasing order for acid strength is
(1) N02CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CNCH 2C OOH >
ClCH 2COOH
(2) FCH2COOH > NCCH 2COOH > N02CH 2COOH >
75. The main reduction product of the following compound ClCH2COOH
w ith NaBH4 in methanol is (3) CNCH2COOH > 0 2NCH2COOH > FCH2COOH >
ClCH2COOH
(4) N0 2CH2COOH > NCC8iCOOH > FCH2C OOH >
ClCH 2COOH

OH
+ u
h CH3
AICJ3, t,.
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OH 82. The major product obtained in the following reaction is
(2)
LIAIH4
(excess)
OH
(3) (4)

(1)
Q;NO2 OH
CH3
(2)
cx:CH
NH2
a OH
80. Which dicarboxylic acid in presence of a dehydrating

agent is least reactive to g ive an anhydride?
CH / CH2'-..,_
2
0
II
C
(3)
a (X;CH
(X;CH , (4)
I COOH CH2/ '---oH NH2 OH NO2 OH

( 1) (2) I
CH2 COOH CH2'--.. ,,....-OH (JEE Main 2019, January)
'---cH; C
II 83. The major product of the following reaction is
0
COOH
(4)
O COOH
HOX](i)Cr03
I
(ii) SOCl:/11.
OX)
HO :::::._,_ (iii)a
81. T he decreasing order of ease of alkaline hydrolysis for
(1 )
the fo llowing esters is
0 1/1
(I)
(ID
COOC2Hs
c , - Q - cooc2Hs
(2)
HO
yo
:::::._,_
(3) OX)HO Q
1/ I
yo
(IV) CH30-o-COOC2Hs
Cl :::::._,_
( 1) (III) > (II) > (IV) > (I) (4)

(2) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV)
(3) (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
(4) (II) > (III) > (I) > (IV) c,Q
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84. The major product of the following reaction is 0
CN
(1)
(i) DIBAL-H
(ii) H3O+ Cl
0
(I) SSO (2)
0 Cl
0

w ith LiAIH4 is

(I)
COOH
(IIT)
(1) u
~I
(2) OHO
(IV)
( 1) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)

(2) (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
(4) 6"'
(3) (I) < (II) < (IV) < (III)
(4) (I) < (II) < (UT) < (IV) 88. The major product of the following reaction is
(JEE Main 2019, January) CH 3CH = CHC0 2 CH3
86. The major product of the following reaction is (1) CH3C8iCH2C02CH3
(2) CH3CH=CHCHpH
(3) CH3C8iCH2 CHpH
(i) AIC13, Heat
(4) CH3C8iCH2 CHO
(ii)H2O
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H2S0 4 (cat.)
CHCl3
(3)
& I
COOH
(4)
90. The end product C in the fol lowing sequence of chemical

OH OH
(I) OQ 0
(2) A0
vyOEt
0
reactions is
( l)
CaCO3
CH3 COOH - ---A- -__. B
acetaldehyde oxime
Heat NH OH
' C
(2) formaldehyde oxime

(3) methyl nitrate (4) acetox ime

91. If the general formula for aldehyde is written as 96. The number of compounds among the following that
C. H2n+ 1CHO, the value of n for isobutyraldehyde show optical activity is _ _ __
is_ _ __
2-Methylpropanoicacid,2-chloropropanoicacid,methyl-
2-methyl-propanoate, methyl-2-chloropropanoate.
92. For the given reaction,
97. The number of acids among the following that do not
contain a COOR group is _ _ __
Picric acid, lactic acid, propanoic acid, carbolic acid
How many isomeric forms does the compound A exists? 98. The number of carboxylic acids obtained when all the
isomeric arenes having the molecular formula C 8H 10 are
93. Butane-2,3-dione on reaction w ith PC15 changes its oxidized with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidifica-
molecular mass by Xu. The value ofX is _ _ __ tion, is _ _ _ _.
94. Total number of isomeric aldehydes and ketones hav ing 99. Amongst the following, the num ber of compounds that
the molecular formula C 5H 10O is _ _ __ will react with sodium bicarbonate is _ _ __
2,4,6-Trinitrophenol, benzoic acid, salicylic acid, acetyl
95. The number of compounds among the following that
chloride, acetic anhydride, trifluoroethanol, acetamide,
undergo aldol condensation is _ _ __
benzenesulphonic acid.
Methanal, 2-methylpentanal, benzaldehyde, benzophe-
none, cyclohexanone, 1-phenylpropanone, phenylacetal- 100. The number of isomeric ketones having the molecular
dehyde, butan-1-ol and 2,2-dimethylbutanal. formula C 6H ,p that undergo iodoform test is _ __
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CH APTER 27

Topic 1: Preparation and Chemical Reactions of
Amines
1. On heating benzyl amine with chloroform and ethanolic

