SFG 2024 Level 1 Test 42 QP Eng King R Queen P

Don‘t Pay Any Money[FREE BY RISHABH RAJPUT]
SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG24-L1T42 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.
A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and
Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and
Name:
Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box Email Id:
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything
Mobile No:
else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

[1] Others God Will Help You]
Q.1) Consider the following statements d) to reduce the ecological, human health, and
regarding mercury pollution: economic impacts of marine debris.
1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury

pollution in the world. Q.4) With reference to the effects of Acid rain,
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause consider the following statements:
mercury pollution. 1. It can alter the composition of soil.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to 2. It damages architectural structures by
mercury. corroding metal and hastening the
How many of the above statements are degradation of paint and stone.
correct? 3. It can cause respiratory issues in humans
a) Only one and animals.
b) Only two 4. It enhances the ability of trees at higher

latitudes to endure freezing temperatures
c) All three
by improving their energy absorption
d) None
capacity.
How many of the statements given above are
Q.2) With reference to Indian Geography, correct?
consider the following statements:
a) Only one
Statement-I: Kutch district in the state of
b) Only two
Gujarat is highly vulnerable to earthquakes.
c) Only three
Statement-II: Kutch district lies in the zone
d) All four
where the Indo-Australian and Eurasian
tectonic plates slide past each other
horizontally. Q.5) With reference to the agents of indoor air
Which one of the following is correct in pollution and their sources, consider the
respect of the above statements? following pairs:
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

Indoor air Pollutants Major source
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
1. Formaldehyde Soil and rocks beneath
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are buildings
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
2. Radon Furnitures
c) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
3. Volatile organic Paints
d) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is compounds
incorrect.
4. Carbon Monoxide Burning of Charcoal
Q.3) The term „Honolulu Strategy‟ is sometimes
How many of the pairs given above are
seen in the news. It is related:
correctly matched?
a) to promote commercial farming in arid and
a) Only one
semi-arid areas.
b) Only two
b) to harvest wind energy on coastal areas and
on sea surfaces. c) Only three
c) to develop gardens on the terrace of d) All four
households to combat urban heating.

Q.6) Consider the following statements

zone to stimulate the
regarding the Solid Waste Management Rules,
biological activity of
2016:
microorganisms.
1. The responsibility of segregating waste at
the source lies with Municipal authorities. 2. Bioaugmentation Stimulates native
2. It emphasizes on on-site processing of microbes by introducing
biodegradable waste through composting nutrients and oxygen to
or bio-methanation. contaminated zones.
3. Landfilling is prohibited for all types of
waste. 3. Bioventing Introduces specialized
4. Companies/developers of the Special microbes to degrade
Economic Zones are exempt from the specific pollutants in
application of these rules. contaminated
How many of the statements given above are environments.
correct?
4. Biopiles Treats contaminated soil
a) Only one
by combining it with
b) Only two
soils enriched with
c) Only three
enhanced
d) All four
microorganism activity.
Q.7) Consider the following statements with How many of the pairs given above are
reference to National Disaster Management correctly matched?
Act, 2005: a) Only one
1. The act defines the term „disaster‟. b) Only two
2. It designates the Prime Minister‟s Office c) Only three
(PMO) as the nodal agency for steering the d) All four
overall national disaster management.
3. For any violation of the provisions of the Q.9) A landslide is a geological phenomenon
act, it provides for civil and criminal involving the downward movement of rock,
penalties. soil, and debris. In this context, consider the
4. National Executive Committee established following factors:
under the act is chaired by the Prime 1. The presence of a significant number of
Minister of India. glaciers.
How many of the statements given above are 2. The event of sporadic rainfall.
correct? 3. Steep slopes of the mountains.
a) Only one How many of the above factors are exclusive
b) Only two to the Himalayas, distinguishing it from the
c) Only three Western Ghats, as the primary driving force
d) All four behind the landslide hazard?
a) Only one
Q.8) Bioremediation is a process that uses b) Only two
living organisms to remove pollutants from a c) All three
contaminated environment. In this context, d) None
consider the following bioremediation
techniques and their nature:
Process Description
1. Biosparging Injects pressurized air

into a contaminated

Q.10) Consider the following pollutants: How many of the above effects are seen in
1. Sulphur Dioxide marine organisms due to micro plastic
2. Carbon Dioxide pollution?
3. Ammonia a) Only one
4. Ozone b) Only two
5. Nickel c) All three
6. Arsenic d) None
How many of the pollutants mentioned above

