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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

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T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS24-PT34 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 111146

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – I

Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 1 Hour

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

Q.1) With reference to millet cultivation in How many of the statements given above are
India, which of the following statements is correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Millets are rich source of gluten and are long b) Only two
duration crops. c) All three
b) Millet cultivation is generally done in d) None
irrigated areas.
c) By-products of Sorghum have potential to Q.5) In the context of Agricultural in India, food
be used as bioplastic films for foods. subsidy is the difference between -
d) In the past six decades, India has witnessed a) Economic cost and the Central Issue Price
a constant increase in the area of millet (CIP)
cultivation. b) Minimum Support Price (MSP) and the
Central Issue Price (CIP)
Q.2) With reference to the Laterite Soil, c) Economic Cost and Minimum Support Price
consider the following statements: (MSP)
1. Laterite soils develop in regions with high d) Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) and
temperatures and high rainfall. Central Issue Price (CIP)
2. Laterite soils are rich in humus content and
organic matter. Q.6) Consider the following statements
3. Laterite soils can be suitable for the regarding the Small Farmers Agribusiness
cultivation of tree crops like cashews. Consortium (SFAC):
How many of the statements given above are 1. It is an autonomous body promoted by the
correct? Ministry of Agriculture, Cooperation and
a) Only one Farmers’ Welfare.
b) Only two 2. It is the nodal agency for the
c) All three implementation of the National Agriculture
d) None Market (e-NAM).
Which of the statements given above is/are
Q.3) With reference to the Jowar, consider the correct?
following statements: a) 1 only
1. In Northern India, it is generally cultivated b) 2 only
as a Kharif crop. c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is a more water-efficient crop than the d) None of the above
paddy.
3. Among the states, Maharashtra is the Q.7) ‘This crop is sensitive to frost and requires
leading producer of jowar in India. 210 frost-free days for germination and
How many of the statements given above are maturation. The ideal temperature for this crop
correct? is between 21°C to 30°C and rainfall of 50-100
a) Only one cm during the growing season. It can be grown
b) Only two on a variety of soils, but well-drained loam and
c) All three clay soils are considered ideal. Gujarat,
d) None Maharashtra and Telangana are the major
producing states of this crop.
Q.4) With reference to the Mission for Which of the following crops is discussed in the
Integrated Development of Horticulture above passage?
(MIDH), consider the following statements: a) Coffee
1. The mission is entirely funded by the b) Tea
Government of India. c) Jute
2. National Horticulture Mission is one of the d) Cotton
sub-schemes under the MIDH.
3. Under MIDH, financial assistance is
provided for Horticulture Mechanization.

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

Q.8) Consider the following statements with Q.11) Consider the following statements in the
reference to agriculture marketing: context of PM-Kisan SAMPADA Yojana:
Statement-I: Agricultural Produce Marketing 1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
Committees are set up by the State 2. The scheme is being implemented by the
Government. Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
Statement-II: Agriculture is a State subject 3. Mega Food Parks scheme is being
under the 7th Schedule of the Constitution of implemented under the PM-Kisan
India. SAMPADA Yojana.
Which one of the following is correct in How many of the statements given above are
respect of the above statements? correct?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are a) Only one
correct and Statement II is the correct b) Only two
explanation for Statement-I c) All three
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) None
correct and Statement II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I Q.12) “It is a design process that helps people to
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is create ecologically and socially sustainable
incorrect human settlements beneficial to the people and
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is to the ecosystems within which they are
correct nested. Emphasizing biodiversity, efficiency,
and mimicking natural ecosystems, it strives to
Q.9) Consider the following sectors of cultivate harmonious relationships between
agriculture: people and the environment for long-term
1. Development and production of seeds resilience and abundance.”.
2. Floriculture The above paragraph describes which of the
3. Animal Husbandry following systems?
4. Horticulture a) Permaculture
In how many of the above sectors, 100% foreign b) Hydroponics
direct investment (FDI) is allowed? c) Agroforestry
a) Only one d) Organic Farming
b) Only two
c) Only three Q.13) Consider the following costs with regard
d) All four to the Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for
crops:
Q.10) Consider the following actions of the 1. Costs for rented machinery
government/government agencies: 2. Cost of fertilizers
1. Government may increase the Minimum 3. Cost of hired labour
export price. 4. Cost of family labour
2. Food Corporation of India may sell grains 5. Rent of the land
under the Open market scheme. How many of the above costs are considered by
3. Government may procure the food grains the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices
using under the Price Stabilization Fund. while recommending MSPs?
How many of the above actions can be taken to a) Only two
control food inflation in the country? b) Only three
a) Only one c) Only four
b) Only two d) All five
c) All three
d) None