KOH, product obtained is
( 1) benzyl alcohol (2) benzaldehyde
(3) benzonitrile (4) benzyl isocyanide (AIEEE 2003)
(AIEEE 2002) 6. Which of the following is the strongest base?
2. A substance forms zwitter ion. It can have functional
groups (1) (2)
O NH2
( 1) -NH 2, -COOH ~NH2
(2) - NH2 , - SO3H
(3)
(4)
both (1) and (2)
none of these
(3) QNH, (4) O NH
\
CH3
(AIEEE 2002) CH3
(AIEEE 2004)
3. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium
generates 7. Amongst the fo llowing the most basic compound is
(1) ethylamine salt and methanoic acid. (1) benzylamine (2) aniline
(2) propanoic acid and ammonium salt. (3) acetani lide (4) p-nitroaniline
(3) ethanoic acid and ammonium salt. (AIEEE 2005)
(4) methylamine salt and ethanoic acid.
8. Which one of the following is the strongest base in
(AIEEE 2003) aqueous solution?
4. The correct order of increasing basic nature for bases ( 1) Trimethylamine
NH3 , CH3NH2 and (CH3\NH is (2) Aniline
(1) CH3NH 2 < NH3 < (CH 3 ) 2NH (3) Dimethy lamine
(2) (CH)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH 2 (4) Methylamine
(3) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3 ) 2NH (AIEEE 2007)
(4) CH3NH 2 < (CH)2NH < NH3
9. In the chemical reaction,
(AIEEE 2003)
CH3 CH2 NH 2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH ➔ (A)+(B)+3H 2 O, the
5. The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and compound (A) and (B) are, respectively,
p-toluidine forms
(1) C 2H 5CN and 3KCI
(1) H3 C - @ - CN (2) CH3CH2CONH2 and 3KCI

(3) C 2H 5NC and K 2CO3
(4) C 2H 5NC and 3KCI
(2) H3C - @ - N2CI
(AIEEE 2007)
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10. In the chemical reaction. the product E is
0 NaN0 2
HCl,5°C
(1) H3C - O - - O - CH3
CN
the compounds A and B, respectively, are

(1)
(2)
(3)
nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene.
nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene.
pheno l and benzene.
(2) ¢
(4) benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene. CH3
(AIEEE 2010)
11. An organic compound A upon reacting with NH 3 gives B.

On heating B gives C. C in presence of KOH react w ith
Br2 to give CH 3CH 2NHr A is
(1) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 COOH
(2) H3C- CH- COOH

I
CH3
(3) CH3 CH 2 COOH
(4) CH3COOH
(JEE Main 2013)
16. Arrange the following amines in the order of increasing
12. On heating an a liphatic primary amine with chloroform basicity
and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the organic com-
pound formed is an
(1) alkanol. (2) alkanediol.
(3) alkyl cyanide. (4) alkyl isocyanide.
(J EE Main 2014, Offline)
13. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueou s

solution, which one has the smallest pKb value?
(1) (CH3) 2NH (2) CH3NH2
(3) (CH)3N (4) C 6H 5NH2
14. T he final product forme d when methylamine is treated

with NaNO2 and HCI is
(1 ) diazomethane (2) methyl a lcohol
(3) methyl cyanide (4) nitromethane
15. In the reaction
y
~I _N_aN_0_2_I H_c...1 D _ c u_
0--s·c
c_
N i_Kc_N...
fl E + N2
(4) ~ { ~ < ~ < CH,NH,
N0 2 OCH3
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AlvIINE S CQ-167
17. Which compound exhibits maximum dipole moment

among the following?
(II)
(I)© ~
N0 2
(2)
NH2
o:
COCH3
N0 2
(3) © NH2
(4)
©""'
(IV)
( 1)
:::::.....
NH2
(I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)

(2) (I) < (IV) < (II) < (III)
18. In th e Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction, the
number of moles of NaOH and Br2 used per mole of (3) (I) < (IV) < (III) < (II)
amine produced are (4) (IV) < (III) < (II) < (I)
(1) four moles ofNaOH and one mole ofBr2• (JEE Main 2018, Online)
(2) one mole ofNaOH and one mole of Br2 •
22. The maj or product of following reaction is
(3) four moles of NaOH and two moles ofBr2•
( i) AIH(i-Bu),
(4) two moles ofNaOH and two moles of Br2 • ?
(ii) H 20
(1) RCOOH (2) RCO~
19. T he test to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary
amines is (3) RCHO (4) RC"2NH2
(1 ) Sandmeyer's reaction. (JEE Main 2019, January)
(2) Carby lamine reaction.
23. A rrange the following amines in the decreasing order of
(3) Mustard oil test.
basic ity:
(4) C6H 5SO2Cl.
pounds is
20. The increasing order of basicity of the fo llowing com- ooo

N N
H
I
N
I
H
(II) ~ NH (1) (11) (111)
(IV) /'---., NHCH3 ( 1) (I) > (II) > (III) (2) (III) > (I) > (II)
(3) (III) > (II) > (I) (4) (I) > (III) > (II)
( 1) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)
(2) (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III) 24. The major product obtained in the following reaction is
(3) (IV) < (II) < (I) < (III)
OH
(4) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)
~
21. T he increasing order of diazotization of the following

U ~H2
(CH3C0)2 0/pyridine (1 eqv.)
room temp.
compounds is
(I) ~
~ C O OH
NH2
( 1) u~ ~HCOCH3
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~
OHC
(4) Y)
~OH
(2) H

OCOCH3
(3) (rrH
, 27. The major product of the fo llowing reaction is
OH ~OEt _(i)_Ni/_H2_ _
~ CN (ii)DIBAL-H
(4) ~ H C O C H ,
25. The increasing basicity order of the fo llowing compounds

