PTS 2024 Preparatory Test 33 Solutions Eng

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |
Q.1)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. Stainless steel is known for its corrosion resistance. Stainless steel is a steel alloy
that contains a minimum chromium content of 10.5%. The chromium reacts with the oxygen in the air
and forms a protective layer that makes stainless steel highly resistant to corrosion and rust. Copper is
also corrosion resistant and copper resists rust just a little better than stainless steel.
Option b is correct. When compared to stainless steel, Copper is a good conductor of heat and
electricity. Using copper materials for the bottom of utensils is for easy transfer of heat to the raw
materials. This makes cooking faster with less amount of heat.
Option c is incorrect. Copper is generally more expensive than steel. Cost is thus not the reason of using
copper base in the steel utensils.
Option d is incorrect. Stainless steel is slightly more durable than copper. Steel has also good physical
properties in terms of strength and durability. When compared to copper, it has high tensile strength.
Source: NCERT Class 7th Science
Q.2)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect. Human beings utilise carbohydrates primarily to produce energy. We also get
energy from fats. Fats provide much more energy when compared with the same amount of
carbohydrates .
Statement 2 is incorrect. In addition to the nutrients, the human body requires water and dietary fibre.
Roughage is also referred to as dietary fibres. Roughage is primarily provided by plant products in our
foods. Although roughage does not contain any nutrients, it is a necessary part of our diet and gives it
extra bulk. This helps our body in getting rid of undigested food. The main sources of roughage include
potatoes, fresh fruits and vegetables, whole grains and pulses.
Statement 3 is correct. Water helps our body to absorb nutrients from food. It also facilitates in
throwing out some wastes from the body as urine and sweat. The majority of the water that our bodies
require is often obtained from the liquids we consume, including milk, tea, and water.
Statement 4 is correct. Human body requires proteins for growth and repair. The human body uses
protein to build new cells and repair damaged ones. Protein-rich foods are sometimes referred to as
"body-building foods." Amino acids are the chemical "building blocks" that form proteins that are
considered as the building blocks of the human body. They form most of our blood, muscles, and organs.
Amino acids are used by our body to produce hormones, enzymes, and to build and repair muscles and
bones.
Source: Class 6 Science NCERT, Chapter 1 Pg:4 to 7
Q.3)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Kinetic Energy is the energy possessed by a body by the virtue of being in motion.
Option a is incorrect: The First Law of Thermodynamics (also known as the Law of Conservation of
Energy) states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only be transferred from one
object to another or transformed from one form to another. So it is not possible for the Kinetic Energy
to simply get destroyed and vanish when the object stops moving.
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Option b is incorrect: In some cases, like a ball thrown upwards, the kinetic energy gets transformed
into potential energy for the short moment that the ball reaches its maximum height in the air. But
kinetic energy doesn’t always get transformed into potential energy only. It may transform into heat
energy, or sound energy, etc. For example, when a moving vehicle is stopped suddenly by applying
brakes, some of its kinetic energy gets transformed into heat energy due to friction.
Option c is incorrect: As explained in the First Law of Thermodynamics, if an object becomes incapable
of holding any energy, the energy simply transfers into another form. The object does not necessarily
get destroyed. Also, when the object is stopped, its kinetic energy becomes zero.
For example, when brakes are applied suddenly to a car moving at a high speed, its kinetic energy
transforms into heat energy and sound energy, but the car remains intact, doesn’t get destroyed.
Similarly, when a hammer is brought down on a nail with great force, the hammer stops in place
suddenly and the kinetic energy of the hammer is transferred to the nail which is driven into the wood.
So, the hammer remains intact, while the energy transfers to another object (the nail).
Option d is correct: In accordance with the Law of Conservation of Energy, depending on the situation,
the Kinetic energy gets transformed into multiple other forms of energies, when a moving object is
suddenly stopped.
In case of the suddenly braked car, it is transformed into heat and sound energy.
In case of a ball hit on the wall, it transforms into sound energy, elastic energy, heat energy, etc.
In case of a ball thrown upwards, it transforms into potential energy at the top of the motion, etc.
Source: NCERT Science https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/keph205.pdf
Q.4)
Ans) b
Penicillin is used as an antibiotic, which is obtained from a certain species of fungi. It prevents
pathogenic bacteria from building their cell walls, which eventually prevents it from growing further. The
absence of a cell wall renders the bacterial cell susceptible to both molecular pressures and water, which
eventually leads to its death.
Option b is correct. The fungus Penicillium notatum, which belongs to the ascomycetous fungi family,
is the source of penicillin. When a species of fungus Penicillium is prevented from growing, a
secondary metabolite known as penicillin is produced. Penicillin is used to treat bacterial infections,
but it is ineffective against viral infections, including the common cold and the flu.
Source: Class 11, Biology Ch-2. Biological Classification, Pg:16
Q.5)
Ans) b
Prokaryotic cells are the simplest type of cell. They lack a true nucleus and have few membrane-bound
organelles. Eukaryotic cells are more complex than prokaryotic cells. They have a true nucleus and many
membrane-bound organelles.
Statement 1 is correct. Eukaryotic cells are typically larger and more complex than prokaryotic cells, and
they are found in plants, animals, fungi, and protists. Prokaryotic cells are typically small and simple, and
they are found in bacteria and archaea.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A specialised differentiated form of cell membrane called mesosome is the
characteristic of prokaryotes. They are essentially infoldings of cell membrane. Mesosomes are
intracellular spaces, or organelles, that are believed to have formed from the invagination of the cell
membrane. In eukaryotes, mesosomes are not present.
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Statement 3 is correct. In prokaryotes, nucleotides are present but the true nucleus is absent. On the
other hand, true nucleus is present in the eukaryotic cells. Eukaryotic cells possess an organised
nucleus with a nuclear envelope.
Knowledge Base:
Feature Prokaryotic Cells Eukaryotic Cells
Nucleus Absent Present
DNA Circular, located in Linear, located within the nucleus
the cytoplasm
Organelles Few, lack membrane- Many membrane-bound organelles,
bound organelles including mitochondria, endoplasmic
reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and
lysosomes
Size Smaller (typically 0.1- Larger (typically 10-100 µm)
5 µm)
Organisms Bacteria, archaea Plants, animals, fungi, protists
Cell division Binary fission Mitosis or meiosis
Metabolism Anaerobic or aerobic Aerobic
Source: Class 11, Biology Ch-8: Cell the Unit of life, Pg:89&90
Q.6)
Ans) b
Amphibians are a group of animals that include frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts. They can live in
aquatic as well as terrestrial habitats. Their heart is three chambered (two auricles and one ventricle).
Statement 1 is incorrect: Amphibians are cold-blooded animals. They cannot generate their own body
heat, thus cannot control their body temperature like humans do, and instead they use the environment
to control their body temperature.
Statement 2 is correct: There are over 8,200 species of amphibians, and they inhabit all continents
except Antarctica, living in varied habitats such as rainforests, rivers and streams, deserts and alpine
environments.
Statement 3 is correct: Amphibians are Oviparous. They lay eggs. Amphibian eggs do not have hard shells
and need to be moist to hatch. Most amphibians lay their eggs in water. Amphibians that lay their eggs on
land have developed ways to keep their eggs damp.
Source: Class 11, Biology, Ch-4. Animal Kingdom, Pg:48
Q.7)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Viruses and Viroid are both very small, infectious agents that can cause disease in plants and animals.
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they can only replicate inside living cells. They have a
genetic material of either DNA or RNA, which is enclosed in a protein coat called a capsid. Viroids are the
smallest known infectious agents, consisting of a circular, single-stranded RNA molecule without a
protein coat. They are able to replicate autonomously in the host cell cytoplasm, but they do not encode
any proteins of their own
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Statement 1 is incorrect: Viruses are the smallest and simplest infectious agents known. They are
composed of a nucleic acid core (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat called a capsid. Viroids
lacked the protein coat that is found in viruses.
Statement 2 is correct: In addition to proteins, viruses also contain genetic material, that could be
either RNA or DNA. No virus contains both RNA and DNA. Viroids are composed of a single-stranded
RNA molecule.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Viroids are smaller in size than viruses. In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a new
infectious agent called Viroids that was smaller than viruses.
Knowledge Base:
Virus Viroid
Genetic material, DNA or Genetic material, RNA
RNA
Protein coat present Protein coat absent
Replication requires host
Replication is
cell machinery autonomous in host cell
cytoplasm
Ability to encode proteins Ability to encode
present proteins absent
Source: Class 11, Biology, Ch-2. Biological Classification, Pg:21
Q.8)
Ans) d
Option d is correct: Prions are abnormal, transmissible particles that cause abnormal folding of cellular
proteins. These proteins are called prion proteins and are found in the brain. Prions are made up of a
modified protein called PrPSc. They are a type of intrinsically disordered protein that constantly change
their conformation.
Prion proteins can become infectious and cause neurodegenerative diseases. There is no cure for prion
diseases , but some medicines can help slow their progress. Medical management focuses on keeping
people with these diseases safe and comfortable.
Q.9)
Ans) b
Diatoms are single-celled organisms. They are one of the most abundant groups of phytoplankton in the
world.
Statement 1 is correct: Diatoms are part of Kingdom Protista. All single-celled eukaryotes are placed
under Protista. Members of Protista are primarily aquatic. Being eukaryotes, the protistan cell body
contains a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
Statement 2 is correct: Diatoms play a vital role in the marine ecosystem. They are a major Primary
producer in the ocean, converting sunlight into organic matter through photosynthesis. This organic
matter forms the basis of the food chain for many marine organisms, including fish, whales, and seabirds.
They also regulate the global climate by absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and releasing
oxygen.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Diatoms are characterized by their unique cell walls, which are made of silica,
or hydrated silicon dioxide. The walls are embedded with silica and thus the walls are indestructible.
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Thus, diatoms have left behind large amount of cell wall deposits in their habitat; this accumulation over
billions of years is referred to as ‘diatomaceous earth’.
Q.10)
Ans) a
Statement I and II is correct and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I:
Lysosomes are a type of membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are known as the
"suicide sacs" of the cell because in case of disturbance of their cellular metabolism they digest their own
cell by releasing enzymes. This process, called autophagy, is essential for recycling cellular components
and maintaining cellular homeostasis. Lysosomes also play a role in other cellular processes, such as
defense against pathogens and cell signaling.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kebt102.pdf Page 35
Q.11)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The human body is primarily composed of a few major elements, with small amounts of various other
elements. The major elements in the human body, often expressed as a percentage of total body weight.
Statement 1 is correct. Oxygen is the most abundant element in the human body, constituting
approximately 65% of total body weight. It is a key component of water (H2O) and plays a crucial role in
cellular respiration.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Carbon (not hydrogen) is the second most abundant element in the human
body, making up about 18% of total body weight. It is a fundamental building block of organic molecules,
including carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Calcium makes up about 1.5% (not 10%) of total body weight and is primarily
found in bones and teeth. It plays a key role in muscle contraction, blood clotting, and nerve function.
Knowledge Base:
Other Elements found in the human body
1) Nitrogen (N): Nitrogen constitutes approximately 3% of total body weight and is a crucial component
of proteins and nucleic acids.
2) Phosphorus (P): Phosphorus is present in the body at about 1% of total body weight and is a
component of nucleic acids, ATP (adenosine triphosphate), and phospholipids.
3) Potassium (K), Sulfur (S), Sodium (Na), Chlorine (Cl), and others: These elements are present in
smaller amounts, typically less than 1% of total body weight, but they are essential for various
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physiological functions, including maintaining electrolyte balance, nerve function, and muscle
contraction.
Source: NCERT Class 11, BiologyCh-9. Biomolecules Pg:105
Q.12)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Genetic modification (GM) in plants involves the intentional alteration of a plant's genetic makeup using
biotechnology techniques. This process allows for the introduction of specific genes or the modification
of existing ones to confer desired traits. The primary objective of genetic modification in plants is to
enhance various characteristics, such as resistance to pests, tolerance to environmental stresses,
improved nutritional content, and increased crop yields.
Genetic modification in plants
Statement 1 is correct. One of the objectives of genetic modification in crops is to enhance their
tolerance to abiotic stresses, such as drought, salinity, extreme temperatures, and nutrient
deficiencies. This can be achieved by introducing genes that encode for proteins or other molecules that
help the plants cope with these environmental challenges.
Statement 2 is correct. The potential benefits of genetic modification (GM) in plants is the reduction in
reliance on chemical pesticides. Genetic modification allows scientists to introduce genes that confer
resistance to pests or diseases directly into the plants. This approach is known as insect-resistant (IR) or
disease-resistant (DR) genetic modification.
Statement 3 is correct. Genetic modification in plants has the potential to contribute to the reduction
of post-harvest losses through various mechanisms like improving shelf life and reducing susceptibility
to pathogens.
Statement 4 is correct. Genetic modification in plants has been employed to enhance the efficiency of
mineral usage, particularly with regard to nutrient uptake and utilization. This is an important area of
research and development in agricultural biotechnology, aiming to improve the nutritional content of
crops and optimize their performance in different soil conditions.
Statement 5 is correct. Genetic modification (GM) in plants has been utilized to enhance the nutritional
value of food crops through a process called biofortification. Biofortification involves the development of
crops with increased levels of essential nutrients, such as vitamins and minerals. This approach aims to
address nutritional deficiencies and improve the overall health of populations, particularly in regions
where certain nutrients are lacking in the diet.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?lebo1=10-16
Page 179
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Q.13)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement a is incorrect. Translation is the process by which the information carried by mRNA is used
to synthesize a corresponding protein. It occurs in the ribosomes and involves the reading of the mRNA
sequence by transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules, which bring the appropriate amino acids to form the protein.
Translation
Statement b is incorrect. Replication is the process by which a double-stranded DNA molecule is