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

Q.14) Consider the following statements with b) 2 only


regard to the land reforms in India: c) Both 1 and 2
1. It led to the abolition of intermediaries like d) Neither 1 nor 2
zamindars and jagirdars.
2. The land ceiling laws were aimed at family Q.18) Consider the following statements:
holdings and not individual holdings. Statement I: The Green revolution increased
3. The land ceiling limits of individuals are not economic inequalities in the rural areas.
applicable in respect of Tea Estate. Statement II: The Green Revolution favored
How many of the above statements are small and marginal farmers over large farmers.
correct? Which one of the following is correct in respect
a) Only one of the above statements?
b) Only two a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
c) All three correct, and Statement-II is the correct
d) None explanation of Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Q.15) Consider the following statements: correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
1. The Bhoodan Movement aimed at the explanation of Statement-I.
forcible acquisition of land from c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
landowners. incorrect.
2. The Gramdan Movement aimed to establish d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
individual land ownership in villages. correct.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.19) Consider the following statements with
a) 1 only regard to the ‘Evergreen Revolution’:
b) 2 only 1. It involves the incorporation of ecological
c) Both 1 and 2 principles into the development and
d) Neither 1 nor 2 dissemination of technology.
2. It emphasizes the complete elimination of
Q.16) Consider the following statements with chemical fertilizers from agriculture.
regard to the Forest Rights Act of 2006: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The Act allows only Scheduled Tribes the correct?
right to own and reside on forest land. a) 1 only
2. The Gram Sabha is the primary authority to b) 2 only
identify and verify forest rights claims. c) Both 1 and 2
3. The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and d) Neither 1 nor 2
Climate Change is the nodal agency for its
implementation. Q.20) Consider the following statements with
How many of the above statements are regard to the Central Water Commission
correct? (CWC):
a) Only one 1. It is a statutory body established under the
b) Only two Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
c) All three 2. It is headed by the Union Minister of Forests
d) None and Climate Change.
3. It is exclusively responsible for assessment
Q.17) Consider the following statements with of ground water resources and
regard to Cereals in India: implementation of policies for its
1. They account for more than half of the total sustainable management.
cropped area of India. How many of the above statements are
2. India is the largest producer of cereals in the correct?
world. a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Only two
correct? c) All three
a) 1 only d) None

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

Q.21) Which of the following represents the b) 2 only


sources of irrigation in India in decreasing c) Both 1 and 2
order of their irrigated area? d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Tubewells - Tanks - Canals
b) Tanks - Canals - Tubewells Q.25) In the context of Alluvial Soils, consider
c) Canals - Tubewells - Tanks the following statements:
d) Tubewells - Canals - Tanks 1. It covers about 40% of total area of the
country.
Q.22) Consider the following statements: 2. Both Khadar and Bhangar Alluvial soils
Statement I: Check Basin Irrigation is widely contain calcareous concretions.
used by Indian farmers. 3. They are generally poor in Potash content.
Statement II: Check Basin Irrigation is a highly How many of the statements given above are
water efficient irrigation technique. correct?
Which one of the following is correct in respect a) Only one
of the above statements? b) Only two
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) All three
correct, and Statement-II is the correct d) None
explanation of Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Q.26) The Agriculture Census 2015-16 was
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct released by the Agriculture Ministry reflecting
explanation of Statement-I. the status of agriculture in India. In this
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is context, consider the following statements
incorrect. regarding the Agriculture Census 2015-16:
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is 1. It was the first Agriculture Census of India,
correct. 2. As per the Census, the average size of
operational holding has decreased to 1.08
Q.23) Consider the following statements hectares.
regarding the Sub -Surface Drip Irrigation 3. As per the Census, the total operated area
(SDI): for agricultural production has increased in
1. It reduces the risk of salinity buildup in the the last five years.
soil. How many of the statements given above are
2. It is suitable for almost all crops. correct?
3. It is suitable for all types of soils. a) Only one
How many of the statements given above are b) Only two
correct? c) All three
a) Only one d) None
b) Only two
c) All three Q.27) In the context of Green Revolution in
d) None India, consider the following statements
regarding the impacts of Green Revolution:
Q.24) In the context of schemes related to 1. It led to an increase in the per hectare yield
Agriculture, consider the following statements of various agricultural crops.
regarding Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai 2. It led to a decrease in the use of indigenous
Yojana: species.
1. The scheme is monitored by a national 3. It led to an increase in the price of food
steering committee under the chairmanship grains.
of Prime Minister. How many of the statements given above are
2. The scheme aims at the elimination of all correct?
synthetic chemical inputs by Indian farmers. a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Only two
correct? c) All three
a) 1 only d) None