IS
(1)
CC" NH2
(2) 00
H
(I) CH3CH2 NH2 (II) CH3CH 2NH

CH2CH3
I
(3)
(Ca CHO
(4) OO
H
CH3 CH3
I (JEE Main 2019, January)
I
(III) H3C - N - CH3 (IV) Ph-N- H
28. In the following compound,
( I) (IV) < (III) < (II) < (I)

(2) (IV) < (III) < (I) < (II)
C3) en < en)< CIII) < CIV)
(4) (I) < (II) < (IV) < (III)
26. An aromatic compound 'A' hav ing molecular formula the favorable site/s for protonation is/are
C 7H 6 O 2 on treating w ith aqueous ammonia and heating
(1) (I) and (V)
forms compound ' B '. The compound ' B ' on reaction
with molecular bromine and potassium hydroxide pro- (2) (II), (IID a nd (IV)
v ides compound 'C' having molecular formula C 6 H 7N. (3) (I) and (IV)
The structure of 'A' is
(4) (I)
COOH
(I)
O I 29. A compound ' X' on treatment w ith Br/NaOH,
provided C 3H 9N, which gives positive carby lamines test.
Compound 'X' is
(1) CH3COCH2NHCH3
(2) CH3CH2COCH2NH 2
CHO
(3) CH 3CH 2CH 2CONH2
(3)
O OH
(4) CH3CON(CH 3\
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Alv!INES
30. The increasi ng order of reactivity of the following com- 32. In the following compounds, the decreasing order of
pounds towards reaction with alkyl ha lides directly is basic strength will be
o~>
( ! ) C2H 5NH 2 > N H3 > (C2H 5) 2NH
0
(2) (C2H 5\NH > NH3 > C2H 5NH2
(I) (3) (C2H 5\NH > C2H 5N H2 > NH3
(IQ
(4) NH 3 > C2H 5N H2 > (C2H 5) 2NH
0
I CN (JEE Main 2019, April)
h NH2
(III) u 33. Which of the following amines can be prepared by
Gabriel phthalimide reaction?
( 1) n-Butylamine. (2) Triethylamine.
(3) t-Butylamine. (4) Neo-Pentylamine.
(I) (TT) < (I) < (III) < (IV)
(2) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)
34. The major product in the following reaction is
(3) (TT) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
(4) (I) < (III) < (IV) < (II)
(ii) CrO/ W <N

Nx:N+)
(iii) H2S04 (conc.), t:,. I
H
7
CH3
( I)
( 1)
HO ~
~
0 <"i::",
N
H N
)
(3)
35. The major product obtained in the following reaction is
H
(i) CHCL3'KOH
:::::--...
I (ii) Pd/C/ H2
~
CN 0
HO,):)
(4) u (JEE Main 2019, January) (1)
«:'CN 0
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~ '
(3) (4) H2N OH
36. Hinsberg's reagent is
(1) C 6H 5COCI (2) SOCl 2
(3) C 6H 5SO2CI (4) (COCI\

37. The major products A and B for the following reactions (JEE Main 2019, April)
are, respective ly
40. Which of the following is not a correct method of the
preparation ofbenzylamine from cyanobenzene?
KCN
[A] [BJ (1) HjNi
DMSO
(2) (i) LiAIH4 (ii) Hp+
(3) (i) SnCl 2 + HC I (gas) (ii) NaBH4
(4) (i) HCl!HzO (ii) NaBH4
41. The major product 'Y' in the following reaction is
0 Ph~CH3
n NaOCI (i)SOCl2
~CN X (ii) aniline Y
(2) V 0
0
0 OH
HN
A Ph
~CH,NH, (1)
6
~CN
(3)
HO CN
H~H
(4) ~ I
38. Ethylamine (C 2H 5NH 2) can be obtained from N-ethyl-

phthalimide on treatment with
(3)
2
0 1/" Ph
(4) ~
V
NH2

0
\Ph
(1) NH 2NH2 (2) CaH2

42. The increasing order of the pKb of the following
(3) NaBH4 (4) Hp
compound is
39. The major product of the following reaction is F~ ~

OH (I) ( AN ~ N ~
CH 6HCH CH NH
3 2 2 2
Ethyl formate (1 equiv.) I I
triethylamine H H
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AMINES CQ-171
NHCOCH3
(2)
6 OH
(III) (3)
6 OCOCH3
(IV)
(4)
6 (JEE Main 2017, Offline)
47. Among the following compounds, the increasing order of

their basic strength is
( 1) (I) < (III) < (IV) < (II)
(2)
(3)
(III) < (I) < (IV) < (II)
(II)< (IV)< (I)< (III)
(II) 0
N
H
(4) (II) < (IV) < (III) < (I)
Topic 2: Methods of Preparation of Diazonium

O
l )o /CH3
(IV ) o
NH2
Salts and their Importance in Synthesis ( l) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)
of Aromatic Compounds (2) (I) < (II) < (IV) < (III)
(3) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)
43. Complete reduction ofbenzene-diazonium chloride w ith
(4) (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
Zn/HCI gives
(1 ) aniline (2) phenylhydrazine
(3) azobenzene (4) hydrazobenzene 48. Products A and B formed in the following reactions is,
respectively,
44. Conversion of be nzene diazonium chloride to chloro ben-

zene is an example of which of the following reactions?
(1 ) Claisen (2) Friede l-Crafts
(3) Sandmeyer (4) Wurtz
45. F luorination of an aromatic ring is easily accomplished
by treating a diazonium salt w ith HBF4 • Which of the fol-
lowing conditions is correct about this reaction?
(1) NaF/Cu (2) cup/Hp
(3) Only heat (4) NaNO/Cu
46. W hich of the following compounds w ill fo rm signifi- S03H S03H

cant am ount of meta product during mono-nitration
N = N COCH3
¢
reaction?
(2) aad HO,s-o-~- o -NH,

