Forum L1 Test 1 - Questions

https://www.pdfnotes.
co/telegram
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS24-B4-L1T1 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.
A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without
any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet
liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English & Hindi. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will
select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only
the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
O
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
C
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
S.
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
TE
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
O
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
FN
will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
D
will be no penalty for that question.

.P
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

W
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
W
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
W
https://www.pdfnotes.co/telegram Page 1
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.1) With reference to various Charter Acts c) It is a legal relation in which both
introduced during Colonial India, consider the individuals and the state owe certain duties
following statements: towards each other.
1. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the activities d) It refers to a person living in the defined
of the East India Company as a commercial geographical territory over a period of
body. time.
2. The Charter Act of 1833 deprived the
Governor of Bombay and Madras of their Q.4) With reference to the Communal Award,
legislative powers. consider the following statements:
3. The Charter Act of 1853, for the first time, 1. It was based on the recommendations of
successfully introduced an open the Lothian Committee.
competition system of selection and 2. It introduced separate electorates for
recruitment of civil servants. Sikhs, Indian Christians, and Anglo-Indians
How many of the statements given above are for the first time.
correct? 3. It led to the signing of Poona Pact which
a) Only one gave reserved seats to the depressed
b) Only two classes.
c) All three How many of the statements given above are
d) None correct?
a) Only one
Q.2) With reference to Indian Polity, consider b) Only two
the following statements: c) All three
Statement I: Article 1 of the Constitution of d) None
India describes India as a ‘Union of States’, and
not as ‘Federation of States’. Q.5) Project ELLORA, sometimes seen in news,
Statement II: In the Indian federation, no state is related to which of the following?
government has the right to secede from India. a) Redevelopment of architectural heritage of
Which of the following is correct in respect of India
the above statements? b) Preserving local languages for future
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are generations
correct, and Statement-II is the correct c) Redesigning cultural education system of
explanation for Statement- I the country
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) Geo-Mapping of major UNESCO World
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct Heritage sites of India
explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is Q.6) Which one of the following statements is
O
incorrect incorrect regarding the concept of Rule of law
C
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is and Constitutionalism?
S.
correct. a) While rule of law ensures supremacy of

law, Constitutionalism ensures supremacy
TE
Q.3) In the context of Indian Polity, which of of the constitution.

the following best reflects the meaning of the b) Constitutionalism enables the
O
term ‘Citizenship’? implementation of rule of law in both letter

a) It refers to the individuals’ duties towards and spirit.
FN
the state. c) Rule of law is essential to uphold the

b) It is a legal relation which entails states’ principles of Constitutionalism.
D
duties towards individuals. d) Unlike Constitutionalism, Rule of law does

.P
not limit the power of Government.

W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.7) With reference to the Ninth Schedule of Q.10) With reference to human body, which
the Indian Constitution, consider the following one of the following statements correctly
statements: explains the term ‘Immune Imprinting’?
1. The Schedule was added to the Indian a) It is the process of artificially increasing the
Constitution by the First Constitutional strength of the immune system by repeated
Amendment Act. exposure to pathogens.
2. Only the laws made by Parliament can be b) It is the process by which the immune
placed in the Schedule. system loses its ability to recognize and
3. Currently, the Supreme Court cannot strike respond to antigens over time.
down the laws placed in the Schedule on the c) It is a tendency of the body to repeat its
ground of violation of any of the immune response based on the first variant
fundamental rights. it encountered through infection or
How many of the statements given above are vaccination.
correct? d) It is a mechanism of selectively removing
a) Only one specific immune cells from the body to
b) Only two reduce the risk of disease.
c) All three
d) None Q.11) Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: Fundamental rights are not
Q.8) Which of the following articles of the absolute but qualified.
Indian Constitution provides for the right to Statement-II: State can impose restrictions on
free legal aid to individuals? any of the fundamental rights on the ground of
a) Article 14 Security of State.
b) Article 19 Which one of the following is correct in
c) Article 20 respect of the above statements?
d) Article 21 a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
Q.9) With reference to Indian Polity, consider explanation for Statement-I
the following statements: b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement I: An individual cannot approach correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
the High Court directly in case of violation of explanation for Statement-I
his/her right to property. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
Statement II: The 44th Constitutional incorrect
Amendment Act removed the right to property d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
from Part III of the Constitution. is correct
Which of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements? Q.12) Consider the following statements with
O
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are reference to the features of Directive
C
correct, and Statement-II is the correct Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
S.
explanation for Statement- I 1. They resemble ‘Instrument of Instructions’

