CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019 General Studies - Test-1

https://t.me/IAS201819 https://t.me/PDF4Exams https://t.
me/PDF4Exams
www.nextias.com
Saket Centre : 316/274, Westend Marg, Saidulajab, Near Saket Metro Station, Delhi-30
Old Rajinder Nagar Centre : Ground Floor, 6, Old Rajinder Nagar (Near Salwan School Gate No.-2) New Delhi-60
Ph: 011-45124642, 8800338066 | E-mail : info@nextias.com
CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

General Studies | Test-1
A
Booklet
Time Allowed : 2 hrs.
Maximum Marks: 200
Test Code: 190901
INSTRUCTIONS
Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions:
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet
Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the OMR Answer Sheet in the box provided.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises
four responses (Answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate answer sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have
to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
11. CHALLENGE THE QUESTION: If students feel that either the question(s)/answer(s) needs to be modified or
require clarification, they can email at feedback@nextias.com by 5 pm, 01.09.2018.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

For any queries kindly email at: feedback@nextias.com
https://t.me/TheHindu_Zone_official
https://t.me/IAS201819 https://t.me/PDF4Exams https://t.me/PDF4Exams
2 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019
Objective Questions
Q.1 Which of the following are indirect sources of 2. Pacific plate

information about the Earth's interior? 3. India-Australia-New Zealand plate
1. The Integrated Ocean Drilling Program 4. Arabian plate
(IODP)
2. Volcanic eruption Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Seismic waves below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only Q.6 When it is 4 pm, Sunday at Greenwich, what
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only is the time and day at a place 90 degree west
of Greenwich?
Q.2 Which of the following are among the major (a) 12 pm, Monday (b) 10 am, Monday
controls of the climate of any place? (c) 10 am, Sunday (d) 10 pm, Sunday
1. Latitude
Q.7 With reference to the “Inter Tropical
2. Continentality
Convergence Zone (ITCZ)”, consider the
3. Ocean currents
following statements:
4. Relief features
1. It is a broad trough of high pressure in
Select the correct answer using the code given equatorial latitudes.
below: 2. It is where the northeast and the southeast
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only trade winds converge.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. It lies at the right angle to the equator.
Q.3 Which of the following factors had 4. It moves north or south with the apparent
contributed to the appearance of the Blood movement of the sun
Moon on January 31, 2018? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Relative positions of Earth, Sun and Moon not correct?
2. Refraction of light traveling through the (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
Earth’s atmosphere to Moon. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Blue and violet wavelengths scattered less
Q.8 With reference to Indian monsoon, consider
than red and orange ones.
the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. Jet streams influence only the winter
given below: rainfalls in India.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 2. Orographic rainfall due to Aravalli range
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 helps in providing adequate rainfall to the
Q.4 With reference to Warm temperate climates, Eastern parts of India
Consider the following statements: 3. The retreating southwest monsoon season
1. It extends from 30° - 50° of latitude only on is generally marked by cloudy skies and
the eastern margins of continents. fall in temperature.
2. These climates generally have warm Which of the statements given above is/are
summers with mild winters. not correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Q.9 Many times cities like Mumbai experience
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 a heavy downpour for short duration in the
Q.5 The theory of plate tectonics proposes that day, although its not yet the onset of monsoon.
the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven What type of rainfall can it be counted as?
major and some minor plates. Which of the (a) Orographic rainfall
following are among the major plates? (b) Frontal rainfall
1. Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic (c) Convectional rainfall
plate (d) None of the above
© Copyright: www.nextias.com
History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 3
Q.10 Which of the following sequence represents the Select the correct answer using the code given
decreasing order of percentage area covered by below:
the oceanic bottom relief? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(a) Deep sea plain-Continental shelf- (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Continental slope
Q.15 Which of the following crops in India are
(b) Continental shelf - Continental slope-
deep-sea plain considered as Rabi crops?
(c) Deep sea plain - Continental slope 1. Wheat
-Continental shelf 2. Peas
(d) Continental shelf-Deep sea plain- 3. Maize
Continental slope Select the correct answer using the code given
Q.11 With reference to the launch of satellites from below:
the surface of the earth, consider the following (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
statements: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Geo-stationary orbit satellites are launched Q.16 Which of the following is the correct sequence
from the sites near the equator towards the of descending order of rivers in terms of area
east direction. of river basin?
2. Satellites which are placed in polar orbits
(a) Mahanadi, Tapi, Penner, Subarnarekha
are generally launched in south ward or
(b) Brahmaputra, Narmada, Tapi, Krishna
north ward direction.
(c) Tapi, Brahmani, Kaveri, Mahi
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Mahanadi, Brahmani, Krishna, Mahi
not correct?
Q.17 Which of the following are not correctly
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
matched according to physiography and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
climatic conditions in India?
Q.12 Which of the following Island types are 1. Goan Coast : Karnataka
correctly matched? 2. Konkan Coast : emergent Coast
Types Islands 3. Malabar Coast : Kayal formation
1. Volcanic Island : Barren Islands
2. Continental Island : Willingdon Island Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Coral Island : Lakshadweep below:
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Q.18 Which of the following is the correct sequence
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of consumption of natural Rubber in India in
decreasing order?
Q.13 Which of the following factors affects the
(a) Cycle Tyres and tubes, auto Tyres and
distribution of temperature of ocean water?
tubes, footwears, camel back
1. Oceans in the northern hemisphere receive
(b) Auto Tyres and tubes, footwears, cycle
more heat than the oceans in the southern
hemisphere Tyres and tubes, camel back
2. Winds blowing from the land towards the (c) Auto Tyres and tubes, cycle Tyres and
oceans tubes, footwears, camel back
3. Ocean currents (d) Auto Tyres and tubes, camel back, cycle
Tyres and tubes, footwears
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Q.19 With reference to the Peninsular plateau in
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only India, consider the following statements:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It is a tableland composed of older alluvium.
2. It was formed due to the breaking and
Q.14 Which of the following factors influences
drifting of the Gondwana land
ocean currents?
1. Air pressure and Wind Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Heating by solar energy correct?
3. Rotation of earth (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
4. Revolution of Earth (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Join TelegramGroups
To Boost Your Preparation
PDF4Exams One stop solution for study
Click Here materials of all competitiveexams
The Hindu ZoneOfficial

Newspapers & study Click Here
materials
TestSeries4Exam
All paid test series
Click Here availabblewithoutanycost
Pdfbasket
All e-Magazines
in your hand Click Here
Hindi Books
All study materials
Click Here
in Hindi
eSandesh (An Indian App)
For More download eSandesh App from play store


Q.20 Which of the following are forms of Ocean Q.24 Recently, India received a number of
Energy? bases and ports under various bilateral
1. Ocean thermal energy agreements. India has access to which of the
2. Osmotic energy following base which is closest to the equator?
3. Ocean current energy (a) Changi (b) Duqm
4. Dendrothermal energy (c) Sabang (d) Seychelles
Q.25 Geologists divide up the Earth's existence into
below:
slices of time and have classified a distinct
age in Earth's history. Which of the following
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
is among the subdivision Holocene, the name
Q.21 With reference to the Tsunami, consider the given to the last 11,700 years of the Earth's
following statements: history?
1. A tsunami is a series of tidal waves known
1. The Greenlandian
as wave train.
2. The Meghalayan.
2. Ocean vessels are generally advised
3. The Cambrian
against returning to port if they are at sea
and a tsunami warning has been issued. Select the correct answer using the code given
3. An approaching tsunami is sometimes below:
preceded by a noticeable fall or rise in the (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
water level (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.26 Which of the following cities of Syria and
correct?
surrounding regions, if connected on a world
map, will make a line very close to a straight
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
line?
Q.22 Clouds can be classified on the basis of its (a) Amman, Aleppo and Damascus
form, height and appearance. With reference (b) Baku, Damascus and Aleppo
to clouds, consider the following statements: (c) Aleppo, Mosul and Amman
1. Stratus clouds are considered dangerous
(d) Tel-Aviv, Damascus and Amman
as it may reduce the visibility of aircrafts.
2. Cumulonimbus clouds are wooly, bumpy Q.27 Which of the pairs given below is/are not
clouds arranged in layers. correctly matched?
3. Altocumulous clouds are called as thunder Peak Mountain
clouds as it brings convectional rain, 1. Saddle : Nilgiri
accompanied by lightning and thunder 2. Guru Shikhar : Vindhyas
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Kalumar : Aravali
correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 2 only (b) 1 only below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Q.23 These soils develop in areas with high (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
temperature and high rainfall. These are
Q.28 With reference to coal, consider the following
the result of intense leaching due to tropical
rains. These soils are rich in iron oxide and statements:
Aluminium compound. Humus content of the 1. Lignite is the highest quality hard coal
soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives 2. Anthracite is a low grade brown coal with
well in high temperature. high moisture content
The above description refers to which of the Which of the statements given above is/are
following soil? correct?
(a) Laterite Soils (b) Arid Soils (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Black Soil (d) Peaty Soils (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.29 With reference to the Western Ghats, consider Select the correct answer using the code given
the following statements: below:
1. It is discontinuous, irregular and lie (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
parallel to the western coast. (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It stretches from the Mahanadi Valley to Q.34 With reference to El Niño-Southern
the Nigiris in the south Oscillation (ENSO) cycle, consider the
Which of the statements given above is/are following statements:
not correct? 1. La Niña refers to the large-scale ocean-
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only atmosphere climate interaction linked
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 to a periodic warming in sea surface
temperatures across the central and east-
Q.30 With regards to ocean salinity, consider the central Equatorial Pacific.
following statements 2. El Niño episodes represent periods of
1. The salinity of water in the surface layer below-average sea surface temperatures
of oceans depend only on evaporation and across the east-central Equatorial Pacific
precipitation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Wind does not influence salinity of any not correct?
area in the ocean. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct? Q.35 With reference to World Distribution of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Rainfall, consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. In general, as we proceed from the
Q.31 Which of the following plate movement is/ equator towards the poles, rainfall goes on
are responsible for Genesis of circum Pacific decreasing steadily
belt? 2. The rainfall is more over the oceans than
1. Subduction of pacific plate beneath the on the landmasses of the world
3. The interior of the continents receive
South American plate
greater amounts of rainfall than the coastal
2. Subduction of the North American plate
areas of the world
beneath the Pacific plate
3. Divergence of Eurasian plate from the Which of the statements given above is/are
Pacific plate correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Q.36 With reference to condensation of water
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 vapour in the atmosphere, consider the
Q.32 Which of the following can be said to be the 1. Fog contains more moisture than the Mist.
evidences in support of Continental drift? 2. Frost is the condensation which takes
1. Jig-Saw-Fit of continents place below freezing point
2. Placer Deposits
3. Distribution of fossils
not correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
below: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only Q.37 It is an important raw material for smelting
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of iron ore and also used for manufacturing
Q.33 Which of the following factors affect the ferro alloys. Its deposits are found in almost
mechanism of the monsoons in India? all geological formations, however, it is
1. The shift of the position of Inter Tropical mainly associated with Dharwar system.
Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer The above description is best suited to which
2. The presence of the low-pressure area east mineral resource?
of Madagascar (a) Cobalt (b) Chromium
3. Intense heating of the Tibetan plateau (c) Nickel (d) Manganese

