PTS 2024 B4 L1 Test 5 QP Eng

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS24-B4-L1T5 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 111205
A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without
any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet
liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only
the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
Page 1
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.1) Which of the following may lead to cost- How many of the above-given statements are
push inflation in India? correct?
1. Increase in Profit margin by firms a) Only one
2. War in the Gulf countries. b) Only two
3. Provision of Universal Basic Income. c) All three
4. Increase in prices of imports. d) None
Select the correct answer from the code given
below: Q.5) With reference to Article 142 of the Indian
a) 1 and 4 only Constitution, consider the following
b) 2 and 3 only statements:
c) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. It empowers the Supreme Court to do
d) 2, 3 and 4 only ‘Complete Justice’ between the parties when
the existing law fails to do so.
Q.2) Consider the following options regarding 2. It empowers the Supreme Court to interfere
the impacts of increasing inflation rate in in both criminal as well as civil matters.
India: 3. The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati
1. Increase in investments. case provided the standard definition of
2. Increase in exports. ‘complete justice’.
3. Increased economic activity. How many of the statements given above are
4. Increase in bond yield. correct?
How many of the options given above are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) All three
b) Only two d) None
c) Only three
d) All four Q.6) Which of the following statements best
describes the meaning of ‘Stagflation’?
Q.3) Consider the following: a) Increase in the rate of inflation due to the
1. Rationalising the subsidies. supply side bottlenecks.
2. Buying of Government Securities by RBI. b) Reducing the quantity of a product to
3. Raising the income tax rate. maintain its price.
4. Raising the Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) c) Increase in the rate of inflation along with
limit. the increased unemployment rate.
How many of the above are the monetary d) Increase in the rate of inflation along with
measures to prevent an increase in the rate of the increased wage rate.
inflation?
a) Only one Q.7) It refers to the impact of the previous
b) Only two year's price level or economic performance on
c) Only three the calculation and interpretation of current
d) All four year data. It comes into play when comparing
economic indicators, such as inflation rates or
Q.4) Consider the following statements with GDP growth, between different periods.
reference to Capability Approach of Amartya It is called:
Sen: a) Inflation Spiral
1. This approach primarily focuses on inputs b) Base Effect
including goods and resources. c) GDP Deflator
2. It views poverty as ‘deprivation of d) Skewflation
consumption’ rather than ‘deprivation of
opportunities’
3. Under this approach, people are
considered as ‘Agents of Change’.
Page 2
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.8) With reference to ‘Core inflation’ and How many of the above statements are
‘Headline inflation’, consider the following correct?
statements: a) Only one
1. Core inflation reflects the prices of b) Only two
essential consumption goods in an c) All three
economy. d) None
2. Headline inflation measures total inflation
minus prices of highly volatile food and fuel Q.11) Consider the following statements with
components. reference to Multi-dimensional Poverty Index
3. Core inflation is less volatile than Headline (MPI):
inflation. 1. A person is multidimensionally poor if
4. Headline inflation is more relevant for she/he is deprived in any of the ten
developing economies than for developed indicators of the index.
economies. 2. All indicators of MPI have equal weightage.
How many of the statements given above are 3. India has the largest number of poor people
correct? worldwide as per MPI 2022.
a) Only one How many of the above statements are
b) Only two correct?
c) Only three a) Only one
d) All four b) Only two
c) All three
Q.9) Which of the following best defines the d) None
concept of "Double Dip Recession"?
a) A situation where a country experiences Q.12) Which of the following items has the
two consecutive periods of economic maximum weightage in the Consumer Price
growth followed by a period of economic Index – Combined (CPI-C)?
contraction. a) Fuel and light
b) A phenomenon where a country's economy b) Housing
goes through alternating phases of c) Clothing and footwear
expansion and contraction. d) Food and beverages
c) A scenario characterized by a recession
followed by a brief period of economic Q.13) This type of inflation mostly prevails in
recovery, followed by another recession. developing countries. The situation arises due
d) A severe economic downturn that affects to the structural weakness existing in a
two different sectors simultaneously developing economy. It usually occurs due to
leading to prolonged recessionary periods. imbalances in the supply chain or production
process, leading to a sustained increase in
Q.10) With reference to the Asian prices.
Development Bank (ADB), consider the The type of inflation being discussed here is:
following statements: a) Open Inflation
1. India is one of the founding members of b) Suppressed Inflation
ADB. c) Core Inflation
2. ADB does not have members from outside d) Structural Inflation
Asia.
3. ADB provides financial grant assistance to
its member countries only.
Page 3
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.14) With reference to inequalities in land d) National Council for Applied Economic
holdings in India, consider the following Research (NCAER)
statements:
1. Higher proportion of women hold land in Q.17) Which of the following are the reasons
northern states as compared to southern why women have a higher incidence of
states. Poverty compared to Men?