b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are enumerated in the American Constitution.
TE
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct 2. The idea of DPSP was borrowed from the
explanation for Statement-I Irish Constitution.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 3. So far, DPSP has been amended only two
O
incorrect times.
FN
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is How many of the above statements are
correct. correct?
a) Only one
D
b) Only two
.P
c) All three
d) None
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.13) With reference to the Constitution of How many of the statements given above are
India, consider the following statements correct?
regarding the Fundamental Duties: a) Only one
1. Fundamental Duties are based on the b) Only two
recommendations of Swaran Singh c) Only three
committee. d) All four
2. They are added to the Constitution by the
44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. Q.16) Consider the following statements:
3. The Fundamental Duties are applicable to Statement 1: India is tilted more towards
Indian citizens only. ‘democratic socialism’ than ‘communistic
4. They may help the courts in examining and socialism’.
determining the constitutional validity of a Statement 2: The 1991 economic reforms
law. strengthened the socialistic features of the
How many of the above statements are Indian State.
correct? Which of the following is correct in respect of
a) Only one the above statements?
b) Only two a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
c) Only three correct, and Statement-2 is the correct
d) All four explanation for Statement-1.
b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
Q.14) Consider the following features: correct, and Statement-2 is not the correct
1. Parliamentary system of government. explanation for Statement-1.
2. Federal character of the Constitution. c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-2 is
3. Welfare state incorrect.
4. Republican form of government. d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-2
How many of the above-mentioned features is correct.
are part of the basic structure of the
Constitution of India? Q.17) Which of the following statements is
a) Only one incorrect with respect to salaries and
b) Only two allowances of the High Court judges?
c) Only three a) The salaries and allowances of the judges of
d) All four a high court are determined from time to
time by the Parliament.
Q.15) With reference to ‘Financial Services b) The High Court Judges (Salaries and O
Institutions Bureau (FSIB)’, consider the Conditions of Service) Act, 1954 regulates
C
following statements: the salaries and conditions of service of the
1. It is established by replacing the Bank judges of the High Courts.
S.
Board’s Bureau of India. c) The salaries and allowances of the judges of

TE
2. Secretary of the Department of Financial a high court cannot be varied to their

Services will be de facto chairman of the disadvantage, after their appointment, in
bureau. any case.
O
3. The chairperson of FSIB will be the de facto d) The salaries and allowances of the judges
FN
member of Monetary Policy Committee are charged on the Consolidated Fund of

under Reserve Bank of India. State.
D
4. It will ensure proper selection of talent for

senior positions at financial institutions in
.P
the country.
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.23) Consider the following categories of Q.26) Consider the following statements with
person: reference to the writ jurisdiction of the
1. A person born in India on or after Supreme Court:
December 3, 2004 irrespective of the 1. The writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court with
nationality of his/her parents. regards to fundamental rights is exclusive.
2. A person born outside India on or after 2. The President can confer on the Supreme
December 3, 2004 and having one of the Court the power to issue writs for the
parents as citizen of India. enforcement of ordinary legal rights.
3. A person of Indian origin who is ordinarily Which of the above given statements is/are
resident in India for seven years before correct?
making an application for registration. a) 1 only
4. A person resided in India for not less than b) 2 only
eleven years during the last fourteen years. c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the above given categories of d) Neither 1 nor 2
person are eligible for Indian citizenship?
a) Only one Q.27) Consider the following statements with
b) Only two reference to the inter-government tax
c) Only three immunities in India:
d) All four 1. The corporations created by the Central
government are immune from state or local
Q.24) Consider the following features of the taxation.
Government of India Act, 1935: 2. The property of local authorities situated
1. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and within a state are not exempted from
introduced provincial autonomy in its place. Central taxation.
2. It created a new office of the High 3. The Centre can impose customs duty on
Commissioner for India in London and goods imported or exported by a state.
transferred to him some of the functions of Which of the above given statements is/are
the Secretary of State for India. correct?
3. It provided for the establishment of a a) 3 only
Reserve Bank of India to control the b) 1 and 3 only
currency and credit of the country. c) 2 and 3 only
How many of the above is/are the provisions d) 1 and 2 only
of the Government of India Act, 1935?
a) Only one Q.28) Consider the following statements with
b) Only two reference to the provisions regarding
c) All three detention in Indian Constitution:
d) None 1. Article 22 provides protection in case of
both punitive and preventive detention.
Q.25) Recently, ‘MAARG Platform’ was
O
2. Under Article 22, both citizens and aliens
C
launched by the Department for Promotion of are given protection in case of preventive
Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry detention.
S.
of Commerce and Industry. The objective of 3. The preventive detention of a person cannot
TE
this platform is to- exceed three months in any circumstance.

a) promote the manufacture and export of 4. Article 22 authorizes the Parliament to make
high-quality capital goods from India. provision with regards to Preventive
O
b) develop industrialization in the remote, detention.

FN
hilly and inaccessible areas of the country. How many of the above given statements are
c) provide sector-focused guidance and correct?
support to start-ups throughout their a) One only
D
lifecycle. b) Two only