copied to produce two identical DNA molecules. Replication is the process of copying a DNA molecule
to produce an identical copy. This occurs before cell division, ensuring that each new cell receives a
complete set of genetic information.
Replication
Statement c is correct. Transcription is a fundamental process in molecular biology that involves the
synthesis of RNA from DNA strands. In this the genetic information encoded in DNA is used to create a
complementary RNA molecule. This RNA molecule, often called messenger RNA (mRNA), carries the
instructions from the DNA to the cellular machinery for the synthesis of proteins. The process involves an
enzyme called RNA polymerase that reads the DNA sequence and assembles a corresponding RNA strand.
Transcription
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Statement d is incorrect. Reverse transcription is a process where RNA is used as a template to

synthesize DNA. This process unique to retroviruses (like HIV) and some other viruses which is catalyzed
by the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
Reverse transcription
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lebo106.pdf
Q.14)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Cells are the basic units of life, and they contain various cell organelles. Cell organelles are specialized
structures within a cell that perform specific functions, contributing to the overall functioning and
maintenance of the cell. Each organelle has a specific role, and together they work in a coordinated
manner to support the life processes of the cell.
Cell organelles
Pair 1 is incorrect. The Endoplasmic Reticulum is a network of membranes involved in protein and lipid
synthesis. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, studded with ribosomes, is associated with protein synthesis
and transport, while smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is involved in lipid metabolism and detoxification.
Pair 2 is correct. Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis. They read the mRNA code and assemble
amino acids into proteins. Ribosomes can be free in the cytoplasm or bound to the endoplasmic
reticulum.
Pair 3 is correct. Mitochondria are responsible for producing energy (ATP) through cellular respiration,
hence they are called as the "powerhouses" of the cell. They play a crucial role in metabolism and are
involved in various cellular processes.
Pair 4 is incorrect. The cell membrane is a semi-permeable barrier that separates the cell from its
environment. It regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, maintaining homeostasis.
Homeostasis is the ability of an organism or a cell to regulate its internal environment and maintain a
stable, balanced condition, even in the face of changing external conditions
Knowledge Base:
Other important cell organelles and their functions:
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1) Nucleus: The nucleus is the control center of the cell, containing genetic material (DNA) that directs
cellular activities. It regulates gene expression and houses the nucleolus, where ribosomal RNA is
synthesized.
2) Golgi Apparatus: The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids produced by
the ER. It acts as a distribution center, sending these molecules to their appropriate destinations
within or outside the cell.
3) Vacuoles (in plant cells): Vacuoles are large, membrane-bound organelles in plant cells. They store
water, nutrients, and waste products, provide structural support, and play a role in maintaining
turgor pressure
4) Cytoplasm: The cytoplasm is the gel-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds organelles. It
facilitates cellular activities, provides support, and serves as a medium for chemical reactions to
occur.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kebt102.pdf
Q.15)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Communication satellites are often stationed at geostationary orbits for specific advantages that make
them well-suited for telecommunications purposes. A geostationary orbit, also known as a
geosynchronous equatorial orbit (GEO), is a circular orbit around Earth at an altitude where a satellite's
orbital period matches the Earth's rotation period. Specifically, geostationary satellites orbit the Earth at
an altitude of approximately 35,786 kilometers (22,236 miles) above the equator.
Geostationary Orbit
Option a is incorrect. Geostationary satellites can provide low-latency communication since they are
directly above the region they are serving. This is important for real-time applications such as voice calls
and video conferencing
Option b is correct. The geostationary orbit provides continuous coverage of a specific region on Earth.
This is particularly important for communication services such as television broadcasting, internet
services, and telephone communication. Users do not need to constantly adjust their receiving
equipment as the satellite stays in the same position in the sky.
Option c is correct. Geostationary orbits are located in the plane of the Earth's equator. This orbital
inclination is typically close to zero degrees, allowing the satellite to orbit directly above the equator.
Option d is correct. Ground-based antennas communicating with geostationary satellites do not need to
constantly track the satellite's movement, as is the case with non-geostationary orbits. This simplifies
the design and operation of ground-based communication equipment
Knowledge Base:
Key characteristics of geostationary orbits include:
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1) Synchronous Rotation: Satellites in geostationary orbits rotate at the same rate as the Earth's
rotation. This means they remain fixed relative to a specific point on the Earth's surface, appearing
stationary in the sky when observed from the ground.
2) Orbital Period: The orbital period of a geostationary satellite is approximately 24 hours, matching the
Earth's rotation period. This synchronization ensures that the satellite maintains a consistent
position relative to a fixed point on the Earth's surface.
3) Continuous Coverage: Due to their synchronized rotation with the Earth, geostationary satellites
provide continuous coverage of a specific region on the Earth's surface. This makes them well-suited
for applications requiring constant communication links, such as television broadcasting, weather
monitoring, and telecommunications.
4) High Elevation Angle: Geostationary satellites provide a high elevation angle for communication
links, reducing the likelihood of signal blockage by obstacles on the ground, such as buildings or
terrain.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/keph108.pdf- page: 197
Q.16)
Ans) d
Vitamins are organic substances that we require in adequate quantities for good health. Our body,
however, cannot synthesise them. Therefore, we need to consume their natural sources such as fruits
and vegetables. Vitamins are divided into two groups–fat soluble vitamins (Vitamins A, D, E, and K) and
water soluble vitamins (Vitamins of B group and Vitamin C). Each vitamin has a specific function, and its
deficiency leads to a particular deficiency disease.
Pair 1 is correctly matched. Lack of vitamin A in humans can lead to: increased risk of infections, night
blindness and irreversible blindness (xeropthalmia), excessive keratin build-up of the skin.
Pair 2 is correctly matched. A lack of vitamin C in humans can lead to scurvy, which leads to bleeding
gum, loosened teeth if left untreated,
Pair 3 is correctly matched. Vitamin D deficiency can result in a decline in bone density in adult life,
increasing the risk of osteoporosis, falls and bone fractures (especially for older people), rickets (in
young children).
Pair 4 is correctly matched. Vitamin K is important for: healthy bones, blood clotting, and wound
healing. It helps to prevent a serious bleeding condition in newborn babies called haemorrhagic
disease of the newborn (HDN).
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/iehp111.pdf
Q.17)
Ans) b
Option a is incorrect. Silver does not readily react with nitrogen in the air. While nitrogen is a major
component of the Earth's atmosphere, nitrogen is inert and does not play a significant role in the
tarnishing of silver. The primary reaction responsible for silver tarnishing is with sulphur compounds, not
nitrogen.
Option b is correct. Silver tarnishes when it reacts with sulphur compounds in the air, forming silver
sulfide (Ag₂S), which gives the silver a black appearance.
Option c is incorrect. Unlike certain metals like aluminum or stainless steel, which can form protective
oxide layers that prevent further corrosion, silver does not form a protective oxide layer. Instead, silver
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is prone to reacting with sulphur compounds in the air, leading to tarnishing and the formation of
silver sulphide.
Option d is incorrect: Statement is partially correct in the sense that moisture can contribute to the
tarnishing of silver, however, the main cause of silver turning black is the reaction with sulphur
compounds in the air, leading to the formation of silver sulphide. Moisture facilitates this reaction by
providing a medium for the chemical processes, but it is not the sole cause of the discoloration.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/jesc101.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/jesc103.pdf
Q.18)
Ans) a
Physical changes refer to alterations in the form or state of matter that do not involve a change in
chemical composition. Physical changes are crucial in everyday life, contributing to phenomena such as
cooking, weather patterns, and material processing, playing a fundamental role in various industrial,
environmental, and domestic applications.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Photosynthesis: This is a chemical change, not a physical change. During
photosynthesis, plants convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen through a series of
chemical reactions.
Statement 2 is correct. Dissolving sugar in water: This is a physical change. Dissolving sugar in water
involves breaking intermolecular forces between sugar molecules, but the chemical composition of sugar
remains the same.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Burning of coal: This is a chemical change. Burning coal involves a reaction
with oxygen, producing carbon dioxide, water, and heat. The chemical composition of coal changes
during this process.
Statement 4 is correct. Melting of wax: This is a physical change. Wax undergoes a phase transition
from a solid to a liquid without changing its chemical composition.
Statement 5 is correct. Sublimation of Dry Ice (Solid Carbon Dioxide): This is a physical process. When
dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) undergoes a phase transition directly from a solid to a gas without passing
through the liquid state.
Statement 6 is incorrect. Rusting of Iron: The rusting of iron seems like a physical change due to the
visible alteration in the appearance of iron. However, rusting is a chemical change involving the reaction
of iron with oxygen and water to form iron oxide.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/gesc106.pdf
Q.19)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Erythrocytes, leucocytes, and platelets are collectively called formed elements, and they constitute
nearly 45 percent of the blood. Erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBC) are the most abundant of all the cells
in blood. RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in adults. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of
mammals and are biconcave in shape. They have a red-coloured, iron-containing complex protein called
hemoglobin, hence the colour and name of these cells. A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of hemoglobin
in every 100 ml of blood.
Leucocytes are also known as white blood cells (WBC) as they are colourless due to the lack of
hemoglobin. They are nucleated. We have two main categories of WBCs– granulocytes and agranulocytes.
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Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are different types of granulocytes, while lymphocytes and
monocytes are agranulocytes.
Statement 1 is correct. The ratio of WBC to RBC will be 1:1000; i.e.. for every WBC, there will be 1000
RBC.
Statement 2 is incorrect. RBCs have an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in