S03 H
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N=N-~-o ~OH
(4)w-OH
¢
(3)vV
51. Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with 1-naphthol

in alkaline medium will give
OH
Q6 Q ,,-:;,
N N
II
N II HO N
S03 H
49. The tests performed on compound X and their inferences

(I) 6 ~ (2)
are
Test
(I) 2,4-DNP test
Inference
Colored precipitate
Q N
~
(II) Iodoform test Yellow precipitate
II
(III) Azo-dye test
Compound ' X' is
No dye formation
(3)
c¢ OH (4)
lJvlN-N~
V
(2)
52. Aniline dissolved in dilute HCl is reacted with sodium

nitrite at 0°C. This solution was added dropwise to a solu-
tion containing equimolar mixture of aniline and phenol
in di!. HCI. The structure of the major product is
(I) O N=N-0-0H
50. The maj or product formed in the reaction given below
will be (2) ON=N-NH-0
~~
NH2 NaN02
Aq . HCI, o-s·c (3) ON =N-O-NH2

(4) ON=N -0-0
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AMINES CQ-173
53. Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction w ith ani line in 54. Oxidation of aniline with acidified potassiwn dichromate
the presence of dilute hydrochloric acid gives gives X as one of the products. X can be
(]) O-ONH 2
( I) benzoic acid
(3) p-benzoquinone
(2)
(4)
quinol
maleic acid
(2) o-N~N-o H2 N
55. Aniline is reacted with bromine water and the resulting
product is treated with an aqueous solution of sodium
nitrite in presence of dilute HCI. The compound so
formed is converted into tetrafluoroborate which is sub-
(3) 0-N=N-0-NH 2
sequently heated dry. The final product is
( l) p -bromofluorobenzene
0-N=N-NH-o
(2) p-bromoani line.
(4) (3) 2,4,6-tribromofluorobenzene

(4) 1,3,5-tribromobenzene.
56. Certain nitrogenous compound with molecular mass tert-buty lamine, ethanamine, aniline, N-methylani-
(180 g mot- 1) shows an increase in its molecular m ass line, p-toluidine, m-chloroaniline, 2-phenylethanamine,
to 348 g mo1- 1 after treatment with acetyl chloride. o-anisidine, 2,4,6-tribromoaniline.
The number of possible NH2 groups in the molecule is
59. Total number of nitrogen atoms present in reduced
production obtained by reducing nitrobenzene using
57. The number of isomeric amines with molecular formula LiAIH4 followed by aqueous work up is _ _ _ __
C4H 11N is _ _ __
60. In coupling reaction between arene diazonium salt and
58. Among the following, the number of amines that w ill not amine, the pH below which the rate is slow is _ _ __
form diazonium salts is _ _ __
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CH APTER 28