2. The percentage of Scheduled Caste and 1. Low wages
Scheduled Tribe women holding land is 2. Lack of decent work
higher than the national average 3. Unpaid care work
3. The highest percentage of land holdings 4. Educational Inequalities
with women is in Lakshadweep. Choose the correct answer from the below
How many of the statements given above are given Codes:
correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) Only one b) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) Only two c) 1 and 3 only
c) All three d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) None
Q.18) Consider the following statements with
Q.15) With reference to the State of World reference to ‘Absolute Poverty’:
Population Report, 2023, consider the 1. It refers to a situation where households do
following statements: not have the minimum amount of income
1. It is published by the World Health needed to meet the minimum living
Organisation (WHO). requirements.
2. The report notes that India surpassed 2. It is determined using a poverty line.
China, for the first time, in terms of 3. The international poverty line is set by the
population in 2023. International Monetary Fund (IMF) at $4.15
3. As per the report, people falling in the age per person per day.
group of 15-64 years accounts for nearly How many of the statements given above are
two third of the global population. correct?
How many of the statements given above are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) All three
b) Only two d) None
c) All three
d) None Q.19) The ‘RAMP’ Scheme, launched by the
Union Cabinet, is aimed at:
Q.16) Which of the following a) Improving the performance of the MSME
Organisation/Institution is associated with Sector.
publishing of India Human Development b) Providing infrastructure facilities in public
Survey (IHDS)? buildings for physically disabled persons.
a) Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy c) Providing COVID relief fund to the daily
(CMIE) wage workers who lost their jobs in a
b) NITI Aayog pandemic.
c) National Statistical Office (NSO) d) Giving financial aid to the farmers during
the times of natural calamities.
Page 4
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.20) With reference to the importance of c) Both 1 and 2

internet in Indian legal system, consider the d) Neither 1 nor 2
following statements:
Statement-I: Any order with regard to Q.23) Which of the following are the services
Internet Shutdowns can be subjected to provided under the Integrated Child
Judicial review. Development Service (ICDS) Scheme?
Statement-II: Freedom of speech and 1. Supplementary Nutrition
expression through the internet is a 2. Pre-school non-formal education
fundamental right recognised under Article 19 3. Nutrition & health education
of the Constitution. 4. Immunization
Which of the following is correct in respect of 5. Health check-up
the above statements? Select the correct answer using the code given
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are below:
correct and Statement-II is the correct a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
explanation for Statement- I b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) 1, 3, and 4 only
correct and Statement-II is not the correct d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Q.24) Consider the following statements with
incorrect reference to Engel's law in Economics.
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement-II is 1. Engel’s Law states that as household income
correct rises, the percentage of income spent on
food also increases.
Q.21) Consider the following statements about 2. Engel’s Law is used to evaluate a country’s
the Global Hunger Index (GHI): standard of living and to set national
1. It is jointly released by the Oxfam and poverty lines.
United Nations Development Programme. Which of the above given statements is/are
2. The GHI score for India has improved correct?
continuously since 2000. a) 1 Only
3. As per the GHI-2022, there is a "serious" b) 2 Only
level of hunger in India. c) Both 1 and 2
4. India is ranked below Pakistan and d) Neither 1 nor 2
Bangladesh in GHI-2022.
How many of the above statements are Q.25) In context of the Indian Criminal Justice
correct? System, consider the following statements in
a) Only one respect of ‘Narco Test’:
b) Only two 1. The accused has the right to a Narco
c) Only three Analysis Test to prove his/her innocence.
d) All four 2. The test involves sedating the individual
with drugs to deprive his/her power of
Q.22) With regard to family planning measures imagination.
taken in India, consider the following 3. The test cannot be conducted on Suspect
statements: without his/her approval.
1. For family planning purposes, several Indian 4. The Suspect’s statement during the narco
states have embraced the two-child policy. test can be used as evidence in the Court.
2. A female sterilization technique called How many of the statements given above are
Centchroman (Chhaya) is offered at various correct?
levels of the health system. a) Only one
Which of the above given statements is/are b) Only two
correct? c) Only three
a) 1 Only d) All four
b) 2 Only
Page 5
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.26) It is an economic theory that describes Q.29) Consider the following statements
the relationship between inflation and both regarding the trends in Capital expenditure of
real and nominal interest rates. As per this the Union Government:
concept, the nominal interest rate on a loan is 1. The capital expenditure to GDP ratio of the
the sum of the real interest rate and the rate Union Government has increased steadily
of inflation expected over the duration of the in the last five years.
loan. 2. The capital expenditure to GDP ratio of
Which of the following economic concept is Union Government is more than 10% of the
being described in the given passage? GDP for the fiscal year 2022.
a) Fisher effect 3. The percentage share of Capital
b) Domino effect expenditure in the total Union Government
c) Goodhart’s Law expenditure has continuously decreased in
d) Pigou effect the last five years.