d) strengthen the capabilities of the
.P
c) Three only
Intellectual Property Offices in India. d) All Four
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.29) Consider the following statements with 2. The Right to Strike is an intrinsic part of
reference to the Family Courts in India: this fundamental right.
1. There is no provision for Family Courts in 3. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on
the Indian Constitution. this right on the grounds of the sovereignty
2. It is obligatory for the State Governments to and integrity of the country.
set up a Family Court in every city or town How many of the above given statements are
with a population exceeding one million. correct?
3. It is obligatory for the Family Court, in the a) Only one
first instance, to try for a reconciliation b) Only two
between the parties to a family dispute. c) All three
How many of the above given statements are d) None
correct?
a) One only Q.32) With reference to the provisions under
b) Two only Part XIII of the Constitution of India, consider
c) All Three the following statements:
d) None 1. Article 301 declares that trade, commerce
and intercourse throughout the territory of
Q.30) With reference to ‘First Information India shall be free.
Report (FIR) and Chargesheet’, consider the 2. The freedom of trade and commerce
following statements: extends to both inter-state trade and intra-
1. While the chargesheet is the final report state trade.
filed towards the end of an investigation, an 3. The Parliament of India can impose
FIR is filed when police are informed of a restrictions on the freedom of inter-state
cognizable offense. trade and commerce.
2. The purpose of FIR is investigation of the How many of the statements given above are
offense committed, whereas chargesheet is correct?
used to provide evidence during the trial. a) Only one
3. Both FIR and Chargesheet can be b) Only two
withdrawn by filing an affidavit in the court. c) All three
4. Chargesheet is a public document whereas d) None
FIR cannot be treated as a public
document. Q.33) In the context of the Indian federal
How many of the statements given above are system, the term "Dual polity" best refers to O
correct? which of the following?
C
a) Only one a) The division of powers between Union and
S.
b) Only two States

c) Only three b) The separation of jurisdictions of Judiciary
TE
d) All four and Executive

c) The existence of Central and State
O
Q.31) With reference to the Fundamental Right Governments

FN
to Freedom of Assembly, consider the d) The role of Governor as state's

following statements: Constitutional head as well as Centre's
1. The Constitution guarantees the right to representative.
D
assemble peacefully and without arms.

.P
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.34) With reference to the Inter-State Water b) Only two

Disputes in India, consider the following c) Only three
statements: d) All four
1. The Parliament may provide for the
adjudication of any dispute related to the Q.37) Which of the following is the main
use and control of waters of any inter-state purpose of the Full Faith and Credit Clause?
river. a) To ensure that every citizen shows full faith
2. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of in the ruling government.
India in relation to inter-state water b) To ensure that Fundamental right of any
disputes cannot be curtailed under any citizen is not violated.
circumstance. c) To ensure that bankruptcy cases are only
3. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act of 1956 tried in the Supreme Court.
empowered the Central Government to set d) To ensure that public acts and judicial
up an ad-hoc tribunal for the adjudication proceedings of the states are recognized
of the inter-state water disputes. throughout India.
How many of the statements given above are
correct? Q.38) Consider the following taxes:
a) Only one 1. Income Tax
b) Only two 2. Corporate Tax
c) All three 3. Tax on the sale of petroleum crude
d) None 4. Tax on agricultural income
How many of the above-mentioned taxes are
Q.35) Which one of the following organizations levied and collected by the Centre but its
has launched ‘Green Urban Oases (GUO) proceeds are distributed between the Centre
Programme’ that aims to turn dryland cities and the states?
into green urban oases? a) Only one
a) World Economic Forum b) Only two
b) International Union for Conservation of c) Only three
Nature d) All four
c) Food and Agriculture Organization
d) United Nations Human Settlements Q.39) Consider the following statements with
Programme reference to Padma awards:
Statement 1: A Padma awardee can use the
Q.36) The legislatures of two or more states award name as suffixes or prefixes to his/her
can pass resolutions requesting the Parliament name. O
to enact laws on a matter in the State List. Statement 2: Padma awards are not violative
With reference to such a law made by the of Article 18 of the Indian constitution.
C
Parliament, consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of
S.
1. The law so enacted applies only to those the above statements?

states which have passed the resolutions. a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
TE
2. The bill to give effect to such a law can be correct and Statement-2 is the correct
initiated only in the Rajya Sabha. explanation for Statement-1.
O
3. Such a law cannot be amended or repealed b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
by the legislatures of the concerned states.
FN
correct and Statement-2 is not the correct

4. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) explanation for Statement-1.
Act of 1974 was passed under this provision. c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is
D
How many of the statements given above are incorrect.

.P
correct? d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is

a) Only one correct.
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.40) With reference to ‘Monument Mitra c) All three

Scheme’, consider the following statements: d) None
1. The Ministry of Tourism is the nodal
ministry to manage and coordinate the Q.43) With reference to Preamble of Indian
scheme. Constitution, consider the following
2. It aims to ensure quality & inclusive statements:
provision of amenities and facilities across 1. Preamble is neither a source of power to
heritage and tourist sites in India. legislature nor a prohibition upon the
3. The scheme applies to all the centrally powers of legislature.
protected heritage properties of the 2. Parliament can amend any part of the
country. Preamble, as the doctrine of Basic Structure
4. Only Public Sector Units (PSUs) are eligible does not apply to it.
to adopt the monuments as part of their 3. Provisions of Preamble are not enforceable
Corporate Social Responsibility under this in courts of law.
scheme. How many of the above statements are
How many of the statements given above are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) Only three d) None
d) All four
Q.44) With reference to the law-making
Q.41) With reference to the Zonal Council in powers of the Parliament and the state
India, consider the following statements: legislatures, consider the following
1. It is a constitutional body established under statements:
Article 263 of the Indian Constitution. 1. The laws made by a state legislature can
2. The Home Minister of the Central never be applied outside the state.
government is the common chairman of all 2. Only Parliament is empowered to make
Zonal Councils. ‘extra-territorial legislation’.
3. The chief secretary of each state within the Which of the statements given above is/are
zone, can participate as an advisor to the correct?
Zonal Council. a) 1 only
How many of the above statements are b) 2 only
correct? c) Both 1 and 2
a) Only one d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) Only two
c) All three Q.45) With reference to ‘Ottam Thullal’, O
d) None consider the following statements:
C
1. It is a famous ‘recite and dance-drama' art
Q.42) With reference to the Martial Law in form of Kerala.
S.
India, consider the following statements: 2. It was introduced by the famous Malayali
TE
1. It affects not only Fundamental Rights but poet V. N. Menon.