are considered in calculating the National Air Q.14) With reference to Tsunami, consider the
Quality Index (NAQI)? following statements:
a) Only three Statement I: Arrival of successive crests is a
b) Only four feature of Tsunami that wreak destruction
near the coast.
c) Only five
Statement II: The energy associated with the
d) All six
tsunami is spread out over a large area in the
open ocean.
Q.11) Among the following crops, which one is
Which one of the following is correct in
the most important anthropogenic source of
respect of the above statements?
both methane and nitrous oxide?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) Cotton
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
b) Rice explanation for Statement-I.
c) Sugarcane b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) Wheat correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
Q.12) With reference to Blue Flag Beach c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
Certification, consider the following incorrect.
statements: d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
1. It was initiated by the Copenhagen-based is correct.
Foundation for Environmental Education in
1985 in France. Q.15) Which of the following are the
2. Under the programme, the certification is reasons/factors for exposure to benzene
awarded only to the beaches. pollution?
3. In India, the state of Goa and Kerala has the 1. Automobile exhaust
maximum number of beaches certified as 2. Tobacco smoke
Blue Flag Beach.
3. Wood burning
How many of the above statements are
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
correct?
5. Using products made of polyurethane
a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code given
b) Only two
below:
c) All three
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) None
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.13) Consider the following effects:
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. Inhibit growth and development
2. Reduced ability to swim
3. Increased rate of reproductive cycle

Q.16) Consider the following statements: d) All four

Statement 1: Ionizing radiation is more
harmful to humans than non-ionizing Q.19) Consider the following degradations of
radiation. environment:
Statement 2: Most of the ionizing radiation 1. Contamination of groundwater
comes from radioactive materials. 2. Soil erosion and sinking of land
Which one of the following is correct in 3. Release of air pollutants
respect of the above statements? How many of the above can be considered as
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are consequences of Lithium mining?
correct and Statement-II is the correct a) Only one
explanation for Statement-I b) Only two
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) All three
correct and Statement-II is not the correct d) None
explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Q.20) With reference to Central Pollution
incorrect Control Board (CPCB), consider the following
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is statements:
correct 1. It is a statutory organization established
under the Water (Prevention and Control of
Q.17) With reference to the categorization of Pollution) Act, 1974.
industrial sectors in India on the basis of the 2. One of the primary mandates of CPCB
Pollution Index by the MoEFCC, consider the includes promoting cleanliness of streams
following pairs: and wells in different areas of the country
Categories Associated sector to prevent water pollution.
1. White Category Sugar and Dairy 3. It is mandated to act as the investigative
industries wing of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
2. Green Category Ayurvedic and How many of the statements given above are
homeopathic correct?
medicines a) Only one
3. Orange Category Cotton spinning and b) Only two
weaving c) All three
4. Red Category Fertilizers d) None
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched? Q.21) Why is there a concern about copper
a) Only one smelting plants?
b) Only two 1. They may release lethal quantities of
c) Only three carbon monoxide into environment.
d) All four 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of
some heavy metals into environment.
Q.18) Consider the following: 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a
1. In-situ Burning pollutant.
2. Hot Water and High-Pressure Washing Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Using Bregoli as a sorbent below:
4. Spraying Dispersal Chemicals a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above methods can be used b) 2 and 3 only
for oil spill cleanup at sea? c) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Only two
c) Only three

Q.22) Consider the following statements: 4. It can be used as a photocatalyst to remove

“This is one of the phytoremediation dyes from wastewater.
techniques that use metal-tolerant plant How many of the above statements are
species to prevent the leaching of heavy correct?
metals into the groundwater. This helps in a) Only one
reducing the bioavailability of heavy metals in
b) Only two
the soil. One of the key advantages of this
c) Only three
method is that disposal of hazardous biomass
is not needed when compared with other d) All four
techniques of phytoremediation.”
Which of the following methods of Q.25) With reference to Central Ground Water
phytoremediation has been discussed in the Board (CGWB), consider the following
above statements? statements:
a) Phytoextraction 1. It was established under the Environmental
b) Phytotransformation Protection Act, 1986.
c) Phytostabilization 2. It develops policies for the effective use of

India‟s groundwater resources in a
d) Phytodegradation
sustainable manner.
2. It is the nodal agency for overall
Q.23) Consider the following statements
implementation of Atal Bhujal Yojana.
regarding the torrefaction technology of waste
treatment:
correct?
1. It removes volatile organic compounds
a) Only one
from waste by heating them in the absence
of oxygen. b) Only two
2. This process enhances the energy density c) All three

of the biomass and turns them into „bio- d) None
coal‟.
Which of the statements given above is/ are Q.26) Consider the following statements
correct? regarding the Sendai Framework:
a) 1 only 1. It has been adopted at the Rio+20 summit
b) 2 only held in 2012.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. India is one of the signatories to this
d) Neither 1 nor 2 framework.
3. The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk
Reduction supports the implementation of
Q.24) Fly-ash is primarily composed of
this framework.
Aluminum silicate, Silicon dioxide and Calcium
oxide. In this context, consider the following How many of the above statements are
options regarding the applications of „fly-ash‟: correct?
1. It can be used as an insecticide to protect a) Only one
the crops. b) Only two
2. It can be used to manufacture light-weight c) All three
bricks. d) None
3. It can be used as a geopolymer which acts
as a cement-like product.