Topic 1 : Carbohydrates 7. Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis
involves
1. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
(I) 10 molecules of ATP.
(1) D-fructose (2) D-ribose (2) 8 molecules of ATP.
(3) D-glucose (4) L-glucose
(3) 6 molecules of ATP.
(AIEEE 2003)
(4) 18 molecules ofATP.
2. The term anomers of glucose refers to (JEE Main 2013)
(I) isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at
carbons one and four (Cl and C4). 8. Which of the following will not show mutarotation?
(2) a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose. (I) Maltose (2) Lactose
(3) enantiomers of glucose. (3) Glucose (4) Sucrose
(4) isomers of glucose that differ in configurati on at (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-3)
carbon one (C l).
(AIEEE 2006) 9. Complete hydrolysis of starch gives
(1) glucose and fructose in equimolar amounts.
3. a-D-(+)-glucose and ,8-D-(+)-glucose are
(2) galactose and fructose in equimolar amounts.
(1) conformers. (2) epimers.
(3) glucose only.
(3) anomers. (4) enantiomers.
(4) glucose and galactose in equimolar amounts.
(AIEEE 2008)
4. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohy-
drate are 10. Accumulation of which of the following molecules in the
(1) -OH and -COOH muscles occurs as a result of vigorous exercise?
(2) -CHO and -COOH (1) Glucose
(3) >C = 0 and -OH (2) Glycogen
(4) -OH and -CHO (3) L-lactic acid
(AIEEE 2009) (4) Pyruvic acid
5. Biuret test is not given by (JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2)
(1) proteins (2) carbohydrates 11. The incorrect statement among the following is
(3) polypeptides (4) urea
(1) a-D-glucose and ,8-D-glucose are anomers.
(AIEEE 2010)
(2) the pentaacetate of glucose does not react with
6. Which of the following compounds can be detected by hydroxyl amine.
Molisch's test? (3) cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide made up
(1) Nitro compounds (2) Sugars of only ,8-D-glucose units.
(3) Amines (4) Primary alcohols (4) a-D-glucose and ,8-D-glucose are enantiomers.
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12. G lucose on prolonged heating with HI gives 20. Which of the given statements is incorrect about
( I) 1-hexene. (2) hexanoic acid. glycogen?
(3) 6-iodohexanal. (4) n-hexane. (I) It is a straight chain polymer similar to amylose.
(2) Only a- linkages are present in the molecule.
(3) It is present in animal cells.
13. Among the following, the incorrect statement is (4) It is present in some yeast and fungi.
(1) maltose and lactose has 1,4-glycosidic linkage.
(2) sucrose and amylose has 1,2-glycosidic linkage.
Topic 2 : Proteins
(3) cellulose and amylose has 1,4-glycosidic linkage.
(4) lactose contains .8-D-galactose and .8-D-glucose. 21. The secondary structure of protein refers to
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (1) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone.
(2) a-helical backbone.
14. Maltose on treatment with dilute HCI gives
(3) hydrophobic interactions.
(I) D-glucose and D-fructose
(2) D-fructose (4) sequence of a-amino acids.
(3) D-galactose (AIEEE 2007)
(4) D-glucose
22. Which one of the following statements is correct?
( I) All amino acids except lysine are optically active.
15. Fructose and glucose can be distinguished by (2) All amino acids are optically active.
( I) Benedict's test (2) Fehling 's test (3) All amino acids except glycine are optically active.
(3) Barfoed's test (4) Seliwanoff's test (4) All amino acids except glutamic acid are optically
(JEE Main 2019,April) active.
16. Which of the following statements is not true about (AIEEE 2012)
sucrose?
23. Among the followi ng, the essential aminoacid is
( l ) It is a non-re ducing sugar.
( I) alanine. (2) valine.
(2) T he g lycosidic linkage is present between C l of
a-glucose and C l of ,8-fructose. (3) aspartic acid. (4) serine.
(3) It is a lso named as invert sugar. (JEE Main 2017, Online Paper-1)
(4) On hydrolysis, it produces glucose and fructose.
24. The predominant form of histamine present in human
blood is (pK., Histidine= 6.0)
17. Amylopectin is composed of H
(1 ) a-D-glucose, C l - C4 and C l - C6 linkages.
( I) ( ~ ~ H3
(2) ,8-D-glucose, C l -C4 and C2-C6 linkages.
N
(3) ,8-D-glucose, C l -C4 and C l -C6 linkages. H
(4) a-D-glucose, C l -C4 and C2-C6 linkages. H
18. Number of stereo-centers present in linear and cyclic

(2) (~ N
H NH2
structures of glucose are respectively
( 1) 5 and 4 (2) 4 and 4
(3) 5 and 5 (4) 4and5
19. Glucose and galactose are having identical configuration

in all the positions except position.
(1) C3 (2) C4
(3) C2 (4) cs
(JEE Main 2019,April) (JEE Main 2018, Offiine)
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BIOMOLECULES CQ-177
25. Which of the fo llowing will not exist in zwitter ionic 28. The correct sequence of amino acids present in the tri pep-
form at pH = 7? tide given below is
(1 ) C C NH2 M
ex;e M
ex O
H H
N-
O
ll OH
COOH H2 N "'--/ """N C/
O ~ H II
0 ~OH O
(4) A NA I C0 2H (I) Va l - Ser - Thr (2) Thr - Ser - Val

H (3) Leu - Ser-Thr (4) Thr -Ser -Leu
(JEE Main 2018, Online) (JEE Main 2019, January)
26. The dipeptide, Gln-Gly, on treatm ent w ith CH 3COCI 29. The correct structure of product 'P' in the following
followed by aqueous work up gives reaction is
(1) Asn-Ser+ (CH3 CO)2 O NE,, ) P

(excess)
(2)
(4) H
YN
l
0 CONH (CH2)2 NH2
y
COOH
¥
0

27. The increasing order ofpKa of the following amino acids
in aqueous solution is
(I)
(2)
Gly Asp Lys Arg
Asp< G ly < Arg < Lys
Gly <Asp < Arg < Lys
(4) H
,CAN
J;;~OH H O Y NHCOCH3
(3) Asp< G ly < Lys < Arg
0
(4) Arg < Lys < Gly < Asp
(JEE Main 2019, January) (JEE Main 2019, January)
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30. Which of the following tests cannot be used for identify- (3) deoxyribose sugar and uracil.
ing amino acids? (4) deodyribose sugar and thymine.
( 1) B iuret test (2) Barfoed 's test (AIEEE 2002)
(3) N inhydrin test (4) Xanthoproteic test
36. Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
(1) Uracil (2) Thymine
31. The correct match between Column I and Column II is (3) Guanine (4) Cytosine
Column I Column II (AIEEE 2004)
(A) Ester test (i) Tyr
37. In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate
(B) Carbylamines test (ii) Asp ester linkages are at
(C) Phthalein dye test (iii) Ser ( 1) C'S and C'2, respectively, of the sugar molecule.
(iv) Lys
(2) C'2 and C'S, respectively, of the sugar molecule.
(1) (A) ➔ (ii); (B) ➔ (iv); (C) ➔ (i) (3) C' I and C'S, respectively, of the sugar mo lecule.
(2) (A) ➔ (iii); (B) ➔ (ii); (C) ➔ (i) (4) C'S and C' l , respectively, of the sugar molecule.
(3) (A) ➔ (iii); (B) ➔ (iv); (C) ➔ (ii)
(AIEEE 2005)
(4) (A) ➔ (ii); (B) ➔ (iv); (C) ➔ (iii)
(JEE Main 2019, January) 38. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are
32. Among the following compounds most basic amino ( 1) cytosine and adenine.
acid is (2) cytosine and guanine.
(I) asparagine. (2) lysine. (3) cytosine and thymine.
(3) serine. (4) histidine. (4) cytosine and uracil.
33. The peptide that gives positive eerie ammonium nitrate
39. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which
and carbylamine tests is
of these carbon atoms of sugar, differentiates RNA and
(1) Ser - Lys (2) Gin - Asp DNA?
(3) Lys - Asp (4) Asp - Gin ( 1) 2nd (2) 3rd
(JEE Main 2019,April) (3) 4th (4) I st
34. The correct structure of histidine in a strongly acidic (AIEEE 2011)
solution (pH = 2) is
40. Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA?
+
+ H3N- CH - COO- (1) Quinoline (2) Adenine
~-H,)
H3N-CH- COOH
(3) Cytosine (4) Thymine
(I)
N
(2)
~JN+
H
41. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is the
(3)
H
,N
-~::
+
(4)
+
~ )NH,
H3N-CH-COO-
operation of
(I) electrostatic attractions.
(2) van der Waals forces.
)
N+ N
(3) dipole - dipole interactions.
H
(4) hydrogen bonding.
(JEE Main 2019, January) (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-4)
42. Thiol group is present in