also Centre-state relations. 3. It is famous for its humour and social
2. It can be imposed on the whole country or satire.
O
some part of it. How many of the statements given above are
FN
3. It may lead to suspension of the government correct?

and ordinary law courts. a) Only one
How many of the above statements are b) Only two
D
correct? c) All three

.P
a) Only one d) None

b) Only two
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.46) Consider the following subjects: Q.49) With reference to Indian Judiciary,
1. Prisons and reformatories consider the following statements:
2. Marriage and divorce 1. High Courts do not have the power of
3. Agricultural education and research judicial review for central laws.
4. Preventive detention 2. Supreme Court only review the state laws
How many of the above given subjects are when it impacts constitutional validity of
included in State list under the Seventh Central laws.
Schedule of Constitution of India? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) Only one correct?
b) Only two a) 1 only
c) Only three b) 2 only
d) All four c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.47) With reference to Double Jeopardy,
consider the following statements: Q.50) With reference to ‘Additional Tier-1 (AT-
1. Indian Constitution prohibits prosecution 1) Bonds’, consider the following statements:
and punishment of a person for the same 1. They are unsecured bonds issued by the
offense more than once. banks.
2. The protection against double jeopardy in 2. The maturity of these bonds is fixed by the
India is available in proceedings before a investors of the bond.
court of law as well as before administrative 3. They were introduced by the Basel accord
authorities. after the global financial crisis of 2008.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a) 1 only a) Only one
b) 2 only b) Only two
c) Both 1 and 2 c) All three
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) None
Q.48) Which one of the following statements Q.51) With reference to ‘Advisory jurisdiction’
most appropriately describes ‘Fabian of Supreme Court, consider the following
Socialism’? statements:
a) It advocates for the complete abolition of 1. Supreme Court must tender its opinion to
private ownership and the establishment of the President in case of disputes over pre- O
a classless society through revolution. constitution treaty.
C
b) It combines socialist principles with a focus 2. The advice given by the Supreme Court to
S.
on individual liberty and decentralized the President is given in the form of

decision-making. judgement, decree or order.
TE
c) It promotes a gradual and evolutionary 3. It is necessary to establish a Constitution

approach to socialism, advocating for Bench when President seeks Supreme
O
reforms and the use of democratic Court’s opinion.

processes. How many of the above statements are
FN
d) It supports the management of the entire correct?

economy by the state, emphasizing on a) Only one
D
reduction of economic inequalities. b) Only two

.P
c) All three
d) None
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.52) Which of the following ideals can be c) They are known for presence of sharp-
clearly and explicitly found in the Preamble of edged features in their structure.
India? d) They have received Geographical
1. Equality of opportunity Indication (GI) tag.
2. Liberty of thought
3. Preservation of culture Q.56) With reference to the First Information
4. Right to privacy Report (FIR), consider the following
5. Economic prosperity statements:
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. The term ‘First Information Report’ is
given below: defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure,
a) 1 and 2 only 1973.
b) 2 and 4 only 2. A police station can register a ‘Zero FIR’
c) 2, 3 and 5 only even if the offence was committed outside
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only its jurisdiction.
3. Only a person, who is either the victim of
Q.53) In this landmark case, Supreme Court offence or an eyewitness to the offence,
held that “the Indian Constitution is founded can file the FIR.
on the bedrock of the balance between the How many of the statements given above are
Fundamental Rights and the Directive correct?
Principles. They together constitute the core a) Only one
of commitment to social revolution. They are b) Only two
like two wheels of a chariot, one no less than c) All three
the other.” d) None
Which one of the following cases is associated
with the paragraph given above? Q.57) Article 28 of the Indian Constitution
a) Maneka Gandhi case prohibits religious instructions in educational
b) D C Wadhwa case institutions. In this context, consider the
c) Minerva Mills case following types of educational institutions:
d) Kesavananda Bharati case 1. Institutions wholly maintained out of State
funds.
Q.54) Which of the following statements best 2. Institutions administered by the State but
reflects the understanding of judicial established under any trust.
restraint? 3. Institutions recognised by the State.
a) It requires the judges to always defer the 4. Institutions receiving aid from the State
decisions of the political branches of In how many of the above institutions does the
government. Constitution completely prohibits religious
b) It encourages judges to limit their own instructions?
authority to interfere with the decisions of a) Only one O
the other branches of government. b) Only two
c) It allows judges to engage in judicial c) Only three
C
activism when they deem it necessary to d) All four
S.
protect individual rights.

d) It is a rigid and inflexible approach that Q.58) In addition to the dignity of the
TE
limits the judiciary's ability to interpret and individual, the Preamble of the Indian
apply the law. Constitution declares which one of the
following as an essential component of
O
Q.55) Which one of the following statements is ‘Fraternity’?