Q.38 It is a strip of water disputed between India Select the correct answer using the code given
and Pakistan. It is locally known as Ban below:
Ganga. It was bifurcated between India and (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Pakistan in wake of the Bombay government (c) 1 and 3 only (d 1, 2 and 3
resolution of 1914. The area is rich in oil Q.43 During the Indian National Movement (1890
and gas. Which of the following has been to 1915), which of the following leaders are
described above? considered as moderate leaders?
(a) Sir creek (b) Kori creek 1. Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Gulf of Kutch (d) Gulf of Khambhat 2. Aurobindo Ghosh
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q.39 This port is situated in the Mahanadi delta,
about 100 km from Cuttack. It has the deepest Select the correct answer using the code given
harbour specially suited to handle very large below:
vessels. It has been developed mainly to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
handle large-scale export of iron-ore. Orissa, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand are the parts of Q.44 Who was the Viceroy of India during Partition
its hinterland. of Bengal?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Wellesley
The above description refers to which of the
(c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Morley
following port?
(a) Haldia (b) Visakhapatnam Q.45 Who rejected the August Offer by saying
(c) Chennai (d) Paradwip “Dominion status concept is dead as a door
nail”?
Q.40 Consider the following pairs (a) J.L. Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi
Waterway Rivers (c) M.A.Jinnah (d) Sardar Patel
1. National Waterway-1 : Ganga-Bhagirathi-
Q.46 Which of the following were part of Muslim
Hooghly River
League demands in the form of Delhi
System Proposals of 1927?
2. National Waterway 2 : West Coast Canal 1. Separate electorates for the Muslims.
3. National Waterway 3 : Brahmaputra 2. The Central Legislative Assembly should
River have one third representation of Muslims.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 3. Formation of three new Muslim majority
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only provinces – Sindh, Balochistan and North
West Frontier Province
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Q.41 With reference to Sanyasi Rebellion consider
below:
the following statements (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It was a non-violent protests led by Sanyasi (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
and Fakirs against the British.
2. The immediate cause of the rebellion was Q.47 Who among the following presented the
concept of Swadeshi Samaj?
the restrictions imposed by the British
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
upon pilgrims visiting holy places among
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
both Hindus and Muslims.
(c) Dada Bhai Naroji
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
correct? Q.48 Consider the following:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. C. R. Das
Q.42 During the Swadeshi movement a major trend 3. Fazl-ul-Huq
of 'constructive Swadeshi'can be identified. 4. Dr Satya Pal
What are the main features of Constructive Which of the person given above were the part
Swadeshi? of a Congress committee, appointed to make
1. Boycott of British Goods an inquiry for Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
2. Organising indigenous enterprises (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Setting up village uplift societies (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.49 Which of the following are among the Q.53 Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
objectives of Mahatma Gandhi to launch matched?
Individual Satyagraha during the World Viceroy Round Table
War II? Conference
1. To show the discontent because of rising 1. Lord Reading : First
prices and war-time shortages 2. Lord Irwin : Second
2. To establish the right of speech against the 3. Lord Wellingdon : Third
war efforts.
3. He was not in favour of a mass movement Select the correct answer using the code given
as it may turn aggressive. below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Q.54 Which of the following are important works
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of Dr. B.R.Ambedkar?
Q.50 Who among the following resigned from the 1. Mook Nayak
Viceroy’s council in 1919 in protest against 2. The Annihilation of Caste
the protracted use of Rowlatt Act? 3. The Problem of the Rupee: its origin and
1. Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair its solution
2. Rabindra Nath Tagore
Select the correct answer using the codes
3. Satyendra Sinha
given below:
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
below: (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.55 With reference to the Indigo revolt what were
reasons for the discontent of the farmers
Q.51 During the Quit India Movement Congress
growing indigo?
Radio was operated clandestinely from
1. They were paid very low prices for growing
different locations in Bombay city, whose
indigo
broadcast could be heard as far as Madras.
2. Indigo was not lucrative as food crops
Who among the following personlities were
associated with Congress Radio during this 3. Loss of fertility of the soil because of
period? planting indigo
1. Ram Manohar Lohia Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Achyutrao Patwardhan below:
3. Usha Mehta (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
Q.56 Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
matched?
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Organisation Founder
Q.52 Dissatisfaction with which of the following 1. Dacca Anushilan Samity : Aswini
policy decisions of British Government Kumar Dutt
during 1890 to 1905 period can be attributed 2. Abhinav Bharat Society : Savarkar
to rise of extremism?
Brothers
1. Indian Council Act, 1892
3. Swadesh Bandhav Samiti : Chapekar
2. Repeal of section 124A of IPC
Brothers
3. Official Secrets Act, 1904
below: below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.57 With reference to the recommendations of Q.61 After the withdrawal of Non Cooperation
Nehru Report of 1928, consider the following Movement, who among the following leaders
statements: were known as pro changers?
1. Dominion status for India 1. Vitthalbhai Patel
2. Creation of provinces on linguistic basis 2. Motilal Nehru
3. Fundamental rights including right to 3. Subhas Chandra Bose
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
universal adult suffrage
4. Joint electorates for Muslims and depressed Select the correct answer using the code given
classes with reservation of seats at the centre below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the recommendations given above (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
were part of Nehru Report?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Q.62 With reference to the Indian Council Act 1909,
consider the following statements:
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Two Indians were to be appointed as
Q.58 Which of the statements given below regarding member of the Governor-General’s
Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act Executive Council.
1919 is/are correct? 2. It introduced the system of separate
1. The Act authorized the Government to electorates for Muslims
imprison any person without trial and 3. The Act introduced Dyarchy at Provincial
conviction in a court of law. level of Government
2. The Act was repealed by the Government 4. Elected members of the new councils were
empowered to question the executive for
in 1922 as a condition for withdrawal of
the first time.
Non-Cooperation movement.
Select the correct answers using the code given correct?
below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.63 Which of the following Fundamental Rights
Q.59 Consider the following local movements led of Karachi Session (1931) finds a mention in
by Mahatma Gandhi in India: the Constitution of India?
1. Champaran Satyagraha was the first Non- 1. Right to Freedom of Speech and Press
Cooperation movement by Gandhi in 2. Right to Free Primary Education
India 3. Right to Constitutional Remedies
2. Kheda Satyagraha was first Civil 4. Right to keep and bear arms in accordance
Disobedience Movement by Gandhi in with regulation
India Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.64 With reference to plan put forward by
Mountbatten on 3rd June 1947, consider the
Q.60 Consider the following Pairs: following statements:
Magazine/Newspaper Founder/Editor 1. Dominion status for both India and
1. Leader : Annie Besant Pakistan as separate dominions
2. Bahiskrit Bharat : B.R. Ambedkar 2. Princely states cannot claim their
3. Commonweal : Madan Mohan independence and would either join India
Malviya or Pakistan
3. Both Congress and Muslim League
Which of the pairs given above is/are rejected the proposal
correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.65 Consider the following statements regarding Q.69 Why did congress ministries resign after the
the Munda Rebellion (1899-1900) start of second World War started in 1939?
1. The origin of dislocation of the Mundas (a) Viceroy declared India to be a
at the hands of the British and their belligerent country on the side of
contractors gave birth to the Munda the British in world war II, without
Rebellion. consulting Indian Leaders
2. Birsa Munda fought against and English (b) Rejection of the demand for India’s
officials with the support of the mahajans independence after the war.
3. The Chhotanagpur Tenancy Act of 1908 is
(c) In protest of demand of Pakistan by
related to Munda Rebellion
M.A.Jinnah
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Rejection of establishment of a War advisory
correct? council
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Q.70 Consider the following pairs:
Congress sessions Event
Q.66 With reference to Indian National Movement, 1. Faizpur (1936) : 1st session held in the
consider the following statements
village
1. The Servants of India Society was started
2. Belgaum(1924) : Only session presided
by Narayan Malhar Joshi.
by Mahatma Gandhi
2. Social Service League was founded by
3. Calcutta (1917) : 1st Session presided by
Gopal krishna Gokhale.
Indian Women
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct? Which of the pair given above is/are correctly
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.67 Which of the following were among the
Mahatma Gandhi 'eleven points' demand to Q.71 Consider the following statements:
Lord Irwin? 1. Whitley Commission was appointed to
1. Release of all political prisoners involve more Indians in Civil Services.
2. Amendment in Arms Act in order to allow 2. Lee commission was appointed to study
popular control of issue of firearm licenses the condition of labours in Industries.
Issue to citizens for self-protection
3. Reduction of salt tax and abolition of
correct?
government’s monopoly over salt.
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
below:
(a) 3 only (b) 1 only Q.72 With reference to Akali Movement, consider
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only the following statements:
1. The Akali movement aimed at liberating
Q.68 With reference to Hindustan Republican
the Sikh Gurdwara from the control of
Association (HRA), consider the following
British Government
statements:
2. In 1920s government passed Sikh
1. It was formed by Bhagat Singh in Ferozshah
Kotla. Gurdwaras Act which gave the control
2. This Organization was actively involved of Gurdwaras to Shiromani Gurdwara
in Kakori. Prabandhak Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.73 Which of the following ideas can be attributed Q.77 With reference to the Lucknow Session of
to Mahatma Gandhi? Indian National Congress (1916), consider the
1. Idea of a self-contained village republic following statements:
inhabited by individuals whose lives were 1. It was presided by Madan Mohan Malviya
self-regulated 2. All India Muslim League and the Indian
2. For him a world based on non-violence National Congress came together to put up
a common political demand
could only be found in places that were
3. The two wings of Congress- Moderates and
untouched by industries
the Extremists were reunited.
3. Annihilation of Caste system to remove
caste discrimination Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
below: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.78 With reference to Home Rule League, consider
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the following statements
Q.74 Which of the following statements regarding 1. Annie Besant’s Home Rule League worked
Haripura session of congress (1938) is not all over India.
correct? 2. Bande Mataram advocated the demand
(a) National planning committee formed for Home Rule in India
in 1938 with Jawaharlal Lal Nehru as its Which of the statements given above is/are
President. correct?
(b) A resolution was passed, whereunder, an (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
ultimatum of six months was given to the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
British to quit, failing which there would Q.79 With reference to participation of women during
be a revolt. India's struggle for Independence, consider the
(c) Bose advocated to use Roman script in following statements:
place of Devanagari script in Hindi. 1. Aruna Asif Ali hoisted the Indian National
(d) In this session, Congress decided socialist Congress Tricolour flag at Gowalia Tank
principle as its core principle. Ground during the Quit India Movement in
1942.
Q.75 One of the prominent revolutionaries who co- 2. Bhima Bai Holkar fought against the British
founded Hindustan Republican Association. Colonel Malcolm and defeated him in
He was also associated with Anushilan Samiti guerrilla warfare.
and Kakori Conspiracy Case. He wrote the
Which of the statements given above is/are not
famous books Bandi Jeevan.
correct?
The above description refers to (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Bhagat Singh (c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Sachin Sanyal Q.80 He was a co-founder of Swaraj Party. In 1923, he
(c) V.D. Savarkar was elected to Central legislative assembly and
(d) Shivaram Hari Rajguru became its speaker in 1925. In 1928, he created a
Q.76 Which of the statements regarding the separate office for the Assembly, independent of
the administration of the Government of India.
Jatiya Sarkar a parallel government
It is said that he also established the convention
established during Quit India Movement
of neutrality of the president in debates, as a
is correct?
speaker, except to use a casting vote in favor of
(a) It undertook cyclone relief work and the status quo.
gave grants to schools
(b) It set up Nyayadan Mandals to dispense Who among the following matches the
description given above?
justice
(a) Satyendra Nath Singh
(c) It organized ‘Gandhi marriages’
(b) C.R Das
(d) It got the constitution of his state drafted
(c) Vithalbhai Patel
by Mahatma Gandhi (d) Satyendranath Bosu
Q.81 Bijak is the best known compilations of which 2. CERT-IN is the project technology partner
of the following influencial poet of India? for providing data security
(a) Sant Kabir (b) Mirabai 3. Central Bureau of Health Intelligence
(c) Sant Ravidas (d) Surdas
(CBHI) is the nodal agency for the project.
Q.82 Indian Armed Forces had launched various
rescue operations for its citizens stranded Which of the statements given above is/are
in conflict zone. In this regards which of the correct?
following pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Operation Country (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Operation Nistar : Yemen
Q.86 Recently head of State of G7 countries met in
2. Operation Raahat : Libya
3. Operation Maitri : Maldives its 44th meet. Which of the following countries
are member of G7?
1. Russia
below:
(a) 2 only (b) 1 only 2. USA
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. India
4. United Kingdom
Q.83 With reference to the recently concluded
IBSA Ministerial summit-2018, consider the Select the correct answer using the code given
following statements: below:
1. All the members of IBSA group are (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
democratic countries.
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. IBSA was formalised and launched
through the adoption of the “Brasilia Q.87 With reference to the coal block named
Declaration” in 2003. “Deocha-Pachami”, recently in news,
3. Recent meet of IBSA happened in consider the following statements:
Johannesburg, South Africa.
1. It is said to be the world’s largest coal
Which of the statements given above is/are block, with an estimated reserve of 2.1
correct? billion tonnes.
2. This coal mine belongs to Birbhum
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
coalfield area
Q.84 The NITI Aayog is working on a roadmap
for full-scale implementation of methanol Which of the statements given above is/are
economy in the country in near future. correct?
Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
reasons for choosing methanol: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Methanol is a very clean fuel which
can replace both petrol & diesel in Q.88 With reference to the recently launched
transportation & LPG, Wood, Kerosene in scheme of central government, consider the
cooking fuel following statements:
2. Methanol burns efficiently in internal 1. It has been launched by the Ministry of
combustion engines and produces no
Culture.
particulate matter.
3. India by adopting Methanol can have its 2. The scheme envisages to reimburse the
own indigenous fuel at a very low cost. Central Government share of Central
Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and
correct? Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST)
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only so as to lessen the financial burden of
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Religious/Charitable Institutions.
Q.85 Government of India has released the National The above mentioned salient features refers
Health Profile (NHP)-2018 and launched to which of the following schemes?
National Health Resource Repository (NHRR). (a) Kudumbshree Yojna
Consider following statements:
(b) Seva Bhoj Yojana
1. NHRR is the first ever registry in India
of geospatial data of public and private (c) Mid-day Meal scheme
healthcare centers. (d) Annapurna Bhojnalaya Yojana