Topic 3: Nucleic Acids
(I) methionine. (2) cytosine.
35. RNA contains (3) cystine. (4) cysteine.
(I) ribose sugar and thymine. (JEE Main 2016, Offline)
(2) ribose sugar and uracil.
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BIOMOLECULES CQ-179
43. Which of the following is the correct structure of 0

adenosine?
rt: CH3'I C~
cc5
NH
(3) (4)
'-N~O N 0
I I
(2) H H

I
(3) cc~ (4)<~
Ribose
I
Ribose
NH2
Ribose
I NH2
45. Which of the following statements is not true about
RNA?
(I) It controls the synthesis of protein.
(2) It has always double stranded a-helix structure.
(3) It usually does not replicate.
Ribose
(4) It is present in the nucleus of the eel I.
44. Among the following compounds, which one is found in
RNA?
0 0
(I) c~Me
N,,.A:::-0
(2) ():0
I H
Me
46. The specific rotation of sucrose solution on hydrolysis Tryptophan, valine, phenylalanine, lysine, leuci ne, isole-
eventually attains a value of _ _ __ ucine, methionine, alanine, threonine.
47. Glucose molecule reacts w ith X number of molecules 49. The number of tripeptides formed by three different
of pheny lhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is amino acids is _ _ __
50. The number ofpeptide bonds in glutamine is _ _ __

48. Amongst the following, total number of essential amino
acids is _ _ __
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CH APTER 29

Topic 1: Classification of Polymers 8. B una -N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of
1. Monomers are converted to polymer by Cl

(1) hydrolysis of monomers.
I
(1) H 2 C= CH -C= CH 2 and H 2C =CH -CH = CH 2
(2) condensation reaction between monomers.
(2) H 2C = CH -CH = CH 2 and H 5C6 -CH = CH2
(3) proto nation of monomers.
(4) no ne of the above. (3) H 2C = CH -CNand H 2 C=CH -C = CH 2
(AIEEE 2002) I
CH 3
2. Which of the following is a polyamide?
(1) Teflon (2) Nylon-6,6 (4) H 2C = CH - CN and H 2C = CH - CH = CH 2
(3) Terylene (4) Bakelite (AIEEE 2009)
(AIEEE 2005)
9. The polymer containing strong intermolecular forces,
3. Which one of the fo llowing is an example of thermoset- e.g., hydrogen bonding is
ting polymers? (1) natural rubber (2) teflo n
(I) Neoprene (2) Buna-N (3) nylon-6,6 (4) polystyrene
(3) Nylon 6,6 (4) Bakelite (AIEEE 2010)
10. The species which can best serve as an initiator for the
4. Which of the following is a therm osetting polymer? cationic polymerisation is
(1 ) Bake lite (2) Buna-N (1) LiA IH4 (2) HN03
(3) Nylon-6 (4) PVC (3) A lCl3 (4) BuLi
(JEE Main, 2019,April) (AIEEE 2012)
11. Which one is classified as a condensation polymer?

Topic 2: Types of Polymerization
(I) Dacron (2) Neoprene
5. Nylon threads are ma de of (3) Teflon (4) Acrylonitrile
(1) polyvinyl polymer.
(2) po lyester polymer.
12. Which one of the fo llowing class of compounds is
(3) polyamide polyme r.
obtained by polymerisation of acetylene?
(4) polyethyle ne polymer.
(AIEEE 2003) (1) Poly-yne (2) Poly-ene
(3) Poly-ester (4) Poly-amide
6. Which of the following is fully fluo1inated polymer? (JEE Main 2014, Online Paper-1)
(I) Neoprene (2) Teflon
13. Structure of some important polymers are given. Wh ich
(3) Thiokol (4) PVC
one rep resents Buna-S?
(AIEEE 2005)
CH3
I
7. B akelite is o btained fro m phenol by reacting w ith
(I) (- CH 2 -C = CH -CH2-)n
(1 ) (CHp H)2 (2) CH 3CHO
(2) (- CH 2 - CH = CH - CH2 - CH - CH2 - )n
(3) CH 3 COCH3 (4) HCHO I
(AIEEE 2008) CsHs
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(3) (-CH2 -CH= CH -CH2 -CH -CH2 -)n 18. The copolymer formed by addition polymerization of
I
CN
styrene and acrylonitrile in the presence of peroxide is
Cl
I
(4) (-CH2-C=CH -CH2-)n
14. Which one of the following structures represents the neo-

prene polymer?
(1) tCH2- , = CH-CH2

Cl
t n
2
( ) tCH2 -rt CN
(3) tCH2 -r t Cl n (JEE Main 2018, Online)
19. Which of the following statements is/are not true?

(1) Step growth polymerization requires a bifunctional
monomer.
(2) Nylon-6 is an example of step-growth polyme riza-
tion.
(JEE Main 2015, Online Paper-2) (3) Chain growth of polymerization includes both
homopolymerization and copolymerization.
15. Which of the following statements about low density
(4) Chain growth polymerization involves homopolym-
polythene is false?
erization only.
(1 ) It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dustbins
etc.
(2) Its synthesis requires high pressure. 20. Major product of the following reaction is
(3) It is a poor conductor of electricity. Cl
(4) Its synthesis requires dioxygen or a peroxide initia- Cl ~ NH2 (i)Et3N
tor as a catalyst. + H2 N - -----
(ii) Free radical
(JEE Main 2016, Offline) 0 0 polymerisation
16. Which of the following polymers is synthesized using a

free radical polymerisation technique?
(1 ) Terylene (2) Melamine polymer
(3) Nylon 6,6 (4) Teflon
0
17. The formation of which of the following polymers
involves hydrolysis reaction? fov l" '
(1) Nylon-6,6 (2) Terylene (2) N HN
(3) Nylon-6 (4) Bakelite ~ NH2
(JEE Main 2017, Offline) 0
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POLYMERS CQ-183
CH O
3 a oyCH3
OH
0
(i)dil. HCVll
(ii) (COOH)2/
Polymerisation
23. The homopolymer formed from 4-hydroxy-butanoic

acid is
( 1)
t0°~
0
OCH3
±
(3)
t o11 oII
C(CH2hC-O n
(2)
foo::t (JEE Main 2019, January)
24. The two monomers for the synthesis ofNylon-6,6 are
( 1) HOOC(CH2\COOH, H 2N (CH2) 6NH2
(2) HOOC(CH2\COOH, H 2N(CH 2\ NH2
(3) HOOC(CH2\COOH, H 2N(CH2\ NH2
(4) HOOC(CH2\COOH, H 2N(CH2) 4NH2

25. The structure ofNylon-6 is
(1) ~(CH2)4 - ~ - i l (2) ~~-(CH2)e- i l

22. The polymer obtained from the following reactions is
(i) NaNOfHp+
(3)
11
~o I
Hl
C- (CH2)5 - N n (4)
~(CH2)6 -
0IIHl
C- N
I
n
NH2
HOOC ~ (ii) Polymerisation (JEE Main 2019, April)
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26. The maj or product of the following reaction is (1) (A) ➔ (iv), (B) ➔ (ii), (C) ➔ (i), (D) ➔ (iii)
(i) KOH (ale.) (2) (A) ➔ (ii), (B) ➔ (iv), (C) ➔ (i), (D) ➔ (iii)
~ (ii) Free radical
polymerisation (3) (A) ➔ (iii), (B) ➔ (i), (C) ➔ (ii), (D) ➔ (iv)
Cl ~ 61 (4) (A) ➔ (iii), (B) ➔ (i), (C) ➔ (iv), (D) ➔ (ii)
30. The correct name of the following polymer is

CH3 CH
( I) (2) ~3
(1) polyisobutane (2) polytert-butylene

OH OH
(3) polyisopre ne (4) polyisobutylene
Topic 3: Polymers of Commercial Importance and

(3) (4) Biodegradable Polymers
Cl 31. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints and

Cl lacquers?
( 1) Glyptal (2) Polypropene
(3) Poly vinyl chloride (4) Bakelite
27. W hich of the following compounds is a constituent of the (JEE Main 2015, Offline)
given polymer?
32. Match the polymers in Column I with their main uses in
Column II and choose the correct answer:
Column I Column II
(A) Polystyrene (i) Paints and lacquers
( I) N-Methyl urea (2) Formaldehyde
(B) Glyptal (ii) Rain coats
(3) Methylamine (4) Ammonia
(C) Polyvinyl chl oride (iii) Manufacture of toys
(D) Bakelite (iv) Computer discs
28. Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
(1) Buna-S (2) Neoprene ( 1) (A)-(ii), (B)- (i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) Teflon (4) Nylon-6,6 (2) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (i i), (D) - (iv)
(JEE Main 2019,April) (3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)
29. The correct match between Column I and Column II is (4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
Column I Column II
33. Assertion: Rayon is a semisynthetic polymer whose
(A) High density (i) Peroxide catalyst
properties are better than natural cotton.
polythene
Reason: Mechanical and aesthetic properties of cellu lose
(B) Polyacrylonitrile (ii) Condensation at
can be improved by acetylation.
high temperature and
pressure ( 1)Both assertion and reason are correct, but the rea-
son is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
(C) Novolac (iii) Ziegle r-Natta Catalyst
(2) Both assertion and reason correct and the reason is
(D) Nylon 6 (iv) Acid or base catalyst the correct explanation for the assertion.
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POLYMERS CQ-185
(3) Assertion is incorrect statement, but the reason is 0
(4)
correct.
Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(4) -f M--O- coo- (CH 2 )2 - ol
34. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer? 35. Poly-,8-hydroxybutyrate-co-,8-hydroxyvalerate (PHBV) is

a copolymer of _ _ _ __
(I) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 4-hydroxypentanoic

acid.
(2) 2-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic
acid.
(3) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 2-hydroxypentanoic
acid.
0 (4) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic
(3) -f HN-(CH2)5- g l acid.

36. Formation of polyethene from calcium carbide takes 38. Amongst the following, the total numbe r of thermoplas-
place as follows: tics is _ _ __
CaC 2 + 2H 2O ➔ Ca(OH)2 + C 2H 2 Polyester, Bakelite, polyethene, PVC, Teflon, PAN,

PMMA, nylon-6, melamine-formaldehyde.
C2H2 + Hz ➔ CzH4
nC 2H 4 ➔ (CH2 - CH2). 39. The number of natural polymers among the following is
The amount of polyethene obtained from 64 kg of CaC2 Cellulose, PVC, polystyrene, g lyptal, cis-polyisoprene,
is _ _ __
PHBV, nylon-2-nylon-6, nylon-6,6, proteins.
37. Amongst the following, the total number of e lastomers is 40. The number of conden sation copolymers a mong the
following is _ _ __
Natura l rubber, polypropylene, po lyethene, vu lcanized SBR, polyester, bakelite, nylon-6, PVC, starch, nylon-
rubber, nylon-6, polyvinyl c hl oride, Buna-N, chloro- 6,6, glypta l, natura l rubber.
prene, Buna-S, polystyrene.
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Wiley&#39;s Chemistry JEE Main Practice Problems

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Wiley&#39;s Chemistry JEE Main Practice Problems

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OtherWiley &litorial Offices:

First Edition: 2020

Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry CQ-1 Chapter 17 Electrochemistry CO-87

Chapter 7 Equilibrium CO-33 Chapter 22 The d- and f- Block Elements CQ-119

Chapter 8 Redox Reactions CQ-41 Chapter 23 Coordination Compounds CQ-125

Chapter 9 Hydrogen CO-45 Chapter 24 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes CQ-133

Chapter 11 The p-Block Elements Chapter 26 Aldehydes, Ketones and

Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Chapter 27 Amines CO-165

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

38. For a reaction, (1) 1.08 (2) 1.35

NUMERICAL VALUE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

13. In Bohr series of lines hydrogen spectrum, the third

14. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in hydro-

r (3) 406 nm (4) 192 nm

16. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 x 10- 18 J atom- 1.The

(Mass of electron = 9 x 10- 31 kg; Velocity of light =

12. Energy ofH-atom in the ground state is - 13.6 eV, hence 18

(1) 0.032 nm (2) 0.40 nm

45. Which of the following combination of stateme nts is

NUMERICAL VALUE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(3) B3+ (4) F-

NUMERICAL VALUE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

the central atom, respectively. (4) BF3, NF3, co;-

26. T he incorrect geometry is represented by

( I) Acetone (2) Acetamide

(2) o;- 52. Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(AIEEE 2009) (3) NO+ (4) B2

(3) H;, He;+ (4) H;, He;- (2) H ;

47. W hich one of the following molecules is expected to

(3) A bonding norbital 58. Among the following molecules/ions,

NUMERICAL VALUE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(1) The most probable speed inc reases.

Topic 3: Kinetic Molecular Theory of Gases (JEE Main 2013)

shown in the figure be low. The temperature of one of the

NUMERICAL VALUE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

2. An idealgasexpands in volumefrom Ix 10-3 m3 to I x 10-2 m3

4. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands

Topic 2: Measurement of AU and AH: Calorimetry (1) Oxygen is more electronegative.

33. For complete combustion of ethanol,

41. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide

47. G iven: The reaction must be

kJ mo!-' (3) one w ith negligible enthalpy change.

Lillo - T /I.So (3) C(diamond) ➔ C(graphite)

(JEE Main 2018, Online)

61. The entropy (S°) of the following substances are:

69. A process will be spontaneous at all temperatures if

NUMERICAL VALUE QUESTIONS

+ 491.1 kJ mo1- 1 and ~,S° = 198.0 JK_- 1 mo1- 1, is not fea-

75. For silver, CP(J K-1 moi- 1) = 23 + 0.01 T. If the temper-

80. The heat of vaporization of ammonia is 21. 7 kJ mo1-1

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For the reaction equilibrium, N 2O 4(g) H 2NO2(g); the

14. Phosphorus pentachloride di ssociates as fo llows, in a

2S(s) + 3O2(g) ~ 2SO3 (g); K 2 = 10129 (3) ( x:1 )p (4) (~)p

CO+ Cl2 ~ COCl2 D(s) ~ C(g) + E(g); KP2 = y atm 2

N 2(g)+O2(g) ~ 2 NO(g) (1) C(s)+O2(g) ~ 2CO(g)

NP4(g) ~ 2 NO2(g) (2) 2 HI(g) ~ H 2(g) + 12(g)

Wiley's Chemistry JEE Main Practice Problems

Wiley's Chemistry JEE Main Practice Problems