FN
incorrect regarding “Etikoppaka toys”? a) Unity and Integrity of the Nation.

a) They are traditional toys from the b) Ensuring peace and public order.
Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. c) Elimination of inequality among the
D
b) They are made out of wood and are colored Citizens of India.
.P
with natural dyes. d) Equal treatment of all citizens without any

discrimination based on caste.
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.59) With reference to Article 32 of the Indian Q.62) According to the Constitution of India,
Constitution, consider the following who among the following can declare places
statements: other than New Delhi as seat of the Supreme
1. It empowers citizens of India to directly court?
approach the Supreme Court of India in a) The President of India with the consent of
case of violation of their legal rights. the Chief Justice of India.
2. It can be suspended by the President during b) The Parliament only after the approval of
National Emergency.
the constitutional bench of the Supreme
3. The Parliament can curtail the powers
court.
conferred by this article on the Supreme
c) The Chief Justice of India with the consent
court.
of the President of India.
How many of the statements given above are
correct? d) The President of India based on the report
a) Only one of the Law Commission.
b) Only two
c) All three Q.63) With reference to ‘religious
d) None
denominations’ in India, consider the following
statements:
Q.60) With reference to ‘Natural Rubber’,
1. The Constitution of India does not define
consider the following statements:
1. It is a native cash crop of the South East the term ‘religious denomination’.
Asian countries of Malaysia and Indonesia. 2. According to the Supreme Court of India, a
2. It requires dry climate with well-drained Religious Denomination must have a
and weathered soils for its optimal growth. common organisation and a distinctive
3. Natural rubber is preferred over synthetic name.
rubber due to its high tensile strength. 3. The difference in essential religious
4. Rubber Board is the statutory organization practices is necessary for a group to be
in India that promotes development of declared as a separate religious
rubber industry. denomination.
How many of the statements given above are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a) Only one a) Only one
b) Only two b) Only two
c) Only three
c) All three
d) All four
d) None
Q.61) With reference to Article 23 of the Indian

Q.64) As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court
Constitution, consider the following
of India has which of the following powers?
statements: O
1. The Article defines what constitutes ‘forced 1. Judgements of the Supreme court must be
labour’ and ‘trafficking’. admitted as evidentiary value and cannot be
C
2. The right under this article is available to questioned by any other court in India.
S.
both citizens as well as non-citizens 2. The Supreme Court can deal with any
3. This article protects the individual not only dispute arising out of any Pre-Constitution
TE
against the State but also against private treaty.

persons. 3. The Supreme Court has the power to punish
O
4. It allows the state to impose compulsory for contempt of court.

service on individuals for public purposes. How many of the statements given above are
FN
How many of the statement given above are correct?

correct? a) Only one
a) Only one
D
b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
.P
c) Only three d) None

d) All four
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.65) With reference to ‘Indian Star Tortoise’, Q.67) Consider the following statements with
consider the following statements: reference to removal of High Court Judges:
1. They are endemic to the wetland and 1. A judge of a High Court can be removed
surrounding regions of Western Ghats of from his office by an order of the President.
India. 2. A judge of a High Court can be removed if
2. Their typical habitat includes scrub forests he is adjudged an insolvent.
and rocky outcroppings. 3. The impeachment motion for the removal of
3. They are categorized as ‘Critically a High Court judge can be initiated only in
Endangered’ in IUCN Red list. the Lok Sabha.
4. They are losing genetic diversity due to How many of the above statements are
subsequent hybridization over the years. correct?
How many of the statements given above are a) Only one
b) Only two
correct? c) All three
a) Only one d) None
b) Only two
c) Only three Q.68) According to the Constitution, in which
d) All four of the following cases, the State has to pay
compensation for acquisition of private
Q.66) Consider the following pairs: property?
Judicial Description 1. When the State acquires the property of a
Doctrine minority educational institution.
1. Doctrine of It states that the power to 2. When the State acquires the land of a
Eclipse legislate on a topic of person belongs to Scheduled Tribe.
legislation carries with it 3. When the State acquires the property of a
the power to legislate on an person belongs to Scheduled Caste.
ancillary matter. 4. When the State acquires the land of a
2. Doctrine of It determines whether a person under his personal cultivation
Pith and specific law related to a within the statutory ceiling limits.
Substance particular subject fall How many of the above given statements are
within the legitimate power correct?
of a legislature. a) Only one
3. Doctrine of It states that only the b) Only two
Colourable provisions of a law which c) Only three
Legislation are inconsistent with the d) All four
fundamental rights shall be
void and not the whole law. Q.69) Arrange the following events in a correct O
4. Doctrine of It means when a legislature chronological order of their occurrence from
Severability does not have the power to earliest to latest:
C
make laws on a particular 1. Lowering of voting age from 21 to 18 years.
S.
subject directly, it cannot 2. Tenth Schedule inserted in the Constitution

make laws on it indirectly. of India.
TE
How many of the above pairs are correctly 3. Sikkim became a full-fledged state of Indian
matched? Union.
O
a) Only one 4. India conducted its first nuclear tests.