the spleen (graveyard of RBCs), while WBCs live for about 12 days.
Statement 3 is correct. The main difference between RBCs and WBCs is their function. RBCs carry
oxygen throughout the body, while WBCs fight off infection. RBCs are also smaller and have a concave
shape, while WBCs are larger and have different shapes. An antigen is a molecule that is recognized by
the immune system invader, leading to an immune response. White blood cells also produce a special
protein called antibody which recognize and fight the presence of foreign elements in the body.
Statement 4 is correct. A high red blood cell count makes the blood thicker than it should be, and it
could increase the risk of blood clots. A high WBC count is an indicator of infection because the body's
immune system responds to the presence of pathogens by releasing more white blood cells, specifically
neutrophils, to combat and eliminate the infectious agents.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kebo118.pdf
https://www.amherst.edu/system/files/media/1762/Prob%20Set%201%20-
%20key%20and%20tips.pdf
Q.20)
Ans) b
Protozoans are eukaryotic, unicellular, heterotrophic organisms that can be either parasites or free-
living. They exhibit an enormous range of morphologies and lack cell walls, for example, Entamoeba,
Plasmodium, Paramecium, etc. Because of their extreme diversity, the only feature common to all
protozoans is that they are unicellular eukaryotic organisms. Thus, they have eukaryotic membrane-
bound cell organelles that can exhibit various tasks.
Statement 1 is correct. Protozoans are heterotrophs because they lack the ability to produce their own
food through photosynthesis or other autotrophic mechanisms. All protozoans are heterotrophs and live
as predators or parasites. They are believed to be primitive relatives of animals.
Statement 2 is correct. Malaria is a mosquito-borne protozoan infectious disease that affects both
animals and humans. The causative protozoan is Plasmodium (Sporozoans group), and it is spread by
Anopheles mosquitoes. The symptoms usually include tiredness, vomiting, fever, and headaches. There
are four major groups of protozoans: Amoeboid protozoans, Flagellated protozoans, Ciliated protozoans,
and Sporozoans.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Protozoas live in freshwater, seawater, or moist soil, protozoans can be found
in a variety of aquatic environments, both freshwater and marine. They are an essential component of the
microbial community in aquatic ecosystems.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kebo102.pdf
Q.21)
Ans) a
Litmus paper is cost-effective and portable chemistry lab apparatus to test acidity and alkalinity that
requires only a little amount of solution. It is essential to determine the pH of the substances.
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Option a is correct. Litmus solution is a purple dye, which is extracted from lichen, a plant belonging to
the division Thallophyta, and is commonly used as an indicator. When the litmus solution is neither acidic
nor basic, its colour is purple.
Option b is incorrect. Red cabbage leaves are not used as an indicator because the pigments in red
cabbage are more complex and may exhibit a broader range of colours in response to pH changes,
making them less suitable for the specific and standardized colour changes associated with litmus paper.
Option c is incorrect. Turmeric is not used for making litmus paper because colour changes with
turmeric are not as standardized or specific as those produced by lichen dyes used in litmus paper.
Option d is incorrect. Hydrangea and Petunia are not used for making litmus paper because they are not
as effective or reliable for making litmus paper compared to the compounds found in lichens.
Source: https://www.americanscientist.org/article/curious-chemistry-guides-hydrangea-colors
https://www.acs.org/education/outreach/activities/red-cabbage-
indicator.html#:~:text=The%20color%20of%20the%20cabbage,the%20test%20solution%20is%20neutral
https://uwaterloo.ca/chem13-news-magazine/february-2018/feature/thought-lab-using-turmeric-
indicator
Q.22)
Ans) b
C-peptide is a substance that is created when the hormone insulin is produced and released into the
body.
Measuring the amount of C-peptide in blood indicates how much insulin is being produced. In
mammals, including humans, insulin is synthesised as a pro-hormone (like a pro-enzyme, the pro-
hormone also needs to be processed before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone) which
contains an extra stretch called the C peptide. This C peptide is not present in the mature insulin and is
removed during maturation into insulin. Generally, high C-peptide production indicates high insulin
production, and vice versa.
Source: Biology, NCERT XII, Chapter-12, Pg. 211
https://www.healthline.com/health/insulin-c-pep
Q.23)
Ans) b
Refraction is the bending of light or a wave as it passes from one medium to another. The bending by
refraction makes it possible for us to have lenses, magnifying glasses, prisms and rainbows.
Phenomenon 1 is correct. Dispersion of light happens when light is split into its constituent hues due to
refraction. Dispersion of light can be achieved through various means but the most common way to
achieve dispersion of light is through a glass Prism.
Phenomenon 2 is incorrect. The phenomenon of light responsible for the multicoloured appearance of a
Compact Disc (CD) is Diffraction. Diffraction can be defined as the bending of light when it passes
through a sharp corner of some obstacle or passes through an opening.
Phenomenon 3 is correct. Virtual image formation by a Convex lens is a result of Refraction. Different
light rays travel different paths inside a lens due to which the refraction takes place and the resulting
image is produced.
Phenomenon 4 is correct. In Real image of an object formed by a Convex lens, actual rays after getting
refracted from the lens forms an image. The image can be directly taken on the screen and hence , it is
known as a Real image.
Page 14 of 28
Phenomenon 5 is incorrect. The rear view mirror of an automobile works on the principle of reflection of
light, not on the refraction of light.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gesc115.pdf
https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/dispersion-of-light-by-prism/
Q.24)
Ans) c
Statement a is incorrect: Compton effect, refers to the increase
in wavelength of energetic electromagnetic radiations that have been elastically scattered by electrons. It
is an important cornerstone of quantum mechanics, and it is a principal way in which radiant energy is
absorbed in matter.
Statement b is incorrect: Rayleigh scattering is the dispersion of electromagnetic radiation by particles
that have a radius less than approximately 1/10 the wavelength of the radiation. In this, short-wavelength
blue light is scattered more strongly than long-wavelength red light.
Statement c is correct: Tyndall effect is scattering of a beam of light by a medium containing small
suspended particles or appearance of bright light path due to diffusing of light rays by their deflection
from the surface of colloidal particles. For example, smoke or dust in a room, which makes visible a light
beam entering a window.
Statement d is incorrect: Raman effect, change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam
is deflected by molecules. A small part, however, has wavelengths different from that of the incident light;
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/15687/1/Unit-20.pdf
https://www.britannica.com/science/Raman-effect
https://www.britannica.com/science/Tyndall-effect
https://www.britannica.com/science/Rayleigh-scattering
https://www.britannica.com/science/Compton-effect
Q.25)
Ans) a
Organisms exhibit two primary modes of nutrition. Autotrophs, including plants and certain bacteria,
synthesize their own organic compounds through processes like photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. In
contrast, heterotrophs, such as animals and fungi, acquire organic substances from external sources by
ingestion or absorption. Autotrophic organisms produce their own food, while heterotrophic organisms
rely on consuming other living organisms or organic matter for their nutritional needs. These distinct
modes of nutrition play a crucial role in defining the ecological roles and relationships of various
organisms in different ecosystems.
Statement 1 is correct. The presence of Rhizobium bacteria in the root nodules of leguminous plants
enhances plant growth. This enhancement is attributed to the mutualistic symbiotic relationship between
Rhizobium bacteria and leguminous plants, where the bacteria contribute by converting atmospheric
nitrogen into a form that can be absorbed by plants, thus providing a crucial nutrient for their
development.
Statement 2 is correct. Nitrogen gas is available in plenty in the air, but plants cannot use it in the
manner they can use carbon dioxide. They need nitrogen in a soluble form. The bacterium called
Rhizobium can take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a usable form. But Rhizobium cannot make
its own food. So it often lives in the roots of gram, peas, moong, beans and other legumes and provides
them with nitrogen. In return, the plants provide food and shelter to the bacteria.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gesc101.pdf
Page 15 of 28
Q.26)
Ans) b
DNA fingerprinting is a forensic technique that analyzes specific regions of an individual's DNA, like
Short Tandem Repeats (STRs), creating a unique genetic profile. It's used in criminal investigations,
paternity testing, and identifying biological relationships. The method is highly accurate, relying on the
polymorphic nature of certain DNA sequences.
Statement 1 is incorrect. DNA fingerprinting, also known as DNA profiling, is a technique that examines
specific DNA sequences to identify individuals. These sequences are called Short Tandem Repeats
(STRs) and Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs).
Statement 2 is correct. DNA fingerprinting is valuable in identifying biological relationships like
paternity or maternity. By comparing specific DNA regions between individuals, the technique
determines familial connections with high accuracy, aiding in legal and personal contexts, such as
paternity testing or resolving disputes. DNA fingerprinting is an essential component of forensic science.
Although it cannot tell you who committed a crime, it can assist narrowing down a list of suspects based
on how well their DNA matches samples obtained at the crime scene.
Page 121
Q.27)
Ans) b
Nuclear fission involves splitting a heavy atomic nucleus, releasing energy. Nuclear fusion involves
combining light atomic nuclei, releasing even greater energy. Fission is utilized in atomic bombs, while
fusion powers the sun and hydrogen bombs, offering potential for cleaner energy because it does not
produce greenhouse gas emissions or long-lived radioactive waste..
Statement 1 is correct. Currently, most Commercial nuclear reactors in India operate on nuclear
fission, a process where the nucleus of a heavy atom, like uranium-235, is split, releasing a significant
amount of heat. This heat is used to produce steam, driving turbines that generate electricity. Control
rods regulate the fission rate for safety. Although nuclear fusion research continues, current commercial
reactors primarily rely on fission due to its established technology.
Statement 2 is correct. The Sun undergoes nuclear fusion, specifically a process called Thermonuclear
fusion. In the Sun's core, hydrogen nuclei (protons) combine to form helium through a series of fusion
reactions. This fusion process releases a tremendous amount of energy in the form of light and heat,
providing the Sun with the necessary energy to emit light and heat that sustains life on Earth.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The hydrogen bomb, also known as a thermonuclear bomb or H-bomb, relies
on the process of thermonuclear fusion to release an extremely powerful burst of energy. Unlike fission
bombs (like atomic bombs), which rely on the splitting (fission) of heavy atomic nuclei.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/jesc114.pdf
Page 251
Q.28)
Ans) c
Lightning is an electrical discharge between charged regions in the atmosphere. During a thunderstorm,
electrical imbalances lead to the formation of a lightning bolt, a rapid release of energy. This discharge
Page 16 of 28