How many of the above given statements are
Q.27) Consider the following statements correct?
regarding the approaches used to measure a) Only one
unemployment in India: b) Only two
1. The Usual Status approach uses a reference c) All three
period of 365 days. d) None
2. Under Current Daily Status (CDS) approach
the unemployment status of a person is Q.30) With reference to the Information
measured for seven days preceding the date Technology Agreement (ITA), a plurilateral
of survey. agreement of the World Trade Organisation
3. In the Current Weekly Status (CWS) (WTO), consider the following statements:
approach a person is considered to be 1. India is a signatory to the Information
employed if he is engaged in gainful Technology Agreement (ITA).
activities atleast two days of a week. 2. Under ITA, the participants are committed
How many of the above given statements are to eliminating tariffs completely on IT
correct? products.
a) Only one 3. The ITA is not concerned with the
b) Only two regulation of imports of services.
c) All three How many of the statements given above are
d) None correct?
a) Only one
Q.28) With reference to the Medium-Term b) Only two
Fiscal Policy Statement, consider the following c) All three
statements: d) None
1. It sets three-year rolling target for specific
fiscal indicators in relation to GDP. Q.31) Which of the following statement is
2. It is presented along with the General correct regarding the “Effective Capital
Budget by the Union government. Expenditure”?
3. It is mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility a) It is money invested by a company to
and Budget Management Act, 2003. acquire or upgrade fixed, physical or non-
How many of the above given statements are consumable assets.
correct? b) It is the part of government spending that
a) Only one does not result in the production of assets.
b) Only two c) It is the difference between revenue deficit
c) All three and grants for creation of capital assets.
d) None d) It is defined as the sum of capital
expenditure and grants in aid for creation
of capital assets.
Page 6
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.32) With reference to present situation of 1. Unlike classical computers, Quantum

India’s External debt, consider the following computers are immune from any form of
statements: Cyber attack.
1. Of the total external debt of India, the 2. At high temperatures, quantum computers
share of short-term debt is larger than that are more error prone than classical
of long-term debt. computers.
2. The majority part of India’s external debt is 3. The National Quantum Mission launched by
denominated in US dollar, followed by the Government of India aims to install at
Indian rupees. least one quantum computer in each state
3. External debt owed by the Central as well by 2050.
as State Governments is less than the How many of the statements given above are
external debt owed by non-sovereign correct?
entities. a) Only one
How many of the above given statements are b) Only two
correct? c) All three
a) Only one d) None
b) Only two
c) All three Q.36) The term ‘Presumptive Taxation' was in
d) None the news recently. With reference to this,
which of the following statements is correct?
Q.33) Consider the following statements about a) It is a direct tax that is withheld by the
the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination service recipient at the time of payment.
Program, introduced in the Union Budget b) It is a taxation system applied by the
2023: government on specific industries when
1. Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a chronic single- their profits are unexpectedly high.
gene disorder causing devastating systemic c) It is a system where tax is paid by
syndrome. businesses based on their estimated
2. It aims to eliminate sickle cell genetic income or profit; without any requirements
transmission by the year 2030. to maintain books of accounts.
3. The mission will be implemented in all the d) It is a tax levied at the time of purchase on
North-Eastern states of India. specific items because they are morally
How many of the above statements are questionable.
correct?
a) Only one Q.37) In line with the objectives of Digital India
b) Only two Mission, Digital Document Execution (DDE)
c) All three platform was launched. In this context,
d) None consider the following statements:
1. It is a platform for paperless execution and
Q.34) The term 'Shree Anna' was recently seen storage of financial contracts.
in the news. Which of the following crops have 2. Digital Document Execution platform was
been referred to as ‘Shree Anna’? launched by National e-Governance
a) Rice Services Limited.
b) Wheat Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Cotton correct?
d) Millets a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.35) With reference to ‘Quantum Computers’, c) Both 1 and 2
consider the following statements: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page 7
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.38) Consider the following statements about How many of the statements given above are
Account Aggregator (AA): correct?
1. It is an RBI-regulated entity that holds an a) Only one
NBFC-AA license. b) Only two
2. An Account Aggregator cannot distribute c) Only three
the data without the individual's consent. d) All four
3. If a customer shares data with an institution
once, it can be used for a maximum of one Q.41) With reference to the Skills Acquisition
year. and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood
How many of the above statements are Promotion (SANKALP) Scheme and Skill
correct? Strengthening for Industrial Value
a) Only one Enhancement (STRIVE) Scheme, consider the
b) Only two following statements:
c) All three 1. STRIVE scheme aims at improving the
d) None inclusion of marginalized communities for
providing skill training opportunities.