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

Q.28) Consider the following statements about Q.31) Consider the following statements about
the food processing sector in India: the features of the National Food Security Act,
1. Most food processing enterprises have been 2013:
exempted from industrial licensing under 1. Subsidies are provided exclusively to BPL
the Industries Act of 1951. families.
2. 100% foreign direct investment is permitted 2. Pregnant and lactating women receive 600
under automatic route in the food calories per day for their daily nourishment.
processing sector. 3. Only rice and wheat are provided to the BPL
3. The low level of fragmentation eases the families under the scheme.
supply chain management of the food How many of the statements given above are
processing sector in India. correct?
How many of the statements given above are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) All three
b) Only two d) None
c) All three
d) None Q.32) Consider the following statements about
the advantages of Sprinkler Irrigation:
Q.29) Which of the following options is 1. It has a low maintenance cost.
incorrect regarding the conditions for 2. It is more water-efficient than drip
cultivation of coffee? irrigation.
a) Coffee cultivation necessitates a warm and 3. Sprinklers provide an even water
humid environment. distribution across the field.
b) The ideal temperature for coffee cultivation 4. It allows the implementation of fertigation
ranges between 15°C and 28°C. in the field.
c) The ideal rainfall for coffee cultivation How many of the statements given above are
ranges between 150 and 250 cm. correct?
d) Moist weather is required when coffee a) Only one
berries ripen. b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.30) Consider the following statements: d) All four
Statement-I: India is one of the largest
exporters of edible oils in the world. Q.33) With reference to Zero Tillage, consider
Statement-II: India is the second-largest the following:
producer of groundnuts in the world. 1. Increase in organic content in soil due to
Which one of the following is correct in respect less mineralisation.
of the above statements? 2. Usage of mulch reduces the surface runoff
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are increasing the groundwater recharge.
correct, and Statement-II is the correct 3. The undisturbed soil environment leads to
explanation for Statement-I. decrease in soil microorganisms
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 4. Eliminates the need for transplanting of
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct paddy by allowing the paddy seeds to be
explanation for Statement-I. directly planted on the wet soil.
c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is Which of the above are the advantages of zero
incorrect. tillage?
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is a) 1, 2, and 4 only
correct. b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

Q.34) In context of Geography of India, which How many of the statements are the benefits of
among the following are the major reasons Indirect Subsidies?
behind soil erosion? a) Only one
1. Flooding b) Only two
2. Mechanized agriculture c) Only three
3. Grazing d) All four
4. Mining
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.37) Which of the following crops are generally
below: grown/sown in rabi season?
a) 1 and 3 only 1. Wheat
b) 2 and 4 only 2. Barley
c) 2, 3 and 4 only 3. Peas
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Mustard
5. Maize
Q.35) In the context of Agriculture, the 'Peace Select the correct answer using the code given
Clause' given in World Trade Organization below:
(WTO) Agreements refers to: a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
a) Free and fair-trade agreements in b) 1, 2 and 4 only
agricultural marketing between developed c) 1 and 4 only
and developing countries. d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b) A clause to limit the food subsidies given by
the developed countries to ensure a stability Q.38) Consider the following statements with
agriculture market. respect to pulses in India:
c) Temporary immunity to developing 1. Pulses are low in fat and rich in soluble fibre
countries for continuation of their food and protein content.
subsidy to promote transparency in the 2. Pulses are also used as cattle feed for
agricultural market. animals.
d) A non-reciprocal preferential treatment to 3. Pulses promote both farm biodiversity and
products originating in developing soil biodiversity.
countries to promote equity in the How many of the statements given above are
agricultural market. correct?
a) Only one
Q.36) With reference to the Indirect Subsidies b) Only two
c) All three
provided by the Government of India, consider
d) None
the following statements:
1. Indirect subsidies mostly prevent diversion
Q.39) Consider the following statements
of benefits when compared to direct
regarding crop rotation:
subsidies.
1. It involves sowing of only two crops
2. Indirect subsidy eliminates the inclusion-
alternatively on the same piece of land.
exclusion error as encountered in the direct
2. It improves soil health by increasing
subsidies.
biomass from different crops root
3. Monitoring indirect subsidies is easier as
structures.
compared to the direct subsidies.
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. In indirect subsidy, there is better
correct?
government control over the agency
a) 1 only
providing the subsidy. b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