Q.27) Consider the following statements Q.30) Consider the following:

regarding the uranium pollution of water: 1. Nylon fabrics
1. Over-extraction of groundwater may 2. Asbestos
intensify the uranium pollution in the 3. Glass
groundwater. 4. Tannin
2. Reverse Osmosis can help in removing 5. Sewage
uranium from contaminated water. 6. Radioactive wastes
3. Among the Indian states, Punjab is the most How many of the above are considered as non-
adversely affected state by the uranium biodegradable pollutant?
contamination of groundwater. a) Only three
How many of the above statements are b) Only four
correct? c) Only five
a) Only one d) All six
b) Only two
c) All three Q.31) There is some concern regarding the
d) None nanoparticles of some chemical elements that
are used by the industry in the manufacture of
Q.28) Consider the following statements various products. Why?
regarding the „System of Air Quality and 1. They can accumulate in the environment
Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR): and contaminate water and soil.
1. It provides location-specific air quality 2. They can enter the food chains.
details of major Indian cities. 3. They can trigger the production of free
2. Apart from pollutants, it also measures the radicals.
levels of UV radiation. Select the correct answer using the code given
3. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Earth below:
Sciences (MoES). a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements are b) 3 only
correct? c) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Only two
c) All three Q.32) Recently, the Landslide Atlas of India was
d) None released. In this context, consider the
following statements:
Q.29) Consider the following statements: 1. It was released by the Ministry of Home
1. Water with high levels of nitrate raises the Affairs.
risk of developing blue baby syndrome in 2. India is among the top five landslide-prone
children. countries globally.
2. The presence of high levels of nitrogen in a 3. As per the atlas, Rudraprayag district of
water body can lead to the formation of Uttarakhand state has been ranked first
dead zones in that water body. amongst the districts in terms of exposure
3. Nitrous oxide is a greenhouse gas that has to landslides.
more global warming potential than Carbon How many of the statements given above are
dioxide. correct?
How many of the above statements are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) All three
b) Only two d) None
c) All three
d) None

Q.33) Consider the following Pollutants: Q.36) Consider the following environmental
1. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). degradations:
2. Secondary Organic Aerosols 1. Depletion of groundwater table
3. Tropospheric Ozone 2. Intrusion of saline water into freshwater
4. Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane (DDT) resources
5. Formaldehyde 3. Increase turbidity in rivers and coastal
How many among the above can be considered waters.
as a Secondary Pollutant? How many of the impacts given above can be
a) Only two caused by sand mining?
b) Only three a) Only one
c) Only four b) Only two
d) All five c) All three
d) None
Q.34) With respect to various oxygen demands
to decompose matter in aquatic systems, Q.37) Consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. Noise pollution can adversely affect
1. Chemical Oxygen Demand measures the communication and navigation among
total amount of oxygen required to oxidize marine organisms.
all organic matter (biodegradable and non- 2. Noise pollution can affect dissemination
biodegradable). and germination of seedlings.
2. Biological Oxygen Demand is an indicator 3. Animals exposed to chronic noise
of the amount of biodegradable organic experience heightened stress levels.
matter present in aquatic systems. 4. In human beings, noise pollution will lead
3. In an aquatic ecosystem, Chemical Oxygen to the development of a disorder known as
Demand is generally greater than the Albinism.
Biological Oxygen Demand. How many of the above statements regarding
How many of the statements given above are the effects of noise pollution are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) Only three
c) All three d) All four
d) None
Q.38) Consider the following pairs with
Q.35) Consider the following statements: reference to pollutants and the diseases that
Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power they cause:
stations contribute to acid rain. Pollutant Disease
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when 1. Cadmium Itai-Itai
coal burns. 2. Arsenic Black foot
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. Mercury Minamata
below: 4. Fluoride Fluorosis
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the How many of the pairs given above are
correct explanation of (A). matched correctly?
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the a) Only one
correct explanation of (A). b) Only two
c) (A) is false, but (R) is true. c) Only three
d) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) All four

Q.39) Which one of the following statements Q.42) Consider the following pollutants:
provides the best description of „Ecological 1. Mercury
Drought‟? 2. Nitrogen Oxide
a) It is a situation when there is a prolonged 3. Polychlorinated Biphenyls
lack of rainfall, unevenly distributed over 4. Beryllium
time and space. 5. Arsenic
b) It is a situation characterized by lack of soil 6. Polyvinyl Chloride
moisture that is necessary to support the 7. Brominated Flame Retardants
crops. How many of the above pollutants are released
c) It is a situation when water in various into the environment as e-waste?
storage systems is insufficient and falls a) Only four
below what precipitation can replenish. b) Only five
d) It is a situation when the productivity of a c) Only six
natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of d) All seven
water.
Q.43) Which one of the following best
Q.40) Consider the following: describes the meaning of the term „Qualitative
1. It is environmentally friendly. Pollutants‟?
2. It can be applied to both biodegradable and a) Pollutants that hold considerable economic
non-biodegradable compounds. value when subjected to recycling
3. It takes less time than remediation by processes.
excavation. b) Naturally existing elements transform into
4. It significantly reduces the risk of future pollutants due to their elevated
environmental impact. concentrations in the environment.
How many of the above are advantages of c) Pollutants primarily resulting from
bioremediation technique? interactions among pollutants and their
a) Only one reactions with the environment.
b) Only two d) Pollutants that are not present in the
c) Only three environment naturally but are created by
d) All four humans.
Q.41) In the context of WHO Air Quality Q.44) With reference to Jal Jeevan mission,
Guidelines, consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not 1. It aims at providing Functional Household
exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 Tap Connection to every rural household
should not exceed 5 µg/m³. by 2024.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone 2. The mission ensures voluntary ownership
pollution occur during the periods of of water resources among the local
inclement weather. community by way of contribution in cash,
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and kind, or labour towards accessibility of
enter the bloodstream. drinking water supply.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger 3. The mission provides for mandatory
asthma. elements of recharge and reuse of water
Which of the statements given above are resources through grey water management.
correct? How many of the above statements are
a) 1, 3 and 4 correct?
b) 1 and 4 only a) Only one
c) 2, 3 and 4 b) Only two
d) 1 and 2 only c) All three
d) None

Q.45) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause pollutants from various sources in the
neurodegenerative problems, are generated as National Capital region.
environmental pollutants from which of the How many of the statements given above are
following? correct?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles a) Only one
2. Engines of motor vehicles b) Only two
3. Microwave stoves within homes c) All three
4. Power plants d) None
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.48) In context of Lichens, consider the
below: following statements:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Statement I: Lichens serve as a good indicator
b) 1, 2 and 4 only of air pollution.
c) 3, 4 and 5 only Statement II: Lichens receive their nutrients
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 from the atmosphere.
Which one of the following is correct in
Q.46) With reference to „Dioxins‟, consider the respect of the above statements?
following statements: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. They are a group of Volatile organic correct and Statement-II is the correct
compounds (VOCs) that are mainly emitted explanation for Statement-I
from human-made sources. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Human exposure to dioxins mainly occurs correct and Statement-II is not the correct
through the consumption of animal origin explanation for Statement-I
products derived from animals impacted by c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
biomagnification. incorrect
3. They are known to cause developmental d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
problems in children. correct
How many of the above statements are
correct? Q.49) “Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD) is a
a) Only one phenomenon that has raised concerns about
b) Only two the health and sustainability of honeybee
populations.” In this context, consider the
c) All three
following
d) None
1. Overpopulation of beehives.
2. Varroa mite infestation in honeybees.
Q.47) Consider the following statements with
3. Escape of the „queen bee‟ from the beehive.
reference to the Commission for Air Quality
Management in National Capital Region and 4. Changes in the habitat where bees forage.
Adjoining Areas: 5. Bees exposure to pesticides.
1. It is constituted under the Environment How many of the above factors can intensify
protection Act, 1986. or lead to Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD)?
2. It covers the areas in the States of Haryana, a) Only two
Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, b) Only three
adjoining the National Capital Region. c) Only four
3. It is responsible for deciding parameters for d) All five
emission or discharge of environmental

Q.50) With reference to the Persistent Organic

Pollutants (POPs), consider the following
statements:
1. These pollutants can be transported from
one place to another by wind and water.
2. They are used as flame retardants in
electronic products.
3. They can alter the hormonal system of
humans.
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None


SFG 2024 Level 1 Test 42 QP Eng King R Queen P

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

SFG 2024 Level 1 Test 42 QP Eng King R Queen P

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Don‘t Pay Any Money[FREE BY RISHABH RAJPUT]

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury

b) Only two 4. It enhances the ability of trees at higher

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

Q.6) Consider the following statements

1. Biosparging Injects pressurized air

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

3. Ammonia a) Only one

4. Ozone b) Only two

5. Nickel c) All three

How many of the pollutants mentioned above

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

Q.16) Consider the following statements: d) All four

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

Q.22) Consider the following statements: 4. It can be used as a photocatalyst to remove

c) Phytostabilization 2. It develops policies for the effective use of

2. This process enhances the energy density c) All three

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

Q.27) Consider the following statements Q.30) Consider the following:

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

Q.50) With reference to the Persistent Organic

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help

You might also like