Q.39) Consider the following statements 2. SANKALP scheme aims at incentivizing
regarding the Index of Industrial Production Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) to
(IIP) and Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI): improve the overall performance of skill
1. IIP is a private sector survey while the PMI development programmes.
is prepared by the union government of 3. Both the STRIVE scheme and the SANKALP
India. scheme are World Bank-assisted Central
2. IIP is a measure of output whereas PMI Sector Schemes of Government of India.
measures activity at the purchasing or How many of the above statements are
input stage. correct?
3. The sample size of IIP is much more a) Only one
comprehensive than the sample size used b) Only two
to calculate PMI. c) All three
How many of the statements given above are d) None
correct?
a) Only one Q.42) With reference to the 'Atmanirbhar
b) Only two Clean Plant Programme', consider the
c) All three following statements:
d) None 1. The programme will be guided by the
Botanical Survey of India which will
Q.40) With reference to “Scheduled Tribes” in establish Clean Plant Centres throughout
India, consider the following statements: India.
1. The President can declare specific groups as 2. It aims to increase the availability of high-
Scheduled Tribes in States after quality planting material for high-
consultation with the Governor of the value horticultural crops.
concerned State. 3. One of the objectives of the programme is
2. Both the Supreme Court as well as High to protect the ecosystem by proactive virus
Courts can modify the Scheduled Tribes and disease control measures.
List. How many of the above statements are
3. A community declared as Scheduled Tribe correct?
(ST) in one state will be automatically a) Only one
considered as ST in another state. b) Only two
4. Removing any groups from the list of c) All three
Scheduled Tribes (STs) can be made by the d) None
Parliament but not by the President.
Page 8
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.43) Why a certain level of inflation is 3. The treaty will be the first international
considered good for the economy? legally binding treaty to fight global plastic
1. It may lead to an increase in production pollution.
activities. 4. The treaty does not intend to combat plastic
2. It can reduce the state of rising pollution in the marine environment.
unemployment. How many of the statements given above are
3. It increases the value of savings in an correct?
economy. a) Only one
4. It encourages borrowing and lending b) Only two
activities. c) Only three
5. It redistributes the income in favour of d) All four
fixed-income families.
Select the correct answer using the codes Q.46) Which of the following are the reason
given below: that the manufacturing sector in India has
a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only failed to absorb the workforce from the
b) 1, 2 and 4 only agricultural sector?
c) 2, 3, and 5 only 1. Preference for capital intensive
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 manufacturing ventures.
2. Laws favouring small scale industries.
Q.44) With reference to the Credit Gap, 3. High barriers to entry and exit for
consider the following statements: industries.
1. It refers to the difference between credit 4. Low demand of manufactured goods in
demanded and the credit supplied in GDP, India.
through the formal and informal financial Select the correct answer using the code given
institutions. below:
2. It serves as an early warning indicator for a) 1, 2 and 3 only
banking crises and the financial fragility of b) 2, 3 and 4 only
an economy. c) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. A small Credit Gap reflects economic d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
resilience or the ability of the economy to
repay its debt. Q.47) Consider the following statements with
How many of the above statements are reference to the ‘Tax to GDP ratio’ in India:
correct? 1. Tax to GDP ratio has been lower than 10% of
a) Only one GDP during last five years.
b) Only two 2. One of the reasons for low Tax to GDP ratio
c) All three is the income tax exemption for agriculture
d) None income.
3. Lower tax to GDP ratio indicates that an
Q.45) Recently the Intergovernmental economy's tax buoyancy is weak.
Negotiating Committee for Plastics met in How many of the above statements are
Paris to develop a treaty to end global plastic correct?
pollution. In this context consider the a) Only one
following statements: b) Only two
1. India played an instrumental role in c) All three
convening the Intergovernmental d) None
Negotiating Committee for Plastics.
2. The treaty is prepared under the overall
aegis of G-20.
Page 9
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.48) Consider the following statements with Q.51) Consider the following statements:
reference to the Total Fertility Rate (TFR): 1. Poverty Gap shows the extent to which
1. TFR estimates the level of fertility at which a individuals on an average fall below the
population exactly replaces itself from one Poverty Line.
generation to the next. 2. Intensity of Poverty reflects the gap
2. As per National Family Health Survey (NFHS) between the living standard of the poor
- 5, TFR of majority of States/UTs of India is population and the Poverty Line.
below Replacement Level. 3. Poverty trap measures the intensity of
3. According to NFHS-5, Uttar Pradesh has the poverty.
highest TFR in India. How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three d) None
d) None
Q.52) In the context of economic policy, which
Q.49) Consider the following statements with of the following statements correctly
reference to the World Population Prospects describes the distinction between the
(WPP) Report: Waterfall Approach and the Agile Approach?
1. It is released by the Population Division of 1. The Waterfall approach involves making a
the United States of America. rigid plan to tackle problems compared to
2. The reports aim to stabilize the population that of the Agile approach.
growth of the world. 2. While the agile approach tackles the
3. India was the largest contributor of the last problem faced by weaker sections, the
one billion people born in the world as per waterfall approach fails to do so.