b) Only two Which of the following is correct order in
FN
c) Only three respect of the above events?

d) All four a) 4-3-1-2
D
b) 3-4-2-1
.P
c) 4-3-2-1
d) 3-4-1-2
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.70) With reference to ‘Securities Market’, Q.73) With reference to the appointment of
which one of the following statements judges of High Courts in India, consider the
correctly explains the term ‘Short Selling’? following statements:
a) It is a strategy of buying stocks and holding 1. Indian Constitution makes no provision for
them for long-term growth for profit the appointment of a distinguished jurist as
maximization. a judge of a high court.
b) It is a technique of borrowing shares and 2. Only a citizen of India can be appointed as
selling them in the hope of buying them a judge of High Court.
back at a lower price. 3. A person who has held a judicial office in
c) It is a trading mechanism that aims to India cannot be appointed as a judge of a
invest in commodities and currencies when high court.
they are at lower value. How many of the above statements are
d) It is a practice of buying stocks at a higher correct?
price and selling them at a lower price. a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.71) Consider the following parts of the Indian c) All three
Constitution: d) None
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy Q.74) Suppose an accused person is facing
3. Fundamental Duties custodial harassment for a crime which is
How many of the above given parts of the under investigation. In this condition, which of
Indian Constitution reflect/reflects the the following fundamental rights will get
principles of Economic Justice? violated?
a) Only one a) Right to Equality
b) Only two b) Right to Freedom
c) All three c) Right against Exploitation
d) None d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Q.72) Consider the following statements with Q.75) Consider the following statements:
reference to the armed forces and provisions Statement 1:
of Fundamental Rights in India: The night-time production of nitrate radicals
1. The Parliament can restrict the in the atmosphere is considered to be harmful
fundamental rights of the armed forces, but for human health.
it cannot abrogate the same. Statement 2:
2. The forces to which the restriction on Nitrate radical oxidizes gas pollutants such as O
fundamental rights can be applied include volatile organic compounds which then
military, para-military and state police. generate ozone.
C
3. The power of restricting the fundamental Which one of the following is correct in
S.
rights of armed forces is given to both the respect of the above statements?
parliament and the state legislatures. a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
TE
How many of the statements given above are correct and Statement 2 is the correct
correct? explanation of Statement 1
O
a) Only one b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are

b) Only two
FN
correct and Statement 2 is not the correct

c) All three explanation of Statement 1
d) None c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
D
not correct
.P
d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2

is correct
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.76) With reference to the features of d) All the four

Parliamentary government as seen in India,
consider the following statements: Q.78) With reference to the powers of the
1. There is a strict adherence to the Doctrine Supreme Court of India, consider the following
of separation of powers statements:
2. It is based on the principle of collective 1. All civil and judicial authorities in India
responsibility have to act in aid of the Supreme Court.
3. The President has the power to dissolve the 2. It has the power of judicial
Lower House of the Parliament superintendence over all tribunals in India.
4. There is an absence of ‘Dual Executive’. 3. It can transfer a case pending before one
How many of the statements given above are high court to another high court.
correct? How many of the statements given above are
a) Only one correct?
b) Only two a) Only one
c) Only three b) Only two
d) All four c) All three
d) None
Q.77) Consider the following pairs regarding
constitutional writs and their features: Q.79) Consider the following statements:
Writs Features 1. Communist Party of India did not win any
1. Habeas Corpus A command issued by seats in the elections to the Constituent
the court to a public Assembly of India in 1946.
official asking him to 2. Muslim League won the second largest
perform his official number of seats after Indian National
duties that he has failed Congress in the elections to the
or refused to perform. Constituent Assembly.
2. Mandamus An order issued by the Which of the statements given above is/are
court to a person who correct?
has detained another a) 1 only
person, to produce the b) 2 only
body of the latter before c) Both 1 and 2
it. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Prohibition An order issued by a
higher court to a lower Q.80) With reference to Indian Polity, ‘Rule 267
O
court to prevent the of the Rajya Sabha’, recently seen in news,
C
latter from exceeding its deals with-
S.
jurisdiction a) suspension of the pre-decided agenda of

4. Quo-Warranto An order issued by the the Rajya Sabha.
TE
court to enquire into b) reduction in the limit of the number of

the legality of claim of a questions for oral answers in Rajya Sabha.
O
person to a public office. c) suspension of the member who willfully