Q.40) Consider the following statements with Q.43) Which of the following statement is
reference to the PM-KUSUM scheme: correct regarding groundwater utilization in
1. The scheme allows setting up small solar India?
plants up to 5 MW by Individual farmers. a) All the users of the groundwater have to
2. One of the key objectives of the scheme is to obtain a No Objection Certificate from
reduce consumption of Diesel by Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) at
Agricultural sector. regular interval.
3. It also allows farmers to grow crops below b) Every owner of land can collect and dispose
solar panels. water under the land within his own limits.
How many of the statements given above are c) India is the largest exporter of ground water
correct? in the world.
a) Only one d) India has more usable groundwater than
b) Only two surface water.
c) All three
d) None Q.44) With reference to Zero Budget Natural
Farming (ZBNF), consider the following
Q.41) Consider the following statements with statements:
reference to Organic farming: 1. It aims to bring down the cost of production
1. Organic farming can reduce the risk of crop to nearly zero.
failure. 2. It requires less amount of water required to
2. The area under organic cultivation in India grow a crop compared to traditional
increased in last five years. cropping system.
3. Input costs are typically lower in Organic 3. It applies cow dung from India's indigenous
farming than in conventional farming. cow breed.
How many of the statements given above are 4. One of the pillars of ZBNF is to discourage
correct? monoculture in farmlands.
a) Only one How many of the statements given above are
b) Only two correct?
c) All three a) Only one
d) None b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.42) Consider the following statements with d) All four
reference to Aeroponics:
1. The roots are held in a soilless growing Q.45) Which of the following statements
medium. regarding Hydroponic crops are correct?
2. Seeds are planted in pieces of foam stuffed 1. It can produce higher yields in
into tiny pots. comparatively shorter durations.
3. There are no nutrient runoffs in the 2. Compared to the traditional crops, they
Aeroponics. require less amount of water to grow.
How many of the statements given above are 3. It does not need fertilizer inputs.
correct? 4. It does not require pest control.
a) Only one 5. It requires less space than plants grown in
b) Only two soil.
c) All three Select the correct answer using the code given
d) None below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2 and 5 only

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 34 |

Q.46) Consider the following pairs: Q.49) With reference to Irrigation, consider the
Land type Description following statements:
1. Current Land which normally cannot 1. Protective irrigation is used to protect crops
fallow be brought under cultivation from adverse effects of soil moisture
with the available technology deficiency.
2. Culturable Land without cultivation for 2. Productive irrigation is meant to provide
Wasteland one or less than one sufficient soil moisture in the cropping
agricultural year season to achieve high productivity.
3. Barren Land Land without cultivation for 3. Protective irrigation provide maximum soil
more than a year but less moisture to limited area, compared to
than five years productive irrigation.
How many of the above pairs are correctly How many of the statements given above are
matched? correct?
a) Only one pair a) Only one
b) Only two pairs b) Only two
c) All the three pairs c) All three
d) None of the pairs d) None

Q.47) With reference to the farm landholdings Q.50) Consider the following pairs:
in India, consider the following statements: Drought Description
1. The average size of the farm landholding has 1. Meteorological Less than average
reduced by half in the last 50 years. drought precipitation for a
2. Small farmers contribute more than half of prolonged time.
the country's total agricultural output. 2. Agricultural Low water available for
3. Haryana has the highest average size of farm drought crop production
landholdings in India. 3. Hydrological Water in reservoirs fall
How many of the statements given above are drought below a locally significant
correct? threshold.
a) Only one How many of the pairs given above are correct?
b) Only two a) Only one
c) All three b) Only two
d) None c) All three
d) None
Q.48) Which of the following best describes
reason for the poor presence of canals
irrigation in the Peninsular Plateau of India?
a) The areas south of Vindhyas receive plenty
of rainfall which fulfils water requirements.
b) The Peninsular rivers carry a lot of silt which
fills up the canal channels.
c) The digging of canals in rocky and uneven
areas is difficult and uneconomic.
d) There are no large dams and perennial
rivers in the Peninsular Plateau region.

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