WPP report 2022. Select the correct answer using the code given
How many of the above statements are below:
correct? a) 1 only
a) Only one b) 2 only
b) Only two c) Both 1 and 2
c) All three d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) None
Q.53) With reference to Carbon Stocks of
Q.50) A recent study shows that Deep Ocean India, consider the following statements:
Currents in Antarctica are slowing earlier than 1. Carbon stock includes the amount of carbon
predicted. Consider the following statements stored in the living as well as non-living
regarding the likely impacts of this entities.
phenomenon: 2. Carbon stock of forests in India has shown a
1. Increase in the level of Oxygen at the steady increase in the last five years.
bottom of the Ocean. 3. Madhya Pradesh has the maximum carbon
2. Increase in the rate of Global warming. stock in forests among the Indian states.
3. Increase in Sea level. 4. Jammu & Kashmir has the maximum per-
4. Increase in phytoplankton populations. hectare forest carbon stock in India.
How many of the above statements are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a) Only one a) Only one
b) Only two b) Only two
c) Only three c) Only three
d) All four d) All four
Page 10
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.54) According to the latest round of National b) The level of fertility at which a population
Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) there are only exactly replaces itself from one generation
five states in India which are above to the next.
replacement level of fertility of 2.1. Which c) Average number of children reproduced by
among the following states are those states? women to replace the migrating population
1. Bihar in an area.
2. Tripura d) Number of child births prevented by
3. Uttar Pradesh women due to the use of contraceptive
4. Madhya Pradesh methods.
5. Meghalaya
How many of the option/s given above is/are Q.58) With reference to the demographic
correct? dividend, consider the following statements:
a) Only two 1. Lack of Skilled workforce.
b) Only three 2. Higher Inter State Migration.
c) Only four 3. Lack of Female Labour Force Participation
d) All five Rate (FLPR).
4. Higher exports by India.
Q.55) With reference to Carbon Capture How many of the above factors prevents India
Coalition, consider the following statements: from benefitting fully from its demographic
1. It is an intergovernmental organisation dividend?
formed to accelerate the global adoption of a) Only one
carbon management technologies. b) Only two
2. It provides financial assistance to c) Only three
developing countries to enable them to d) All four
develop carbon capture and removal
technologies. Q.59) Consider the following:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Investment in individuals’ education
correct? 2. Investment in human health
a) 1 only 3. Access to information
b) 2 only 4. International migration
c) Both 1 and 2 How many of the above can be considered as
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the source of Human Capital formation?
a) Only one
Q.56) Which of the following statements b) Only two
reflects the most appropriate idea behind the c) Only three
concept of ‘Population trap’? d) All four
a) Growth rate of population being controlled
by natural causes. Q.60) Consider the following statements in
b) Decline growth rate of population due to respect of the ‘Carbon Border Adjustment
increased standard of living of people. Mechanism (CBAM)’ sometimes seen in news:
c) Increase in population as people give birth 1. It is an initiative of the World Trade
to more children for their economic Organisation.
security. 2. It aims to restrict the trade of cheaper and
d) Growth rate of population being balanced more carbon-intensive goods.
out by the higher death rate. 3. It exempted the trading of agricultural
products like Fertilisers.
Q.57) Which of the following statements How many of the statements given above are
correctly describe the meaning of correct?
‘Replacement level fertility’? a) Only one
a) Average number of children born to a b) Only two
female over their lifetime. c) All three
d) None
Page 11
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.61) With reference to the present status of Q.64) With reference to Pharmaceutical Sector
Urbanisation in India, consider the following of India, consider the following statements:
statements: 1. India is the largest provider of Generic
1. The share of urban population to the total medicines in the world.
population has been steadily increasing in 2. The Government’s approval is mandatory
the last decade. for foreign direct investment in new
2. At present, more than half of India’s pharmaceutical plants.
population live in Urban areas. 3. The value of pharmaceutical exports has
3. As per the 2011 Census, Himachal Pradesh is consistently increased in the last five years.
the most urbanised state in India. 4. Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme
How many of the statements given above are provides financial assistance to domestic as
correct? well as foreign industries to promote
a) Only one manufacturing of APIs in India.
b) Only two How many of the statements given above are
c) All three correct?
d) None a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.62) Consider the following statement/s c) Only three
regarding the distinction between Physical d) All four
and Human capital:
1. While physical capital creates only private Q.65) A conservation initiative involving the
benefits, human capital creates both private Kadar tribal community in the Western Ghats
and social benefits. has brought the dwindling hornbill population
2. Unlike physical capital, human capital is to a viable level. In this context, consider the
inseparable from its owners. following statements in respect of Hornbills:
3. Unlike the physical capital, the global 1. Most hornbills usually live in a defined
movement of human capital is free of any territory.