occurs between clouds, from cloud to air, or between the cloud and the ground, producing intense light
and heat.
Option a is incorrect. Lying on the ground during lightning is dangerous as it increases the risk of being
struck. Lightning seeks the shortest path to the ground, and a person in contact with the ground
becomes a potential target for a lightning strike, causing severe injuries or fatalities.
Option b is incorrect. Staying in an open car during lightning is dangerous because the metal frame
provides minimal protection. Lightning can still reach occupants through open windows or by striking
nearby objects, increasing the risk of injury or even death.
Option c is correct. The metal frame of a vehicle, with windows closed, can offer protection from
lightning. The vehicle provides a pathway for lightning to flow around the occupants and into the ground,
minimizing the risk of injury. Hence, it would be the safest place for a person during lightning.
Option d is incorrect. Staying near trees during lightning is unsafe. Trees can attract lightning,
increasing the risk of a strike. If lightning hits a tree, the energy can travel through the ground, posing a
threat to individuals in close proximity.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?hesc1=12-13
Page 155
Q.29)
Ans) c
Statement 1 is correct. Chemosynthesis is the process by which food (glucose) is made by bacteria using
chemicals as the energy source, rather than sunlight. During chemosynthesis, bacteria living on the
seafloor or within animals use energy stored in the chemical bonds of hydrogen sulphide and methane
to make glucose from water and carbon dioxide (dissolved in seawater). Examples of Chemosynthetic
bacteria are- Mussels, ferrooxidans, Beggiatoa, T. Novellus, T. Neapolitanus etc.
Statement 2 is correct. Chemosynthesis is also a critical part of the nitrogen cycle. Two groups of
chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria, namely, Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are involved in the
transformation of ammonia into nitrate ions. These are collectively called nitrifying bacteria and derive
energy for their metabolism from these reactions. Nitrosomonas utilize the ammonia in the soil as their
Page 17 of 28

source of energy and the ammonia is converted to nitrite ions. The nitrite ions are then further
transformed into nitrate ions, by the other group of bacteria, Nitrobacter.
Knowledge Base:
Chemosynthesis can occur in environments such as the deep ocean around hydrothermal vents, where
sunlight does not penetrate, but where chemicals like hydrogen sulphide are available. Chemosynthesis is
also a critical part of the nitrogen cycle, where bacteria that live in the soil, or in special plant structures
called heterocyst, utilize ammonia for energy and produce nitrates and nitrites which can subsequently
be used as nutrients for plants.
https://teara.govt.nz/en/diagram/8960/photosynthesis-and-chemosynthesis
Q.30)
Ans) d
Robotics in agriculture integrates autonomous vehicles, drones, and robotic systems for tasks like
planting, harvesting, and monitoring crops. This technology enhances efficiency, reduces labor, and
optimizes resource use in farming practices.
Option 1 is correct. Robotic systems are developed for automated harvesting, especially in labor-
intensive crops. These robots can identify ripe fruits, pick them with precision, and enhance efficiency in
harvesting operations.
Option 2 is correct. Robotic systems are employed for accurate and efficient planting and seeding. These
robots can ensure precise seed placement and spacing, contributing to optimal crop development.
Option 3 is correct. Agricultural robots can be programmed to identify and remove weeds selectively,
reducing the need for herbicides and minimizing the impact on the environment. This promotes
sustainable and eco-friendly farming practices.
Option 4 is correct. In agriculture, sorting and packing robots automate post-harvest processes. They
sort fruits and vegetables based on quality and size, ensuring efficient packaging. This technology
enhances productivity and reduces labor-intensive tasks in agricultural operations.
Source: https://www.analyticsinsight.net/top-10-applications-of-robotics-in-agriculture-and-
farming/
Q.31)
Ans) a
T cells and B cells are two types of white blood cells that play critical roles in the immune system.
Page 18 of 28
Statement 1 is incorrect: T cells mature in the thymus gland, while B cells mature in the bone marrow.
The distinct maturation locations of T cells and B cells reflect the specialized functions they perform. T
cells, maturing in the thymus, acquire the ability to directly attack infected cells and cancer cells. B
cells, maturing in the bone marrow, develop the capacity to produce antibodies, essential for humoral
immunity.
Statement 2 is incorrect: B cells are the only type of white blood cell that can produce antibodies.
Antibodies are proteins that recognize and bind to specific antigens. T cells, on the other hand, do not
produce antibodies. Instead, they play a critical role in activating B cells and other immune cells.
Statement 3 is correct: Both T-cells and B-cells can generate memory cells. These memory cells enable
the immune system to respond quickly and effectively to pathogens that it has encountered
previously. The ability of both T cells and B cells to generate memory cells is essential for long-term
immune protection.
Page 151
Q.32)
Ans) b
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a common laboratory technique used to make many copies (millions
or billions) of a particular region of DNA. This DNA region can be anything the experimenter is interested
in. For example, it might be a gene whose function a researcher wants to understand, or a genetic marker
used by forensic scientists to match crime scene DNA with suspects.
PCR is used in many areas of biology and medicine, including molecular biology research, medical
diagnostics, and even some branches of ecology.
Statement 1 is correct- Using conventional methods of diagnosis (serum and urine analysis, etc.) early
detection of the disease is not possible. ‘Recombinant DNA technology’, ‘Polymerase Chain Reaction
(PCR)’ and ‘Enzyme-Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA)’ are some of the techniques that serve the
purpose of early diagnosis.
Statement 2 is correct- PCR is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients.
Statement 3 is incorrect- PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
Knowledge Base:
Presence of a pathogen (bacteria, viruses, etc.) is normally suspected only when the pathogen has
produced a disease symptom. By this time the concentration of pathogen is already very high in the body.
However, very low concentration of a bacteria or virus (at a time when the symptoms of the disease are
not yet visible) can be detected by amplification of their nucleic acid by PCR. It is a powerful technique to
identify many genetic disorders.
Source: NCERT BIOLOGY XII, Chapter- 12 PAGE NO- 212
Q.33)
Ans) a
Xylem and Phloem are two of the main vascular tissues in plants.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Xylem transports water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant,
while Phloem transports organic compounds (such as sugars) from the leaves to other parts of the plant.
The xylem and phloem are arranged in a parallel fashion in the stem of a plant. This allows the two
tissues to work together to transport water and nutrients throughout the plant.
Page 19 of 28
Statement 2 is correct: Xylem cells are typically long and narrow, with thick walls that contain lignin.
Lignin is a complex organic polymer that provides strength and rigidity to plant tissues. Phloem cells, on
the other hand, are typically shorter and wider, with thin walls that lack lignin. Xylem cells need to be
strong and rigid to withstand the pressure of the water and minerals that they transport, while phloem
cells need to be flexible to accommodate the movement of sugars and other nutrients.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Xylem is located toward the center of the stem, while phloem is located
toward the outer part of the stem. This is because xylem vessels are typically larger and more rigid
than phloem vessels, and they need to be located closer to the center of the stem to support the weight
of the plant. Phloem vessels, on the other hand, are typically smaller and more flexible, and they can be
located farther from the center of the stem without compromising the structural integrity of the plant.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kebo111.pdf
Q.34)
Ans) a
Statement I is correct: Tungsten is employed in manufacturing filaments for bulbs. Tungsten's high
melting point, boiling point, and electrical resistance make it the ideal material for use in light bulbs.
Statement II is correct: Tungsten has a very high melting point and boiling point. This means that it
can withstand very high temperatures without melting or evaporating.
Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I: Tungsten has a very high melting point and
boiling point. This makes it ideal for use in light bulbs, where the filament needs to be able to
withstand the heat generated by the electric current. Other materials, such as carbon, have a lower
melting point and would not be able to withstand the high temperatures inside a light bulb. Tungsten is
the hardest of all pure metals and has the highest tensile strength at temperatures above 1,650 °C. It is
also one of the densest metals, with a density of 19.3 g/cm³. Tungsten is a very corrosion-resistant
metal and is only slightly attacked by most mineral acids. It is also a good conductor of electricity and
heat.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/jesc112.pdf
Q.35)
Ans) a
Page 20 of 28

Graphene is a material that is extracted from graphite and is made up of pure carbon. Graphene stands
out for being tough, flexible, light, and with a high resistance.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Graphene is a two-dimensional material made of a single layer of carbon
atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. It is the basic structural element of many carbon allotropes,
including graphite, charcoal, carbon nanotubes, and fullerenes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Graphene has high Mechanical Strength and high Flexibility. The high
mechanical strength of graphene is due to the strong covalent bonds between the carbon atoms. The
flexibility of graphene is due to the fact that it is a two-dimensional material. This means that it can bend
and twist without breaking the covalent bonds between the carbon atoms.
Statement 3 is correct: Graphene is a promising material for quantum electronics because it exhibits a
number of unique properties. Graphene exhibits the Quantum Hall effect, a quantum phenomenon that
arises due to its unique electronic structure, making it a valuable material for quantum electronics.
Knowledge Base:
Quantum Hall effect : The quantum Hall effect (QHE) is a phenomenon that occurs in two-dimensional
materials. It's a quantum mechanical generalization of the classical Hall effect. The QHE is observed
when electrons in a two-dimensional material are subjected to a magnetic field at very low
temperatures.
Source: https://www.gov.uk/government/case-studies/graphene-one-for-the-future
Q.36)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect. X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, like light. They are less
energetic than gamma rays and more energetic than ultraviolet light. They pass easily through soft
tissue such as organs and muscles. They don’t pass as easily through hard tissue such as bones and
teeth, so they produce images of skeletal structures.
Statement 2 is correct. A computerized tomography (CT) scan is usually a series of X-rays taken from
different angles and then assembled into a three-dimensional model by a computer. Tomography means
a picture of a slice.
Statement 3 is correct. While an X-ray may show edges of soft tissues all stacked on top of each other,
the computer used for a CT scan can figure out how those edges relate to each other in space, so the CT
image is more useful for understanding blood vessels and soft tissue.
Source: https://www.lanl.gov/museum/news/newsletter/2016-12/x-ray.php
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/explained-why-have-doctors-cautioned-against-misuse-
of-ct-scans-and-steroids-to-diagnose-and-treat-covid-19/article34516623.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-should-people-with-covid-symptoms-go-for-
ct-scan-7299781/
Q.37)
Ans) b
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid) are both nucleic acids that are essential for life.
They are responsible for storing and transmitting genetic information from one generation to the next.
Statement 1 is correct: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid) are both polymers,
meaning that they are made up of long chains of nucleotides. Each nucleotide consists of three parts: a
sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while the sugar in
RNA is ribose. The phosphate group is the same in both DNA and RNA.
Page 21 of 28
Statement 2 is incorrect: A nucleotide has three components – a nitrogenous base, a

pentose sugar (ribose in case of RNA, and deoxyribose for DNA), and a phosphate group. There are two
types of nitrogenous bases – Purines (Adenine and Guanine), and Pyrimidines (Cytosine, Uracil and
Thymine). Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA and Thymine is present in DNA. Uracil is present
in RNA at the place of Thymine.
Statement 3 is correct: The structure of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is a double helix, and RNA
(ribonucleic acid) is typically a single strand.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lebo106.pdf - Page 103
Q.38)
Ans) d
Option a is incorrect: Bioremediation is a biological process that uses living organisms, usually
microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) and plants, to degrade, remove, alter, immobilize, and detoxify waste
products and pollutants from soil or water.
Option b is incorrect: Biopiracy does not relate to biological weapons or their transfer by illegal ways.
Option c is incorrect: Biodiversity prospecting or bioprospecting is the systematic search for
biochemical and genetic information in nature in order to develop commercially valuable products for
pharmaceutical, agricultural, cosmetic and other applications.
Option d is correct: It is often assumed that traditional knowledge is in public domain and the local
communities have no claims over it. Hence, such knowledge can be easily misappropriated. Biopiracy
here refers to the appropriation of traditional knowledge of biodiversity by outsiders and companies
and it includes fraudulent patenting of such biological resources for profit. One of the famous examples
of bio piracy in India is the patenting of the anti-fungal properties of the neem plant. In the year 1994, a
patent was granted to a company called W.R Grace and U.S government for a specific process of curbing
fungal infection on plants with the use of oil made out of Neem.
Source:
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?lebo1=10-16 page 185
https://sdgfinance.undp.org/sdg-
tools/bioprospecting#:~:text=Biodiversity%20prospecting%20or%20bioprospecting%20is,agricultural%
2C%20cosmetic%20and%20other%20applications.
Q.39)
Ans) d
Gene therapy can be defined as the insertion of genetic material into cells for the treatment of disease. It
is of two types- Somatic gene therapy and Germ line gene therapy.
Statement a is incorrect. Genetic mutation is the process of permanently changing one’s DNA sequence
that happens during cell division when your cells make copies of themselves. It could lead to genetic
conditions like cancer, or they could help humans better adapt to their environment over time.
Statement b is incorrect. Mitosis is the process by which a cell replicates its chromosomes and then
segregates them, producing two identical nuclei in preparation for cell division. It is generally followed by
equal division of the cell's content into two daughter cells that have identical genomes.
Statement c is incorrect. Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution characterized by random fluctuations
in the frequency of a particular version of a gene called allele in a population. It primarily affects small,
isolated populations, the effects of genetic drift can be strong, sometimes causing traits to become
overwhelmingly frequent or to disappear from a population.
Page 22 of 28
Statement d is correct. Germline gene therapy is a process that would introduce ‘new’ human genes into
the eggs or sperm of parents, or into the fertilized egg or early embryo of the offspring. The goal would be
to change the eventual child's genetic inheritance. This could be done in order to avoid a genetic disease
or in order to introduce an ‘enhancing’ genetic variation.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?lebo1=10-16
https://www.genome.gov/genetics-glossary/Genetic-Drift
https://www.genome.gov/genetics-glossary/Mitosis
Q.40)
Ans) c
The primary nutrients in the food we consume include vitamins, minerals, proteins, fats, and
carbohydrates. Food also contains water and dietary fiber, both of which the human body requires.
Option c is correct. Food turns blue-black in colour when diluted iodine solution is added to it. This
change in the colour of food signifies the presence of Starch in it. Starch is a polysaccharide made up of
amylose and amylopectin. When the amylose present in Starch reacts with iodine, it results in a blue-
black complex, which eventually gives our food a blue-black color.
Source: Class 6 Science NCERT, Chapter 1 Pg:2
Q.41)
Ans) c
Oscillatory motion is defined as the to and fro motion of an object from its mean position. The ideal
condition is that the object can be in oscillatory motion forever in the absence of friction but in the real
world, this is not possible and the object has to settle into equilibrium.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The main task of gears of mechanical and automobile machines is to rotate and
translate one form of motion into the other. Hence, a gear is said to be exhibiting rotatory motion.
Statement 2 is correct. The main purpose of Flat Bed Single Needle Sewing Machine is to stitch together
leather and other materials in the production process of footwear manufacture. The machine can have
oscillatory horizontal hook movement.
Statement 3 is correct. The waveform of an alternating current is a sinusoidal waveform. Hence, the
oscillatory motion of the alternating current can be observed clearly
Statement 4 is correct. The back-and-forth motion of the pistons in a steam engine is called the periodic
motion or oscillation or oscillatory motion.
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/28409/1/Unit-3.pdf
https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-3-030-15195-9_10
Q.42)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is incorrect. Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC) is the fifth state of matter whose existence was
predicted by Albert Einstein and Indian mathematician Satyendra Nath Bose in the early 1920s. It is
formed when atoms of certain elements are cooled to near absolute zero (0 Kelvin/-273.15 Celsius). At
this point, atoms become a single entity with quantum properties wherein each particle also functions
as a wave of matter.
Page 23 of 28
Statement 2 is incorrect. BECs are extremely fragile. The slightest interaction with the external world is
enough to warm them past their condensation threshold. This makes them nearly impossible for
scientists to study on Earth, where gravity interferes with the magnetic fields required to hold them in
place for observation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. BEC occurs at low temperatures near absolute zero. Bose-Einstein condensate
(BEC) is a state of matter in which separate atoms or subatomic particles are cooled to near absolute zero
(0 K, − 273.15 °C). At this temperature, these atoms coalesce into a single quantum mechanical entity.
Source: NCERT Science –Class VIII
https://www.ndtv.com/science/bose-einstein-quantum-fifth-state-of-matter-seen-for-1st-time-in-
space-2244587#:~:text=Paris%3A,intractable%20conundrums%2C%20research%20showed%20Thursday
Q.43)
Ans) b
Virtual reality is a computer-generated simulation of an alternate world or reality, and is primarily
used in 3D movies and in video games. Virtual reality creates simulations—meant to shut out the real
world and envelope or “immerse” the viewer—using computers and sensory equipment such as headsets
and gloves.
Augmented Reality (AR) is a technology that layers computer-generated enhancements atop an existing
reality in order to make it more meaningful through the ability to interact with it. AR combines the
physical world with computer-generated virtual elements.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Augmented Reality (AR) and not Virtual Reality (VR) lets the user experience
the real world, which has been digitally augmented or enhanced in some way. VR, on the other hand,
removes the user from that real-world experience, replacing it with a completely simulated one. Because
VR requires complete immersion, VR devices shut out the physical world completely. Thus, AR enhances
both the virtual and real world while VR only enhances a fictional reality.
Statement 2 is correct. AR users can control their presence in the real world; VR users are controlled by
the system. AR combines the physical world with computer-generated virtual elements.
Source: https://sopa.tulane.edu/blog/whats-difference-between-ar-and-vr
https://www.marxentlabs.com/what-is-virtual-reality/
https://enterprisersproject.com/article/2019/10/ar-vs-vr-whats-difference
Q.44)
Ans) b
The Three Parent Baby process was developed to help existing In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) treatments in
which mothers have mitochondrial diseases. It uses the technique called ‘Maternal Spindle transfer’. In
this technique, maternal DNA is put into the egg of a donor woman, which is then fertilized using the
father’s sperm.
Statement 1 is correct: A “three-parent baby” is born after faulty bits of the mother’s DNA are replaced
by those taken from a healthy donor. Mitochondrial transfer works by replacing the damaged
mitochondria in the mother's egg with healthy mitochondria from another woman's donor egg. The
developing embryo now has nuclear DNA from the mother and father, as well as mitochondrial DNA from
the donor egg.
Page 24 of 28
Statement 2 is incorrect: The errant mitochondrial DNA may be removed either before or after in-
vitro fertilisation.
In the first case, the nuclear DNA of the donor egg is removed and replaced by that of the egg from the
woman whose mitochondrial DNA needs to be replaced. After that this egg is fertilized as usual and
implanted into the womb.
In the second option, following in-vitro fertilisation, the fertilized nuclear DNA is transferred to a donor
egg from which the nuclear DNA has already been removed. This leaves the errant mitochondrial DNA out
as the fertilized nuclear DNA now has the donor mitochondrial DNA for company.
Statement 3 is correct: Mitochondrial diseases are long-term, genetic, often inherited disorders that
occur when mitochondria fail to produce enough energy for the body to function properly. Three Parent
Baby techniques helps in preventing common mitochondrial diseases like Leigh syndrome, Kearns-
Sayre syndrome, Mitochondrial DNA depletion syndrome, Maternally inherited deafness and diabetes,
Myoclonus epilepsy with ragged red fibers, Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa (NARP) and
Pearson syndrome. Together, Leigh syndrome and MELAS are the most common mitochondrial
myopathies.
Knowledge Base:
Mitochondria are double-membraned cellular organelle, which are crucial for generating energy. They
are commonly known as the powerhouse of the cell, but what really makes them unique is that they
divide independently of the cell. They have a very small genome of their own, which in many
ways resemble that of more primitive life forms. It makes up less than 0.0005% of our entire DNA, but
since the child receives it only from the mother, any aberrations in her mitochondrial DNA that may
cause diseases is passed on completely to the child.
Leigh syndrome causes brain abnormalities that can result in impaired coordination, involuntary muscle
movement, paralysis of the eye muscles, progressive neurodegeneration seizures, lactic acidosis
decreased muscle tone, developmental delays, and altered control over breathing.
In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is a medical procedure in which mature egg cells are removed from a woman,
fertilized with male sperm outside the body and inserted into the uterus of the same or another woman
for normal gestation.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/three-parents-one-baby-human-fertilisation-and-
embryology-authority-uk-4434171/lite/
https://www.mda.org/disease/mitochondrial-myopathies/types
Q.45)
Ans) b
There are two laws of chemical combinations which were developed after a number of experimentations
by Lavoisier and Joseph L. Proust.
Page 25 of 28
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Law of Conservation of Mass dates from Antoine Lavoisier's 1789 discovery
that mass is neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions. In other words, the mass of any one
element at the beginning of a reaction will equal the mass of that element at the end of the reaction.
Statement 2 is correct: In chemistry, there is a Law of Constant Proportions. “In a chemical substance
the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass”. It is also called as Law of definite
proportions. For example, in a compound such as water, the ratio of the mass of hydrogen to the mass of
oxygen is always 1:8, whatever the source of water.
Source: class 9 Ncert science chapter 3
https://www.nature.com/scitable/knowledge/library/the-conservation-of-mass-17395478/
Q.46)
Ans) b
Food irradiation is a process that uses radiation to control pests (e.g., microbes and insects) in food and
prevent spoilage. Irradiation does not make the food radioactive, nor does it change the taste, texture, or
appearance of the food.
Statement 1 is incorrect: During irradiation, gamma rays, x-rays, or high-energy electrons pass through
the food, destroying or inactivating bacteria and viruses that cause foodborne illness. The food is exposed
to ionizing radiation, either from gamma rays or a high-energy electron beam or powerful x-rays. In food
processing, the radioactive sources permitted do not generate gamma, electrons or x-rays of sufficient
high energy to make food radioactive. No radioactive energy remains in the food after treatment.
Statement 2 is correct: Limitation of the food irradiation:
1) Radiation processing cannot be applied to all kinds of foods.
2) Radiation processing cannot make a bad or spoiled food look good i.e., it is not a magic wand.
3) It cannot destroy already present pesticides and toxins in foods.
Statement 3 is correct: Radiation processing does not change texture and freshness of food, unlike heat.
Radiation cannot induce any radioactivity in food and does not leave any harmful or toxic radioactive
residues on foods as is the case with chemical fumigants. It is a very effective method due to its highly
penetrating nature of the radiation energy and can be used on packed food commodities. Prepackaged
foods can be made sterile thus improving shelf-life.
Source: https://www.epa.gov/radiation/what-food-irradiation
http://ecoursesonline.iasri.res.in/mod/page/view.php?id=19525
Q.47)
Ans) c
Lidar is short for light detection and ranging. The technology uses near-infrared light to scan objects and
create a 3D map of the environment. A lidar sensor transmits laser beams that bounce off objects and
return to the sensor.
Radar stands for radio detection and ranging. Technology uses radio waves to measure the distance to
objects as well as their velocity and angle. It constantly sends signals that bounce off obstacles. It
compares the transmitted signal to the received signal to understand the environment.
Statement 1 is correct: The RADAR system works in much the same way as the LiDAR, with the only
difference being that it uses radio waves instead of laser. However, radio waves have less absorption
compared to the light waves when contacting objects. Thus, they can work over a relatively long
distance. Unlike RADAR technology, LiDAR pulses are adversely affected by atmospheric weather
Page 26 of 28
conditions such as dense fog, smoke, and even rain. The light pulses will be distorted during flight and
this will affect the accuracy of the data collected.
Statement 2 is correct: Unlike RADAR, LiDAR data has a higher accuracy of measurement because of its
speed and short wavelength. Also, LiDAR targets specific objects which contribute to the accuracy of the
data relayed. High-end LiDAR sensors can identify the details of a few centimeters at more than 100
meters.
Knowledge Base:
The most well-known use of RADAR technology is for military purposes. Airplanes and battleships are
often equipped with RADAR to measure altitude and detect other transport devices and objects in the
vicinity.
The LiDAR system can readily detect objects located in the range of 30 meters to 200 meters. But, when
it comes to identifying objects in the vicinity, the system is a big letdown. That’s why self-driving car
manufacturers such as Google often use LIDAR along with secondary sensors such as cameras and
ultrasonic sensors.
The RADAR system is relatively less expensive. Cost is one of the reasons why Tesla has chosen this
technology over LiDAR. However, it is less angularly accurate than LiDAR as it loses sight of the target
vehicle on curves. It may get confusing if multiple objects are placed very close to each other. Unlike the
LiDAR system, RADAR can determine relative traffic speed or the velocity of a moving object accurately
using the Doppler frequency shift.
Source: https://medium.com/@intellias/the-ultimate-sensor-battle-lidar-vs-radar-2ee0fb9de5da
Q.48)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is incorrect: Isotope refers to one of two or more type of atoms of a chemical element with
the same atomic number and position in the periodic table. They have almost same or identical chemical
behaviour but they have different atomic masses and physical properties. It is generally found the most
of the chemical element has one or more isotopes. It is fact that most of the properties of an isotope
depend on its mass which is equal to total number of neutrons and protons or mass number of the
nucleus.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Isotopes are the result of the variation in the number of neutrons (not
electrons) in the nuclei of atoms. It is because not all the atoms of an element need have the same
number of neutrons in their nuclei. For example, Hydrogen has the atomic number 1. Three nuclei with
one proton are known that contain 0, 1, and 2 neutrons, respectively.
Source: https://www.britannica.com/science/isotopes
Page 27 of 28
Q.49)
Ans) a
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) aims to achieve 50 India specific
technologies for material, machine and software, 100 new start-ups for additive manufacturing.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Three-dimensional printing (3-D printing), also known as Additive
manufacturing (AM) is a process of joining materials to make objects from 3D model data, usually layer
upon layer. It is basically a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. This is
opposite of ‘Subtractive Manufacturing’ that works on removal of material to create a desired object
which is similar to stone carving.
Statement 2 is correct: Additive manufacturing uses data computer-aided-design (CAD) software or
3D object scanners to direct hardware to deposit material, layer upon layer, in precise geometric shapes.
Additive manufacturing starts by making a virtual design of the object to be created. Virtual design can
be made using a 3D modelling program such as CAD (Computer Aided Design) or 3D scanners.
The 3D digital copy is then put into a 3D modelling program. The model is then sliced into hundreds or
thousands of horizontal layers in preparation for printing. This prepared file is thus uploaded in the 3D
printer which reads each slice in 2D format and then proceeds to create the object layer by layer and the
resulting object has no sign of layering visible, but a 3-dimensional structure.
Statement 3 is incorrect: 3D printing is cheaper than traditional method of manufacturing. Cost of
producing or manufacturing products using 3d printing technology is equal for small-scale and mass
manufacturing. Printing of the 3D object can be done directly from different components that had to be
joined to form the final product.
Knowledge Base:
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) unveiled the National Strategy for
Additive Manufacturing Policy. The policy aims to increase India’s share in global additive
manufacturing to 5% within the next three years and add USD 1 billion to the gross domestic product.
This Policy postulates under ‘Make in India’ and ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan’ programme that advocate
self-reliance.
Additive manufacturing (AM) or additive layer manufacturing (ALM) is the industrial production name for
3D printing, a computer-controlled process that creates three dimensional objects by depositing
materials, usually in layers.
Additive Manufacturing
What are the Advantages of using Additive Manufacturing?
1) Similar to standard 3D printing, AM allows for the creation of parts with complex geometries and
little wastage. Ideal for rapid prototyping, the digital process means that design alterations can be
done quickly and efficiently during the manufacturing process.
Page 28 of 28
2) Unlike with more traditional subtractive manufacturing techniques, the lack of material wastage
provides cost reduction for high value parts, while AM has also been shown to reduce lead times.
3) In addition, parts that previously required assembly from multiple pieces can be fabricated as a
single object which can provide improved strength and durability.
4) AM can also be used to fabricate unique objects or replacement pieces where the original parts are
no longer produced.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1800915
3D Printing (forumias.com)
Q.50)
Ans) d
Option a is incorrect. Surface Tension is a physical property of a liquid to behave like a stretched elastic
membrane. Everyday examples are the nearly spherical shape of water droplets and soap bubbles, ability
of some insects to walk on water surface, etc.
Option b is incorrect. Dispersion of Light is the physical phenomenon of splitting of visible light into its
constituent wavelengths. This is the phenomenon behind the rainbows that are seen post rainfall.
Option c is incorrect. Electromagnetism is the phenomenon in which flowing electrons create a
magnetic field. Solar storms, auroras, etc are examples of electromagnetism in nature.
Option d is correct. Total internal reflection (TIR) is the optical phenomenon in which light rays arriving
at the interface from one medium to another are not refracted into the second medium, but completely
reflected back into the first medium.
TIR takes place when both of the following two conditions are met:
1) the light is in the more dense medium and approaching the less dense medium.
2) the angle of incidence is greater than the so-called critical angle
On hot summer days, the layer of air on top is denser while those below are rarer due to the heat of the
ground. So, light from tall objects such as trees travels from denser (upper layer) to rarer (lower layer)
medium. So, at times the critical angle is exceeded resulting in TIR. So, it results in an optical illusion
called a Mirage, in which it seems that there is a pool of water on the ground.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/leph201.pdf
https://www.britannica.com/science/surface-tension
https://courses.lumenlearning.com/physics/chapter/25-5-dispersion-the-rainbow-and-prisms/

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

Statement b is incorrect. Replication is the process by which a double-stranded DNA molecule is

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

Statement d is incorrect. Reverse transcription is a process where RNA is used as a template to

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

Statement 2 is incorrect: A nucleotide has three components – a nitrogenous base, a

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 33 – Solutions (111145) |

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