Q.89 With reference to the organisation for the Q.93 With reference to the Naval Exercise Malabar
Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), 2018, consider the following statements:
the implementing body for the Convention 1. It is a bilateral naval excercise between USA
on the Prohibition of the Development, and India
Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical 2. The primary aim of this multilateral exercise
Weapons, consider the following statements: is to increase interoperability amongst
1. It has been awarded 2016 Nobel Peace navies of participating countries
Prize for its extensive efforts to eliminate
chemical weapons
correct?
2. India has neither signed nor acceded to the
Convention
Q.94 With reference to James Webb Space Telescope
correct?
(JWST), consider the following statements:
1. It is an international project with
collaboration between NASA, Japan
Q.90 Recently Indian Prime Minister and country’s Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and
‘X’ State of head agreed to work on the Indian Space Research Organization(ISRO).
Assumption Island project of the country ‘X’ 2. It can provide insight into the formation
in the Indian Ocean as a naval base to expand of solar systems.
its footprint? Which is the country ‘X’ in the 3. It will orbit the Earth at a distance of 1.5
statement? million kilometers from the Earth Surface
(a) Singapore (b) Maldives at the second Lagrange point (L2)
(c) Seychelles (d) Mauritius
Q.91 Recently, Pakistan has been placed on ‘Grey correct?
list’ released by Financial Action Task Force (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(FATF). With reference to FATF, consider the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Q.95 With reference to “S-400 Triumf” Air Defence
1. It is one of the principle organ of The
System, consider the following statements:
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
1. It can track and neutralise multiple targets
2. Its objective is to combat money
simultaneously.
laundering, terrorist financing and other
2. It is developed by Lockheed Martin (USA).
related threats to the integrity of the
international financial system. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.96 India will soon going to launch its first Lithium-
ion (Li-ion) battery. Which of the following is
Q.92 Which of the following countries are member
not among the advantages of Li-Ion battery?
of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)?
(a) High energy density than traditional
1. Kyrgyz Republic 2. Pakistan
rechargeable batteries
3. India 4. Russia
(b) The rate of self-discharge is much lower
5. Turkmenistan
than that of other rechargeable cells such
Select the correct answer using the code given as Nickel cadmium cells.
below: (c) They require relatively low maintenance
(a) 2 and 5 only to ensure their performance
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) Typically Li-Ion batteries are around 40%
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only less costly to manufacture than Nickel
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 cadmium cells.
Q.97 PM inaugurated the 3rd AIIB Annual Meeting Q.99 Which of the following sites are included in
2018 in Mumbai. With reference to the Asian UNESCO's World Heritage list?
Infrastructure Investment bank (AIIB), 1. The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco
consider the following statements: Ensembles
1. It is a multilateral development bank with 2. Elephant Caves
a mission to improve social and economic 3. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus
outcomes in Asia. 4. Western Ghats
2. Only Asian countries can become its
member.
below:
3. All members have equal voting rights in
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
AIIB.
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. India is the founding member of AIIB
Q.100 With reference to the term ‘Blue Flag
Certification’, recently seen in the news,
correct?
consider the following statements:
1. The Chandrabhaga beach of Odisha will
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
be the third in Asia to get the Blue Flag
Q.98 The term ‘GROWTH’ seen in the news certification.
sometimes refers to 2. The standards were established by the
(a) India’s first robotic telescope USA-based Foundation for Environmental
(b) Union Government scheme provide Education.
financial assistance to rural entrepreneur
(c) Scheme for elimination of malnourishment
correct?
in children
(d) Index released by Oxfam regarding global
wealth scenario
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
BIG LEARNINGS MADE E ASY
An initiative of Group
17
Books
Modern Indian History

History of Medieval India
History of Ancient India
History of the World
Indian Economy
Internal Security
Indian Society
Post-Independence History
International Relations
Science & Technology

Physical & World Geography
& Disaster Management
Ecology and Environment

Indian Geography
Life Sciences
Indian Polity
Ethics
Corporate Oﬃce: 44A/1, Kalu Sarai, New Delhi-110016 | 011-45124660, 08860378007

© MADE
Copyright: at leading book stores across India and on major e-comerce sites like:
EASY books are available www.nextias.com
CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019 | Test-1

Detailed Explanations
1. (b) Statement 4 is Correct: Relief too plays a major

Most of our knowledge about the interior of the role in determining the climate of a place. High
earth is largely based on estimates and inferences mountains act as barriers for cold or hot winds;
(indirect sources). Yet, a part of the information they may also cause precipitation if they are
is obtained through direct observations and high enough and lie in the path of rain-bearing
analysis of materials. winds. The leeward side of mountains remains
relatively dry.
Statement 1 is not correct: Scientists have taken
Additional Information
up a number of projects to penetrate deeper
depths to explore the conditions in the crustal Other major controls of the climate at any place
portions. Scientists world over are working on are as under:
two major projects such as “Deep Ocean Drilling Altitude: As one goes from the surface of
Project” and “Integrated Ocean Drilling Project”. the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere
The Integrated Ocean Drilling Program (IODP) becomes less dense and temperature decreases.
is a direct source of information about the Earth’s The hills are therefore cooler during summers.
interior. Pressure and Wind System: The pressure and
Statement 2 is not correct: Volcanic eruption wind system of any area depend on the latitude
is also a source of obtaining direct information and altitude of the place. Thus it influences the
about Earth’s interior. As and when the molten temperature and rainfall pattern.
material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of 3. (a)
the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes Blood Moon is the phenomenon whereby the
available for laboratory analysis. moon in total eclipse appears reddish in colour.
Statement 3 is correct: Indirect sources include It is a lunar eclipse caused by the Earth passing
gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity. between the Moon and the Sun.
Seismic activity is one of the most important Statement 1 is correct: As blood moon is a lunar
sources of information about the interior of the eclipse which occurs when the Moon passes
earth. directly behind Earth and into its shadow.
Hence relative position of Earth, Sun and Moon
2. (d)
contribute towards Blood Moon Phenomenon.
There are six major controls of the climate
of any place. They are: latitude, altitude,
pressure and wind system, distance from the
sea (continentality), ocean currents and relief
features
Statement 1 is Correct: Due to the curvature of
the earth, the amount of solar energy received
varies according to latitude. As a result, air
temperature generally decreases from the
equator towards the poles.
Statement 2 is Correct: The sea exerts a
moderating influence on climate as the distance
from the sea increases, its moderating influence
decreases and the people experience extreme Statement 2 is correct: During a total lunar
weather conditions. This condition is known as eclipse, Earth completely blocks direct sunlight
continentality (i.e. very hot during summers and from reaching the Moon. The only light reaching
very cold during winters). to Moon is sunlight refracted by Earth’s
atmosphere, producing a reddish colour.
Statement 3 is Correct: Ocean currents along
with onshore winds affect the climate of the Statement 3 is not correct: As Rayleigh
coastal areas, For example, any coastal area with scattering is inversely proportional to the fourth
warm or cold currents flowing past it, will be power of wavelength, shorter wavelength
warmed or cooled if the winds are onshore. violet and blue light will scatter more than the
longer wavelengths. Because blue and violet

wavelengths are scattered more than red and (ii) Nazca plate: Between South America and
orange ones, more of the red wavelengths reach Pacific plate
the moon, making the moon appear red. (iii) Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian
landmass.
4. (b)
(iv) Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and
Warm Temperate Climate is found in the middle
Pacific plate
latitudes between cool temperate and hot zone in
the eastern and western margins of the continent. 6. (c)
In the eastern margin, it is also referred as China As the earth rotates from west to east, those
type of Climate. It is characterized by warm, places east of Greenwich will be ahead of
moist winters and cool, dry winters. The eastern Greenwich Mean Time and those to the west will
margins of warm temperate latitudes have a be behind it.
much heavier rainfall than either the western The rate of difference can be calculated as follows:
margins or the continental interiors and thus The earth rotates 360° in about 24 hours, which
have a luxuriant vegetation. means 15° an hour or 1° in four minutes. Thus,
Statement 1 is not correct: Warm temperate when it is 12 noon at Greenwich, the time at 15°
(mid-latitude) climates extend from 30° - 50° east of Greenwich will be 15*4 = 60 minutes, i.e.,
of latitude mainly on the eastern and western 1 hour ahead of Greenwich Time, which means
margins of continents. 1 p.m. But at 15° west of Greenwich, the time
Statement 2 is correct: These climates generally will be behind Greenwich time by one hour, i.e.,
have warm summers with mild winters. it will be 11.00 a.m. Similarly, at 180°, it will be
midnight when it is 12 noon at Greenwich.
5. (c) For the given problem:
The theory of plate tectonics divides the earth’s 1° = 4 minutes
lithosphere into several major and minor plates.
90° = 90*4 minutes= 360 minutes= 6 hours
Statement 1 is correct: Antarctica and
Since place is to the west of Prime Meridian we
surrounding ocean plates is one of the major subtract 6 hours. Therefore answer is 6 hours
plates. prior to 4 pm = 10 am, Sunday. Thus, Statement
Statement 2 is correct: Pacific Plate is another 3 is correct
major plate
7. (a)
Statement 3 is correct: India- Australia-New
Zealand plate is another major plate The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a
low pressure zone located at the equator where
Statement 4 is not correct: Arabian plate is a
north east and south east trade winds converge.
minor plate.
This convergence zone lies more or less parallel
Additional Information: to the equator but moves north or south with the
The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the apparent movement of the sun.
earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major Statement 1 is not correct: The Inter Tropical
and some minor plates. The major plates are as Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a broad trough of
follows: low pressure in equatorial latitudes.
(i) Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic Statement 2 is correct: This is where the northeast
plate. and the southeast trade winds converge.
(ii) North American (with western Atlantic Statement 3 is not correct: This convergence
floor separated from the South American zone lies more or less parallel to the equator
plate along the Caribbean islands) plate Statement 4 is correct: It moves north or south
(iii) South American (with western Atlantic with the apparent movement of the sun.
floor separated from the North American Additional Information:
plate along the Caribbean islands) plate In July, the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N
(iv) Pacific plate. latitudes (over the Gangetic plain), sometimes
(v) India-Australia-New Zealand plate. called the monsoon trough. This monsoon
(vi) Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate trough encourages the development of thermal
low over north and north west India. Due to the
(vii) Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate. shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern
Some important Minor plates are listed below: hemisphere cross the equator between 40°
(i) Cocos plate: Between Central America and and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from
Pacific plate southwest to northeast due to the Coriolis force.
It becomes southwest monsoon. In winter, the jet stream moves north of the Himalayas with the
ITCZ moves southward, and so the reversal of apparent movement of the sun. An easterly jet
winds from northeast to south and southwest, stream, called the sub-tropical easterly jet stream
takes place. They are called northeast monsoons. blows over peninsular India, approximately over
14°N during the summer months.
8. (d)
Statement 2 is not correct: Aravalli ranges are
Monsoon is a familiar though a little known placed parallel to the direction of South west
climatic phenomenon. Various factors influence monsoon winds. Therefore, there is no possibility
the Indian monsoon. The Monsoon, unlike of orographic rainfall
the trade winds, are not steady winds but
are pulsating in nature, affected by different Statement 3 is not correct: The months of
atmospheric conditions encountered by it, on October-November form a period of transition
its way over the warm tropical seas. Jet streams, from hot rainy season to dry winter conditions.
being an influencer affects the Indian monsoon. The retreating south-west monsoon is marked by
Systematic studies of the causes of rainfall in the clear skies and rise in temperature.
South Asian region help to understand the causes 9. (c)
and salient features of the monsoon, particularly
The Given description most appropriately fits to
some of its important aspects, such as:
definition of convectional rainfall.
(i) The onset of the monsoon.
Convectional Rain: The air on being heated,
(ii) Rain-bearing systems (e.g. tropical becomes light and rises up in convection
cyclones) and the relationship between their currents. As it rises, it expands and loses heat
frequency and distribution of monsoon and consequently, condensation takes place
rainfall. and cumulous clouds are formed. With thunder
(iii) Break in the monsoon and lightning, heavy rainfall takes place but
Statement 1 is not correct: Jet streams are located this does not last long. Such rain is common in
approximately over 27°-30° north latitude, the summer or in the hotter part of the day. It
therefore, they are known as subtropical westerly is very common in the equatorial regions and
jet streams. Over India, these jet streams blow interior parts of the continents, particularly in
south of the Himalayas, all through the year except the northern hemisphere.
in summer. In summer, the subtropical westerly
10. (a)
The width of the continental shelves varies from one ocean to another. The average width of continental
shelves is about 80 km. The continental shelf and slope together cover ~15% of the total ocean floor, and the
continental rise covers about 5%. Continental selves are more than continental slopes as evident by figure.
Abyssal plains or Deep sea plane covers nearly 40% of the ocean floor.
Note: In the above figure, M refers to Nautical Miles (1 M = 1.852 km)

11. (d) Statement 2 is correct: the winds blowing from
Statement 1 is correct: When seen from the North the land towards the oceans drive warm surface
Pole, the Earth rotates anti-clock wise, i.e. from west water away from the coast resulting in the
to east. The surface velocity of rotation varies from upwelling of cold water from below. It results
point to point on the Earth. It is about 1600 km/hr in the longitudinal variation in the temperature.
near the equator and reduces gradually to nearly Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up
zero near to poles. A satellite thus launched from warm water near the coast and this raises the
the sites near the equator towards the east direction temperature.
will get an initial boost equal to the velocity of Earth Statement 3 is correct: warm ocean currents
surface. The initial boost helps in cutting down raise the temperature in cold areas while the
the cost of rockets used to launch the satellites. cold currents decrease the temperature in warm
However, this benefit can be taken only for such ocean areas. Thus,
satellites which are placed in geo-stationary orbit. Additional Information:
A geostationary satellite travels from west to east
Latitude also plays a role in distribution of
over the equator. It moves in the same direction
temperature of ocean water.The temperature
and at the same rate Earth is spinning. Such
of surface water decreases from the equator
satellites are usually communication satellites or
towards the poles because the amount of
satellites used for scientific research such as ISS.
insolation decreases polewards
From Earth, a geostationary satellite looks like it
is standing still since it is always above the same 14. (c)
location. Also, the launching stations are generally The primary forces that influence the ocean
located near eastern coast line so that, just in case currents are: (i) heating by solar energy; (ii) wind;
of failure of the launch, the satellite does not fall on (iii) gravity; (iv) Coriolis force (due to rotation of
built-up hinterland. earth)
Statement 2 is correct: Polar satellites are launched Statement 1 is correct: Air pressure and wind
in southward or northward direction as Polar- blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the
orbiting satellites travel in a north-south direction water to move.
from pole to pole. As Earth spins underneath, these
Statement 2 is correct: Heating by solar energy
satellites can scan the entire globe, one strip at a
causes the water to expand. Thus, gravity tends
time. For example: Landsat, NOAA, SPOT, ERS
to pull the water down the pile and create
12. (c) gradient variation.
India, being a vast country is home to different Statement 3 is correct: The Coriolis force
types of Islands. intervenes and causes the water to move to the
Statement 1 is correct: Barren Island, the only right in the northern hemisphere and to the left
active volcano in India is situated in the Nicobar in the southern hemisphere.
Islands. Statement 4 is not correct: Revolution of earth
Statement 2 is not correct: Willingdon Island is has no direct established effect on ocean currents.
the largest artificial island in India, which forms 15. (b)
part of the city of Kochi, in the state of Kerala.
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to
The island is home to the port of Kochi and also
December and harvested in summer from April
to the Kochi Naval Base.
to June. Some of the important rabi crops are
Statement 3 is correct: The islands of the Arabian wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
Sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy. The
Kharif crops are grown with the onset of
entire island group is built of coral deposits
monsoon in different parts of the country and
13. (d) these are harvested in September-October.
Ocean waters get heated up by the solar energy Important crops grown during this season are
just as land. Though the process of heating paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong,
and cooling of the oceanic water is slower than urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.
land, there are various factors that affects the Statement 1 is correct: Wheat is the main cereal
distribution of temperature of ocean water. crop and mainly a Rabi Crop. Wheat cultivation
Statement 1 is correct: Unequal distribution in India traditionally been dominated by the
of land and water affects the distribution of northern region of India. Major wheat growing
temperature of ocean water. The oceans in the states in India are Uttar Pradesh, Punjab,
northern hemisphere receive more heat due to Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar and
their contact with larger extent of land than the Gujarat It has a high source of protein and fibre.
oceans in the southern hemisphere. It is also a good source of magnesium.
Statement 2 is correct: Peas is a Rabi Crop. Peas 17. (a)

are harvested early, as they are ready early: Statement 1 is correct
Indian markets are flooded with green peas from
Though named Goa, Goan coast is located in
January to March, peaking in February.
Karnataka.
Statement 3 is not correct: Maize is a Kharif Crop.
Statement 2 is not correct
Maize requires moderate temperature, rainfall
and lots of sunshine. It needs well-drained fertile Konkan Coast can’t be emergent as the western
soils. It is however susceptible to frost at all coastal plains are an example of submerged
stages of its growth. Maize is also known as corn. coastal plain.It is believed that the famous city
of Dwarka, which was once a part of Indian
mainland situated along the west coast is now
Pulses need less moisture and survive even in submerged under water.
dry conditions. Being leguminous crops, all these
Statement 3 is correct
crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility
by fixing nitrogen from the air. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing
features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters),
Pulses are one of the important food crops
which are used for fishing, inland navigation.
globally due to higher protein content. Pulses are
The Kayals (backwaters) are special attraction for
an important group of crops in India, which is
tourists. Every year, the famous Nehru Trophy
also responsible for yielding large financial gains
Vallamkali (Boat Race) is held in Punnamada
by amounting for a large part of the exports.
Kayal in Kerala.
Pulses are the major sources of protein in the
diet. Of all categories of people pulses form an 18. (c)
integral part of the Indian diet, providing much The Correct sequence can be easily looked at in
needed protein to the carbohydrate rich diet. the figure given below:
India is the largest producer of pulses in the
world . Pulses are 20 to 25 per cent protein by
weight which is double the protein content of
wheat and three times that of rice.
Major pulses are grown chickpeas (gram),
pigeon pea (tur or arhar), moong beans, urd
(black matpe), masur (lentil), peas and various
kinds of beans .
16. (a)
Mahanadi > Tapi > Penner > Subarnarekha
19. (b)
The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed
of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic
rocks. It was formed due to the breaking and
drifting of the Gondwana land and thus, making
it a part of the oldest landmass. The plateau has
broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills.
This plateau consists of two broad divisions,
namely, the Central Highlands and the Deccan
Plateau
Statement 1 is not correct: The Peninsular
plateau is a tableland composed of the old

crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. Statement 2 is correct: The speed of wave in
Statement 2 is correct: It was formed due to the the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It
breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and is more in the shallow water than in the ocean
thus, making it a part of the oldest landmass. T deep. As a result of this, the impact of tsunami is
less over the ocean and more near the coast where
20. (c) they cause large-scale devastations. Therefore, a
Various forms of ocean energy includes Tidal ship at sea is not much affected by tsunami and it
energy, Wave Energy, Ocean Thermal Energy, is difficult to detect a tsunami in the deeper parts
ocean current energy and Osmotic Energy. of sea. So, Ocean vessels are generally advised
Statement 1 is Correct: Oceans a huge heat not return to port if they are at sea and a tsunami
reservoirs. The temperature differential between warning has been issued
warm surface waters and cold deeper layers in Statement 3 is correct: When a tsunami enters
intertropical regions can be used to generate shallow water, its wave-length gets reduced and
steam and then power. Such energy is referred the period remains unchanged, which increases
as the Ocean Thermal Energy. the wave height. Sometimes, this height can be
Statement 2 is correct: Osmotic energy is up to 15m or more, which causes large-scale
produced from the movement of water across destructions along the shores. Thus, these are also
a membrane between a saltwater reservoir and called Shallow Water Waves. So, an approaching
freshwater reservoir. tsunami is sometimes preceded by a noticeable fall
or rise in the water level is a right statement.
Statement 3 is correct: The energy of ocean
currents under the surface is comparable to 22. (b)
the wind above it. Underwater turbines, large Different types of clouds have different
propellers tethered to the seabed, etc., are used characteristics.
to derive power from this source.
Statement 1 is correct: Stratus Clouds are layered
Statement 4 is not correct: Dendrothermal clouds covering large portions of the sky. These
Energy is not a form of ocean energy. It is clouds are generally formed either due to loss of
related to biomass combustion. It has a lot of heat or the mixing of air masses with different
environmental benefits as it is a renewable temperatures. This is a very low cloud, uniformly
source of energy and can help in reducing the grey and thick, which appears like a low ceiling
use of fossil fuels in power generation. or highland fog. It brings dull weather with light
Additional Information: drizzle and is considered dangerous as it reduces
Other forms of ocean energy are as under: the visibility of aircrafts.
Tidal Energy: Like conventional hydroelectric Statement 2 is not correct: Altocumulus clouds are
dams, tidal power plants, built on river estuaries, woolly, bumpy clouds arranged in layers. They
hold back huge amounts of water twice a day, normally indicate fine weather.
which generates power when released. Statement 3 is not correct: Cumulonimbus
Wave Energy: The force of waves can drive clouds are overgrown cumulus clouds extending
mechanical systems to generate power. Originally from a tremendous vertical height from a base of
located just off the coastline, increasingly large 2000 feet to over 30000 feet. Its black and white
experimental plants are now moving to the open globulur masses take a fantastic range of shapes.
sea. It is frquently seen in tropical afternoon and is also
called as thunder clouds as it brings convectional
21. (c) rain, accompanied by lightning and thunder
Statement 1 is not correct: Tsunami Waves
are seismic sea waves and not tidal waves. 23. (a)
Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause The given description refers to Laterite Soil.
the sea-floor to move abruptly resulting in Laterite has been derived from the Latin word
sudden displacement of ocean water in the ‘Later’ which means brick. The laterite soils develop
form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.
(harbour waves) or seismic sea waves. Normally, These are the result of intense leaching due to
the seismic waves cause only one instantaneous tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached
vertical wave; but, after the initial disturbance, a away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium
series of after waves are created in the water that compound are left behind. Humus content of the
oscillates between high crest and low trough in soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in
order to restore the water level. high temperature. These soils are poor in organic
matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites are not
suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile
for cultivation
24. (a)
Coordinates of these bases and ports are as under
1. 1.3450° N, 103.9832°E Changi base (Closest to the equator)
2. 19.6395° N, 57.6779°E Duqm
3. 5.8926° N, 95.3238° E Sabang port
4. 4.6796° S, 55.4920° E Seychelles
25. (c) 6. 40.4093° N, 49.8671° E Baku

The Holocene Epoch is the current period
of geologic time. The International Union of
Geological Sciences (IUGS) recently ratified the
division of the Holocene into the Meghalayan,
Northgrippian, and Greenlandian ages after
siding with arguments that there were clear
signs of a global change in the geological record.
Cambrian: The Cambrian Period is the first
period of the Paleozoic Era spanning from
approximately 540 to 500 million years ago. Thus,
it is not a subdivision of the Holecene epoch.
26. (a)
Amman, Aleppo and Damascus are most
appropriate according to the question.
1. 36.2021° N, 37.1343° E Aleppo
2. 33.5138° N, 36.2765° E Damascus
3. 31.9454° N, 35.9284° E Amman
27. (d)
4. 32.0853° N, 34.7818° E Tel Aviv
India has several peaks located in different parts
5. 36.3566° N, 43.1640° E Mosul of the country.

Statement 1 is not correct: Saddle Peak (738 m) is by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra,
located on North Andaman Island in Andaman Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and
and Nicobar Islands. It is surrounded by Saddle Anaimalai hills and
Peak National Park. It is the highest point of the Cardamom hills in Kerala.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Statement 2 is not correct: Having a height of 30. (d)
1722 meters above the sea level, Gurushikhar Peak All waters in nature, whether rain water or ocean
holds the honour of being not only the highest peak water, contain dissolved mineral salts. Salinity is
of Mount Abu but the whole of Aravali mountain defined as the total content of dissolved salts in
range. sea water. Various factors affect the ocean salinity
Statement 3 is not correct: Kalumar Peak is the such as evaporation and precipitation, freezing
highest peak in the Vindhya Range. It is also called and thawing of ice, wind, ocean currents, etc.
as Sadbhavna Peak. Statement 1 is not correct: The salinity of water
in the surface layer of oceans depends mainly on
28. (d)
evaporation and precipitation.
India has abundant reserve of coal located in
different parts of the country including ODisha, Statement 2 is not correct: Wind influences
Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhatisgarh, West salinity of an area by transferring water to other
Bengal, Bihar. When heated in air, coal burns areas.
and produces mainly carbon dioxide gas. Coal is Additional Information:
processed in industry to get some useful products Other factors that affect ocean salinity are as
such as coke, coal tar and coal gas. under:
Also, coal is graded into different qualities like Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal
anthracite, bituminous, Lignite and Peat. regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and
Statement 1 is not correct: Anthracite is the highest in Polar Regions by the processes of freezing and
quality hard coal with 80 to 95 per cent carbon thawing of ice.
Statement 2 is not correct: Lignite is a low grade The ocean currents contribute to the salinity
brown coal, which is soft with high moisture variations.
content. The principal lignite reserves are in Salinity, temperature and density of water are
Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature
of electricity. or density influences the salinity of an area
29. (c) 31. (a)
The Western Ghats mark the western edges of the
Circum-Pacific belt, also known as the “Ring
Deccan Plateau. Western Ghats lie parallel to the
of Fire” is a 40,000 km (25,000 mile) horseshoe-
western coast. They are continuous and can be
shaped basin that is associated with a nearly
crossed through passes only
continuous series of oceanic trenches, volcanic
Statement 1 is not correct: Eastern Ghats are arcs, and volcanic belts and/or plate movements.
discontinuous, irregular and lie parallel to the
western coast. Western Ghats are continuous and Statement 1 is correct: Pacific Plate subducts
regular. beneath the North American Plate and thus the
formation of pacific ring of fire takes place.
Statement 2 is not correct: Eastern Ghats (and not
western ghats) stretches from the Mahanadi Valley Statement 2 is not correct: Since the pacific plate
to the Nigiris in the south is heavier than the North American Plate, only
the former can get subducted beneath the later.
The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Statement 3 is not correct: The East Pacific Rise
Ghats. Their average elevation is 900– 1600 metres is a site of major seafloor spreading in the Ring
as against 600 metres of the Eastern Ghats. of Fire. The East Pacific Rise is located on the
divergent boundary of the Pacific Plate and the
The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular
Cocos Plate (west of Central America), the Nazca
and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of
Bengal. The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi Plate (west of South America), and the Antarctic
Valley to the Nigiris in the south. Plate.
The Western Ghats cause orographic rain by 32. (d)
facing the rain bearing moist winds to rise along Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist
the western slopes of the Ghats. The height of the
gave a comprehensive argument in the form
Western Ghats progressively increases from north
of “the continental drift theory” regarding the
to south. Western Ghats are locally known
distribution of the oceans and the continents in
1912. Evidences in support of the continental Additional Information

drift includes Jig-Saw Fit, presence of rocks of Other factors that influence the Indian monsoon
same age across oceans, tillite, placer deposits are:
and distribution of fossils.
(a) The differential heating and cooling of
Statement 1 is correct: The Matching of land and water creates low pressure on the
Continents i.e. the Jig-Saw-Fit of continents. For landmass of India while the seas around
Example, The shorelines of Africa and South experience comparatively high pressure.
America facing each other have a remarkable (b) The movement of the westerly jet stream to
and unmistakable match. the north of the Himalayas and the presence
Statement 2 is correct: he occurrence of rich of the tropical easterly jet stream over the
placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and Indian peninsula during summer.
the absolute absence of source rock in the region
is an amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in 34. (c)
Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of El Nino: This is a name given to the periodic
the Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau development of a warm ocean current along
when the two continents lay side by side. the coast of Peru as a temporary replacement
of the cold Peruvian current. The presence of
Statement 3 is correct: Distribution of fossils.
the El Nino leads to an increase in sea-surface
For example: The observations that Lemurs
temperatures and weakening of the trade winds
occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some
in the region. The changes in pressure conditions
to consider a contiguous landmass “Lemuria”
are connected to the El Nino.
linking these three landmasses
Hence, the phenomenon is referred to as ENSO
Additional Information (El Nino Southern Oscillations)
Some other evidences in Support of the Statement 1 is not correct: It is incorrect as the
Continental Drift term El Niño (and not La Nina) refers to the
• Rocks of Same Age across the Oceans: E.g.: large-scale ocean-atmosphere climate interaction
The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million linked to a periodic warming in sea surface
years from Brazil coast matches with those temperatures across the central and east-central
from western Africa. Equatorial Pacific. The presence of the El Nino
• Tillite: It is the sedimentary rock formed leads to an increase in sea-surface temperatures
out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondwana and weakening of the trade winds in the region.
system of sediments from India is known Statement 2 is not correct: It is not correct as La
to have its counter parts in six different Niña (and not El Nino) episodes represent periods
landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. of below-average sea surface temperatures
across the east-central Equatorial Pacific
33. (a)
35. (b)
Indian Monsoon gets affected due to several
factors like the shifting of ITCZ, Presence of high Different places on the earth’s surface receives
pressure area, intense heating of Tibetan Plateau, different amount of rainfal in a year and that too
Jet strems, etc. in different seasons
Statement 1 is correct: Generally, as we proceed
Statement 1 is correct: The shift of the position
from the equator towards the poles, rainfall goes
of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in
on decreasing steadily.
summer, over the Ganga plain, also known as
the monsoon trough during the monsoon season Statement 2 is correct: The rainfall is more over
affects the Indian Monsoon. the oceans than on the landmasses of the world
because of being great sources of water.
Statement 2 is not correct: The presence of
the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, Statement 3 is not correct: The coastal areas of
the world receive greater amounts of rainfall
approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean.
than the interior of the continents.
The intensity and position of this high-pressure
area affects the Indian Monsoon. 36. (a)
Statement 3 is correct: The intense heating of Statement 1 is not correct: The only difference
Tibetan plateau during summer results in strong between the mist and fog is that mist contains
vertical air currents and the formation of low more moisture than the fog. In mist each nuclei
pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above contains a thicker layer of moisture. Mists are
sea level, thus affecting the monsoon. frequent over mountains as the rising warm

air up the slopes meets a cold surface. Fogs are Pakistan claims the entire creek as per paragraphs
prevalent where warm currents of air comes in 9 and 10 of the Bombay Government Resolution
contact with cold currents. of 1914 signed between then the Government of
Statement 2 is correct: Frost forms on cold Sindh and Rao Maharaj of Kutch. Another vital
surfaces when condensation takes place below reason for two countries locking horns over this
freezing point (00C), i.e. the dew point is at or creek is the possible presence of great oil and gas
below the freezing point. The excess moisture concentration under the sea, which are currently
is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals unexploited thanks to the impending deadlock
instead of water droplets. on the issue.
37. (d)
Manganese is an important raw material
for smelting of iron ore and also used for
manufacturing ferro alloys. Manganese deposits
are found in almost all geological formations,
however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar
system. Odisha, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and
Maharashtra are major producers of Manganese.
Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor
producers of manganese.
38. (a) 39. (d)
Sir Creek is a 96-km strip of water disputed Paradwip Port is situated in the Mahanadi
between India and Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch delta, about 100 km from Cuttack. It has the
marshlands. Originally named Ban Ganga, Sir deepest harbour specially suited to handle very
Creek is named after a British representative. The large vessels. It has been developed mainly to
Creek opens up in the Arabian Sea and roughly handle large-scale export of iron-ore. Orissa,
divides the Kutch region of Gujarat from the Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand are the parts of its
Sindh Province of Pakistan. hinterland.
40. (c)
Statement 1 is correct
41. (b) Aurobindo Ghosh. Examples of moderate leaders-

Statement 1 is not correct: The Rebellion rule Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale etc.
was led by Sanyasi (Hindu ascetics) and Fakirs Statement 1 is not correct: Lala Lajpat Rai was
(Muslim religious mendicants) after the 1770 one of the major extremist leaders, who strongly
famine of Bengal. favoured “Swaraj” or “Self-Government”.
They attacked English factories and seized their Statement 2 is not correct: Aurobindo Ghosh was
goods, cash, arms and ammunition. They were also an extremists leader who kept open the option
finally brought under control by the British at the of violent resistance if British repression was
beginning of the 19th century. stepped up.
Statement 2 is correct: The immediate cause of Statement 3 is correct: Gokhale was the leader
the rebellion was the restrictions imposed by the of the moderate faction of the Congress party
British upon pilgrims visiting holy places among that advocated reforms by working with existing
both Hindus and Muslims. government institutions.
Additional Information:
44. (a)
Anandmath written by Bankim Chandra
Chaterjee was set in the background of Bengal Lord Curzon was the Viceroy during Partition of
famine of 1770 and Sanyasi rebellion. Bengal which took place on 16th October,1905. The
partition was proposed citing the administrative
42. (b) difficulties of such a large province. However,
Swadeshi Movement had put a great emphasis the Bengal partition was used as a political tool to
on self- reliance or Atma Shakti. There were undermine the growing nationalism in Bengal and
several features of the movement which were other parts of India.
referred as Constructive Swadeshi.
45. (a)
Statement 1 is not correct: ‘Boycott’ was a
parallel movement to ‘Swadeshi’ movement, This statement was made by J.L Nehru and the
though both had same genesis in the antipartition August offer was rejected by the Congress. The
movement against the British decision to Muslim League also did not accept the offer as
partition Bengal. Under Boycott Movement, it did not give a clear assurance on whether a
British Goods, Services like schools and courts as separate Pakistan would be established.
well as English speech were boycotted. To get Indian Cooperation in the war effort, the
Statement 2 and 3 are correct: Swadeshi Viceroy Lord Linlithgow, announced the August
Movement was primarily a mass resolution to Offer (August, 1940) which proposed:
use only Indian made goods rather than British (i) Dominion status as the objective for India.
made goods. Theoretically, two major trends (ii) Expansion of Viceroy’s executive council.
can be identified in the Swadeshi Movement-
(iii) Setting up of a constituent assembly after the
‘constructive Swadeshi’ and ‘political
war where mainly Indians would decide the
‘extremism’. The aims of Constructive Swadeshi
constitution.
was to encourage establishment of indigenous
enterprises, national schools and village (iv) No future constitution to be adopted without
improvement and society upliftment. This the consent of minorities.
found expression through the business ventures 46. (b)
of Prafulla Chandra Roy or Nilratan Sarkar,
The Muslim League made several demands
national education movement laid down by
through Delhi Proposals
Satishchandra Mukherjee, and constructive work
in villages through a revival of the traditional Statement 1 is not correct: The proposal included
Hindu samaj sketched out by Rabindranath the provision of joint electorates in place of separate
Tagore. electorates with reserved seats for Muslims.
Statement 2 is correct: The proposal included
43. (b) one-third representation of Muslims in Central
During the Indian national movement, leaders Legislative Assembly.
were classified into extremists and moderates. Statement 3 is correct: It also included formation
While extremists believed in militant methods of three new Muslim majority provinces – Sindh,
including swadeshi and boycott, Moderates Balochistan and North West Frontier Province.
believed in cooperation and reconciliation.
The fourth proposal was representation to
Examples of extremist leaders- Bal Gangadhar
Muslims in Punjab and Bengal in proportion
Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai,

to their population. Populary known as “Delhi The first Satyagrahi selected was Acharya Vinoba
Proposals”, these were accepted by the Madras Bhave, who was sent to jail when he spoke
session of the Congress (December, 1927). against the war in the Panaur village and he was
These Proposals were made in the backdrop of arrested subsequently. Second Satyagrahi was
formation of Motilal Nehru Committee to draft Jawahar Lal Nehru.
a constitution in response to Lord Birkenhead’s
challenge. 50. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair
47. (b) became a member of the Viceroy’s Council in
The concept of Swadeshi Samaj was presented 1915 with the charge of the Education portfolio.
by Rabindra Nath Tagore. He believed in He resigned in 1919 in protest against the Rowlatt
India, society is the provider of welfares not the Act.
kingdoms or empires. This belief in the primacy
Statement 2 is not correct: On learning about the
of the society and restriction of the functions of
massacre, Rabindranath Tagore expressed the
the state is consistent with Tagore’ s faith in the
pain and anger of the country by renouncing his
worth and ability of the individual.
Knighthood.
48. (b) Statement 3 is not correct: Satyendra Sinha
The Congress Committee of Inquiry consisted of was the first Indian to become a member of the
Gandhiji, C. R. Das, Purushottam Das Tandon, Viceroy’s Council. He was the incharge of Law
Motilal Nehru, Fazl-ul-Huq, Abbas Tyabji and portfolio from 1909-1914.He was not a member
M.R Jayakar. Its report blamed both Sir Michael of Viceroy’s council during the protest against
O’Dwyer, the Governor of Punjab, and Brigadier Rowlatt Act.
General Dyer and urged the government to
relieve them of their responsibilities. The 51. (d)
Report called the Jallianwala Bagh massacre a “Congress Radio” regularly transmitted
calculated piece of inhumanity towards utterly uncensored informations such as wartime news
innocent and unarmed men, including children, and rumours, speeches, songs and poetry with a
and unparalleled for its ferocity in the history of distinctly radical content.
modern British administration. Statement 1 is correct: Ram Manohar Lohia along
The government formed an official inquiry with Vithaldas Madhavji Khakar, were given the
committe to investigate the Jallianwala bagh responsibility to organise broadcasting messages
Masscre, headed by Lord Hunter and programmes during the movement.
49. (c) Statement 2 is correct: Achyutrao Patwardhan
Statement 1 is not correct: Individual Satyagarh was another important personality associated
was the resultant of August offer’s failure in with Congress Radio, whose stirring speeches
providing sound solution for India’s future inspired the masses.
political status.The main aims for launching the Statement 3 is correct: Usha Mehta was an
satyagraha were: important women personality responsible for
(i) To show that nationalist patience was not underground activities during the movement
due to weakness; and was a member of the group which ran the
(ii) To express people’s feeling that they were Congress Radio.
not interested in the war and that they made 52. (c)
no distinction between Nazism and the double
Statement 1 is correct: The nationalists were
autocracy that ruled India
totally dissatisfied with the Act of 1892. They
(iii)
To give another opportunity to the saw in it a mockery of their demands. It failed
Government to accept Congress’ demands to fulfill their aspirations. Councils were still
peacefully. impotent; despotism still ruled.
Statement 2 is correct: The Individual Satyagraha Statement 2 is not correct: Section 124 A of IPC
was not to seek independence but to affirm the was further broadened (not repealed). It was
Right of Speech against the war efforts. amended in 1898. While under the old IPC,
Statement 3 is correct: The radicals and leftists “exciting or attempting to excite feelings of
wanted to launch a mass Civil Disobedience disaffection” was considered sedition, in Section
Movement but Gandhiji insisted on individual 124A of IPC (1898 Act) “bringing or attempting
satyagraha, as he thought that mass movement to bring into hatred or contempt the Government
might turn aggressive. of India” was also made punishable.
Statement 3 is correct: Official Secrets Act,1904 56. (c)

was one of the reactionary policies of Lord Statement 1 is not correct: Dacca Anushilan
Curzon, which intended to curb the freedom of Samity was established in October 1906 by Pulin
press. Behari Das and not Ashwini Kumar Dutta
53. (b) Statement 2 is correct: Savarkar Brothers
organized Abhinav Bharat as a secret society of
Statement 1 is not correct: Lord Reading was
revolutionaries.
the Viceroy of India for the period of 1921-26.
First Round Table Conference was held from Statement 3 is not correct: Swadesh Bandhab
November 1930 to January 1931, during which Samiti was set up by Ashwini Kumar Dutt,
India’s Viceroy was Lord Irwin (Tenure- 1926- a school teacher, in Barisal. Through the
31). The Congress did not take part in first Round activities of this Samiti, he was able to reach
Table Conference. the remotest corners of the district and generate
an unparalleled mass following among the
Statement 2 is not correct: After the signing of predominantly Muslim Peasantry of the region.
the Gandhi-Irwin pact, Congress agreed to take
part in second conference and withdraw Civil 57. (c)
Disobedience Movement. During the second Statement 1 is correct: The report defined
Round Table Conference of 1931, Lord Wellingdon Dominion Status as the form of government
was the Viceroy of India. desired by India.
Statement 3 is correct: Lord Wellingdon was the Statement 2 is correct: The Nehru Report
Viceroy during the Third Round Table Conference recommended that India should be a federation
which took place in 1932. This conference too was on the basis of linguistic provinces and provincial
not attended by the Congress. autonomy.
54. (d) Statement 3 is correct: The Report also
recommended universal adult suffrage, equal
Statement 1 is correct: Mook Nayak was a Marathi
rights for women, freedom to form unions, and
weekly paper which championed the causes of the
dissociation of the state from religion in any
depressed classes. This was the first newspaper form.
devoted to untouchables. The newspaper was
Statement 4 is correct: It rejected the principle
started by Dr. B.R Ambedkar
of separate electorate and recommended that
Statement 2 is correct: The Annihilation of Caste the elections to be held on the basis of joint
is an undelivered speech written by Dr. Ambedkar electorates. The seats in central and provincial
in 1936 legislatures to be reserved for religious minorities
Statement 3 is correct: “The problem of the rupee” in proportion to their population.
was Ambedkar’s doctoral thesis which analyses Lord Birkenhead’s challenge to formulate a concrete
the problems of currency during the British Raj scheme of constitutional reforms which had the
in India. The book argues for the stabilisation of support of wide sections of Indian political opinion
monetary affairs and exchange rates. was accepted by the Indian political leaders. The
55. (d) All-Parties Conference were held in February,
May and August 1928 to finalize a scheme which
Statement 1 is correct: Indigo Revolt of 1859-60 popularly came to be known as the Nehru Report
was the most militant and widespread peasants after Motilal Nehru, its principal author.
movement. Indigo was grown under an extremely
oppressive system which involved great loss to 58. (a)
the cultivators. The planters forced the peasants to The official name of Rowlatt Act was the Anarchical
take a meagre amount as advance and enter into and Revolutionary Crimes Act 1919. It was enacted
fraudulent contracts. The price paid for the indigo following the recommendation of committee
produce was far below the market price. headed by Sidney Rowlatt, hence it was popularly
Statement 2 is correct: Peasants were forced to known as Rowlatt Act. Due to its excessive
grow indigo on their lands instead of more paying repressive nature it was also called “Black Act”.
crops like rice. Statement 1 is correct: This Act had been
Statement 3 is correct: Indigo had deep roots hurriedly passed through the Imperial
which exhausted the soil rapidly resulting in less Legislative Council despite the united opposition
fertile soil. The land could not be sown with rice of the Indian members. It gave the Government
soon after an indigo harvest. enormous powers to repress political activities,

and allowed detention of political prisoners Additional Information
without trial for two years. The Swarajists or pro changers emerged as a
Statement 2 is not correct: The Act was response to the Gandhian programme post
repealed following the recommendations of the NCM. They said that nationalists should end the
Repressive Laws Committee in March 1922. boycott of legislative councils, enter them and
Withdrawl of the Non-Cooperation Movement use it as weapon of public enthusiasm.
was not becasue of any agreement but it was put No changers are those who supported Mahatma
to halt by Gandhiji following the Chauri-Chaura Gandhis view. Vallabhbhai patel, Rajendra prasad,
incidence where a peaceful demonstration in a C. Rajagopalchari, M.A. Ansari, Jawaharlal Nehru
bazaar turned into a violent clash with the police. were no changers.
59. (d) 62. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Champaran Statement 1 is not correct: Only one Indian
Movement of 1917 led by Mahatma Gandhi was member was appointed for the first time as a
the first Civil Disobedience Movement, with member of the Governor-General’s Executive
the purpose to remove the hardships of indigo Council. Sir Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the first
workers in Champaran (Bihar) exploited by the Indian to be appointed.
European planters. The Inquiry Commision Statement 2 is correct: Communal representation
appointed by the Government (Gandhiji being was for the first time introduced in the interests
one of the member), agreed to abolish the of Muslims. Separate electorates were provided
exploitative tinkathiya system and planters were for the Muslims.
made to refund 25% of the money they had taken Statement 3 is not correct: Government of India
illegaly from the peasants. Act 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Act) introduced
Statement 2 is not correct: This was the first Non- the system of Dyarchy at Provincial level where
Cooperation movement of Mahatma Gandhi. Provincial subjects were divided into “Reserved
Kheda Satyagraha was started to demand relief Subjects” such as police, jails, land revenue,
for the distressed peasants of the Kheda District, irrigation and forests and “Transferred Subjects”
who suffered crop failure owing to the draught. such as education, local self-government, public
According to the Revenue Code, if the yield was health, sanitation, agriculture and industries.
less than one-fourth the normal produce, the Statement 4 is not correct: According to Indian
farmers were entitled to remission. However, Councils Act 1892, elected members of new
their appeals for the remission were refused councils were empowered to question the
by the authorities. This was the first Non- executive. According to Indian Council Act
Cooperation Movement of Mahatma Gandhi. 1909 The Councils were given right to discuss
and move resolutions on the Budget and on
60. (c) all matters of public interest. However, the
Statement 1 is not correct: The founder of the Governor-General had the power to disallow
English newspaper Leader was Madan Mohan discussion on the budget.
Malviya.
63. (b)
Statement 2 is correct: Bahiskrit Bharat was a
Statement 1 is correct: The Karachi Session’s
Marathi fortnightly founded by B.R.Ambedkar.
resolution guaranteed the basic civil rights of free
Statement 3 is not correct: Commonweal was speech, free press, free assembly, and freedom of
a weekly newspaper founded in 1914 by Annie association. Article 19(1)(a) of constitution- All
Besant. The daily newspaper New India was also citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech
started by Annie Besant. and expression which also includes freedom of
press according to supreme court statement.
61. (a)
Statement 2 is correct: Karachi Session’s
Pro changers:
resolution also includes free and compulsory
Vithhalbhai Patel was elected as the speaker of primary education. The Constitution (Eighty-
central legislative assembly in 1925 by Swarajists. sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article
Motilal Nehru was one of the secretaries of 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide
Swaraj Party. free and compulsory education of all children
C.R. Das was President of Swaraj Party. in the age group of six to fourteen years as a
Subhash Chandra Bose actively supported Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State
Swarajists/pro changers. may, by law, determine.
Statement 3 is not correct: This Right was not would be created, but the Congress position
mentioned in Karchi session 1931. Article 32 on unity would be taken into account to make
provides Right to constitutional remedies. Pakistan as small as possible.
Statement 4 is not correct: Though this is Additional information:
mentioned in Karachi session, it is not a On June 3, 1947 Lord Mountbatten published
Fundamental Right in Indian constitution. a statement outlining his solution of India’s
Additional information: political problem.
The Karachi session 1931 became memorable for Main points:
its resolution on Fundamental Rights and the 1. Punjab and Bengal legislative assemblies
National Economic Programme. would meet in two groups, Hindus and
Other basic civil rights guaranteed in Karachi Muslims, to vote for partition. If a simple
Session 1931: majority of either group voted for partition,
then these provinces would be partitioned.
• Equality before the law irrespective of caste,
creed or sex. 2. Sindh would take its own decision.
• Neutrality of the state in regard to all 3. Referendum in NWFP and Sylhyet district
religions. of Bengal.
• Elections on the basis of universal adult 4. A boundary commission would be set up if
franchise. partition was to be affected.
• It promised substantial reduction in rent 65. (d)
and revenue, exemption from rent in case Statement 1 is not correct: The rebellion (ulgulan)
of uneconomic holdings, and relief of of the Munda tribesmen, led by Birsa Munda,
agricultural indebtedness and control of occurred during 1899-1900. For over thirty years
usury. the Munda sardars had been struggling against
• Better conditions for workers including the destruction of their system of common land
a living wage, limited hours of work and holdings by the intrusion of jagirdar, thikadar
protection of women workers. (revenue farmers) and merchant moneylenders.
• The right to organize and form unions to Statement 2 is not correct: Birsa Munda fought
workers and peasants. against and English officials without the help
of the moneylenders/mahajans. Birsa Munda
• State ownership or control of key industries,
strongly protested against non-tribals occupying
mines and means of transport.
tribal lands. His followers included other tribals
64. (a) of the region – Santhals and Oraons. He also
Statement 1 is correct: The Mountbatten Plan, disliked the moneylenders and the zamindars
who ill-treated the Mundas.
as the 3rd June, 1947 Plan came to be known,
sought to effect an early transfer of power on the Statement 3 is correct: Chhotanagpur Tenancy
basis of Dominion Status to two successor states, Act of 1908 is an important act that protects
India and Pakistan. ownership of tribal land. It restricts transfer
of tribal land to non- tribals. This act was
Statement 2 is not correct: Since Congress was
consequence of Munda Rebellion.
asked to concede to Mountbatten plan, their
main point i.e. a unified India, all their other Aditional information:
points would be met. Whether it was ruling The Mundas were a prominent tribe in the Bihar
out independence for the princes or unity for region. During the British rule, many non-tribals
Bengal or Hyderabad’s joining up with Pakistan migrated to the traditional tribal areas and
instead of India, Mountbatten firmly supported grabbed the land owned by tribal groups. In
Congress on these issues. due course, the tribals were compelled to work
as labourers under the non-tribals. This system
Statement 3 is not correct: Both congress
was locally called bethbegari or forced labour.
and Muslim League accepted the proposal.
The Munda rebellion was led by a great Munda
Mountbatten’s formula was to divide India but leader called Birsa Munda. The main rebellion
retain maximum unity. The country would be took place in the region south of Ranchi in 1899-
partitioned but so would Punjab and Bengal, 1900.The rebellion aimed to drive away the
so that the limited Pakistan that emerged British and establish Munda Raj or Munda rule
would meet both the Congress and League’s in this region. The rebellion came to be called
positions to some extent. The League’s position
Ulugan or the Great Tumult.
on Pakistan was conceded to the extent that it

66. (d) whose Bandi Jiwan served as a textbook to
Statement 1 is not correct: The Servants of the revolutionary movement, met in Kanpur
India Society was started by Gopal Krishna in October 1924 and founded the Hindustan
Gokhale in 1905 with a view to the training of Republican Association (or Army) to organize
national missionaries for the service of India, armed revolution to overthrow colonial rule
and to promote, by all constitutional means, the and establish in its place a Federal Republic of
true interests of the Indian people. This society the United States of India whose basic principle
trained social workers of stature of V. Shrinivas would be adult franchise.
Shastri, G.K. Devdhar, N.M. Joshi etc.
Statement 2 is correct: The most important
Statement 2 is not correct: Social Services ‘action’ of the HRA was the Kakori Robbery. On
League was founded by Narayan Malhar Joshi
9 August 1925, ten men held up the 8-Down train
in 1911. This organisation conducted training
at Kakori, an obscure village near Lucknow, and
programmes for volunteers. These volunteers’
looted its official railway cash. The Government
were subjected to utilise their work for people
suffering from famines, epidemics, flood, etc. reaction was quick and hard. It arrested a large
number of young men and tried them in the
N.M. Joshi represented Indian labour on behalf
Kakori Conspiracy Case. Ashfaqulla Khan,
of Government of India at the first International
Labour Conference held at Washington in 1919. Ramprasad Bismil, Ràshan Singh and Rajendra
He was also the member of Royal Commission on Lahiri were hanged, four others were sent to
Indian Labour. He frequently represented Indian the Andamans for life and seventeen others
labour at International Labour Organisation were sentenced to long terms of imprisonment.
Conferences. Chandrashekhar Azad remained at large.
67. (d) 69. (a)

Statement 1 and 2 are correct as these points are In 1937 elections were held under the provisions
mentioned in Gandhi’s 11 points of the Government of India Act of 1935. Congress
Statement 3 is not correct: Its abolition of salt tax Ministries were formed in seven states of India.
and not the reduction. On 1 September 1939 the Second World War broke
The resolution affirming complete independence out. The British Government without consulting
as the goal by the congress was moved by the people of India involved the country in the
Gandhiji himself and passed in 1929. He put war. The Congress vehemently opposed it and
forward his famous 11 points demand before the as a mark of protest the Congress Ministries in
Viceroy Lord Irwin on 30th January 1930. the Provinces resigned on 12 December 1939.
Additional Information: The Muslim League celebrated that day as the
Gandhi’s 11 points: Deliverance Day.
(1) Prohibit intoxicants. 70. (a)
(2) Change the ratio between the rupee and the Statement 1 is correct: Held at Faizpur near
sterling pound.
Jalgaon, this was the first Congress Session
(3) Reduce the rate of land revenue. in a rural area. This session was presided by
(4) Abolition of salt tax. Jawaharlal Nehru.
(5) Reduce the military expenditure. Statement 2 is correct: Gandhiji presided
(6) Reduce expenditure on civil administration. over the Belgaum session in December 1924
(7) Impose custom duty on foreign cloth. with the objective of restoring unity between
(8) Accept the Postal Reservation Bill. Congressmen who were for Council entry
(9) Abolish the CID department. and those against it and between Hindus and
Muslims.
(10) Release all political prisoners.
Statement 3 is not correct: Sarojini Naidu was
(11) Issue licenses of arms to citizens for self-
protection. the first Indian women to become the President
of the Indian National congress at Kanpur in 1925
68. (b) and also the first women to become the Governor
Statement 1 is not correct: Ramprasad Bismil, of a state in India. First women President was
Jogesh Chatterjea and Sachindranath Sanyal Annie Besant in 1917.
71. (d) an altogether more practical solution: Hindi in the

Statement 1 is not Correct: Whitley Commission Roman Script.
(1929) was appointed to study the condition of Statement 4 is not correct: Congress adopted
labours in Industries. socialist principle in its Avadi session in 1955.
Statement 2 is not Correct: Lee commission 75. (b)
was appointed to involve more Indians in Option (b) is the correct answer.
Civil Services. It was appointed by the British
Sachindranath Sanyal was a revolutionary leader
government in 1923.
who founded Hindustan Republic Association
72. (b) which later transformed into Hindustan Socialist
Statement 1 is not Correct: The prime goal Republic Association in 1928. Other founding
of Akali movement was to liberate the Sikh members of this organisation were Bhagat
Gurudwaras from the control of Udasi Mahants Singh, Sukhdev and Akshay Sharma. This group
(traditional clergies). was involved in Kakori conspiracy case of 1925.
Statement 2 is correct: Sikh Gurudwara Act SachindraSanyal established the branch of
was passed in 1925 which gave the control Anushilan Samiti at Patna.
of Gurudwaras to Shiromani Gurudwara 76. (a)
Prabandhak Committee.
Only statement (a) is correct.
73. (a) Nyayadan Mandals and Gandhi marriages
Statement 1 is correct: Gandhi believed in the were performed by Prati Sarkar set up in Satara,
idea of welfare maximization and for that he Maharashtra. Hence option (b) and (c) are not correct.
mooted the idea of self-sufficient village where Ruler of Aundh was pro nationalist he got the
the villagers will be the independent economic constitution of his state drafted by Gandhiji.
unit. There won’t be any control of any external Hence statement (d) is not correct.
agency or state’s machinery on individual’s lives.
Statement 2 is correct: Gandhiji believed that 77. (c)
before the advent of machines and industries Statement 1 is not correct: Lucknow session of
there were not rampant miseries in India. He Congress was presided by a moderate Ambika
believed that machines and industries generate Charan Majumdar. Madan Mohan Malviya
inequality and poverty which is the worst form presided 1909 session of congress held at Lahore.
of violence, therefore world bereft of industries Statement 2 and 3 are correct:
would be non-violent.
Muslim league dominated by younger
Statement 3 is not correct: Gandhi never revolutionaries were influenced by Congress and
advocated for annihilation of caste, he wanted both these organisations were fighting imperialist
to reform it by changing heart and soul of oppressions so the choice of both organisations saw
upper caste. It was Ambedkar who talked about obvious convergence. Congress accepted League’s
annihilation of caste. demand of separate electorate and League agreed
74. (d) to present joint constitutional demand with the
Statement 1 is correct: Though Haripura session Congress.
was presided by Subhash Chandra Bose but Both the moderates and the extremists realised that
National planning committee was presided by the split had led to political inactivity. Annie Besant
Pandit Nehru. and Tilak had had made vigorous efforts for their
Statement 2 is Correct: In the session, a resolution reunion. So, A C Majumdar readmitted extremists
was passed where an ultimatum of six months to Congress fold.
was given to the British. 78. (b)
Statement 3 is correct: The Congress had adopted Statement 1 is not correct: Lokmanya Tilak started
Hindi, but there had been controversy between
the Home Rule League at the Bombay Provincial
those who wanted a Sanskritised Hindi, drawing
Conference held at Belgaum in April 1916. Annie
on hindu sources, and those who preferred
Besant’s impatient followers, unhappy with
Hindustani, which accomodated Urdu with its
her decision to wait till September, secured her
Muslim connections. The controversy embraced
permission to start Home Rule League groups.
the script. Sanskritised Hindi was in the Devanagri
In September 1916, Annie Besant announced the
script; Urdu in the Arabic. Bose had a radical, and
formation of her Home Rule League.

The two leagues avoided any friction by Kabir was loved equally by Muslims and Hindus,
demarcating their area of activity: Tilak’s league and on his death both a mazaar [tomb] and
was to work in Maharashtra (excluding Bombay ‘samadhi’ were built by Muslims and Hindus
City), Karnataka, the Central Provinces and Berar respectively.
and Annie Besant’s League was given charge of the
rest of India. 82. (b)
Statement 2 is correct: Bande Mataram was a Statement 1 is correct: A very Severe Cyclonic
journal founded in Paris in 1909 by Madam Bhikaji Storm Mekenu crossed the Yemeni Island of
Kama which highlighted the oppressions and Socotra on 24 May, 2018, leaving 38 Indians
tyrannies of British in India. It advocated for Home stranded on the island. In response to a distress
Rule in India. call received, Indian Naval Ship Sunayna,
deployed for a mission based deployment in the
79. (d) Gulf of Aden, was directed to evacuate stranded
Statement 1 is correct: When all major leaders Indian nationals.
had been arrested by the British during Quit India Statement 2 is not correct: Operation Rahat was
Movement, Aruna Asaf Ali gave much needed the name given to the Indian Air Force’s rescue
push to the movement. She hoisted Indian national operations to evacuate civilians affected by the
flag at the gowalia tank in 1942. She was awarded 2013 North India floods.
with Bharat Ratna in 1997. Statement 3 is not correct: Operation Maitri was
Statement 2 is correct: Bhima Bai Holkar led a a rescue and relief operation in Nepal by the
brigade of 2500 cavalary, sword and lance in hand government of India and Indian armed forces in
into the battle against the British at Mahidpur. the aftermath of the April 2015 Nepal earthquake.
Laxmibai is believed to be inspired by her. Additional Information:
80. (c) Operation Safe Homecoming was an operation
launched by Indian government on 26 February
This statement is about Vithalbhai Patel. He
2011 to evacuate its nationals, who were fleeing
was inspired by Gandhiji and joined Congress.
from the Libyan Civil War. It was a combination
He was not a mass leader therefore didn’t have
of an air and sea-bridge which was to be
ground support base but people were moved by
conducted by the Indian Navy and Air India.
his fiery speeches. Later, he left Congress and
formed Swaraj party with C R Das and Motilal Operation Cactus was launched by Indian Armed
Nehru. Patel was one of the leading voices who Forces to prevent the coup of Maldives attempted
rebelled against Gandhi when he aborted NCM by a group of Maldivians led by Abdullah
after Chauri Chaura incident. In 1923 he was Luthufi and assisted by armed mercenaries of a
elected to the central legislative assembly, a Tamil secessionist organisation from Sri Lanka,
chamber of elected and appointed Indian and the People’s Liberation Organisation of Tamil
British representatives with limited legislative Eelam (PLOTE), to overthrow the government in
the Island Republic of Maldives.
powers.
83 (b)
81. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: All the three countries
Some of the great writings of the Kabir Das are
of IBSA are democratic countries. It forms a
Bijak, Kabir Granthawali, Anurag Sagar, Sakhi
group of South-South Cooperation, a term that
Granth etc.
has been historically used by policymakers and
Additional Information: academics to describe the exchange of resources,
Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited technology, and knowledge between developing
to pay tributes to 15th century mystic poet Kabir countries.
at his final resting place(Samadhi) in Maghar, Statement 2 is correct: The idea of establishing
Sant Kabir Nagar on his 500th death anniversary. IBSA was discussed at a meeting between the then
In this ceremony Kabir’s great poem Bijak has Prime Minister of India and the then Presidents
also been gifted to PM Modi. His great writing of Brazil and South Africa in Evian on 2 June
Bijak has huge a collection of poems which makes 2003 on the margins of the G-8 Summit. The
clear the Kabir’s general view of the spirituality. grouping was formalized and named the IBSA
PM also unveiled a plaque to mark the laying of Dialogue Forum when the Foreign Ministers of
the foundation stone for a Sant Kabir Academy the three countries met in Brasilia on 6 June 2003
at the place. and issued the Brasilia Declaration.
Statement 3 is not correct: IBSA meet was held Additional Information:

in Pretoria, South Africa where as BRICS summit Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare
was held in Johannesburg, South Africa. released the National Health Profile (NHP)-2018
84. (d) prepared by the CBHI. The vision of the NHRR
Project is to strengthen evidence-based decision
Statement 1 is correct: Methanol is a clean making and develop a platform for citizen and
burning fuel which can replace both petrol & provider-centric services by creating a robust,
diesel in transportation and, LPG, Wood and standardized and secured IT-enabled repository
Kerosene in cooking fuel. It can also replace of India’s healthcare resources.
diesel in Railways, Marine Sector, Gensets, Power
Generation and Methanol based reformers could 86. (c)
be an ideal complement to Hybrid and Electric This year 44th summit of G7 was held on 8–9
Mobility. June 2018 in Quebec, Canada. G7 — comprising
Statement 2 is correct: Methanol burns efficiently countries of Canada, France, Germany, Italy,
in all internal combustion engines, produces no Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United
particulate matter, no soot, almost nil SOX and States
NOX emissions (Near Zero Pollution). 1. In 2014 Russian Federation was suspended
Statement 3 is correct: India by adopting by G7 members from the political forum G8
Methanol can have its own indigenous fuel at the following the annexation of Crimea. After
cost of approximately Rs. 19 per litre at least 30% the suspension, in 2017 Russian Federation
cheaper than any available fuel. decided permanently to leave the G8.
Additional Information: 2. India isn’t a member of G7.
NITI Aayog working on road map for full-scale 3. Japan is a member of G7. The G7 is composed
“Methanol economy”. Methanol Economy, if of the seven wealthiest advanced countries.
adopted by India can be one of the best ways to The People’s Republic of China, according
mitigate the Environmental hazards of a growing to its data, would be the second-largest with
economy. Methanol Economy is the “Bridge” to the 10.3% of the world net wealth, but is
the dream of a complete “Hydrogen based fuel excluded because the IMF and other main
systems”. Methanol is a scalable and sustainable global institutions do not consider China an
fuel, that can be produced from a variety of advanced country and because of its relatively
feedstocks like Natural Gas, Coal (Indian High low net wealth per adult and HDI.
Ash Coal), Bio-mass, Municipal Solid waste and
most importantly from CO2. The Concept of 87. (b)
“Methanol Economy” is being actively pursued Statement 1 is not correct: It is second largest
by China, Italy, Sweden, Israel, US, Australia, coal block in the world and largest coal block in
Japan and many other European countries. 10% Asia, due to the amount of coal reserves which is
of fuel in China in transport Sector is Methanol.
an estimated reserve of 2,102 million tonnes.
85. (c) Statement 2 is correct: It is located in Birbhum
Statement 1 is correct: It will now be possible to district of West Bengal.
provide comprehensive data on all private and Additional Information:
public health establishments and other resources,
This coal block has been a bone of contention
including Railways, Employees’ State Insurance
between the state and central governments for a
Corporation (ESIC), defence and petroleum
while now. But finally the state government got
healthcare establishments.
the block to mine.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) is the project 88. (b)
technology partner for providing data security, Seva Bhoj Yojna:
not the CERT-IN.
The Ministry of Culture, Government of India
Statement 3 is correct: Central Bureau of Health has introduced a new scheme namely ‘Seva Bhoj
Intelligence (CBHI), established in 1961, is
Yojna’
the health intelligence wing of the Directorate
General of Health Services and under the The scheme envisages to reimburse the Central
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Government share of Central Goods and
Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated Goods and

Service Tax (IGST) so as to lessen the financial regime was not cooperative with India. Ongoing
burden of such Charitable Religious Institutions President Abdulla Yameen has maintained a
who provide Food/Prasad/Langar (Community close relations with China as well as Pakistan.
Kitchen)/Bhandara free of cost without any But according to the election results Sept,2018 this
discrimination to Public/Devotees. regime lost the election and certainly the victory of
The Charitable Religious Institutions such Ibrahim Mohamed Solih will be good for Maldives-
as Temples, Gurudwara, Mosque, Church, India relations.
Dharmik Ashram, Dargah, Matth, Monasteries Option (d): In Mauritius India already bagged the
etc. which have been in existence for at least five rights in 2015 to develop the island which is named
years before applying for financial assistance/ Agalega Island. So it can be eliminated.
grant and who serve free food to at least 5000 The correct answer is option (c)
people in a month and such institutions covered PM also announced a $100 million Line of Credit for
under Section 10( 23BBA) of the Income Tax Seychelles that it can use to buy military hardware
Act or Institutions registered as Society under from India for building its maritime capacity.
Societies Registration Act ( XXI of 1860) or as a
Public Trust under any law for the time being 91. (b)
in force of statuary religious bodies constituted Statement 1 is not correct: FATF is not the principle
under any Act or institutions registered under organ of IMF. It is a group of 37 nations, an inter-
Section 12AA of Income Tax Act shall be eligible governmental body established in 1989 on the
for grant under the scheme. initiative of G7.
Statement 2 is correct: Its objective is to combat
89. (d) money laundering, terrorist financing and other
Statement 1 is not correct: The Nobel Peace related threats to the integrity of the international
Prize 2016 was awarded to Juan Manuel Santos financial system.
“for his resolute efforts to bring the country’s Additional Information:
more than 50-year-long civil war to an end with Pakistan has been placed on the grey list by the
the Revolutionary Armed Forces of Colombia, or Financial Action Task Force (FATF) for failing to
FARC. curb anti-terror financing. Pakistan remained on
the FATF grey list from 2012 to 2015. This time it has
The Nobel Peace Prize 2013 was awarded to
been placed again in 2018 plenary session of FATF.
Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical
The decision was taken late at the global financial
Weapons (OPCW) “for its extensive efforts to watchdog Financial Action Task Force’s (FATF)
eliminate chemical weapons” and not of 2016. plenary session in Paris, despite its diplomatic
Statement 2 is not correct: India has signed and efforts to avert the decision.
acceded to the convention in 1996, which came The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD
into force in 1997. India ratified the CWC in 1996, headquarters in Paris.
and in 1997 declared a stockpile of 1,044 tons
92. (b)
of Sulfur Mustard. Destruction was completed
in 2009 making it the third state to completely SCO is a permanent intergovernmental
international organisation, the creation of which
destroy its chemical weapons stockpile.
was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai
Additional Information: (China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the
OPCW is the implementing body of the Chemical People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz
Weapons Convention (CWC), which entered Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic
into force in 1997. As of today OPCW has 193 of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan.
Member States, who are working together to The historical meeting of the Heads of
achieve a world free of chemical weapons. State Council of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation was held on 8-9 June 2017 in Astana.
90. (c) On the meeting the status of a full member of
Option (a): In June, India got Singaporean Changi the Organization was granted to the Republic of
base for refueling of its Navy vessels. India and the Islamic Republic of Pakistan.
Turkmenistan is not a member of SCO but appear
Option (b): In recent past our relations with
in its meetings as a Guest Attendees.
Maldives turned a little bit sour, as the present
93. (b) it is developed by Russia’s Almaz Central Design

Statement 1 is not correct: It is a trilateral naval Bureau and not by any US company.
excercise between USA, India & Japan. Another famous defence deal which is in the news
Statement 2 is correct: The primary aim of from some time is Rafale deal of India with France
the exercise was to increase interoperability related to the purchase of 36 multirole fighter
amongst the navies of India, Japan and the US aircraft.
as well as develop a common understanding and 96. (d)
procedures for maritime security operations.
Option (d) is not correct: A major lithium ion
Additional Information: battery disadvantage is their cost. Typically they
The 21st edition of the Malabar exercises, are around 40% more costly to manufacture than
Malabar-17, was conducted in the Bay of Bengal Nickel cadmium cells. This is a major factor when
from July 10 to 17, 2017. Originally begun in considering their use in mass produced consumer
1992 as a bilateral exercise between India and items where any additional costs are a major issue.
the United States, Japan became a permanent Additional Information:
partner in 2015. Past non-permanent participants CSIR lab to give technology for India’s first
are Australia and Singapore. indigenous Lithium Ion Battery project. Currently,
94. (b) Indian manufacturers source Lithium Ion Battery
from China, Japan and South Korea among some
Statement 1 is not correct: JWST is an other countries. India is one of the largest importers
international collaboration between NASA, the and in 2017, it imported nearly 150 Million US
European Space Agency (ESA), and the Canadian Dollar worth Li-Ion batteries.
Space Agency (CSA). ISRO is not involved in
Rechargeable lithium-ion batteries cycle 5000 times
Webb.
or more compared to just 400-500 cycles in lead
Statement 2 is correct: It will study every phase acid. Hence Li-ion will be more rechargeable than
in the history of our Universe, ranging from the lean acid battery and not less.
first luminous glows after the Big Bang, to the
formation of solar systems capable of supporting 97. (a)
life on planets like Earth, to the evolution of our Statement 1 is correct: AIIB is a multilateral
own Solar System. development bank with a mission to improve
Statement 3 is not correct: The JWST will not social and economic outcomes in Asia.
be in orbit around the Earth, like the Hubble Statement 2 is not correct: No provision as such.
Space Telescope is - it will actually orbit the Many Europian and African countries are also its
Sun, 1.5 million kilometers away from the Earth members.
at what is called the second Lagrange point or Statement 3 is not correct: Its voting rights is
L2. The speciality about this orbit is that it lets proportionate with the shares one holds in the
the telescope to stay in line with the Earth as it bank. China is the leading shareholder in the bank
moves around the Sun. This allows the satellite’s followed by India.
large sunshield to protect the telescope from the Statement 4 is correct: India is among the
light and heat of the Sun and Earth (and Moon). founding members of the bank. It was proposed
Additional Information: by China in 2013 and the initiative was launched
Webb was formerly known as the “Next at a ceremony in Beijing in October 2014. Its
Generation Space Telescope” (NGST); it was headquarter is in Beijing, China.
renamed in Sept. 2002 after a former NASA It began operations in January 2016 and have now
administrator, James Webb. grown to 87 approved members worldwide. By
investing in sustainable infrastructure and other
It is a successor to the Hubble Space Telescope
productive sectors in Asia and beyond, we will
and currently scheduled to launch in 2021.
better connect people, services and markets that
95. (a) over time will impact the lives of billions and
Statement 1 is correct: Missiles are equipped with build a better future.
directed explosion warhead, which increases the Additional Information:
probability of complete destruction of targets. The starting capital of the Bank was $100 billion,
The Russian S-400 air defence missile system can equivalent to 2⁄3 of the capital of the Asian
track and shoot down about 80 simultaneous Development Bank and about half that of the
targets, including cruise, ballistic missiles, aircraft, World Bank. It received the highest credit ratings
UAVs, as well as gound based targets. from the three biggest rating agencies (S&P,
Statement 2 is not correct: As it is mentioned above Moody’s, & Fitch Group) in the world, and is

seen as a potential rival to the World Bank and Gothic style was built as the headquarters of the
IMF. Great Indian Peninsular Railway. In 2004, the
AIIB core principles are openness, transparency, station was designated by UNESCO.
independence and accountability and our mode Site 4: Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri
of operation is “Lean, Clean and Green”. Mountains, a mountain range along the western
side of India and one of the world’s ten “Hottest
98. (a)
biodiversity hotspots”. A total of thirty nine
GROWTH is to observe cosmic events lasting for properties (including national parks, wildlife
a short time, the country’s first robotic telescope sanctuaries and reserve forests) were designated
jointly constructed by Indian Institute of as world heritage sites – twenty in the state of
Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, and IIT Bombay Kerala, ten in Karnataka, five in Tamil Nadu
became operational in the second week of June at and four in Maharashtra. It was designated by
the Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle in UNESCO in 2012.
Ladakh. It is a part of the international GROWTH
(Global Relay of Observatories) Watching Additional Information:
Transients Happen) network.This means that a To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be
celestial object can be observed day and night an already classified landmark, unique in some
with a network of telescopes worldwide. respect as a geographically and historically
identifiable place having special cultural or
99. (d) physical significance.
A World Heritage Site is a landmark or area which Italy has the highest number of sites (54) and as
is selected by the United Nations Educational, of June 2018, India has 37 heritage sites, the sixth
Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) most of any country.
as having cultural, historical, scientific or other
form of significance, and is legally protected 100. (d)
by international treaties. The sites are judged Statement 1 is not correct: The Chandrabhaga
important to the collective interests of humanity. beach on the Konark coast of Odisha will be the
Site 1: This is a collection of the Victorian first in Asia to get the Blue Flag certification.
Gothic buildings and Art Deco buildings. They Statement 2 is not correct: The standards
are Bombay High Court, Rajabai Clock Tower, were established by the Copenhagen-based
Eros Cinema and University of Mumbai. It was Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE)
included in World Heritage Site in 2018. in 1985.
Site 2: The Elephanta Caves are a network of Additional Information:
sculpted caves located on Elephanta Island, To achieve the Blue Flag standards, a beach
or Gharapuri in Mumbai Harbour. The island must be plastic-free and equipped with a waste
consists of two groups of caves — the first is a management system. The iconic Blue Flag is
large group of five Hindu caves, the second, a one of the world’s most recognised voluntary
smaller group of two Buddhist caves.The caves eco-labels awarded to beaches, marinas, and
were designated by UNESCO in 1987. sustainable boating tourism operators.
Site 3: Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus is a Other facilities available apart from given
historic railway station in Mumbai. The station above are clean water should be available for
was designed by Frederick William Stevens, a tourists, apart from international amenities. The
consulting architect in 1887–1888. It took ten beach should have facilities for studying the
years to complete and was named “Victoria environmental impact around the area.
Terminus” in honour of the Queen and Empress
nnnn
Victoria. This famous architectural landmark in

CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019 General Studies - Test-1

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019 General Studies - Test-1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

https://t.me/IAS201819 https://t.me/PDF4Exams https://t.

CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

2 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

Q.1 Which of the following are indirect sources of 2. Pacific plate

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 3

The Hindu ZoneOfficial

eSandesh (An Indian App)

For More download eSandesh App from play store

4 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 5

6 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 7

8 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 9

10 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 11

12 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 13

14 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 15

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

16 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

BIG LEARNINGS MADE E ASY

Modern Indian History

History of Ancient India

History of the World

Science & Technology

Ecology and Environment

Corporate Oﬃce: 44A/1, Kalu Sarai, New Delhi-110016 | 011-45124660, 08860378007

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 1

CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019 | Test-1

1. (b) Statement 4 is Correct: Relief too plays a major

2 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 3

Note: In the above figure, M refers to Nautical Miles (1 M = 1.852 km)

4 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 5

Statement 2 is correct: Peas is a Rabi Crop. Peas 17. (a)

6 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 7

25. (c) 6. 40.4093° N, 49.8671° E Baku

8 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 9

1912. Evidences in support of the continental Additional Information

10 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 11

41. (b) Aurobindo Ghosh. Examples of moderate leaders-

12 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 13

Statement 3 is correct: Official Secrets Act,1904 56. (c)

14 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 15

16 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

67. (d) 69. (a)

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 17

71. (d) an altogether more practical solution: Hindi in the

18 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 19

Statement 3 is not correct: IBSA meet was held Additional Information:

20 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2019

History, Geography & Current Affairs_190901 | 21