trade barriers. 2. Most of the hornbills’ nests are built in tree
How many of the statements given above are hollows.
correct? 3. They are Omnivorous in nature.
a) Only one How many of the statements given above are
c) All three a) Only one
d) None b) Only two
c) All three
Q.63) With reference to SAMARATH Udyog d) None
Bharat 4.0, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Q.66) With reference to the Net International
Labour & Employment. Investment Position (IIP), consider the
2. It is a digital platform facilitating interaction following statements:
between job seekers and job providers. 1. Net IIP is measured as a difference between
3. The initiative promotes Industry-Academia a nation's total inflow and outflow of
collaboration to prepare graduates with money.
skills required for Industry 4.0. 2. India is a debtor country owing to its
How many of the statements given above are negative Net IIP.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) Only one correct?
b) Only two a) 1 only
c) All three b) 2 only
d) None c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page 12
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.67) With reference to present status of c) All three

Indian Economy, consider the following d) None
statements:
1. India’s share in the service exports is larger Q.70) With reference to financial tool called
than that of the agriculture and industrial ‘debt-for-nature swaps’, consider the
sector combined. following statements:
2. The flow of banks’ credit to the industrial 1. It was introduced for the first time by the
sector is larger than that of any other ‘G20 common framework’.
sectors of the economy. 2. It enables the debtor countries to repay
3. The female labour force in service is larger their debt by investing local money in
than that of any other sectors of the Indian protecting natural resources.
economy. Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the statements given above are correct?
correct? a) 1 only
a) Only one b) 2 only
b) Only two c) Both 1 and 2
c) All three d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) None
Q.71) With reference to the Indian Economy,
Q.68) With reference to Sovereign Green which one of the following best describes the
Bonds (SGBs) in India, consider the following term “Flipping”?
statements: a) Transferring the entire ownership of an
1. It is issued by the Reserve Bank of India. Indian company to an overseas entity.
2. Nuclear power generation projects cannot b) An overseas investor investing in Indian
be funded using these bonds. shares via registered foreign institutional
3. Any risk emanating out of SGBs - sponsored investors.
projects must be borne by the investors. c) A foreign company investing in India and
4. All eligible green expenditure from these paying taxes to the country of its origin, on
bonds does not include subsidies provided the profits arising out of its investment in
to reduce carbon intensity of the economy. India.
How many of the statements given above are d) Foreign owners of e-commerce selling
correct? products that belong to other companies.
a) Only one
b) Only two Q.72) During 2021-22, India received foreign
c) Only three inward remittances of $89,127 million which
d) All four was the highest ever inward remittances
received in a single year. In this context,
Q.69) With reference to status of total tax consider the following countries:
revenues of India, consider the following 1. The United Arab Emirates (UAE).
statements: 2. The United States of America (USA).
1. The gross tax revenue of the Union 3. Singapore.
Government is more than five times of the 4. The United Kingdom (UK).
non-debt capital receipts. Arrange the above countries in ascending
2. The gross revenue from corporate tax is order in terms of their share to the total
greater than that of Income tax. remittances in India and select the correct
3. The revenue mobilised through Goods and answer using the code given below:
Service Tax (GST) has steadily increased in a) 1-2-3-4
the last five years. b) 1-2-4-3
How many of the statements given above are c) 2-1-4-3
correct? d) 2-4-3-1
a) Only one
b) Only two
Page 13
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.73) A historic resolution titled “End plastic 1. The geo-political strife in Europe is one of
pollution: towards an international legally the primary reasons for the widening of the
binding instrument" was adopted under the Current Account Deficit (CAD) of India.
overall aegis of 2. In India, External Commercial Borrowing
a) The United Nations Environment (ECB) for investment in industrial sector
Programme (UNEP). requires the approval of Reserve Bank of
b) The United Nations Climate Change India.
Conference. 3. Remittances are the largest source of
c) United Nations Convention to Combat external financing for the Indian economy.
Desertification (UNCCD) How many of the above statements are
d) International Maritime Organisation correct?
a) Only one
Q.74) With reference to employment status of b) Only two
India, consider the following statements: c) All three
1. At pan-India level, self-employed people d) None
constitute the single largest workforce.
2. In rural India, the share of casual labourers Q.77) Which of the following represents the
to the total rural workforce is greater than objective of 'Amrit Kaal'?
that of self-employed people. 1. Development of India
3. Unlike salaried people, casual workers are 2. Elimination of the traces of colonial mindset
not entitled to any social security benefits 3. Taking Pride in our own heritage
offered by the Government. 4. Developing and fostering unity
How many of the statements given above are 5. Inculcating sense of duty among Indians
correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
a) Only one below:
b) Only two a) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All three b) 2, 4 and 5 only
d) None c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.75) A wildlife enthusiast travels across India
to see gharials in their natural habitat. In Q.78) With reference to the Viability Gap
which of the following rivers, he/she may have Funding (VGF) Scheme, consider the following
a chance to witness gharials? statements:
1. Gandak river 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme which
2. Chambal river provides financial support to Private
3. Brahmani river companies in Infrastructure sector.
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. It is administered by the Department of
below: Economic Affairs under the Ministry of
a) 1 only Finance.
b) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 2 and 3 only correct?