FN
How many pairs given above are correctly abuses the rules of the Rajya Sabha.
matched? d) power of Chairman to adjourn the Rajya
a) Only one Sabha if he thinks it necessary to do so.
D
b) Only two
.P
c) Only three
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.81) With reference to Indian Polity, consider How many of the statements given above are
the following statements: correct?
Statement I: The Preamble of the Indian a) Only one
Constitution mentions India as a Secular state. b) Only two
Statement II: Secularism in India means the c) All three
complete separation of religion from the d) None
affairs of state.
Which of the following is correct in respect of Q.84) Article 29 of the Indian Constitution
the above statements? provides for the ‘Protection of Interest of
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Minorities’. In this context, consider the
correct, and Statement-II is the correct following statements:
explanation for Statement- I 1. This Article is applicable only to minorities.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Right to conserve the language under
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct Article 29 includes the right to agitate for
explanation for Statement-I its protection.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 3. It provides the right to establish and
incorrect administer educational institutions to the
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is minorities.
correct. How many of the above statements are
correct?
Q.82) Consider the following statements: a) Only one
1. It granted electoral franchise to a limited b) Only two
number of people on the basis of property, c) All three
tax or education. d) None
2. It introduced, for the first time, a bicameral
legislature at Centre. Q.85) With reference to World Trade
3. It authorised Provincial legislatures to enact Organisation (WTO)’s New Agreement on
their own budgets. Fisheries Subsidies, consider the following
How many of the above given are the features statements:
of the Government of India Act of 1919? 1. The agreement requires acceptance by at
a) Only one least two thirds of the member countries to
b) Only two become operational.
2. The agreement provided a twenty five-year
c) All three
transition period for developing countries O
d) None
like India to eliminate subsidies provided to
C
unregulated fishing.
Q.83) Consider the following statements with 3. Recently India became the first WTO
S.
reference to the territorial jurisdiction of a member to accept this agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are
TE
high court:
1. The territorial jurisdiction of a high court is correct?
co-terminus with the territory of a state. a) 1 only
O
2. Currently only two high courts have b) 1 and 2 only

FN
jurisdiction over more than one state. c) 1 and 3 only

3. The Supreme Court can extend the d) 2 and 3 only
jurisdiction of a high court to any union
D
territory.
.P
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.86) With reference to ‘State Administrative Which of the following is correct in respect of
Tribunals’ (SATs), consider the following the above statements?
statements: a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
1. SATs are established by the state correct and Statement-2 is the correct
government through law passed in the explanation for Statement-1.
respective state legislature. b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
2. They exercise original jurisdiction in correct and Statement-2 is not the correct
relation to recruitment and all service explanation for Statement-1.
matters of state government employees c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is
3. The chairman and members of the SATs are incorrect.
appointed by the Governor after d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is
consultation with the High Court of the correct.
state concerned.
How many of the above given statements are Q.89) Consider the following
correct? organisations/bodies in India:
a) Only one 1. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
b) Only two Commission
c) All three 2. The National Human Rights Commission
d) None 3. The Central Information Commission
4. The Election Commission of India
Q.87) With reference to the Bar Council of How many of the above are Quasi-judicial
India, consider the following statements: bodies?
1. It is a statutory body established by a) Only one
Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961. b) Only two
2. It exercises disciplinary jurisdiction over c) Only three
both judges and lawyers. d) All four
3. It grants recognition to law universities in
India. Q.90) With reference to the Sustainable
How many of the above given statements are Aquaculture in Mangrove Ecosystem (SAIME)
correct? initiative, consider the following statements:
a) Only one 1. The initiative has been launched by
b) Only two Conservation International.
c) All three 2. The initiative aims to promote the wise use
d) None of the mangrove ecosystem by O
communities to satisfy their livelihood
C
Q.88) Consider the following statements: needs.
Statement 1: ‘Territory of India’ is a wider 3. The initiative has been implemented to
S.
expression than the ‘Union of India’. protect all the Mangrove ecosystems
TE
Statement 2: ‘Union of India’ includes only present across India.

states while the ‘Territory of India’ includes How many of the statements given above are
O
not only the states, but also union territories correct?

and territories that may be acquired by the a) Only one
FN
Government of India. b) Only two

c) All three
D
d) None
.P
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.91) With reference to ‘Article 25’ that deals Instrument Description

with Right to freedom of Religion, consider the 1. Referendum A procedure whereby a
following statements: proposed legislation is
1. Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs referred to the
and doctrines but also religious practices electorate for

settlement by their
and rituals.
direct votes.
2. The rights under this article are subjected
2. Initiative A method by means of
to public order, sovereignty and integrity of
which the people can
India.
propose a bill to the
3. Central Government can restrict any legislature for
economic and political activity associated enactment.
with religious practice in India. 3. Recall A method by means of
How many of the above statements are which the voters can
correct? remove an officer
a) Only one before the expiry of his
b) Only two term.
c) All three 4. Plebiscite A method of obtaining
the opinion of people
d) None
on any issue of public
importance.
Q.92) Which of the following is the correct
How many of the above given pairs are
chronological order of the formation of states correctly matched?
within the territory of India after a) Only one pair
independence? b) Only two pairs
1. Telangana c) Only three pairs
2. Maharashtra d) All the four pairs
3. Haryana
4. Jharkhand Q.95) With reference to “Neuromorphic
Select the correct answer using the code given computers”, consider the following
below: statements:
1. Unlike traditional computers,
a) 3-2-4-1
Neuromorphic computers mimic the
b) 3-2-1-4
working of human brains and nervous
c) 2-3-1-4
system. O
d) 2-3-4-1
2. Unlike traditional computers which use
C
silicon chips to store data, human DNA is
Q.93) Which feature of the Indian Constitution
S.
used to store data in the Neuromorphic

is called ‘novel feature’ by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar? computers.
TE
a) Writs under article 32 of Constitution 3. Neuromorphic computers consume more

b) Fundamental Rights energy as compared to traditional
O
c) Directive Principles of State Policy computers.

d) Synthesis of Parliamentary sovereignty and How many of the above statements are
FN
correct?
Judicial supremacy
a) Only one
D
b) Only two
Q.94) Consider the following pairs regarding
c) All three
.P
the various types of instruments in Direct

d) None
Democracy and their description:
W
W
W
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |
Q.96) With reference to the implementation of a) It is a procedure in which the dispute is

the Directive Principles of State Policy submitted to a tribunal which makes a
(DPSPs), consider the following statements: decision that is binding on the parties.
1. The 25th Constitutional amendment act b) It is a non-binding procedure in which an
impartial third party assists the parties in
provides that laws giving effect to any of
reaching a mutually satisfactory agreed
the Directive Principles cannot be
settlement.
challenged in a court.
c) It is a process where two parties in a
2. There is no legal obligation on the conflict or disagreement try to reach a
government to implement the DPSPs. resolution together.
3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, d) It is a court monitored process in which
1992 implemented the DPSP provided parties select the impartial jury to
under Article 40. adjudicate upon the dispute.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.99) Consider the following categories of
a) 1 only bills:
b) 2 only A bill providing for
c) 2 and 3 only 1. an increase or decrease in the area of a
state.
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. the cession of Indian territory to a foreign
country.
Q.97) Consider the following statements 3. the change in the name of a state.
regarding the doctrine of Basic Structure of 4. the formation of a new state from any of
the Constitution: existing state.
1. Basic structure doctrine ensures Judicial The prior recommendation of President is
Supremacy in India. required for introduction of how many of the
2. A bill amending the basic structure of the above categories of bills in the parliament?
constitution cannot be initiated by the a) Only one
state legislative assemblies. b) Only two
c) Only three
3. Basic structure doctrine prohibits
d) All four
parliament from amending any of the
fundamental rights given in part III of the
Q.100) Consider the following statements
constitution.
regarding “Galathea National Park”, recently
4. High courts in India are empowered to seen in the news:
strike down only those laws/executive 1. The park is spread over the region of Great
actions that violate basic structure of the Rann of Kutch.
constitution. 2. The park is the nesting site for the world's
O
How many of the above given statements are largest turtle called leatherback turtle.
C
correct? 3. Recently, the National Board for Wildlife
(NBWL) chose this park as an ideal place to
S.
a) Only one
b) Only two introduce Asiatic lions.
TE
c) Only three How many of the above statements are

correct?
d) All four
a) Only one
O
b) Only two
Q.98) Which one of the following statements
FN
c) All three
most appropriately defines the process of
d) None
‘Conciliation’ as a form of Alternative Dispute
D
Resolution method?
.P
W
W
W

Forum L1 Test 1 - Questions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Forum L1 Test 1 - Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

https://www.pdfnotes.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

will be same penalty as above to that question.

will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

correct. a) While rule of law ensures supremacy of

Q.3) In the context of Indian Polity, which of of the constitution.

term ‘Citizenship’? implementation of rule of law in both letter

the state. c) Rule of law is essential to uphold the

duties towards individuals. d) Unlike Constitutionalism, Rule of law does

not limit the power of Government.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

explanation for Statement- I 1. They resemble ‘Instrument of Instructions’

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

Board’s Bureau of India. c) The salaries and allowances of the judges of

2. Secretary of the Department of Financial a high court cannot be varied to their

member of Monetary Policy Committee are charged on the Consolidated Fund of

4. It will ensure proper selection of talent for

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

this platform is to- exceed three months in any circumstance.

b) develop industrialization in the remote, detention.

lifecycle. b) Two only

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

b) Only two States

d) All four and Executive

Q.31) With reference to the Fundamental Right Governments

to Freedom of Assembly, consider the d) The role of Governor as state's

assemble peacefully and without arms.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

Q.34) With reference to the Inter-State Water b) Only two

1. The law so enacted applies only to those the above statements?

correct and Statement-2 is not the correct

How many of the statements given above are incorrect.

correct? d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

Q.40) With reference to ‘Monument Mitra c) All three

1. It affects not only Fundamental Rights but poet V. N. Menon.

3. It may lead to suspension of the government correct?

correct? c) All three

a) Only one d) None

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

on individual liberty and decentralized the President is given in the form of

c) It promotes a gradual and evolutionary 3. It is necessary to establish a Constitution

reforms and the use of democratic Court’s opinion.

d) It supports the management of the entire correct?

reduction of economic inequalities. b) Only two

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

protect individual rights.

Q.55) Which one of the following statements is ‘Fraternity’?

incorrect regarding “Etikoppaka toys”? a) Unity and Integrity of the Nation.

with natural dyes. d) Equal treatment of all citizens without any

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

Q.61) With reference to Article 23 of the Indian

against the State but also against private treaty.

4. It allows the state to impose compulsory for contempt of court.

How many of the statement given above are correct?

c) Only three d) None

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 1 |

subject directly, it cannot 2. Tenth Schedule inserted in the Constitution

a) Only one 4. India conducted its first nuclear tests.