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Q.76) With reference to India's Balance of c) Both 1 and 2
Payment, consider the following statements: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page 14
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.79) With reference to socio-economic status Q.82) Which of the following statements best
of vulnerable sections in India, consider the describes the phenomenon of ‘Churning Poor’?
following statements: a) It is a situation when people are usually
1. There is a greater number of Scheduled poor, but they may sometimes have a little
Caste population below the poverty line in more money than usual.
urban areas than in rural areas. b) It is a situation in which people regularly
2. The literacy rates of Other Backward move in and out of the poverty.
Classes is higher in urban areas than in c) It is a situation in which people are rich
rural areas. most of the times, but sometimes their
3. OBC households earn more than the income drops to poverty level.
national average income per capita. d) It is a situation in which a sudden calamity
How many of the above statements are draws a group of people into poverty.
correct?
a) Only one Q.83) With reference to government
b) Only two expenditure on social sector, consider the
c) All three following statements:
d) None 1. The total expenditure of the General
Government on social services has seen an
Q.80) Which one of the following best increasing trend in the last five years.
describes the term “Blue Washing”? 2. The total health expenditure of the Central
a) conveying a false impression that products government has increased to 3 per cent of
are derived from marine organisms. GDP in the Fiscal year of 2021-22.
b) deceptive marketing techniques to 3. The total combined expenditure of Central
overstate a company’s commitment to and State governments on the health
responsible social practices. sector is twice the expenditure allocated
c) a practice of disposing large amounts of for the education sector.
industrial and domestic wastes into Ocean. How many of the above-given statements are
d) a large-scale coastal erosion occasioned by correct?
the destruction of mangroves near coastal a) Only one
zones. b) Only two
c) All three
Q.81) Consider the following economic d) None
situation:
“Suppose a family with an annual household Q.84) Consider the following statements
income of Rs. 5,00,000 spends 25% of their regarding situation of workforce in an
income on food. After some time, their income economy:
doubles to Rs. 10,00,000. Consequently, the 1. Casualisation of a workforce is a situation
percentage of income spend on food in which employment shifts from full time
purchases decreases, while the percentage and permanent position to contractual
spent on other things (such as education and position.
recreation) increases.” 2. Informalisation of workforce is a situation
Which of the following concepts most in which the proportion of workforce in the
appropriately explain the above economic formal sector of economy declines over a
scenario? period.
a) Laffer’s Curve Which of the statements given above is/are
b) Varian Rule correct?
c) Engel’s law a) 1 only
d) Kuznets Curve b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page 15
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.85) With reference to Artificial Sweeteners, Q.88) With reference to the National Family
consider the following statements: Health Survey-5, consider the following
1. They are several hundred times sweeter statements:
than sugar but have very little calories. 1. Total fertility rate (TFR) has fallen below
2. The risk of diabetes is very low even with the replacement level.
the higher consumption of artificial 2. Overall Contraceptive Prevalence Rate
sweeteners. (CPR) has decreased substantially to about
3. Most of the artificial sweeteners are listed 10% at the all-India level.
as Carcinogenic by the World Health 3. All the States/UTs achieved the
Organisation (WHO). replacement level of fertility.
How many of the statements given above are 4. Sex ratio has risen as compared to National
correct? Family Health Survey-4.
a) Only one How many of the above-given statements are
c) All three a) Only one
d) None b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.86) Consider the following statements d) All four
regarding Aspirational Districts Program
(ADP): Q.89) Which of the following statements best
1. Development of ‘basic infrastructure’ describe the situation of Unemployment Trap?
assumes maximum weightage under the a) It is a situation in which a casual labour
ADP. finds it difficult to get out of indebtedness
2. According to Economic Survey 2022-23, due to insufficient income.
many of the Aspirational Districts (ADs) b) It is a situation in which cost of going to
have performed better than non- work is lower than the income received.
aspirational districts in terms of Financial c) It is a situation when unemployment
Inclusion. benefits discourage the unemployed to go
3. Several Aspirational Districts have reported to work.
saturation in the basic infrastructure d) It is a situation in which an employee is
indicators, as per the Economic Survey forced to work without wages by debtor to
2022-23. repay the previous debts.
How many of the above-given statements are
correct? Q.90) With reference to City Investments to
a) Only one Innovate, Integrate and Sustain 2.0 (CITIIS 2.0)
b) Only two program, consider the following statements:
c) All three 1. It is launched by the Union Ministry of
d) None Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. The program is a sub-component of the
Q.87) Consider the following statements about Smart Cities Mission.
PM DevINE scheme: 3. Currently, Odisha alone is eligible to receive
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. benefits under the program.
2. It will be implemented through the 4. The program offers technical as well as
Northeastern Council for development. financial assistance to build climate
3. The NECTAR Livelihood Improvement resilience cities.
Project will be funded under this scheme. How many of the statements given above are
How many of the above-given statements are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) Only three
c) All three d) All four
d) None
Page 16
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.91) The Economic Survey 2022-23 talks 1. Outlay for MGNREGA has been increased
about the Guidotti–Greenspan IMF rule. In this significantly compared to previous year.
context, select the statement which best 2. The Aspirational Blocks Programme has
describes the rule? been extended to all the blocks in the
a) According to the rule, the adequacy of country.
foreign exchange can be determined by 3. The budgeted expenditure on health has
Ratio of reserves to imports, to money reached the target of 2.5 per cent set by
aggregates and measure of external debt. the National Health Policy.
b) It states that a country's foreign exchange 4. Now under PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana,
reserves should be equal to short-term all Antyodaya and priority households will
external debt. receive free food grains.
c) The rules state that the Gross Fixed capital How many of the above-given statements are
formation increases with an increase in correct?
investment. a) Only one
d) The rule provides for the precautionary b) Only two
measures to be taken by the economy in c) Only three
economic crisis. d) All four
Q.92) Demographic dividend in a country will Q.95) With reference to the India’s bilateral
occur in which of the following conditions? military exercise with various countries,
1. A country having a barrel shaped consider the following pairs:
population pyramid. Military exercises Partner
2. When working-age population has grown countries
larger than the dependant population. 1. Samudra Shakti-23 Indonesia
3. When decline in a country’s birth rate and 2. Yudh Abhyas United States of
child death rate is being witnessed. America
Select the correct answer from the code given 3. Harimau Shakti France
below: 4. Dharma Guardian Nepal
a) 1 and 2 only How many pairs above are correctly matched?
b) 1 and 3 only a) Only one
c) 2 and 3 only b) Only two
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Only three
d) All four
Q.93) Which of the following measures by the
government will help in containing inflation in Q.96) Which of the following items are
Food Commodities? included in calculation of both Consumer price
1. Imposing stock limits to avoid hoarding. index (CPI) and Wholesale price index (WPI) in
2. Increasing import duties on import of food India?
commodities 1. Fuel items
3. Banning future and option contract trading 2. Electricity
in agricultural commodities 3. Transportation Services
Choose the correct answer using code given 4. Educational Services
below: 5. Food items
a) 1 and 2 only Choose the correct answer using the code
b) 1 and 3 only given below:
c) 2 and 3 only a) 1, 2 and 5 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.94) Consider the following statements d) 2, 4 and 5 only
regarding various socio-economic welfare
measures provided in Union Budget 2023-24:
Page 17
PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |
Q.97) Which of the following brings out the 3. Sodium-ion batteries charge faster and have
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India? a longer lifespan compared to lithium-ion
a) The Office of Economic Adviser. batteries.
b) The National Statistics Office. 4. Sodium ion batteries have higher energy
c) The Labour Bureau. density than lithium-ion batteries.
d) The Department of Economic Affairs. How many of the statements given above are
correct?
Q.98) With regards to inflation targeting in a) Only one
India, consider the following statements: b) Only two
1. The RBI solely determines the inflation c) Only three
target, in terms of the Consumer Price d) All four
Index, once in every five years.
2. RBI’s flexible inflation targeting places price
stability as the primary objective of the
monetary policy.
3. If the RBI fails to meet the inflation target,
then a new monetary policy committee will
be formed to address the issue.
4. The monetary policy committee
determines the policy interest rate
required to achieve the inflation target.
How many of the above-given statements are
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Q.99) In the context of economy, the term

‘factoring’ refers to which of the following?
a) It is the purchase of an exporter's
receivables at a discount by paying cash.
b) It is a transaction where an entity sells its
receivables to a third party for immediate
funds.
c) It is a financial derivative that gives the
buyer the right to buy or sell an asset on a
future date.
d) It is a system which provides a clear-cut
timeline of a maximum of 90 days for
providing interim payment to depositors
Q.100) Scientists are working to develop

Sodium-Ion batteries as an alternative to
Lithium-Ion batteries. In this context, how are
Sodium Ion Batteries different from Lithium-
Ion Batteries?
1. Unlike lithium-ion batteries, Sodium Ion
Batteries have no over-discharging problem.
2. Sodium-ion batteries are cheaper than
lithium-ion batteries.

PTS 2024 B4 L1 Test 5 QP Eng

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

PTS 2024 B4 L1 Test 5 QP Eng

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 Test 5 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO