DPKP
1. Memelihara keselamatan bernavigasi dengan menggunakan informasi yang diperoleh dari peralatan
dan system navigasi untuk membantu membuat keputusan perintah.
(Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation equipment and systems to
assist command decision making)
1. SOLAS (The International
Convention for the Safety of
Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the
Safety of Navigation and
applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all
voyages
2. What is the crucial aspect in
executing a voyage in a safe
and efficient way?
An effective detailed
passage plan fully
understood and followed by
a competent bridge team.
3. What is the main purpose of
VTS?
Increase the safety of all
ships and the protection of
the environment in the
vicinity.
4. When a vessel is transiting a
canal with locks and intense
bridge activities over many
hours, what management
issues should the Master
consider?
All of these answers
5. When handing over the con
of a vessel to a pilot, should
the Master insist in
discussing the passage plan
with the pilot while he is
there to use his local
knowledge and advice on
the navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be
discussed between the
Master and pilot, when
under pilotage in the same
way as discussed with the
bridge team when deep sea
6. Which of the following
answers would best define
the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving
exposure to danger and
includes both identification
of the occurrence and the
likelihood that it will
happen.
7. Who will have the authority
to take charge and make
appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency
when transiting the Panama
Canal?
The Panama Canal
Authority
8. You are a Senior Officer of
the Watch on vessel "A" and
are passing through the
Straits of Gibraltar. The
vessel's speed is 18 knots
and your vessel is
overtaking several other
vessels, when the visibility
reduces down to about 2 nm.
What aspects would you
consider when establishing a
"safe speed" for your vessel?
Deciding safe speed
consider : 2 miles visibility;
traffic density;
manoeuvrability of vessel;
effectiveness of
navigational equipment
(ARPA etc); state of sea and
currents and navigational
hazards.
9. Your vessel is to leave a
crowded anchorage making
a 180 degrees turn. The ship
has a right-handed propeller
and there is equal space
either side of the ship (as
illustrated). What would be
the most suitable method to
make the turn using as little
space as possible?
Rudder hard to port, full
astern. After gaining some
sternway, rudder hard to
starboard and full ahead
10. Two prolonged blasts
followed by one short blast
on the whistle is a signal
which could be sounded by a
__________.
Vessel overtaking another in
a narrow channel
11. In a crossing situation on
international waters, a short
blast by the give-way vessel
indicates that the vessel
__________.
Is turning to starboard
12. What day-shape is
prescribed for a vessel
constrained by her draft?
A cylinder
13. A vessel not under
command sounds the same
fog signal as a vessel
__________.
All of the above
14. Which statement(s) is(are)
TRUE concerning light
signals?
The time between successive
signals shall be not less than
ten seconds.
15. Under what circumstances
would an overtaking vessel
sound a whistle signal of
two prolonged followed by
one short blast?
When overtaking in a
narrow channel
16. In which case would an
overtaking vessel sound a
whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one
short blast?
When overtaking in a
narrow channel
17. When vessels are in sight of
one another, two short blasts
from one of the vessels
means __________.
"I am altering my course to
port"
18. Which vessel may NOT
exhibit two red lights in a
vertical line?
A vessel constrained by her
draft
19. Vessel "A" is overtaking
vessel "B" on open waters
and will pass without
changing course. Vessel "A"
__________.
Should sound one long blast
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20. Of the vessels listed, which
must keep out of the way of
all the others?
A vessel on pilotage duty
21. Which vessel would NOT
sound a fog signal of one
prolonged and two short
blasts?
A vessel being towed
22. You intend to overtake a
vessel in a narrow channel,
and you intend to pass along
the vessel's port side. How
should you signal your
intention?
Two prolonged followed by
two short blasts
23. A vessel sounds two short
blasts. This signal indicates
the vessel __________.
Intends to alter course to
port
24. A vessel sounds one short
blast. This signal indicates
the vessel __________.
Intends to pass starboard to
starboard
25. You are underway in a
narrow channel, and you are
being overtaken by a vessel
astern. After the overtaking
vessel sounds the proper
signal indicating his
intention to pass your vessel
on your starboard side, you
signal your agreement by
sounding __________.
One prolonged, one short,
one prolonged, and one short
blast in that order
26. A sailing vessel is
overtaking a power-driven
vessel in a narrow channel,
so as to pass on the power-
driven vessel's port side. The
overtaken vessel will have to
move to facilitate passage.
The sailing vessel is the
__________.
Give-way vessel and would
sound two prolonged blasts
followed by two short blasts
27. A vessel constrained by her
draft may display
__________.
Three all-round red lights
28. Two power-driven vessels
are meeting. A two blast
whistle signal by either
vessel means __________.
"I am altering course to
port"
29. A 20-meter power-driven
vessel pushing ahead or
towing alongside will
display __________.
Two masthead lights in a
vertical line
30. Which statement applies to a
vessel "constrained by her
draft"?
She is severely restricted in
her ability to change her
course because of her draft
in relation to the available
depth of water.
31. A whistle signal of one
prolonged, one short, one
prolonged and one short
blast, is sounded by a vessel
__________.
Being overtaken in a narrow
channel
32. Your vessel is backing out
of a slip in a harbor and you
can see that other vessels are
approaching. You should
sound __________.
Three short blasts when
leaving the slip
33. Your vessel is backing out
of a slip in a harbor and you
can see that other vessels are
approaching. You should
sound __________.
Three short blasts when
leaving the slip
34. Which vessel is to keep out
of the way of the others?
A vessel engaged in trawling
35. You are in sight of a power-
driven vessel that sounds
two short blasts of the
whistle. This signal means
that the vessel __________.
Is altering course to port
36. You are operating a vessel in
a narrow channel. Your
vessel must stay within the
channel to be navigated
safely. Another vessel is
crossing your course from
starboard to port, DPKP
and you
are in doubt as to his
intentions. According to
Rule 9, you __________.
May sound the danger signal
37. Vessel "A" is overtaking
vessel "B" on open waters as
shown and will pass without
changing course. Vessel "A"
__________. (DIAGRAM
17 )
Need not sound any whistle
signals
38. If you sighted three red
lights in a vertical line on
another vessel at night, it
would be a vessel
__________.
Constrained by her draft
39. On open water two vessels
are in an overtaking
situation. The overtaking
vessel has just sounded one
short blast on the whistle.
What is the meaning of this
whistle signal?
"I am changing course to
starboard"
40. You are underway in fog
and hear a fog signal
consisting of one prolonged
and two short blasts. It could
be any of the following
EXCEPT a vessel
__________.
Constrained by her draft
41. Which vessel shall avoid
impeding the safe passage of
a vessel constrained by her
draft?
All of the above
42. A signal of one prolonged,
one short, one prolonged,
and one short blast, in that
order is given by a vessel
__________.
Being overtaken in a narrow
channel
43. Which signal is sounded
ONLY by a vessel in sight
of another and NOT in or
near an area of restricted
visibility?
One short blast on the
whistle
44. In addition to her running
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 lights, an underway vessel
constrained by her draft may
carry in a vertical line
__________.
Three red lights
45. Which vessel is NOT
regarded as being "restricted
in her ability to maneuver"?
A towing vessel with tow
unable to deviate from its
course
46. When two vessels are in
sight of one another and
NOT in or near an area of
restricted visibility, any of
the following signals may be
given EXCEPT
__________.
A light signal of at least five
short and rapid flashes
47. In a narrow channel, an
overtaking vessel which
intends to PASS on the other
vessel's port side would
sound __________.
Two prolonged followed by
two short blasts
48. Two prolonged blasts
followed by one short blast
on the whistle is a signal
which would be sounded by
a vessel __________.
Overtaking another in a
narrow channel
49. You intend to overtake a
vessel in a narrow channel,
and you intend to pass along
the vessel's port side. How
should you signal your
intention?
Two prolonged followed by
two short blasts
50. You intend to overtake a
vessel in a narrow channel,
and you intend to pass along
the vessel's port side. How
should you signal your
intention?
Two prolonged followed by
two short blasts
51. You are underway in a
narrow channel, and you are
being overtaken by a vessel
astern. After the overtaking
vessel sounds the proper
signal indicating his
intention to pass your vessel DPKP
from those for international
on your starboard side, you waters for __________.
signal your agreement by Vessels towing astern
sounding __________. 60. A 20-meter power-driven
One prolonged, one short, vessel pushing ahead or
one prolonged, and one short towing alongside will
blast display __________.
52. Vessel "A" is overtaking Two masthead lights in a
vessel "B" on open waters vertical line
and will pass without 61. BOTH INTERNATIONAL
changing course. Vessel "A" AND INLAND A towing
should __________. light __________.
Not sound any whistle Is yellow in color
signals 62. A towing light is
53. Which signal is sounded ____________ .
ONLY by a vessel in sight Shown below the stern light
of another? 63. A light used to signal
One short blast on the passing intentions must be
whistle an __________.
54. The light which may be used All-round white light only
with a vessel's whistle must 64. A vessel constrained by her
be __________. draft may display
Used only at night __________.
55. Which statement is TRUE Three all-round red lights
concerning light signals? instead of the lights required
The time between successive for a power-driven vessel of
signals shall be not less than her class
ten seconds. 65. Which day-shape is
56. While underway and in sight prescribed for a vessel
of another vessel, you put constrained by her draft?
your engines full speed A cylinder
astern. Which statement 66. If at night a vessel displays
concerning whistle signals is three all-round red lights in a
TRUE? vertical line, during the day
You must sound three short she may show __________.
blasts on the whistle. A cylinder
57. While underway at night, a 67. A vessel displaying three red
power-driven vessel of less lights in a vertical line is
than 7 meters in length, __________.
whose maximum speed Constrained by her draft
which does not exceed 7 68. The International Rules of
knots, may show the Road apply __________.
__________. Upon the high seas and
One all-round white light, connecting waters navigable
only by seagoing vessels
58. At night, a power-driven 69. Which statement applies to a
vessel less than 7 meters in vessel "constrained by her
length, with a maximum draft"?
speed which does not exceed She is severely restricted in
7 knots, MUST show when her ability to change her
underway at least course because of her draft
__________. in relation to the available
A white light on the near depth and width of
approach of another vessel navigable water.
59. Lighting requirements in 70. Which statement is TRUE
inland waters are different concerning a vessel
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 "constrained by her draft"?
She must be a power-driven
vessel.
71. Which vessel is NOT
"restricted in her ability to
maneuver"?
A vessel servicing an aid to
navigation
72. Your vessel is constrained
by her draft and operating in
a narrow channel. Another
vessel is crossing your
course from starboard to
port. You are in doubt as to
her intentions. According to
Rule 9, you __________.
May sound the danger signal
73. Your vessel is crossing a
narrow channel. A vessel to
port is within the channel
and crossing your course.
She is showing a black
cylinder. You should
__________.
Not impede the other vessel
74. Your vessel is backing out
of a slip in a harbor.
Visibility is restricte You
should sound __________.
One prolonged blast only
75. You are approaching another
vessel and will pass safely
starboard to starboard
without changing course.
You should __________.
Hold course and sound no
whistle signal
76. Which statement is TRUE
concerning a situation
involving a fishing vessel
and a vessel not under
command?
The fishing vessel must keep
out of the way of the vessel
not under comman
77. Of the vessels listed, which
must keep out of the way of
all the others?
A vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver
78. Which vessel shall avoid
impeding the safe passage of
a vessel constrained by her
draft?
All of the above
79. A signal of intent must be
sounded in international
waters by __________.
A vessel overtaking another
in a narrow channel
80. While underway in fog, you
hear a vessel ahead sound
two prolonged blasts on the
whistle. You should
__________.
Sound only fog signals until
the other vessel is sighted
81. A towing vessel and her tow
are severely restricted in
their ability to change
course. When making way,
the towing vessel will show
ONLY __________.
All of the above.
82. You hear the fog signal of
another vessel forward of
your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST
__________.
Take all way off, if
necessary
83. A fog signal of one short,
one prolonged, and one short
blast may be sounded by a
__________.
Vessel at anchor
84. You hear the fog signal of
another vessel forward of
your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST
__________.
Take all way off, if
necessary
85. A vessel may enter a traffic
separation zone
__________.
To cross the traffic
separation scheme
86. In a traffic separation
scheme, when joining a
traffic lane from the side, a
vessel shall do
__________.
At as small an angle as
possible
87. A vessel using a traffic
separation scheme
forbidden to __________.
Proceed through
inappropriate traffic lane
88. A vessel using a traffic
separation scheme
DPKP
forbidden to __________.
Proceed through an
inappropriate traffic lane
89. To indicate that a vessel is
constrained by her draft, a
vessel may display, in a
vertical line, __________.
Three 360° red lights
90. In addition to other required
lights, a power-driven vessel
pushing ahead or towing
alongside displays
__________.
Two white masthead lights
in a vertical line
91. Which statement is true
concerning a vessel
"constrained by her draft"?
She must be a power-driven
vessel.
92. When moving from a berth
alongside a quay (wharf), a
vessel must sound
__________.
No signal is require
93. You are in charge of a 250-
meter freight vessel
constrained by her draft
proceeding down a narrow
channel. There is a vessel
engaged in fishing on your
starboard bow half a mile
away. According to Rule 9,
which statement is TRUE?
If you are in doubt as to the
fishing vessel's intentions
you may sound at least five
short and rapid blasts on the
whistle.
94. The International Rules of
the Road apply __________.
Upon the high seas and
connecting waters navigable
by seagoing vessels
95. A towing light is
so __________.
Shown in addition to the
stern light
96. In a narrow channel, an
overtaking vessel which
is intends to pass on the other
vessel's port side would
an sound __________.
Two prolonged followed by
two short blasts
is 97. You are underway on the
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 high seas in restricted One short blast DPKP
visibility. You hear a fog 106. If a vessel displays three all-
signal of one prolonged and round red lights in a vertical
two short blasts. It could be line at night, during the day
any of the following she may show __________.
EXCEPT a vessel A cylinder
__________. 107. A vessel not under
Minesweeping command sounds the same
98. A vessel displaying three red fog signal as a vessel
lights in a vertical line is __________.
__________. All of the above
Constrained by her draft 108. Your vessel is crossing a
99. At night, a power-driven narrow channel. A vessel to
vessel underway of less than port is within the channel
7 meters in length where its and crossing your course.
maximum speed does not She is showing a black
exceed 7 knots may show, as cylinder. What is your
a minimum, __________. responsibility?
One all-round white light Do not cross the channel if
100. In a narrow channel, a signal you might impede the other
of intent which must be vessel.
answered by the other 109. You are approaching another
vessel, is sounded by a vessel and will pass
vessel __________. starboard to starboard
Overtaking another without danger if no course
101. When two vessels are in changes are made. You
sight of one another, all of should __________.
the following signals may be Hold course and sound no
given EXCEPT whistle signal
__________. 110. A fishing vessel is
Four short whistle blasts approaching a vessel not
102. A power-driven vessel under comman Which
leaving a quay or wharf statement is TRUE?
must sound what signal? The fishing vessel must keep
No signal is require clear of the vessel not under
103. What whistle signal, if any, comman
would be sounded when two 111. Which signal is required to
vessels are meeting, but will be sounded by a power-
pass clear starboard to driven vessel ONLY?
starboard? A signal meaning, "I am
No signal is require altering my course to
104. In a narrow channel, a vessel starboar"
trying to overtake another on 112. The light which may be used
the other vessel's port side, with a vessel's whistle is to
would sound a whistle signal be __________.
of __________. A white light
Two prolonged blasts
followed by two short blasts
105. On open water, a power-
driven vessel coming up
dead astern of another vessel
and altering her course to
starboard so as to pass on
the starboard side of the
vessel ahead would sound
__________.
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2. Memelihara keselamatan navigasi dengan menggunakan ECDIS dan sistem navigasi yang terkait untuk
mendukung pengambilan keputusan perintah.
(Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and associated navigation systems to assist
command decision making)
113. A coastal passage or voyage
plan should indicate the
appropriate methods of
determining positions and
include which of the
following?
All of these suggested
answers
114. Can voyage planning be
executed on ECDIS?
Only if approved by the Flag
State
115. Is it necessary to construct a
passage plan, (or voyage
plan), for transiting a canal
or river, when under pilot?
A passage plan is always
required, irrespective of the
length of the voyage, or if
the ship is under pilot
116. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder
and
embarkation/disembarkation
of a pilot should be
supervised by:
A responsible Officer
117. SOLAS (The International
Convention for the Safety of
Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the
Safety of Navigation and
applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all
voyages
118. What is the crucial aspect in
executing a voyage in a safe
and efficient way?
An effective detailed
passage plan fully
understood and followed by
a competent bridge team.
119. What is the main purpose of
VTS?
Increase the safety of all
ships and the protection of
the environment in the
vicinity.
120. When a vessel is transiting a
canal with locks and intense
bridge activities over many
hours, what management
issues should the Master
consider?
All of these answers
121. When handing over the con
of a vessel to a pilot, should
the Master insist in
discussing the passage plan
with the pilot while he is
there to use his local
knowledge and advice on
the navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be
discussed between the
Master and pilot, when
under pilotage in the same
way as discussed with the
bridge team when deep sea
122. When initially setting up the
GPS to provide positions for
use with a paper chart, what
Chart Datum should be
selected?
Select WGS84 and when
plotting on the chart apply
the stated corrections.
123. When planning a voyage
crossing large oceans, which
of the following answers
would most suitably cover
the most critical aspects to
be considered when deciding
the courses to steer?
The anticipated weather and
the need for weather routing.
The distances gained by
sailing by great circle. The
ship's draught and the
loadline limits
124. Which of the following
answers would best define
the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving
exposure to danger and
includes both identification
of the occurrence and the
DPKP
likelihood that it will
happen.
125. While navigating using a
paper chart marked WGS84
the OOW plots the ships
position by four different
methods and they all give
slightly different positions.
Which of the following
would be considered the
most accurate.
Gyro compass bearings from
two lighthouses
126. Who will have the authority
to take charge and make
appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency
when transiting the Panama
Canal?
The Panama Canal
Authority
127. You are a Senior Officer of
the Watch on vessel "A" and
are passing through the
Straits of Gibraltar. The
vessel's speed is 18 knots
and your vessel is
overtaking several other
vessels, when the visibility
reduces down to about 2 nm.
What aspects would you
consider when establishing a
"safe speed" for your vessel?
Adjust my track to follow
Route 1 or 2 illustrated and
reduce speed down to half
speed, approximately 8
knots
128. Your vessel is to leave a
crowded anchorage making
a 180 degrees turn. The ship
has a right-handed propeller
and there is equal space
either side of the ship (as
illustrated). What would be
the most suitable method to
make the turn using as little
space as possible?
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 Rudder hard to port, full
astern. After gaining some
sternway, rudder hard to
starboard and full ahead
129. If the electronic chart is part
of an ECDIS, it must display
the minimum data required
by IMO/IHO, to include all
of the following EXCEPT
__________.
Tidal currents
130. Which of the following must
the electronic chart of an
ECDIS display, as required
by IMO/IHO?
All of the above
131. ECDIS units incorporate
Digital Chart Data Formats,
which include __________.
Vector and raster
132. Raster-scan chart data is
__________.
A digitized "picture" of a
chart in one format and one
layer
133. Which of the following are
data layer categories to be
displayed on ECDIS?
All of the above
134. Which of the following data
layer categories is NOT
displayed on ECDIS?
Ship hydrodynamic
information
135. The database resulting from
(1) the transformation of the
electronic navigational chart
(ENC) by ECDIS for
appropriate use, (2) the
updates to the ENC by
appropriate means, and (3)
the additional data added by
the mariner, is called the
__________.
System electronic
navigational chart
136. The database information
that should be shown when a
chart is first displayed on
ECDIS is the __________.
Standard display
information
137. The level of database
information which cannot be
removed from the ECDIS
display and consists of
information which
required at all times in all
geographic areas and under
all circumstances is the
__________.
Display base information
138. ECDIS must give an alarm
for which of the following
cases?
When the specified limit for
deviation from the planned
route is exceeded
139. ECDIS must give an alarm
for which of the following
cases?
If the ship is going to reach a
critical point on the planned
route
140. ECDIS must give an alarm
for which of the following
cases?
None of the above
141. Chart information details to
be used in ECDIS should be
the latest edition
information originated by a
government-authorized
hydrographic office and
conform to the standards of
(the) __________.
International Hydrographic
Organization
142. An ECDIS is required to
display which information?
Hydrographic data
143. ECDIS must have the
capability to preserve the
record of the voyage track
for the previous
__________.
12 hours
144. Which data must ECDIS be
able to record at one-minute
intervals?
All of the above
145. With respect to failure
warnings and status
indications, GPS receivers
should provide, at
minimum, __________.
All of the above
146. Which feature, when set to
zero, might allow a GPS unit
to have an accuracy
equivalent to DPKPPrecise
is Positioning Service receiver
capability?
Selective Availability
147. The highest level of
commercial navigational
accuracy is provided by
__________.
DGPS, within a coverage
area
148. Which type of GPS receiver
has at least four channels to
process information from
several satellites
simultaneously?
Continuous
149. Which theoretical minimum
number of measurements
from satellites does a GPS
receiver need in order to
provide an exact three-
dimensional position?
Four
150. An ECDIS is required to
display which information?
of Soundings
151. An ECDIS is required to
display which information?
Depth contours
152. Which data must ECDIS be
able to record at one-minute
intervals?
Course made good history
153. With respect to failure
warnings and status
indications, GPS receivers
should provide, at a
minimum, __________.
A warning of loss of
position
154. With respect to failure
warnings and status
indications, GPS receivers
should provide, at a
minimum, __________.
An alarm if a new position
has not been calculated
within the last two seconds
155. As a licensed Merchant
a Marine Officer you are
expected to __________.
All of the above
156. NOAA VHF weather reports
are continuously broadcast
on VHF channels WX-1,
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 WX-2 and WX-3 on a
frequency of __________.
162.55, 162.40, 162.475
mhz
157. Which of the following must
an ECDIS system be able to
perform?
All of the above
158. ECDIS must be able to
perform all of the following
EXCEPT __________.
Determine magnetic
compass deviation
159. ECDIS must have the
capability to preserve the
record of the track for the
previous __________.
12 hours
3. Olah gerak dan penanganan kapal dalam segala kondisi.
(Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions)
160. A large vessel develops a
sudden sheer when it stops
moving through the water,
having been steaming
through a shallow water
channel for several miles.
The sheer may be strong and
unexpected and is due to
what reason?
The large volume of water
dragged behind the vessel
continues to move forward
and cause a strong turning
moment on the stern of the
vessel
161. A large vessel is coming
alongside a pier with two
tugs assisting and there is
little wind or current
affecting the vessel. What
would be considered the best
use of the tugs and at which
position?
Pushing on the ship's side
and made fast in case the
vessel's movement towards
the berth requires reducing
by the tug pulling off.
162. A large vessel is proceeding
slowly up a narrow channel,
using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one
tug. Where should the tug
be connected to assist the
ship in maintaining its
course in the centre of the
channel?
Made fast on a line through
the centre lead astern.
163. A ship experiences an
interaction effect known as
"Squat" when moving in
shallow water. The amount
of Squat is affected by the
speed of the vessel through
the water. If the speed
through the water is
HALVED what will be the
change in the affect of
"Squat"
The squat effect will be
reduced to a quarter of its
original value
164. A ship has turned a complete
circle (360 degrees) in deep
water at full ahead
throughout the turn. The
same ship, in the same
conditions, is now to make a
complete turn (360 degrees)
at half ahead throughout the
turn. Would there be any
difference in the size
(diameter) of the turning
circle?
Yes, it would be a much
DPKP
smaller turning circle at half
ahead
165. A tug is connected by a line
to the bow of a ship. Will
the bollard pull exerted by
the tug be the same at any
speed?
No, when the ship's speed
exceeds about 5 knots it will
be expected that there will
be a reduced pull exerted by
the tug
166. A vessel berths at two
different jetties under the
influence of a 1 knot beam
current. At the first jetty the
ship has an underkeel
clearance of 5 times the
draught and at the second
the underkeel clearance is
only 0.5 times the draught. If
the current exerted a force of
50 tonnes on the ship at the
first jetty, what would be the
approximate force exerted at
the second if the draught is
the same?
150 tonnes
167. In shallow water a ship will
experience "Squat". What
are the principle reasons
creating the effects of squat?
There is an increased effect
169
 of gravity due to closeness
of the sea-bed
168. In the situation illustrated, a
ship is proceeding in the
centre of the channel and
approaching a bend in a
river. What helm would
probably be required to
safely round the bend and
what other effects could be
expected in this situation?
The heading should be
carefully monitored, some
port rudder may be required
to start the swing, though
starboard rudder may be
required to balance any bank
rejection.
169. In the situation illustrated,
what should be the
distribution of the power
requirements from the tugs,
if the ship is to be moved
sideways without changing
the heading? Both tugs have
similar bollard pull and are
of conventional propulsion.
Equal power required by
both tugs, but monitor the
gyro heading to ensure
sideward movement only
170. In the situation illustrated,
what should be the power
distribution of the tugs to
maintain the ship sideways
motion with only minor
changes in the ship's
heading?
Full power on the forward
tug and the after tug ceases
to push, but continuously
monitor the ship's gyro
heading
171. It has been established by
experience that the most
successful method of double
banking two vessels, when
no tugs are available, is one
of the following methods.
Select which answer is
considered the most
successful metho
When the larger vessel is at
anchor, fig. 2
172. The bridge is informed by an
eye-witness that a man has
just fallen overboar Which
of the following manoeuvres
is the most appropriate
action when the person is
still close to the vessel?
Williamson Turn
173. Evinrude TurnThe effective
stability of a tug, when
assisting a vessel to
manoeuvre, can be
decreased by hydrodynamic
interaction with the ship it is
assisting. Where is the most
dangerous position of the
tug relative to the ship, for
this adverse affect to be
found?
The most dangerous position
is where the tug approaches
the bow rounding the
forward shoulder of the
larger vessel.
174. The effectiveness of a
rudder is dependant on the
flow of water past the
rudder. If the rudder is put
hard over when the ship is at
full ahead in deep water, and
then the engines are stopped,
how much lift force
remains?
About 20 %
175. The rudder is hard over
when steaming at full ahead
in shallow water. How much
"lift force" remains when the
engine is stopped?
About 80 %
176. The ship is approaching
shallow water where the
Under Keel Clearance will
reduce to about 0.25 of the
ship's draught. Which of the
following answers most
accurately summarizes the
aspects to be considered
when deciding a suitable
speed?
All of the suggested answers
177. The ship is berthed in a
steady offshore beam wind
of 30 knots which suddenly
increases to 60 knots. What
will be the change of force
exerted on the ship DPKP
driving it
off the jetty?
The force will be Tripled
178. The ship is in a sharp
starboard turn and the
Doppler log shows a
sideways motion to port at
both forward and aft
positions. Where would the
"pivot point" be considered
to be located?
At a position on the
centreline, about 1/6 of the
ship's length aft of the bow.
179. What is understood by the
term "Balanced Rudder"?
A rudder with equal rudder
area forward and aft of the
turning axis, the turning axis
being at the geometrical
centre of the rudder area
180. What will have a major
effect on the performance of
a tug when used to assist in
the manoeuvring of a large
vessel?
The use of the tug's wire
instead of the ship's towing
spring
181. What would be the correct
understanding of the term "a
ship is directionally
unstable"?
The ship requires continual
application of the rudder to
maintain a steady course.
182. When a conventional rudder
is put hard over it creates a
lift force and a drag force.
When the ship has started to
turn, how much lift force do
you think remains if the
rudder-angle is decreased to
20 degrees from hard over
position (35 degrees)?
About 50 %
183. When a vessel is moving in
shallow water it will
experience an effect known
as "Squat". Which of the
following statements most
accurately specify the results
of squat on the vessel?
There will be an increase in
the vessels draught while
240
 moving through the water
184. When a vessel is to
experience a long tow across
an ocean, what would be the
best system of connecting
the tow?
Wire from a deep sea tug
connected to the ship's
anchor chain.
185. When connecting a tugboat,
what speed do you think is
best for your vessel to
maintain during this
operation?
The speed should be less
than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5
knots
186. Where is the normal position
of the "Pivot Point" of a
vessel when going astern?
Between 1/4 of the ship's
length from the stern and the
rudder post
187. Where is the normal position
of the "Pivot Point" of the
vessel when going ahead?
1/3 of the vessel's length
from the bow.
188. Which of the alternative
methods of using a tug when
escorting a ship through
narrow waters would be
considered the most
effective in the event of
loosing steering power?
The tug made fast on a line
through the centre lead
astern. (figure 4).
189. Why does a ship move
laterally (sideward drift)
when turning.
Because the pivot point is
not at the centre of the ship
190. Would the indicated speed,
as shown on a Ground
Tracking Doppler Log, be
suitable for berthing the
vessel?
The approach speed is
essential to maintain
steerage when coming
alongside
191. Your ship is approaching the
berth as illustrated and has a
right handed propeller and
no thrusters. What could be
a method to retain full
control of the vessel as it
comes alongside?
Reduce speed by going
astern on the engines.
192. Your vessel has been loaded
in a sagging condition.
Enroute you encounter
heavy weather and notice
buckling in the midships
deck plating of your vessel.
To relieve the strain you
could __________.
All of the above
193. Which statement concerning
the handling characteristics
of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a
light vessel is FALSE?
A light vessel loses more
rudder effect in shallow
water.
194. Your vessel has grounded on
a bar. What should you do?
Switch to the high suction
for condenser circulating
water, if it is submerge
195. The effect of wind on
exposed areas of the vessel
is most noticeable when
__________.
Backing
196. Most of your vessel's
superstructure is forwar
How will the vessel lie when
drifting with no way on?
With the wind from abaft the
beam
197. When steering a vessel, a
good helmsman will
__________.
Repeat back to the watch
officer any rudder
commands before executing
them
198. The turning circle of a vessel
making a turn of over 360
degrees is the path followed
by the __________.
Center of gravity
199. The distance a vessel moves
at right angles to the original
course, when a turn of 180°
has been completed, DPKP is
called the __________.
Tactical diameter
200. Your ship is in shallow
water and the bow rides up
on its bow wave while the
stern sinks into a depression
of its transverse wave
system. What is this called?
Squatting
201. You are on watch at sea on
course 090°T. A man falls
overboard on your starboard
side. You immediately start
a Williamson Turn. Which
step is NOT a part of a
Williamson Turn?
Step 2: Stop the engines
until clear of the man.
202. In relation to the turning
circle of a ship, the term
"transfer" means the
distance __________.
Gained at right angles to the
original course
203. If two mooring lines are to
be placed on the same
bollard, which method is
BEST?
Place the eye from either
line on the bollard, and then
bring the eye of the other
line up through the eye of
the first, and place it on the
bollar
204. The distance a vessel moves
parallel to the original
course from the point where
the rudder is put over to any
point on the turning circle is
called the __________.
Advance
205. When turning a ship in
restricted space with a
strong wind, it is normally
best to __________.
Turn so that the tendency to
back into the wind can be
used, if on a single-screw
vessel
206. When heading on a course,
you put your rudder hard
over. The distance traveled
parallel to the direction of
the original course from
241
 where you put your rudder
over to any point on the
turning circle is known as
__________.
Advance
207. The distance gained in the
direction of the original
course when you are making
a turn is known as
__________.
Advance
208. You have determined the
maneuvering characteristics
of your vessel by taking the
radar ranges and bearings of
an isolated light while
making a turn. The results
are as liste Based on this
data what is the transfer for
a turn of 30°? D035dg
40 yards
209. The turning circle of a vessel
is the path followed by the
__________.
Center of gravity
210. The pivoting point of a
vessel going ahead is
__________.
About one-third of the
vessel's length from the bow
211. How does the effect known
as "bank suction" act on a
single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow
channel?
It pulls the bow toward the
bank.
212. What does the helm
command "shift the rudder"
mean?
Put the rudder over to the
opposite side, the same
number of degrees it is now.
213. In stopping distances of
vessels, "head reach" can
best be described as the
__________.
Distance the vessel will run
between taking action to
stop her and being stationary
in the water
214. Your vessel is port side to a
pier with a spring line led aft
from the bow. In calm
weather, putting the engines
ahead with the rudder hard
left should bring
__________.
The bow in and the stern out
215. You are the Master of a
single-screw vessel. You are
docking at a port which has
no tugs available. You
decide to drop the offshore
anchor to help in docking.
The amount of chain you
should pay out
__________.
1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of
the water
216. The helm command "meet
her" means __________.
Use rudder to check the
swing
217. How does the effect known
as "bank suction" act on a
single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow
channel?
It pulls the stern toward the
bank.
218. As a ship moves through the
water, it drags with it a body
of water called the wake.
The ratio of the wake speed
to the ship's speed is called
__________.
Wake fraction
219. The term "Shift the Rudder"
means __________.
Change from right to left or
left or right
220. Which statement is TRUE
concerning the vessel's
slipstream?
The propeller gives it a
helical motion.
221. A vessel brought alongside
should be fended off the
towing vessel by
__________.
Fenders
222. The helm command "shift
your rudder" means
__________.
Change from right rudder to
left rudder, or vice versa, an
equal number of degrees
223. As the propeller turns, voids
are formed on the trailing
and leading edgesDPKP of the
propeller blades causing a
loss of propulsive efficiency,
pitting of the blades, and
vibration. These voids are
known as __________.
Cavitation
224. "Hard right rudder" means
__________.
Put the rudder over to the
right all the way
is 225. "Ease the rudder" means to
__________.
Decrease the rudder angle
226. The distance that a ship
moves forward with each
revolution of its propeller, if
there is no slip, is called
__________.
Pitch
227. Sidewise force of the
propeller tends to throw a
vessel's stern to the right or
left, depending on rotation.
This force is caused by
__________.
Torque from the velocity
and angle at which the
surrounding water impinges
upon the propeller blades
228. What does the helm
command "shift the rudder"
mean?
Put the rudder over to the
opposite side, the same
number of degrees it is now.
229. A vessel is equipped with a
single right-handed screw.
With rudder amidships and
calm wind, the vessel will
most likely back
__________.
To port
230. Generally, you can best keep
a vessel under steering
control when the vessel has
__________.
Headway
231. A towing vessel is tripped
when __________.
It is pulled sideways by the
tow
232. When backing down with
sternway, the pivot point of
a vessel is __________.
242
 About one-quarter of the
vessel's length from the stern
233. You are aboard a right-
handed single-screw vessel
with headway on. The
engine is put full astern and
the rudder hard left. What
will the bow do?
It will swing to the left,
straighten out and then
swing to the right as the
vessel loses way.
234. You are maneuvering a
vessel with a right-hand
propeller. The rudder is
amidships. The vessel will
generally back __________.
To port
235. The vertical motion of a
floating vessel in which the
entire hull is lifted by the
force of the sea is known as
__________.
Heave
236. The direction a vessel is
pointed at any given time is
the __________.
Heading
237. Fetch is the __________.
Distance a wave travels
between formation and
decay
238. On mid-ocean waters, the
height of a wind-generated
wave is not affected by the
__________.
Water depth exceeding 100
feet
239. When steering a tow
downstream around the
shape of a sand bar, and
staying on the proper side of
the buoys, an operator
should be cautious of
__________.
Eddies under the bar
240. Where is the pivot point of a
towboat with a tow ahead?
One-third the length of the
combined unit back from the
head
241. A towboat has the same
draft as the barges it is
pushing ahea If the distance
from the stern of the towboat
to the head of the tow is 800
feet, where is the
approximate location of the
pivot point of the unit?
250 feet from the head of the
tow
242. You are pushing a tow ahead
and passing close to another
towboat which is pushing
ahead in the same direction
(you are overtaking). After
the towheads pass close
alongside __________.
The tows will tend to drift
together
243. The direction in which a
vessel should be steered
between two points is the
__________.
Course
244. The type of current which
will have the greatest effect
on the course made good for
your vessel is __________.
One that flows at nearly
right angles to your course
steered
245. The speed of an ocean
current is dependent on
__________.
The density of the water
246. You are steering a southerly
course, and you note that the
chart predicts an easterly
current. Without considering
wind, how may you allow
for the set?
Head your vessel slightly to
the right
247. You are standing the
wheelwatch when you hear
the cry, "Man overboard
starboard side". You should
instinctively __________.
Give full right rudder
248. Which statement about a
tunnel bow thruster is
TRUE?
It provides lateral control
without affecting headway.
249. When underway and
proceeding ahead, as the
speed increases, the pivot
point tends to __________.
Move forward
250. The turning circle ofDPKP
a vessel
making a turn over 360
degrees is the path followed
by the __________.
Center of gravity
251. The pivoting point of a fully
loaded vessel with normal
trim proceeding ahead at sea
speed is __________.
One-third the length of the
vessel from the bow
252. Your vessel has been loaded
in a sagging condition.
Enroute you encounter
heavy weather and notice
buckling in the midships
deck plating of your vessel.
To relieve the strain you
could __________.
All of the above
253. The distance that a vessel
travels from the time that the
order to put engines full
astern until the vessel is
dead in the water is known
as __________.
Head reach
254. Which shallow water effect
will increase dramatically if
you increase your ship's
speed past its "critical
speed"?
Squatting
255. Which statement concerning
the handling characteristics
of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a
light vessel is FALSE?
A light vessel loses more
rudder effect in shallow
water.
256. A vessel is entering port and
has a Pilot conning the
vessel. The Master is unsure
that the Pilot is taking
sufficient action to prevent a
collision. What should the
Master do?
Recommend an alternative
action and if not followed
relieve the Pilot.
257. The effect of wind on
exposed areas of the vessel
is most noticeable when
__________.
243
 Backing
258. When steering a vessel, a
good helmsman will
__________.
Repeat back to the watch
officer any rudder
commands before executing
them
259. The distance a vessel moves
at right angles to the original
course, when a turn of 180°
has been completed, is
called the __________.
Tactical diameter
260. Your ship is in shallow
water and the bow rides up
on its bow wave while the
stern sinks into a depression
of its transverse wave
system. What is this called?
Squatting
261. In relation to the turning
circle of a ship, the term
"kick" means the distance
__________.
Or throw of a vessel's stern
from her line of advance
upon putting the helm hard
over
262. In relation to the turning
circle of a ship, the term
"transfer" means the
distance __________.
Gained at right angles to the
original course
263. If two mooring lines are to
be placed on the same
bollard, which method is
BEST?
Place the eye from either
line on the bollard, and then
bring the eye of the other
line up through the eye of
4. Merespon keadaan darurat navigasi
( Respond to navigational emergencies )
275. As a probable result of being
in collision with your vessel,
the other vessel involved is
on fire? What are your
responsibilities to the other
vessel?
After checking the extent of
the damage and welfare of
the first, and place it on the
bollar
264. When turning a ship in
restricted space with a
strong wind, it is normally
best to __________.
Turn so that the tendency to
back into the wind can be
used, if on a single-screw
vessel
265. When heading on a course,
you put your rudder hard
over. The distance traveled
parallel to the direction of
the original course from
where you put your rudder
over to any point on the
turning circle is known as
__________.
Advance
266. You are on a large merchant
vessel entering a port. There
is a Pilot on board and he
has the conn. Which
statement is TRUE?
The Master is responsible
for the safe navigation of the
ship and the Pilot is
employed for his local
knowledge.
267. You have determined the
maneuvering characteristics
of your vessel by taking the
radar ranges and bearings of
an isolated light while
making a turn. The results
are as liste Based on this
data what is the transfer for
a turn of 30°? D035dg
40 yards
268. While the Pilot is
maneuvering the vessel to a
dock, what is the primary
your crew, if possible your
vessel should standby and
offer assistance, until being
relieved of that obligation by
the other vessel.
276. Ship A is fully loaded with
iron ore and is navigating in
a coastal region when it is in
responsibility of theDPKP
watch
officer?
Insure that helm and throttle
orders given by the Pilot are
correctly executed
269. The measurement of the
amount of force a towing
vessel is capable of applying
to a motionless tow is called
__________.
Bollard pull
270. Before a Master relieves a
Pilot of the conn, the
__________.
Master should foresee any
danger to the vessel on the
present course
271. The pivoting point of a
vessel going ahead is
__________.
About one-third of the
vessel's length from the bow
272. You are standing the wheel
watch on entering port and
the Master gives you a
rudder command which
conflicts with a rudder
command from the Pilot.
What should you do?
Obey the Master.
273. How does the effect known
as "bank suction" act on a
single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow
channel?
It pulls the stern toward the
bank.
274. What does the helm
command "shift the rudder"
mean?
Put the rudder over to the
opposite side, the same
number of degrees it is now.
collision with ship B,
causing ship A to take in
water in several holds.
What is the best course of
action by ship A to save the
vessel and the cargo?
Put the ship aground on a
soft sandy bottom as soon as
244
 possible
277. The bridge wheelman has
not reported for duty and
there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on
your vessel. The ship has
been searched and there is
one seaman missing? The
vessel turns round and
retraces the course back,
calling for assistance from
other vessels in the vicinity.
What should be the focal
point for any search pattern
to be established?
Determine when the seaman
was last sighted and
concentrate the search round
the course line between the
last sighting and present
position, taking into account
any prevailing current.
278. The engines have failed and
will require at least 24 hours
to be available as a reliable
means of propulsion. Your
vessel is about 20 miles off
the coast in a tidal are What
are the initial steps that
should be taken to ensure the
safety of the ship?
Display NUC lights and
investigate the tidal flow
over the next 24 hours and
the probable drift of the
vessel.
279. The vessel is passing
through the English Channel
when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation
must continue without any
operational radars. Should
there be any changes to your
passage plan or bridge
procedures. Your vessel is
equipped with an operational
ECDIS
Increase the officers on the
bridge to allow greater use
of visual navigation
280. You are Sen.Off.Deck /
Duty officer onboard one of
the vessels involved in a
collision. What will your
actions be following the
collision?
Make sure your vessel +
crew are safe and then offer
your assistance to the other
vessel
281. u are Sen.Off.Deck onboard
a merchant vessel. During
the night you have been in a
collision with a sail boat and
there are no signs of life in
the water. What would you
do?
Alarm the rescue centre and
commence searching for any
survivors
282. You are witness to a
collision between two other
ships close to your vessel.
What immediate action
should you take?
Nothing, just standby and
wait to see if any assistance
is require
283. Your vessel has been in
collision and it is uncertain
whether the vessel has the
required residual stability to
remain afloat. After
sounding the general alarm
on board and informing the
nearest Coast Radio Station
of your situation, what other
immediate steps should be
taken?
Complete soundings of all
compartments to determine
the number of compartments
floode Check the vessels
stability limitations within
its statutory loadline
requirements to determine if
still adequate.
284. Your vessel has been in
involved in a collision with
an other vessel. As Master
responsible for the ship and
persons on board, what is
the first step to take?
Organise someone to assess
the extent of damage and the
residual stability of the
vessel.
285. Your vessel is involved in a
collision with another
vessel. What should you as
Master tell the MasterDPKP
on the
other vessel?
Name; Port of registry; Port
of destination of your vessel.
286. Your vessel is progressing
within a Traffic Separation
Scheme and receives a
navigational warning of
another vessel progressing
the wrong way within the
scheme. What actions
should be taken on the
bridge, if any?
Use the Arpa for early
identification of all other
ship movements within the
traffic lane and give rogue
vessel a wide berth
287. A vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver shall
__________.
Turn off her sidelights when
not making way
288. A power-driven vessel at
anchor, not fishing or
otherwise restricted in its
ability to maneuver, sounds
her fog signal at intervals of
not __________.
More than one minute
289. You are underway in
reduced visibility. You hear
the fog signal of another
vessel about 20° on your
starboard bow. Risk of
collision may exist. You
should __________.
Reduce your speed to bare
steerageway
290. What day-shape would a
vessel at anchor show during
daylight?
One black ball
291. What day-shape would a
vessel at anchor show during
daylight?
One black ball
292. You are approaching a bend
in a channel. You cannot see
around the bend because of
the height of the bank. You
should __________.
Sound a whistle blast of 4 to
6 seconds duration
293. Which statement is TRUE
168
 concerning a vessel of 150
meters in length, at anchor?
She must show all-round
white lights forward and aft.
294. Which vessel would be
required to show a white
light from a lantern
exhibited in sufficient time
to prevent collision?
A rowboat
295. Barges being towed at night
__________.
Must be lighted at all times
296. You sight another power-
driven vessel dead-ahead
showing both the red and
green sidelights. The
required action to take
would be to __________.
Alter your course to
starboard
297. You are underway in fog
and hear one short, one
prolonged, and one short
blast in succession. What is
the meaning of this signal?
A vessel is at anchor,
warning of her position.
298. An anchored vessel on
pilotage duty must show
which light(s) at night?
A white light over a red light
and anchor lights
299. A vessel which is fishing is
required to show sidelights
and a stern light only when
__________.
Underway and making way
300. What is a requirement for
any action taken to avoid
collision?
The action must be positive
and made in ample time.
301. In the daytime, you see a
large sailing vessel on the
beam. You know that she is
also propelled by machinery
if she shows __________.
A black cone
302. Your power-driven vessel is
stopped and making no way,
but is not in any way disable
Another vessel is
approaching you on your
starboard beam. Which
statement is TRUE?
Your vessel is the give-way
vessel in a crossing
situation.
303. For identification purposes
at night, U.S. Navy
submarines on the surface
may display an intermittent
flashing light of which
color?
Amber (yellow)
304. Vessels engaged in fishing
may show the additional
signals described in Annex
II to the Rules when they are
__________.
In close proximity to other
vessels engaged in fishing
305. Which vessel must show a
masthead light abaft of and
higher than her identifying
lights?
A 55-meter vessel trawling
306. While underway in a narrow
channel, a vessel should stay
__________.
To the starboard side of the
channel
307. Vessels of less than what
length may not impede the
passage of other vessels
which can safely navigate
only within a narrow
channel or fairway?
20 meters
308. A lantern combining the
sidelights and stern light
MAY be shown on a
__________.
6-meter vessel under oars
309. The lights required by the
Rules must be shown
__________.
From sunrise to sunset in
restricted visibility
310. Which vessel may carry her
sidelights and stern light in a
combined lantern on the
mast?
An 18-meter sailing vessel
311. A vessel nearing a bend or
an area of a channel or
fairway where other vessels
may be hidden by an
obstruction shall
__________. DPKP
Sound a prolonged blast
312. You are approaching a
vessel dredging during the
day and see two balls in a
vertical line on the port side
of the dredge. These shapes
mean that __________.
There is an obstruction on
the port side of the dredge
313. Which statement is TRUE
concerning the light used to
accompany whistle signals?
It is used to supplement
short blasts of the whistle.
314. Which vessel must sound
her fog signal at intervals
not to exceed one minute?
A vessel aground
315. By day, you sight a vessel
displaying three shapes in a
vertical line. The top and
bottom shapes are balls, and
the middle shape is a diamon
It could be a __________.
Vessel engaged in
replenishment at sea
316. You are heading due east
(090°) and observe a vessel's
red sidelight on your port
beam. The vessel may be
heading __________.
Southwest (225°)
317. Which vessel is, by
definition, unable to keep
out of the way of another
vessel?
Vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver
318. Which vessel must exhibit
forward and after masthead
lights when underway?
A 50-meter power-driven
vessel
319. As defined in the Rules, a
towing light is a yellow light
having the same
characteristics as a(n)
__________.
Stern light
320. A vessel underway and
making way in fog shall
sound every two minutes
__________.
One prolonged blast
169
321. When anchoring a 20-meter
vessel at night, you must
show __________.
One all-round white light
322. According to the Navigation
Rules, all of the following
are engaged in fishing
EXCEPT a vessel
__________.
Trolling
323. When a vessel sounds three
short blasts on the whistle,
this indicates that
__________.
Her engines are going astern
324. A vessel is overtaking when
she approaches another from
more than how many
degrees abaft the beam?
22.5°
325. What equipment for fog
signals is required for a
vessel 20 meters in length?
Whistle and bell only
326. What equipment for fog
signals is required for a
vessel 20 meters in length?
Whistle and bell only
327. Sailing vessels are stand-on
over power-driven vessels
except __________.
When they are the
overtaking vessel
328. Which statement is TRUE
concerning risk of collision?
Proper use shall be made of
radar equipment to
determine risk of collision.
329. You are fishing at night, and
you sight a vessel showing
three lights in a vertical line.
The upper and lower lights
are red and the middle light
is white. Which statement is
TRUE?
You must keep out of the
way of the other vessel.
330. Which vessel is to sound a
fog signal of one prolonged
followed by two short
blasts?
All of the above
331. A vessel may exhibit lights
other than those prescribed
by the Rules as long as the
additional lights
__________.
Do not interfere with the
keeping of a proper look-out
332. Which statement is TRUE
concerning a partly
submerged vessel being
towed?
A diamond shape will be
carried at the aftermost
extremity of the tow.
333. Your vessel enters fog. You
stop your engines, and the
vessel is dead in the water.
Which fog signal should you
sound?
Two prolonged blasts every
two minutes
334. The term "power-driven
vessel" refers to any vessel
__________.
With propelling machinery
in use
335. In which situation do the
Rules require both vessels to
change course?
Two power-driven vessels
meeting head-on
336. A vessel towing where the
tow prevents her from
changing course shall carry
__________.
The lights for a towing
vessel and the lights for a
vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver
337. Which statement is TRUE
concerning the danger
signal?
May be supplemented by an
appropriate light signal
338. If a sailing vessel with the
wind on the port side sees a
sailing vessel to windward
and cannot tell whether the
other vessel has the wind on
the port or starboard side,
she shall __________.
Keep out of the way of the
other vessel
339. Vessel "A" is on course
000°T. Vessel "B" is on a
course such that she is
involved in a head-on
situation and is bearing
355°T, 2 miles awayDPKPfrom
vessel "A". To ensure a safe
passing, vessel "A" should
__________.
Maneuver to ensure a port to
port passing
340. What is a vessel "restricted
in her ability to maneuver"?
A vessel towing unable to
deviate from her course
341. All of the following are
distress signals under the
Rules EXCEPT
__________.
A green star signal
342. The Rules state that vessels
may depart from the Rules
when __________.
Necessary to avoid
immediate danger
343. A vessel is towing and
carrying the required lights
on the masthea What is the
visibility arc of these lights?
225.0°
344. Which situation would be a
"special circumstance" under
the Rules?
More than two vessels
meeting
345. You are approaching another
vessel on crossing courses.
She is approximately half a
mile distant and is presently
on your starboard bow. You
believe she will cross ahead
of you. She then sounds a
whistle signal of five short
blasts. You should
__________.
Make a large course change,
accompanied by the
appropriate whistle signal,
and slow down if necessary
346. You are approaching another
vessel and are not sure
whether danger of collion
exists. You must assume
__________.
There is risk of collision
347. Which vessel may use the
danger signal?
All of the above
348. What is the minimum sound
signaling equipment
170
 required aboard a vessel 10
meters in length?
Any means of making an
efficient sound signal
349. Which statement is TRUE
regarding equipment for
sound signals?
Manual sounding of the bell
and gong must always be
possible.
350. Which statement concerning
an overtaking situation is
correct?
The overtaking vessel must
keep out of the way of the
other.
351. The Rules state that a vessel
overtaking another vessel is
relieved of her duty to keep
clear when __________.
She is past and clear of the
other vessel
352. Which statement is TRUE
concerning fog signals?
A vessel aground may sound
a whistle signal.
353. Which day-shape would a
vessel aground show during
daylight?
Three black balls
354. Which vessel must have a
gong, or other equipment
which will make the sound
of a gong?
Any vessel over 100 meters
355. A sailing vessel is
proceeding along a narrow
channel and can safely
navigate ONLY inside the
channel. The sailing vessel
approaches a vessel engaged
in fishing. Which statement
is TRUE?
The fishing vessel is
directed not to impede the
passage of the sailing vessel.
356. Day-shapes MUST be
shown __________.
During daylight hours
357. Rule 14 describes the action
to be taken by vessels
meeting head-on. Which of
the following conditions
must exist in order for this
rule to apply?
All of the above
358. The stern light shall be
positioned such that it will
show from dead astern to
how many degrees on each
side of the stern of the
vessel?
67.5°
359. A vessel aground at night is
required to show two red
lights in a vertical line as
well as __________.
Anchor lights
360. When towing more than one
barge astern at night
__________.
Each barge in the tow must
be lighted
361. Your vessel is aground in
fog. In addition to the
regular anchor signals, you
will be sounding
__________.
Three strokes of the bell
before and after the rapid
ringing of the bell
362. In a crossing situation, the
vessel which has the other
on her own starboard side
shall __________.
If the circumstances of the
case admit, avoid crossing
ahead of the other
363. You are on vessel "A" in
DIAGRAM 32, and hear
vessel "B" sound a signal
indicating her intention to
overtake you. You feel it is
not safe for vessel "B" to
overtake you at the present
time. You should
__________.
Sound five or more short
rapid blasts
364. Which vessel sounds the
same fog signal when
underway or at anchor?
A vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver
365. You are approaching a bend
in a river where, due to the
bank, you cannot see around
the other side. A vessel on
the other side of the bend
sounds one prolonged blast.
DPKP
You should __________.
Sound a prolonged blast
366. Which vessel is "underway"
according to the Rules?
A purse seiner hauling her
nets
367. When two power-driven
vessels are crossing, the
vessel which has the other to
starboard must keep out of
the way if __________.
The situation involves risk
of collision
368. Which signal may at some
time be exhibited by a vessel
trawling?
All of the above
369. Risk of collision is
considered to exist if
__________.
There is any doubt that a
risk of collision exists
370. You are underway in low
visibility and sounding fog
signals. What changes
would you make in the fog
signal immediately upon
losing propulsion?
Begin sounding one
prolonged blast followed by
two short blasts at two-
minute intervals.
371. A power-driven vessel
shows the same lights as a
__________.
Pushing vessel and a vessel
being pushed, when they are
rigidly connected in a
composite unit
372. Which vessel shall NOT
show her sidelights?
A fishing vessel that is not
making way
373. A vessel is overtaking when
she can see which light(s) of
a vessel ahead?
Only the stern light of the
vessel
374. Which statement about the
Navigation Rules is TRUE?
All of the above are correct.
375. A "short blast" on the
whistle has a duration of
__________.
1 second
171
376. As defined in the Rules, the
term "vessel" includes
__________.
All of the above
377. A vessel shall slacken her
speed, stop, or reverse her
engines, if necessary, to
__________.
All of the above
378. An anchor ball need NOT be
exhibited by an anchored
vessel if she is __________.
Less than 7 meters in length,
and not in or near an area
where other vessels
normally navigate
379. A vessel that is not equipped
with towing lights should
show that it has a vessel in
tow by_________________.
Shining a searchlight on the
towline of the towed vessel
380. While underway at night
you are coming up on a
vessel from astern. What
lights would you expect to
see?
One white light
381. What describes a head-on
situation?
Seeing both sidelights of a
vessel directly ahead
382. A vessel anchored in fog
may warn an approaching
vessel by sounding
__________.
One short, one prolonged,
and one short blast of the
whistle
383. While underway in fog, you
hear a vessel ahead sound
two prolonged blasts on the
whistle. You should
__________.
Sound only fog signals until
the other vessel is sighted
384. You are operating in
restricted visibility and hear
a signal of a rapidly ringing
bell followed by the rapid
sounding of a gong. It could
be a __________.
300-meter power-driven
vessel at anchor
385. A vessel being towed, if
manned, shall sound a fog
signal of __________.
One prolonged and three
short blasts
386. A vessel using a traffic
separation scheme shall
__________.
Avoid anchoring in areas
near the termination of the
scheme
387. A proper look-out shall be
maintained __________.
At all times
388. Risk of collision may be
deemed to exist
__________.
All of the above
389. The Rules state that certain
factors are to be taken into
account when determining
safe spee Those factors
include __________.
State of wind, sea, and
current, and the proximity of
navigational hazards
390. Which vessel, when
anchored at night, would
NOT be required to show
anchor lights?
A vessel dredging
391. A vessel not under
command shall display
__________.
Two red lights at night and
two black balls during
daylight
392. A vessel engaged in fishing
while at anchor shall sound a
fog signal of __________.
One prolonged and two
short blasts at two-minute
intervals
393. Underway at night you see
the red sidelight of a vessel
well off your port bow.
Which statement is TRUE?
You may maintain course
and spee
394. Which vessel would sound a
fog signal consisting of the
ringing of a bell for 5
seconds?
A sailing vessel, at anchor
395. A vessel towing a barge
astern would show, at the
stern __________. DPKP
A towing light above the
stern light
396. A fog signal consisting of
one prolonged blast
followed by four short blasts
would indicate the presence
of a __________.
Power-driven pilot vessel on
station underway
397. In addition to sidelights
what light should a vessel
being towed astern show?
A stern light
398. A pilot vessel may continue
to sound an identity signal if
she is __________.
At anchor
399. When two power-driven
vessels are meeting head-on
and there is a risk of
collision, each shall
__________.
Alter course to starboard
400. A power driven vessel when
towing and the length of the
tow exceeds 200 meters
shall exhibit during daylight
hours where they can best be
seen which of the following
shapes?
A diamond shape
401. What is the minimum length
of vessels required to show
two anchor lights?
50 meters
402. A vessel showing a rigid
replica of the International
Code flag "A" is engaged in
__________.
Diving operations
403. In determining "safe speed",
all of the following must be
taken into account EXCEPT
the __________.
Maximum horsepower of
your vessel
404. You are aboard the give-way
vessel in a crossing
situation. What should you
NOT do in obeying the
Rules?
Cross ahead of the stand-on
vessel
405. A vessel, which does not
172
 normally engage in towing
operations, is towing a
vessel in distress. She
__________.
Need not show the lights for
a vessel engaged in towing,
if it is impractical to do so
406. An all-round flashing yellow
light may be exhibited by
a(n) __________.
Air cushion vessel
407. Working lights shall be used
to illuminate the decks of a
vessel __________.
Over 100 meters at anchor
408. Which vessel may show
identifying lights when not
actually engaged in her
occupation?
None of the above
409. A pilot vessel may continue
to sound an identity signal if
she is __________.
Underway, but not making
way
410. If your vessel is the stand-on
vessel in a crossing situation
__________.
You must keep your course
and speed
411. A vessel proceeding along a
narrow channel shall
__________.
Keep as near as safe and
practicable to the limit of the
channel on her starboard
side
412. Which vessel would exhibit
sidelights when underway
and not making way?
A vessel towing astern
413. Which vessel is NOT to
impede the passage of a
vessel which can only
navigate safely within a
narrow channel?
All of the above
414. A tug is towing three
manned barges in line in
fog. The second vessel of
the tow should sound
__________.
No fog signal
415. The steering and sailing
rules for vessels in restricted
visibility apply to vessels
__________.
Navigating in or near an area
of restricted visibility
416. The Navigation Rules state
that a vessel shall be
operated at a safe speed at
all times so that she can be
stopped within __________.
A distance appropriate to the
existing circumstances and
conditions
417. A towing vessel 35 meters in
length, with a tow 100
meters astern, must show a
minimum of how many
masthead lights?
2 astern?
418. BOTH INTERNATIONAL
& INLAND What must be
TRUE in order for a stand-
on vessel to take action to
avoid collision by her
maneuver alone?
All of the above
419. A vessel being towed astern,
where the length of the tow
exceeds 200 meters, will
exhibit __________.
A diamond shape where it
can best be seen
420. For a stand-on vessel to take
action to avoid collision she
shall, if possible, NOT
__________.
Turn to port for a vessel on
her port side
421. You hear the fog signal of
another vessel forward of
your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST
__________.
Reduce speed to bare
steerageway
422. Two barges are being
pushed ahead by a tugboat.
Which statement is TRUE
concerning lights on the
barges?
The barges should be lighted
as one vessel.
423. Two barges are being
pushed ahead by a tugboat.
Which statement is TRUE
concerning lights on the
barges? DPKP
The barges should be lighted
as one vessel.
424. The Rules state that a
seaplane shall __________.
In general, keep well clear
of all vessels
425. If practical, when shall a
manned vessel being towed
sound her fog signal?
Immediately after the towing
vessel sounds hers
426. Your tug is underway at
night and NOT towing.
What light(s) should your
vessel show aft to other
vessels coming up from
One white light
427. A vessel conducting
mineclearing operations will
show __________.
One ball near the foremast
and one ball at each fore
yard
428. A vessel sailing shall keep
out of the way of all of the
following vessels except a
vessel __________.
Engaged on pilotage duty
429. Which statement is TRUE
concerning a vessel under
oars?
She is allowed to show the
same lights as a sailing
vessel.
430. A power-driven vessel is
underway and fishing with
trolling lines. This vessel
__________.
Must keep out of the way of
sailing vessels
431. At night you sight a vessel
displaying a single green
light. This is a __________.
Sailing vessel
432. When two power-driven
vessels are crossing, which
vessel is the stand-on
vessel?
The vessel which is to
starboard of the other vessel
433. Which vessel must exhibit
forward and after white
masthead lights when
173
 making way? DPKP
A 75-meter vessel restricted
in her ability to maneuver
434. By radar alone, you detect a
vessel ahead on a collision
course, about 3 miles
distant. Your radar plot
shows this to be a meeting
situation. You should
__________.
Turn to starboard
435. A sailing vessel underway at
night may show
__________.
A red light over a green light
at the masthead
436. A vessel engaged in trawling
will show identification
lights of __________.
A green light over a white
light
437. What is required of a vessel
navigating near an area of
restricted visibility?
All of the above

5. Memeriksa dan melaporkan kecacatan dan kerusakan ruang muat, tutup palka dan tangki tolak bara
( Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks )

438. bulk cargo declaration
shows that the iron ore to be
loaded has an angle of
repose of 45 degrees; what
does this indicate?
A. The cargo pile is stable and
unlikely to shift
B. The cargo pile will be very
unstable
C. The cargo should not be
accepted to load
D. The cargo may self-heat
439. A bulk cargo has a stowage
factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic
metres per metric tonne
(m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are
to be loaded what volume
will this cargo occupy?
A. 1500 cubic metres ( m3)
B. 15000 cubic metres (m3)
C. 1000 cubic metres
D. 3000 tonnes
440. A bulk cargo is loaded and
the shore cargo figure is 10
000 tonnes; the chief officer
calculates 9 500 tonnes have
been loaded; what should
the Master do?
A. Ask for a draft survey to be
carried in the presence of
P& I Club representative
B. No action to be taken
C. Bills of Lading to be signed
"Clean" by Master.
D. Inform Designated Person
Ashore( DPA)
441. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be
loaded in Australia for
Europe; the coal is declared
as having a high moisture
content (but less than the
transportable moisture Limit
(TML)); what must the
Master ensure?
A. All cargo hold bilges are
sounded daily and the
amount of water logged; the
bilges can then be pumped
out.
B. The bilges must not be
pumped out
C. The bilges must be pumped
out regularly
D. The bilges should have been
sealed prior to loading
442. A bulk cargo of steel coils is
loaded and a number of the
coils are noted by the Chief
Officer to be rusted; what
must the Master ensure?
A. Clause the Bill of Lading
with the reference numbers
of the rusty coils and so
make the Bill of Lading a
"dirty" Bill.
B. No action needs to be taken.
C. Steel coils to be discharged
D. Cargo temperatures
measured on voyage
443. A bulk coal cargo is to be
loaded and the moisture
content is declared as 19 ;
the transportable moisture
174
 limit of the cargo is declared
as 15, what should the
Master do?
A. Refuse to load the cargo
unless the vessel is specially
designed for the carriage of
cargo which may liquefy
B. Load the cargo as the
moisture limits are within
acceptable limits
C. Load cargo and ventilate on
passage to remove water
D. Load part cargo only
444. A heavy metal concentrate
bulk cargo has a moisture
content of 16 and a
transportable moisture limit
of 18, what should the
Master do?
A. Load the cargo as the
moisture content is within
acceptable limits
B. Refuse to load the cargo as
the moisture content is
outside acceptable limits
C. Seek advice from charterers
and owners
D. Request additional moisture
tests to be done
445. What hazards are associated
with the carriage of wood
pellets in bulk?
A. Oxygen depletion and
generation of carbon
monoxide in cargo and
communicating spaces
B. Possible dust explosion due
to excessive ventilation
C. Spontaneous combustion
and self-heating
D. Possible liquefaction of
cargo, en route
446. What is mean by bulk Grain
cargoes have a low angle of
repose?
A. Liable to shift
B. Unlikely to shift
C. Always stable
D. Likely to produce toxic gas
447. What is the primary hazard
associated with the carriage
of a bulk cargo of salt on a
Bulk Carrier?
A. he only possible hazard is
associated with ingress of
water into the hold and a
loss of stability
B. There are no special hazards
associated with this cargo
C. This cargo maybe liable to
spontaneous combustion
D. The cargo may be liable to
self heat.
448. When loading a bulk cargo
of cement the specific
gravity and flow
characteristics are dependant
on what criteria?
A. The volume of air in the
cargo
B. The volume of water in the
cargo
C. They are fixed and the cargo
has a stowage factor of 0.5
cubic metres/tone
D. The bulk density is standard
at 900 kg/cubic meter
449. When loading a bulk cargo
of Coal the ship must be
fitted with appropriate
instruments to measure the
concentration of what gases
within the cargo space?
A. The gases specified in all of
these answers
B. The concentration of
Methane only
C. The concentration of
Oxygen only
D. The concentration of Carbon
Monoxide only
450. When should a master agree
to accept a bulk cargo of
concentrates?
A. When he is fully satisfied
that the actual moisture
content of the cargo is less
than the Transportable
Moisture Limit (TML)
B. Once the actual moisture
content of the cargo has
been declared by the shipper
C. As soon as the cargo holds
have been passed forDPKP
loading
D. After a laboratory analysis
of the cargo has been carried
out
451. A container full of scrap
metal is being loaded, and
you sight water dripping
from it. You should:
A. Reject the container.
B. Ensure that the container is
stowed below deck.
C. Ensure that the container is
stowed on deck.
D. Load the container and note
protest.
452. A typical hazard associated
with the carriage of
ammonium nitrate is:
A. Explosion.
B. Environmental pollution.
C. Loss of ship stability.
D. Spontaneous combustion.
453. Although not required by the
IMDG Code, on a container
vessel, carrying Calcium
Hypochlorite under
refrigeration is beneficial so
as to:
A. Prevent the cargo
temperature increasing into
the danger zone.
B. Maintain a continuous air
flow through the cargo.
C. Maintain a record of the
temperature of the cargo.
D. Ensure the cargo is shipped
in a clean container.
454. Carriage of wet scrap steel
borings, turnings and swarf
in containers is generally
considered dangerous,
because:
A. It can spontaneously ignite.
B. This type of cargo will
corrode the container.
C. The moisture will cause a
huge increase in the weight
of the cargo.
D. The cargo will not dry out
en route enroute.
168
455. Containerised scrap metal
fire is best extinguished by:
A. Smothering.
B. Dousing with seawater.
C. Allowing cargo to smoulder.
D. Cooling with freshwater.
456. Exposure to moderate
concentrations of ammonia
may cause:
A. Choking and possible loss of
eyesight.
B. Loss of memory.
C. Instant death.
D. Instant unconsciousness.
457. Fire in a container carrying
chemicals is difficult to
extinguish, because:
A. Heat is often produced due
to chemical reactions within
the cargo.
B. Water, if used, will always
cause a chemical fire to flare
up.
C. Such containers containing
chemicals are always
inaccessible.
D. Chemical fires always
spread instantaneously to
other containers.
458. If a tank container of liquid
ammonia is engulfed in fire,
it is recommended:
A. To allow ventilation.
B. To restrict ventilation.
C. Not to use water to cool the
container.
D. Not to use dry chemical to
extinguish the fire.
459. Stack allowable weights on
a container vessel should not
be exceeded because this
can cause:
A. Failure of the corner posts of
the containers stowed at the
bottom of the stack.
B. The lashings to be
overloaded.
C. The GM tov become
excessive leading to high
roll accelerations.
D. Torsional effects on the hull.
460. The most important
consideration, in terms of
stress, when planning
stowage of containers on a
container vessel would be:
A. Distribution and weight of
the containers.
B. Distribution of the
containers only.
C. Weight of the containers
only.
D. The vessel's draft and trim.
461. "Noxious Liquid Substances
which, if discharged into the
sea from tank cleaning or
deballasting operations , are
deemed to present a hazard
to either marine resources or
human health or cause harm
to amenities or other
legitimate uses of the sea
and therefore justify a
limitation on the quality and
quantity of the discharge
into the marine
environment". Such
substances are:
A. A category "Y" substance as
identified in MARPOL
Annex II.
B. A category "X" substance as
identified in MARPOL
Annex II.
C. An NLS as defined in
ISGOTT, revision V.
D. A liquid cargo that is
prohibited for carriage in
vessels other than type 1
chemical tanker, as defined
in the IBC Code.
462. After the discharge of Lube
Oils, Lube Oil Additives,
Phthalates and Olefins and
before the loading of "high-
spec" cargoes on a chemical
tanker, the test that might be
expected to produce
unsatisfactory results during
initial wall-wash analysis
would be:
A. Hydrocarbons.
B. Non-volatile matter.
C. Odor. DPKP
D. Color.
463. As per MARPOL 73/78,
coal slurry, clay slurry,
dextrose solution and
molasses are classified as:
A. "OS" (Other substances)"
B. Category Y
C. Category Z
D. Category X
464. In discussing the properties
of Noxious Liquid
Substances, the criteria for
defining Threshold Limit
Value (TLV) is:
A. The time-weighted
concentration of a substance
to which a worker may be
repeatedly exposed for a
normal 8 hour working day
and 40 hour week without
adverse health effects.
B. The maximum concentration
of a vapour to which a
worker may be repeatedly
exposed for a maximum of
12 hours per day, 5 days per
week without serious health
effects.
C. The maximum concentration
of harmful vapour to which
a worker may be exposed for
a period of 15 minutes up to
4 times within any 24 hour
period without adverse
respiratory effects.
D. The concentration of a
vapour expressed as a
percentage of the oxygen
content of an environment in
which a fit human-being can
work continuously for a
period of 8 hours.
465. It is considered especially
necessary to continue to
ventilate the tank and to
continuously monitor the
atmosphere when working
inside a cargo compartment
which still contains
vegetable oil residues,
because:
169
 A. The decomposing residues
continue to release
hazardous gases, reducing
the levels of oxygen in the
tank and making the
atmosphere potentially
dangerous.
B. Forced ventilation will
create a hard "skin" on the
residues, making them safer
to stand on. Testing the
atmosphere will indicate
when this skin has formed,
as no further vapours will be
released.
C. Vegetable oils are
commonly washed using
very hot water. Forced
ventilation will make the
temperature inside the
compartment better to work
in. Monitoring the
atmosphere will indicate if
the humidity is increasing.
D. For a tank which has
contained vegetable oils, if it
is continuously ventilated an
Enclosed Space Entry
Permit is not required.
However, for anyone
entering the compartment
without a permit in place,
they must carry an oxygen
meter which continuously
monitors the atmosphere.
466. MARPOL 73/78 defines
‘solidifying substances’ as:
A. A noxious liquid substance
which, in the case of a
substance with a melting
point of less than 15°C
which is at a temperature of
less than 5°C above its
melting point at the time of
unloading, or in the case of a
substance with a melting
point equal to or greater than
15°C which is at a
temperature of less than
10°C above its melting point
at the time of unloading.
B. A noxious liquid substance
which, in the case of a
substance with a melting
point of less than 20°C
which is at a temperature of
less than 10°C above its
melting point at the time of
unloading, or in the case of a
substance with a melting
point equal to or greater than
20°C, is at a temperature of
less than 15°C above its
melting point at the time of
unloading.
C. A noxious liquid which will
crystallise and eventually
bond into solid form at
ambient, or less than
ambient temperatures unless
an external heat source is
applied.
D. A noxious liquid substance
which will crystallise and
eventually bond into solid
form if exposed to an
external heat source.
467. MARPOL 73/78 defines a
‘high viscosity substance’
as:
A. A noxious liquid substance
in category "X" or "Y" with
a viscosity equal to or
greater than 50 mpa.s at the
unloading temperature.
B. A noxious liquid substance
in category "Y" with a
viscosity equal to or greater
than 100 mpa.s at 37.8
degrees Celsius.
C. A noxious liquid substance
of any category with a pour
point of greater than 37.8
degrees Celsius.
D. Any noxious liquid
substance, the residues of
which cannot be stripped
from a cargo compartment
and its associated piping and
pumping system to equal to
or less than 75 litres.
468. The IMO Code requires
protection against spillage of
the most dangerous products
(ethyl ether, antiknock lead
compounds such as TML
and TEL etc) by prescribing
that: DPKP
A. They shall be carried in
cargo tanks independent of
the ships hull structure?
B. They shall be carried in
tanks surrounded by water
ballast?
C. They shall be carried only in
centre tanks having double
bottoms?
D. The cargo shall not have a
height in any tank above that
of the vessel's waterline?
469. Which of the following
groups of chemical cargoes
is particularly susceptible to
polymerisation, especially
through exposure to heat?
A. Monomers.
B. Aliphatic Amines.
C. Paraffins.
D. Aldehydes.
470. You are to carry a cargo of
Phenol across the North
Atlantic in winter time.
What precaution will you
take with the double bottom
tank located under the cargo
tank containing the Phenol?
A. It should be empty, to avoid
cold water contacted the
structure around the product
because Phenol has a
relatively high melting
point.
B. It should be inerted, because
Phenol has a very low Flash
Point.
C. It should be continuously
vented to avoid the build up
of condensation on the
structure around the product.
D. It is not necessary to take
any additional precautions
with the double bottom tank
because it is part of an
entirely separate pumping
system.
471. You have just loaded a cargo
of Toluene on a chemical
tanker and are about to clear
the lines into the ship. The
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 one particular hazard that
must be noted about this
product would be that:
A. It is a static accumulator and
settling time must be
allowed before gauging.
B. It has a relatively low
density. Tanks which are
close to maximum filling are
especially liable to overflow
during the line clearing
operation unless the flow of
blowing medium is strictly
controlled.
C. It has a relatively high
freezing point and additional
line blowing will be required
to ensure the vessel's lines
are completely clear.
D. It is a carcinogen but has a
relatively high odor
threshold value. Personnel
may not readily detect any
vapour that is ejected
through the vent risers and
should therefore use filter
masks while this operation is
in progress.
472. A P - H type Mollier
diagram or chart is often
used when dealing with
LNG cargoes. What is the
main information that can be
obtained from a Mollier
diagram?
A. Information about the exact
values of the pressure,
density, specific volume and
dryness fraction of the
vapour when both the
enthalpy and temperature are
known.
B. Information about the exact
values of pressure, enthalpy,
specific volume and dryness
fraction of the vapour when
only the temperature is
known.
C. Information about the exact
values of enthalpy, specific
volume and dryness fraction
of the vapour when the
pressure and temperature are
known.
D. Information about the
variation in vapour
temperature for a known
pressure.
473. An important physical
property of LNG is the
saturation vapour pressure.
What is the IMO definition
of the term "saturated
vapour pressure"?
A. The pressure at which a
vapour is in equilibrium
with its liquid at a specified
temperature.
B. The pressure at which all of
the liquid becomes vapour.
C. The pressure at which all of
the vapour returns to the
liquid state.
D. A vapour mixture which has
an equal mass of each of the
different vapours in the
mixture.
474. During a normal voyage
heat is transferred to the
LNG cargo through the
cargo tank insulation which
causes some boil off of the
cargo. This boil off changes
the composition of the LNG
as more of the lighter
components will vaporise.
Which component of the
LNG cargo is likely to have
a lower than original
percentage on arrival at the
discharge port?
A. Methane.
B. Ethane.
C. Butane.
D. Pentane.
475. LNG is often considered as
an ideal gas when looking at
the physical properties and
characteristics. With
reference to the physical
properties of gas mixtures
which of the given options is
the SIGTTO definition of
the term 'mole'?
A. The mass that is numerically
equal to the molecular mass.
B. The volume occupied DPKP
by one
molecular mass in grams.
C. A graphic method of
representing the heat
quantities contained in air.
D. A substance capable of
causing cancer.
476. LNG is one of the liquefied
gases transported by sea.
What is the IMO's definition
of liquefied gases?
A. Liquids with a vapour
pressure exceeding 2.8 bar
absolute at +37.8 C and
certain other chemicals
listed in the Gas Codes.
B. Liquids with a vapour
pressure exceeding 2.8 bar
absolute at +100 C and
certain other chemicals
listed in the Gas Codes.
C. Liquids with a vapour
pressure exceeding 2.8 bar
absolute at +73.8 C and
certain other chemicals
listed in the Gas Codes.
D. Liquids with a vapour
pressure exceeding 8.2 bar
absolute at +37.8 C and
certain other chemicals
listed in the Gas Codes.
477. What is a typical
composition of LNG
(Arabian Gulf LNG)?
A. Methane 91% - Ethane 6% -
Propane 3%
B. Methane 100%
C. Methane 80% - Ethane 15%
- Propane 5%
D. Methane 75% - Ethane 12%
- Propane 13%
478. What is the relative liquid
density of Methane?
A. 0.427
B. 0.583
C. 0.554
D. 0.624
479. A number of substances are
carried as cargoes on
liquefied gas carriers. Of
those given in the options,
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 which is the most reactive,
and therefore least
compatible, with other
liquefied gas cargoes?
A. Chlorine
B. Methane
C. Ethylene
D. Propane
480. Ethylene is normally carried
on fully refrigerated
liquefied gas carriers at its
atmospheric boiling point.
What is the approximate
atmospheric boiling point of
ethylene?
A. Minus 104 degrees C
B. Minus 162 degrees C
C. Minus 48 degrees C
D. Minus 10 degrees C
481. Hydrate formation may be a
problem with some LPG
cargoes. The hydrates may
enter cargo pumps, block
lubricating passages,
unbalance impellers and
seize bearings. What is the
most common practice to
prevent such problems?
A. Inject a small quantity of
freezing-point depressant
into the pump.
B. Increase the cargo
temperature.
C. Slow down the pumping
rate.
D. Hydrates can be avoided by
using cargo filters
482. Polymerisation may be a
problem with some liquefied
gas cargoes such as vinyl
chloride and ethylene oxide.
What is the definition of
polymerisation?
A. Polymerisation is when
single molecules of the same
compound join together to
form a new compound
usually with a higher
viscosity.
B. Polymerisation is when
molecules of two or more
different compounds join
together to form a new
compound.
C. Polymerisation is when the
molecules of a compound
split and form a new
compound.
D. Polymerisation is when
liquids cool down and
become more viscous.
483. The 'Critical Temperature' is
important when dealing with
liquefied gas cargoes. What
is the IMO Gas Codes'
definition of the term
'Critical Temperature'?
A. It is the temperature above
which a gas cannot be
liquefied by pressure alone.
B. It is the temperature at
which a cargo of liquefied
gas must be carried.
C. It is the temperature at
which liquefied gas cargoes
give off flammable vapours.
D. It is the temperature at
which vapours from a
liquefied gas cargo will self-
ignite.
484. The densities of most
hydrocarbon gas mixtures
which evolve from normal
petroleum products are
greater than the density of
air. What would be the
approximate relative density
of a mixture of 50% by
volume of air and propane
relative to 100% air?
A. 1.25
B. 2.0
C. 1.55
D. 1.8
485. What is the main reason that
LPG boil-off gas is
unsuitable for use in the
vessel's fuel supply?
A. LPG vapour is heavier than
air at atmospheric conditions
and represent a risk as they
may accumulate in
machinery spaces.
B. LPG is too expensive to use
as fuel. DPKP
C. LPG vapour is too difficult
to ignite.
D. Reliquefaction of LPG
vapour is a simple process
and is a cheaper option than
burning the boil-off gas in
the boiler.
486. When butadiene is carried as
a liquid gas cargo it usually
has inhibitors added. One
reason for this is to minimise
the formation of polymers.
What is the other reason for
adding inhibitors to this
particular cargo?
A. To scavenge any oxygen
that may be present to
prevent peroxide formation.
B. To prevent an exothermic
reaction of the cargo
C. To minimise pressure build
up in the cargo tank.
D. To maintain the solubility of
water in the cargo at low
temperatures.
487. Which publication contains
detailed information, in the
form of material safety data
sheets, relating to the
chemical and physical
properties and associated
hazards of the most
commonly transported
liquefied gases, including
LPG?
A. The ICS Tanker Safety
Guide (Liquefied Gases)
B. The IGC code
C. The International Certificate
of Fitness
D. The IBC Code
488. Why must inert gas from a
combustion-type generator
never be used when
preparing the cargo tanks of
a liquefied gas carrier for a
cargo of ammonia?
A. Because inert gas from this
type of generator contains
carbon dioxide which reacts
with ammonia to form
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 carbamates.
B. Because inert gas from this
type of generator has a high
water content which can
react with ammonia to
produce high pressure
conditions.
C. Because the high oxygen
content in inert gas from this
type of generator will form a
flammable mixture with
ammonia.
D. Because the high
temperature of the inert gas
from this type of generator
may ignite the ammonia.
489. When preparing the cargo
tanks of an LNG carrier for
loading it is important to
consider the dew point of the
vapour mixtures present in
the tank. What is the
definition of the "dew point"
of a vapour mixture
containing water vapour?
A. The dew point is the
temperature at which the
water vapour begins to
condense as the temperature
decreases.
B. The dew point is the
pressure at which the water
vapour begins to condense
as the temperature
decreases.
C. The dew point is the
temperature at which the
water vapour begins to
evaporate as the temperature
decreases.
D. The dew point is the
temperature at which all of
the water vapour has
completely condensed.
490. Which of the given options
is the approximate value of
the flammable range for
Methane measured as a
percentage volume in air?
A. 5.3 - 14.0% by volume.
B. 2.6 - 12.4% by volume.
C. 3.5 - 13.0% by volume
D. 1.4 - 10.8% by volume
491. A petroleum product is
considered “Non-Volatile”
when:
A. With a Flashpoint of 60
degrees C or above (closed
cup method), these liquids
produce, when at any normal
ambient temperature,
equilibrium gas
concentrations below the
Lower Flammable Limit.
B. With a Flashpoint of 60
degrees C or below (closed
cup method), these liquids
produce, when equal to or
below any ambient
temperature, gas
concentrations of less than
5% by volume.
C. With a Flashpoint of 37.8
degrees C or above (open
cup method), these liquids
produce, when at any normal
ambient pressure,
equilibrium gas
concentrations below the
Lower Flammable Limit.
D. With a Flashpoint of 60
degrees C or above (open
cup method), these liquids
produce, when at any normal
ambient temperature,
equilibrium gas
concentrations above the
Upper Flammable Limit.
492. Anti-static additives are used
to treat fuel oil cargoes so as
to:
A. Ensure they become non-
accumulator of static charge.
B. Ensure they become an
accumulator of static charge.
C. Ensure their relaxation time
after loading is extended.
D. Ensure they become mildly
magnetic during the voyage.
493. At which of the following
concentrations of Hydrogen
Sulphide would dizziness,
headache, nausea, etc. Occur
within 15 minutes of
exposure, followed by loss
of consciousnessDPKP and
possibly death, after 30-60
minutes of exposure?
A. 500-700 ppm.
B. 50-70 ppm.
C. 1,000 - 2,000 ppm.
D. 200-300 ppm.
494. Besides danger of vapour
inhalation by crewmembers,
if Hydrogen Sulphide is
present in high
concentrations in crude oil,
it can also cause:
A. Corrosion.
B. Polymerisation.
C. Acid build-up.
D. Settling and layering.
495. The approximate API
gravity of Arabian Light
Crude is:
A. 33 degrees.
B. 27 degrees.
C. 30 degrees.
D. 40 degrees.
496. The approximate density
ratio of undiluted gas, in
relation to air, from a typical
crude oil is:
A. 1.5 times that of the air.
B. Twice that of the air.
C. 0.8 times that of the air
(assuming atmospheric
pressure above 1000 mb).
D. 1.8 times that of the air.
497. The name given to
compounds consisting solely
of carbon and hydrogen
atoms joined together by
single bonds is:
A. Saturated hydrocarbons.
B. Sour crude.
C. Unsaturated hydrocarbons.
D. Alkadienes.
498. The Vapour Pressure of
crude oils is determined by
the:
A. The Reid Closed Test
method.
B. The Crude Open Test
Method.
173
 C. The API Open Cup result in increased corrosion A. Their tendency to DPKP
produce
Laboratory Method. of the ships tanks and gas.
D. The ASTM Elementary internals B. Their tendency to ignite.
Assessment Method. D. Release vapours which may C. Their ability to resist
cause vapour contamination ignition.
499. When an inhibitor is added of the entire cargo D. A measure their vapour
to an oil cargo, the items pressure.
mentioned on the 501. When carrying out oil cargo
accompanying certificate calculations, the relationship 504. Which of the following type
include: between absolute and gauge of crude oil requires special
A. Inhibitor name; amount pressure is: consideration in terms of
added; date added; period of A. Absolute pressure = gauge carriage and cleaning?
efficiency; precautions if pressure + barometric A. Paraffinic Crude.
voyage length exceeds that pressure. B. Sweet Crude.
period; eventual temperature B. Gauge pressure = absolute C. Medium Crude.
limitation. pressure + barometric D. Reconstituted Crude.
B. Inhibitor class; amount pressure.
added; date of expiry; C. Absolute pressure = gauge 505. With reference to chemistry
minimum period of optimum pressure x 0.947 barometric of petroleum cargoes, if
efficiency; precautions to be pressure. 'Alkanes' are saturated
taken when added; minimum D. Gauge pressure = barometric hydrocarbons, then
temperature requirement. pressure / atmospheric unsaturated hydrocarbons
C. Inhibitor name; percentage pressure are:
applied; date of expiry; A. Alkenes.
precautions to be taken on 502. When describing the B. Alkanes.
voyage and interval of characteristics of oil cargoes C. Pentenes.
application; maximum or oil/water slops, a D. Octanes.
temperature at which ‘mercaptan” is:
continuously effective. A. A colourless, odorous gas, 506. With reference to oil cargo
D. Inhibitor class; percentage with a smell similar to characteristics, ‘cloud point’
blended; date added; rotting cabbage and which is is:
maximum period of generated naturally by the A. The temperature at which a
efficiency and applicable degredation of natural liquid hydrocarbon begins to
temperature limits; organisms, as may be found congeal and take on a cloudy
maximum storage period on where water has remained appearance, due to the
board; contact number of under oil for a long time. bonding of constituent
manufacturer. B. A chemical additive blended paraffin compounds.
with crude oil to inhibit the B. The temperature at which an
500. When carrying certain natural "rotton egg" smell oil product begins to emit
cargoes (e.g. Aviation associated with certain vapours which can be
Turbine Oils) it is important grades. observed in a spectroscope
to carefully monitor ship’s C. The component of due to the volume of solid
tanks during passage, hydrocarbon-based cargoes particles extracted during
because these cargoes can: which is formed from evaporation.
A. Release oxygen, which they Merolion Carbonized C. The surface pressure at
may have absorbed during Tannin. which vapours from an oil
the refining process, into the D. A device fitted to a cargo cargo overcome gravity and
ullage spaces of ship’s cargo pump which automatically friction and are expelled
tanks alerts the operator once from the containing
B. Release acidic effluents traces of water start to be compartment.
which may make the entire detected during discharge. D. The depth within a cargo
cargo go off-spec resulting above which no waxy solids
in financial claims 503. When referring to crude oil are entrained.
C. Release acids during tropical petroleum products,
sea area transit, which may “volatility” means: 507. With reference to oil

174
 cargoes, their wax content is
generally referred to as:
A. The percentage of paraffinic
wax by volume, based on a
representative sample of the
crude oil.
B. The observed volume
percentage of waxy deposits
found in a cargo tank after
discharge in relation to the
total volume of cargo
previously carried.
C. The percentage of wax
remaining in an oil product
after distillation.
D. The amount of additive in an
oil product, expressed in
ppm, designed to inhibit
solidification at lower
temperatures.
508. At what latest time shall
doors, side scuttles,
gangway doors, cargo- and
coaling ports and other
openings which are to be
kept closed watertight at sea
be closed at the start of the
voyage?
A. Before leaving the port
B. Before entering open waters
C.
efore leaving the pilot
station
D. Before leaving the berth
509. Cross-flooding fittings shall
be operable from:
A. Above the bulkhead deck
B. The bridge
C. The engine room
D. The section where the
unsymmetrical flooding
occurs
510. How many separate means
of escape from passengers
and crew spaces should it be
in each zone?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four
511. How often shall watertight
doors in main transverse
bulkheads which is in use at
sea be operated (tested)?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Every two weeks
D. Every month
512. In which cases shall side
scuttles in passenger ships
be so constructed that they
cannot be opened without
the consent of the master of
the ship?
A. Where the sills of the side
scuttles are below the
margin line
B. Where the sills are mounted
below the bulkhead deck
C. Where the sills of the side
scuttles are less than 500
mm above the deepest load
line
D. Where the height of the side
scuttles go through more
than two decks
513. Is there any requirements
regarding double bottom for
large passenger ships?
A. Yes, in ship of 76 m in
length and upwards, a
double bottom shall be fitted
amidships, and shall extend
to the fore and after peak
bulkheads, or as near thereto
as practicable.
B. Yes, in ships of 76 m in
length and longer, a double
bottom shall be fitted
amidships, and extend to the
fore and aft not less that ¼
of the ship length.
C. Yes, a double bottom shall
be fitted amidship
D. No, a double bottom is not
required
514. What is a passenger ship
according to SOLAS
regulations?
A. A ship which carries more
than 12 passengers
B. A ship which is arranged
DPKP of
and fitted for carriage
persons which are not
members of the ship's crew
C. A ship which carries
passengers only
D. A purpose-built passenger
ship carrying persons only
on defined lines or routes
515. When are power-operated
watertight sliding doors
(class 3 doors) compulsory
for all watertight doors
aboard passenger ships?
A. Where the ship has
passenger spaces below the
bulkhead deck
B. Where one or more doors
are situated below deepest
load line
C. When the ship is certified
for more than 150
passengers
D. Where the ship is fitted with
through-going car decks
516. When there is doubt about
the freshness of the
atmosphere in enclosed or
confined spaces, what action
should be taken?
A. rrangements should be made
for testing of the atmosphere
to ensure maintenance of
21% oxygen and a carbon
monoxide content below 50
ppm in the atmosphere of
the space
B. Open both bow- and stern
doors
C. Supply filter masks to all
crew working on ro-ro deck
D. Ro-ro decks are always
ventilated in advance of an
operation
517. Cargoes of frozen beef and
chilled beef have
approximate carriage
temperatures of minus 18
and minus 1 degree Celsius
respectively. Greater care is
required when carrying
chilled beef as it is more
sensitive to deviations from,
175
 and requires finer control of,
its recommended carriage
temperature. Which option
best completes the following
statement? "This additional
care is worthwhile
because…
A. …chilled beef commands a
much higher price in the
market."
B. ...carrying chilled beef is a
modern innovation."
C. …chilled beef is healthier
for consumers."
D. …chilled beef can be kept
longer than frozen beef."
518. Certain live refrigerated
cargoes such as fruit, salad,
vegetable and plant cargoes
are sensitive to ethylene
during shipment. Select the
option which best completes
the following statement.
"Ethylene is described as a
gas which …
A. ...is a natural fruit ripening
hormone."
B. …can cause any type of
refrigerated cargo to ripen."
C. …can cause a fruit cargo to
ripen if it is present in a
large concentration."
D. …is beneficial for the
carriage of certain types of
fruit."
519. During loading of bananas
the fruit should be visually
inspected frequently to
check the quality and for any
indications as to its
physiological development.
Which one of the options
given would indicate that the
fruit is in suitable condition
for shipment?
A. The bananas have a uniform
green colour with relatively
sharp ridges along the
length. They can be snapped
or broken with sap clinging
between the broken parts.
B. The bananas are green with
a yellow hue. They are not
really hard and do not break
cleanly.
C. The bananas are yellow with
small black spots on the
skin. They cannot be
snapped but the skin can be
peeled off.
D. The bananas are green in
colour with patches on the
shoulder from the effects of
sunshine and have relatively
sharp ridges along the
length. They can be snapped
with sap clinging to the
broken parts.
520. t is possible to successfully
mix certain types of
refrigerated cargo in the
same space if they are
compatible. Sometimes
apparently dissimilar
cargoes can be successfully
mixed. Which one of the
combinations given in the
options could be
successfully carried as a
mixed cargo in the same
cargo space?
A. Oranges and apples.
B. Oranges and bacon.
C. Oranges and butter.
D. Oranges and rock lobster.
521. Most perishable cargoes are
presented for shipment pre-
cooled to the correct
carriage temperature. If the
cargo is not pre-cooled or
has warmed up due to the
cold chain being broken it
can result in increased
metabolic rates. Which of
the given options would be
the most difficult to deal
with if such a situation
occurred during a sea
passage?
A. The heat produced by the
cargo.
B. The carbon dioxide
produced by the cargo.
C. The trace gases produced by
the cargo.
D. The water produced by the
cargo. DPKP
522. Refrigerated cargoes are
generally easy to secure for
a sea passage when
compared to some bulk,
timber and project type
cargoes. The cargo must be
stowed so that it will not
shift during the voyage and
so that a good air flow can
be maintained through the
cargo. Which one of the
given options is most likely
to result in this required
outcome and a successful
carriage?
A. A tight uniform stow which
forces air through the cargo.
B. A tight uniform stow but
with vertical gaps in the
cargo for air flow.
C. A loose uniform stow.
D. The stow is unimportant as it
is only the temperature in
the hold which determines
whether or not the cargo is
carried successfully.
523. Some perishable cargoes
which are normally carried
refrigerated can also be
carried non-refrigerated
even on a long sea passage.
This requires that the
commodity is suitably
packed and correctly
ventilated during transport.
Select the option which
correctly completes the
following statement. "The
type of cargo most suited for
a sea passage under
ventilation only would be…
A. …onions."
B. …pineapples."
C. …grapes."
D. …strawberries."
524. Strawberries are a sensitive
cargo with a relatively short
carriage life and can only be
carried on short sea
passages. They are often
irradiated for transport.
176
 Select the true statement
from the options given
relating to the effect of
irradiation.
A. The main effect of
irradiating strawberries prior
to transport is that it kills off
any bacteria on the fruit.
B. The main effect of
irradiating strawberries prior
to transport is that it
improves the colour of the
fruit.
C. The main effect of
irradiating strawberries prior
to transport is that it kills
any flies on the fruit.
D. A cargo of irradiated
strawberries must be stowed
well away from the crew
accommodation to reduce
the possible effects of cobalt
60 radiation.
525. When considering how non-
containerised perishable
cargoes such as bananas and
grapes are presented for
loading the temperature of
the cargo is important.
Which one of the statements
included in the options is
correct?
A. Bananas are loaded at field
temperature while grapes are
pre-cooled.
B. Grapes are loaded at field
temperature while bananas
are pre-cooled.
C. Bananas and grapes are both
loaded at field temperature.
D. Bananas and grapes are both
loaded pre-cooled.
526. In roro Cargo Planning
What should be considered
for the location of stowage
of a heavy loads such as
transformer, locomotive or
work boats?
A. The stability of the vessel,
access to the location and
the SWL of the stowage
location
B. The discharge port rotation
C. Day of the week
D. Requests from the stevedore
527. In roro Cargo planning
where should you look to
find information on securing
cargos
A. In the vessels approved
Cargo Securing Manual
B. On the bulkhead in the ships
office
C. On the internet
D. In the maintenance guide for
the cargo securing
equipment onboard
528. In roro cargo securing which
of the following can be used
as a general rule for deciding
lashing requirements of a
cargo unit
A. The total of the MSL values
of the securing devices on
each side of a unit of cargo
(port as well as starboard)
should equal the weight of
the unit.
B. Total MSL for all securing
devices should equal the
weight of the cargo
C. Total MSL for all securing
devices should be at least
half the weight of the cargo
D. Put one lashing on each
corner
529. On a roro vessel in a wet
climate what can happen to
wheeled cargoes?
A. Lashings can become slack
over time and the cargo is
more likely to shift due to
the wet weather
B. The lashings will become
clean because of the water
C. Sticking of wheels to deck
plating
D. The ship's paintwork flaking
and falling onto the cargo
530. On a roro vessel, how
should caterpillar crawlers
stowed on hatch covers be
secured?
A. By means of wire ropes or
DPKP
chains secured to the hatch
covers and to the main deck
from all four sides of the
unit
B. By means of wire ropes
secured to the hatch covers
from all four sides of the
unit
C. By means of wire ropes
secured to the main deck
from all four sides of the
unit
D. By means of wire ropes
secured to the hatch
coamings
531. On a roro vessel, what
should be done first when
cargo has shifted at sea on a
roro vessel and re-lashing is
not possible?
A. Alter course and/or speed to
reduce the accelerations and
prevent further damage
B. Go Faster to outrun the
problem
C. Nothing can be done carry
on the same
D. Take action to improve
stability
532. On a roro vessel, what
should be done when
cargoes that transmit stack
loads are to be loaded onto
the vessel's decks or hatch
covers?
A. Stow the cargo on timbers of
sufficient thickness so as to
distribute the stack load
B. Weld additional steel plates
to the deck and/or hatch
covers where stack loads are
transmitted
C. Stow the full length of cargo
on any timbers reguardless
of their
D. Load the cargo under-deck
instead
533. On a roro vessel, what
should one consider prior to
loading machinery with
caterpillar crawlers on the
hatch covers?
177
 A. Maximum permissible
loading of the hatch covers
and the horizontal restraint
of hatch covers and
coamings
B. Maximum permissible
loading of the hatch covers
C. The horizontal restraint of
hatch covers
D. The horizontal restraint of
hatch coamings
534. What kind of damage is
most likely when Ro-Ro
cargoes come into contact
with fuel oil spilt/left on roro
decks ?
A. Tyre and bodywork damages
B. Tyre damage
C. Meltdown of internal plastic
areas
D. Damage to vehicles' engines
535. Where should a Ro-Ro unit
that requires protection from
heat and large temperature
variations be stowed?
A. Under-deck away from
bulkheads, fuel tanks,
heating coils and uninsulated
machinery
B. On deck away from the
accommodation
C. Anywhere under-deck
D. Anywhere along the side of
the main deck
536. At what time should
lashings be released?
A. Lashings should not be
released for unloading
before the ship is secured at
the berth, without the
Master's express permission.
B. Lashings should be released
when the ship enters
enclosed waters.
C. The crew can release
lashings prior to arrival to
avoid any delays.
D. As soon as the weather
conditions are favourable,
lashings can be released.
537. How can you arrange for
safe movement of
passengers on ro-ro decks?
A. Passengers should be
warned of vehicle
movements when entering or
crossing car or vehicle
decks. They should
preferably keep to walkways
while moving about the ship.
B. Passengers should stay in
their cars until loading is
completed. They should
keep to walkways when
leaving the car.
C. Passengers are responsible
for their own safety while
moving about ro-ro decks.
D. It is easy, only drivers are
allowed to stay in the car
during loading and
unloading.
538. Normally ventilation fans in
enclosed ro-ro spaces must
be run continuously
whenever vehicles are on
board, why?
A. An increased number of air
changes may be required
when vehicles are being
loaded or unloaded, or
where flammable gases or
liquids are stowed in closed
ro-ro spaces
B. It is better to run the fans
continuously instead of
testing the atmosphere
C. It is easier for the crew, they
don't have to think about
starting and stopping of fans
D. The manufacturer of the fans
recommends continuous
operation to reduce
maintenance cost
539. hat is the procedure if a tank
lorry containing dangerous
goods is not clearly marked?
A. Refuse to load the vehicle
B. Ask the driver to write a
declaration of contents and
load the vehicle
C. As long as the driver looks
ok, load the cargo
D. Load it, usually tank lorries
DPKP
are not clearly marked
540. What type of cargo shall
always be secured?
A. Freight vehicles carrying
dangerous goods and
adjacent vehicles should
always be secured.
B. Tank lorries should always
be secured.
C. No cargo or vehicles have to
be secured if the weather
conditions are favourable.
D. The driver must ask the crew
to secure the vehicle and its
cargo
541. When there is doubt about
the freshness of the
atmosphere in ro-ro cargo
spaces, what action should
be taken?
A. Arrangements should be
made for testing of the
atmosphere to ensure
maintenance of 21% oxygen
and a carbon monoxide
content below 50 ppm in the
atmosphere of the space
B. Open both bow- and stern
doors
C. Supply filter masks to all
crew working on ro-ro deck
D. Ro-ro decks are always
ventilated in advance of an
operation
542. Which of the following
international regulations is
normally used when
handling dangerous goods?
A. IMDG code
B. SOLAS code
C. HB code
D. KLMNG code
543. Who should operate ships'
ramps, car platforms,
retractable car decks and
similar equipment?
A. Only competent persons
authorised by a responsible
ships' officer, in accordance
with the company's work
instructions.
178
 B. Only the ships' officers.
C. Bosun and the loading
officer
D. All crew working on ro-ro
deck
544. How often shall a survey for
renewal of cargo ship safety
construction certificate be
carried out?
A. Every fifth year with a
periodical survey every 12.
Month.
B. Every year
C. Every fourth year provided
the lifesaving appliances are
inspected annually.
D. Every second year
545. If extensive repair to the
superstructure has been
carried out, it will affect the:
A. Load line certificate
B. Ship's safety certificate
C. Safety construction
certificate
D. Ship's trading certificate
546. What kind of permanent
documentation is required
for personnel assigned
specific dutys and
responsibilities related to
cargo or cargo equipment on
, for example, a liquefied
tanker?
A. A tankerman certificate
B. A tankerman certificate or
sea service for at least 6
months
C. Documentation of the
prescribed courses
D. Documentation of sea
service on tankers for at
least 6 months
547. On General Cargo ships,
cargoes such as logs, fish
meal, scrap metal and bales
of cotton commonly tend to
cause:
A. Oxygen depletion in the
cargo holds.
B. Large instantaneous fires.
C. Heavy amounts of ship's
sweat.
D. Spontaneous combustion.
548. Steel coils when loaded on a
General Cargo ship tend to
be subjected to:
A. Crushing and distortion.
B. Bending.
C. Tearing.
D. Chemical reactions between
the steel banding and outer
envelope.
549. The carriage of bagged
Ammonium Nitrate in cargo
holds of a General Cargo
vessel is associated with:
A. Risk of explosion
B. Spontaneous combustion
C. Corrosion of steelwork
D. Build up of carbon dioxide
gas
550. The carriage of logs on
General Cargo vessels tends
to cause:
A. Oxygen depletion in the
cargo holds.
B. Increased levels of oxygen
in the cargo holds.
C. Moisture absorption in the
cargo holds.
D. Spontaneous combustion.
551. When hot rolled steel coils
are loaded on General Cargo
ships, it may be correct to
state that:
A. They must not be exposed to
salt water contamination.
B. They can be loaded in heavy
rain.
C. They must always be
shipped in stainless steel
envelopes.
D. They must always be loaded
wrapped in water-proof
plastic sheet.
552. A five yearly thorough
survey of cargo gear on a
General Cargo vessel should
be carried out by:
A. A classification society
surveyor.
B. The master. DPKP
C. A deck officer designated by
the master.
D. A marine surveyor
appointed by the company.
553. During a pre-loading survey
on board a General Cargo
ship, the most efficient
method of testing the
weather tightness of the
hatch covers is considered to
be:
A. Ultra sonic test.
B. Chalk test.
C. Visual inspection.
D. Hose test.
554. A General Cargo vessel has
a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift
derrick and a load of 48
tonnes is to be loaded. The
lifting gear of slings and
spreader bar weighs 4
tonnes. In this case, it would
be correct to state that:
A. The load cannot be loaded
because the combined
weight of the load and the
lifting gear will exceed the
SWL by two tonnes.
B. The load can be loaded
because the load itself is less
than the SWL of the derrick.
C. The load can be loaded
because the SWL can
sometimes be exceeded by
small amounts in cargo
operations, since the
Breaking Load of the slings
is much higher.
D. The load cannot be loaded
because the combined
weight of the load and the
lifting gear must be at least
10% less than the SWL of
the derrick.
555. During cargo watch on a
General Cargo ship, if the
OOW informs you that the
condition of the discharge
equipment such as slings
and shackles being used by
the stevedores is unsuitable
179
 for use, you should: General Cargo vessel is: DPKP
C. Anywhere under-deck
A. Inform stevedores of A. To prevent sparks entering D. Anywhere along the side of
concern and protest by letter. the cargo hold. the main deck
B. Continue discharge as B. To prevent the ventilator
planned and inform fans from damage.
Designated Person C. To prevent moisture from
Ashore(DPA). entering the hold.
C. Refuse to discharge and D. To act as a strength member
inform the local agents. inside the ventilation shaft.
D. Provide ships equipment to
discharge. 560. The ship’s lifting plant must
be proof load tested and all
556. Information about the parts thoroughly examined
maximum point loading in at intervals not exceeding:
cargo holds and on decks of A. 5 years
a General Cargo Vessel may B. 3 years
be obtained from: C. 1 year
A. Ships Capacity plan. D. 6 months
B. General Arrangement plan.
C. Docking plan. 561. When general cargo is
D. Planned maintenance damaged during heavy
schedules. weather on a General Cargo
vessel, it must be ensured
557. On a general cargo ship, that the damage is inspected
operating the heavy lift by the:
derricks with the boom close A. Surveyor representing the
to horizontal could result in: vessel's P. & I. Club.
A. Excessive stresses acting on B. Class surveyor.
parts of the derrick system. C. Surveyor representing the
B. The operator having a vessel's hull & machinery
restricted view of the lifting underwriters.
operation. D. Surveyor representing the
C. Sudden loss of stability of consignee.
the vessel.
D. Damage to the cargo by ship 562. What kind of damage is
structures. most likely when Ro-Ro
cargoes come into contact
558. On a General Cargo ship, with fuel oil spilt/left on roro
the most likely cause of a decks ?
hatch cover hydraulic A. Tyre and bodywork damages
system to deteriorate would B. Tyre damage
be: C. Meltdown of internal plastic
A. Due to dust and cargo areas
particles lodged around the D. Damage to vehicles' engines
piston seals.
B. Due to repeated hatch cover 563. Where should a Ro-Ro unit
operations. that requires protection from
C. Due to hatch cover heat and large temperature
operations in high summer variations be stowed?
temperatures. A. Under-deck away from
D. Due to ice accretion on bulkheads, fuel tanks,
piston jackets. heating coils and uninsulated
machinery
559. The main purpose of a hatch B. On deck away from the
cover ventilator grill on a accommodation

180

6. Plan And Ensure Safe Loading, Stowage, Securing, Care During Voyage And Unloading Of Cargoes.
564. bulk cargo is loaded and the
cargo stow has been left
with an excessive peak
height; what could be the
result of this situation?
A. Excessive stresses on tank
top
B. Damage to hatch covers
C. Excessive stresses on
transverse bulkheads
D. Excessive cargo sweat
565. A bulk cargo vessel is found
to be 4.0 centimetres over
her maximum loadline draft
after loading; what should
be the actions of the master?
A. Order the pumping out of
fresh water or ballast until
the maximum allowed
loadline is achieved.
B. Record a lower draught and
sail
C. Inform the port authorities
and sail
D. There is not a problem as
over loading is permitted
566. A bulk carrier is to carry a
full deck cargo of packaged
timber; to what regulations
must the vessel comply?
A. IMO Code of Practice for
the carriage of Timber Deck
cargoes
B. International Code for the
carriage of Dangerous
Goods
C. Grain Regulations
D. Marine Pollution
Regulations
567. During a pre-loading survey
prior to loading grain on a
Bulk Carrier, very small
amount of the previous grain
cargo is found in a cargo
hold; what is the
significance of this
situation?
A. The vessel may fail the pre-
load survey and be declared
off-hire
B. The affected cargo hold
should be left empty
C. The cargo hold can be
cleaned while other holds
are loaded
D. The remaining cargo from
the previous voyage can be
ignored
568. ow should mild steel slabs
be loaded in a bulk carrier?
A. Interlocked across the entire
cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes
athwartships
B. Interlocked up to the hopper
tank plating with the
longitudinal axes
athwartships
C. Interlocked across the entire
cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes fore and
aft
D. Interlocked up to the hopper
tank plating with the
longitudinal axes fore and
aft
569. What are the advantages of
ballasting double bottom
ballast tanks by gravity
filling on a Bulk Carrier?
A. There is minimum pressure
head on the tank top and
pumps are not required
B. Ballasting is done more
quickly
C. Free surface effect is
eliminated
D. Ballasting can be done
without any supervision
570. What could happen if a bulk
vessel failed to display
placards notifying the crew
of the disposal of garbage
within and outside Special
Areas?
A. The vessel could be detained
by port state control
authorities
B. The vessel could be detained
DPKP
by its flag Administration
C. The classification society
concerned could suspend the
vessel's International Oil
Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
Certificate
D. The ship owner could be
penalized by the P. & I.
Club concerned
571. What governs the disposal
of dry bulk cargo residues at
sea?
A. MARPOL regulations
B. SOLAS 74/88 regulations
C. Convention on the
Prevention of Marine
Pollution by Dumping of
Wastes and Other Matter
D. The Code of Safe Practice
for Solid Bulk Cargoes
572. What is essential to ensure
that efficient stripping of
ballast tanks on a Bulk
Carrier can be achieved?
A. A good stern trim is
maintained during de-
ballasting operations
B. A trim by the bow is
required
C. The vessel must be
maintained at an even keel
D. The trim of the vessel is not
important
573. What is the possible concern
if fuel tanks on a Bulk
Carrier, which are close to
cargo spaces containing
grain, are excessively
heated?
A. The grain cargo may be
heated and damaged
B. The cargo may liquefy
C. The grain cargo may
produce methane gas
D. No damage should occur
574. What is the purpose of a
draught survey before and
after loading on a Bulk
Carrier?
306
 A. To ascertain the actual
weight of cargo loaded
B. The calculate the stability of
the vessel
C. To calculate the deadweight
of the vessel
D. To calculate light
displacement of the vessel
575. What measures should be
taken in order to avoid
flammable gases forming on
top of coal cargoes on a
Bulk Carrier?
A. Ventilation to be carried out
as indicated in the IMO solid
Bulk Cargo Code
B. Ventilation to be
continuous?
C. Cargo not to be ventilated?
D. Cargo to be ventilated by
opening hatch covers at sea?
576. What must be ensured, prior
to receiving a bulk cargo of
iron ore on a Bulk Carrier?
A. Cargo hold bilge suctions
must be satisfactorily tested
B. Cargo hold paintwork must
be intact
C. Cargo hold ventilation
systems must be
satisfactorily tested
D. Cargo hold tank tops must
be pressure-tested
577. What publication must be
carried on a vessel carrying
dry bulk cargoes?
A. IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code
or IMO Solid Bulk?
B. International Tankers and
Terminal Code?
C. Classification Society Grain
Rules?
D. Charters' Solid Bulk Cargoes
Code?
578. When considering how to
deal with cargo residues
during hatch cleaning at sea
on a Bulk Carrier, what is
the most careful
consideration?
A. Consult MARPOL
handbook and the vessels
Safety Management System
(SMS) for guidance
B. There are no restrictions on
discharge of cargo residues
to sea
C. Follow actions of previous
crews
D. Check procedures and
Arrangements manual
579. Which of these covers the
rules and regulations for
General Average on a Bulk
Carrier?
A. The York Antwerp rules
B. The Hague rules
C. The Hague Visby rules
D. The Hamburg rules
580. Which special regulations
cover transportation of grain
on a Bulk Carrier?
A. IMO Grain Rules?
B. Classification Society
Rules?
C. Statutory Regulations?
D. Port State Regulations?
581. Which special regulations
cover transportation of solid
Bulk cargoes?
A. IMO Bulk Cargoes Code
(BC) and the IMO
International Maritime Solid
Bulk Cargo Code( IMSBC)
B. The cargo securing manual
C. The timber deck cargo code
published by IMO
D. Classification Society Rules
582. Why do structural steel
products often shift or
collapse in a bulk carrier's
cargo holds?
A. Because the irregular shape
of the cargo holds results in
void spaces
B. Because of inadequate
dunnage placed over the
tank top
C. Because of using
inadequately sized lasing
wires
D. Because of dunnage,
DPKP
provided at every tier of the
cargo, not having been
aligned
583. Why is air draught an
important consideration
when loading bulk cargoes
on Bulk Carriers?
A. Because of movement of the
bulk cargo loader or
unloaders
B. Because of variations in
under keel clearances whilst
alongside the berth
C. Because of the vessel's
movement whilst berthing or
unberthing
D. Because the vessel may pass
under a bridge(s) whilst
approaching or leaving the
berth
584. A container vessel has lost
several dangerous goods
containers overboard. The
master must report this loss
of container incident to:
A. The nearest Coastal state.
B. The Flag state.
C. The ship owner.
D. Vessels in the immediate
vicinity.
585. A heavy piece of machinery
is loaded on deck of a
container vessel, stowed
across several flat rack
containers. The most
appropriate method for
lashing such cargo would be
by:
A. Taking all lashings to the
flat-rack lashing points.
B. Taking all lashings to the
hatch top.
C. Taking all lashings to the
hatch coamings, pillars and
lashing bridges.
D. Taking some of the lashings
to flat-racks and rest to hatch
tops.
586. Besides normal loads, the
lashings of the containers
stowed at the outboard part
168
 of the deck stow are
additionally subjected to:
A. The effect of wind on the
containers.
B. Transverse accelerating load
condition, leading to loss of
GM.
C. The effect of green seas
breaking over the containers.
D. Lack of support from
adjacent columns of
containers.
587. Best location to stow
containers loaded with
Calcium Hypochlorite
would be:
A. On deck, away from sources
of heat.
B. Away from reefer units,
below deck.
C. Under deck, away from
sources of heat.
D. Abaft the accommodation.
588. Bulk liquid cargoes carried
in flexi-tank containers are
considered dangerous:
A. When the associated
material safety data sheet
shows a constituent(s) listed
in the IMDG Code.
B. When declared as a non-
hazardous chemical.
C. When declared as bulk
liquid foodstuff.
D. When the shipper instructs
that the container be carried
on-deck only.
589. During a loaded winter
passage across the North
Atlantic, the master of a
container vessel would be
most concerned with:
A. The added weight of icing
on container stacks, leading
to loss of GM.
B. The presence of icebergs
leading to hazard of
navigation.
C. Temperature differential
between air and seawater,
leading to shell plating
damage.
D. High wind and waves
leading to speed reduction
and high fuel consumption.
590. During a loaded winter
passage across the North
Atlantic, the master of a
container vessel would be
most concerned with:
A. Metacentric height of the
vessel.
B. Current wave conditions.
C. Transverse distribution of
container stack weights.
D. Hull form of the vessel.
591. For guidance on lashing
arrangement of containers
on-board the vessel, the
most important document to
refer is:
A. The Cargo Securing Manual.
B. The Code for the Safe
Practice for Cargo Stowage
and Securing.
C. The company's ISM
handbook.
D. The Stability Manual.
592. On multi-purpose vessels,
responsibility for the
stowage and securing of
containers is:
A. Determined by the clauses
of the charter-party.
B. Provided as per advice from
the Supercargo.
C. Always upon the attending
cargo surveyor.
D. Always upon the charterer
of the vessel.
593. The Code of Safe Practice
for Cargo Stowage and
Securing was prepared to
give guidance for:
A. Preparation and content of
the Cargo Securing Manual.
B. Securing of deck cargoes.
C. Securing of cargoes in
hazardous ocean areas.
D. Port State Control Officers
when carrying out ship
inspections. DPKP
594. The dangers associated with
carriage of empty tank
containers is that:
A. They may contain
flammable cargo residue.
B. They may not be declared as
being empty.
C. They could explode if their
vents are closed.
D. They are prone to collapse.
595. The direction of wave
encounter that is most likely
to cause a parametric roll
condition on large container
ships is:
A. Head seas.
B. Beam seas.
C. Just forward of the beam
seas.
D. Following or quartering
seas.
596. The most appropriate
measure to reduce the build-
up of ice on containers
during a sea passage is to:
A. Reduce speed, whilst
maintaining course.
B. Increase speed, whilst
maintaining course.
C. Have the crew remove the
ice.
D. Heave to and wait for
ambient temperature to rise
to safe levels.
597. The most appropriate
method for adjusting the
trim on a container vessel
would be:
A. By internal shift of ballast.
B. By internal shift of cargo
containers.
C. By internal shift of fuel oil.
D. By jettisoning of containers.
598. What is the master's position
if he is asked to load a
container that is incorrectly
manifested, but which is
believed to contain
dangerous goods, about
169
 which insufficient
information is supplied?
A. He has the authority to
refuse it.
B. He must load it, but
immediately advise his
operations department and
request full information.
C. If it it approved by the
operations department, he
can assume all safety checks
have been carried out and
should load it.
D. He must load it, but ensure it
is placed in a safe loaction,
to which there is immediate
access in the event of an
emergency.
599. When taking action to deal
with under-deck cargo
spillage on container ships,
reference must be made to:
A. The ems Guide.
B. The ISPS Code.
C. SOLAS Chapter V – Safety
of navigtaion.
D. The ship's Contingency plan.
600. With regards to carriage of
Calcium Hypochlorite in
containers, as per IMDG
Code it is not allowed to:
A. Pack and ship the cargo in
bags.
B. Ship in open top half
containers on deck.
C. Ship in Intermediate Bulk
Containers (ibcs).
D. Carry the cargo transport
units under deck.
601. A chemical tanker may be
granted, by the Government
of the receiving Party, an
exemption from carrying out
a mandatory prewash
provided that the:
A. Unloaded tank is to be
reloaded with the same
substance or another
substance compatible with
the previous one and that the
tank will not be washed or
ballasted prior to loading.
B. Unloaded tank will be
washed outside a special
area.
C. Vessel temporarily has
defective tank cleaning
equipment and the prewash
will be carried out at the first
available opportunity after
repairs have been completed
and the tank will not be
loaded or ballasted before
that time.
D. Vessel's stripping system
can reduce the residues to
less than 10 litres in the
relevant tank and its
associated piping.
602. A tank which contained a
category "X" product must
undergo a prewash before
leaving port in compliance
with MARPOL. The
resulting residues shall be
discharged to a reception
facility until the
concentration of the
substance in the effluent, as
indicated by analysis of
samples of the effluent taken
by the authorized surveyor
has reached a level of:
A. 0.1% by weight.
B. 0.1% by volume.
C. 0.2% by weight.
D. 0.3% by volume.
603. As per MARPOL, for
control of discharge of
Noxious Liquid Substances,
the area(s) designated as
“Special Areas” are:
A. The Antarctic.
B. The Mediterranean Sea,
Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red
Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulf of
Aden, Oman Area of the
Arabian Sea, Southern South
African Waters, Antarctic
and North-West European
Waters.
C. The Baltic Sea, the Black
Sea and Antarctic.
D. The Wider Caribbean
Region including the Gulf of
DPKP
Mexico and the Caribbean
Sea, Southern South African
Waters and North-West
European Waters.
604. Ballast introduced into a
cargo tank on a chemical
tanker which has been
washed to such an extent
that the ballast contains less
than 1 ppm of the substance
previously carried may be
discharged into the sea
without regard to the
discharge rate, ship's speed
and discharge outlet
location, but under certain
conditions, which require:
A. That the vessel is not less
than 12 miles from the
nearest land and is in water
that is not less than 25
metres deep.
B. That the vessel is not less
than 50 miles from the
nearest land and is
proceeding on route.
C. That the discharge is passed
through the Oil Discharge
Monitoring Equipment and a
visual watch is maintained
on the vessel's wake.
D. Provided the ship is
underway and a sample of
the ballast water has been
drawn from the tank and is
stored on board, there are no
additional conditions to be
imposed on such a
discharge.
605. Cargo residues of certain
chemical substances are
permitted to be removed by
ventilation. This may be
carried out provided that:
A. The cargo discharged has a
vapour pressure greater than
5 kpa at 20 degrees Celsius.
B. The cargo discharged has a
vapour expansion coefficient
of at least 1.025.
C. The vessel's ventilation
system is capable of
delivering a minimum of 20
170
 changes of atmosphere per
hour within the
compartment.
D. The volume of the tank does
not exceed 1750 cubic
metres, the maximum
remaining residues are less
than 75 litres and ventilation
is additionally possible
directly down the
pumpstack.
606. Definitive information on
whether a particular cargo is
classified as a “Noxious
Liquid Substance” (other
than products provisionally
assessed) can be obtained
from:
A. The pollution category
column of chapters 17 or 18
of the International Bulk
Chemical Code (IBC Code).
B. The pollution category of
chapter 17 (only) of the
International Bulk Chemical
Code (IBC Code).
C. The product groups within
the list of cargoes contained
in the Chemical Data Guide
for Bulk Shipment by Water.
D. The Procedures and
Arrangements Manual.
607. If a cargo tank on a chemical
tanker is to be cleaned by
recirculation with a low
flash or static accumulator
product:
A. The tank must be inerted to
less than 8% oxygen
content.
B. The product must be
allowed settling time within
the tank before recirculation
is commenced.
C. All lids and other
penetrations must be
securely closed before
recirculation is commenced.
D. The tank must already have
been cleaned to Water White
Standard to ensure no
hazardous reaction with
cargo residues.
608. In respect of a chemical
tanker, carrying category
“X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious
Liquid Substances, the term
“Clean Ballast” as defined in
the IBC Code means:
A. Ballast water carried in a
tank which, since it was last
used to carry a cargo
containing a substance in
category "X","Y" or "Z", has
been thoroughly cleaned and
the residues resulting there
from have been discharged
and the tank emptied in
accordance with the
appropriate requirements of
Annex II.
B. Ballast water introduced into
a tank permanently allocated
to the carriage of ballast or
cargoes other than oil or
Noxious Liquid Substances
as variously defined in the
Annexes of the MARPOL
Convention and which is
completely separate from the
cargo and oil fuel systems.
C. Ballast water carried in a
tank which has been
previously washed in
accordance with the
requirements of the
Procedures and
Arrangements Manual.
D. Ballast water that is free of
all cargo residues and slops.
609. In the event of an accidental
or other exceptional
discharge into the sea of a
Noxious Liquid Substance
or mixture containing such a
substance, an entry shall be
made in the Cargo record
Book, which shall include:
A. Time of occurrence
Approximate quantity,
substance(s) and
Category(ies) Circumstances
of discharge or escape and
general remarks.
B. Date of occurrence Position
(latitude and longitude)
Estimated quantity DPKP and
category(ies) Extract from
Master's Log Book detailing
the incident.
C. Position at start and stop of
accidental discharge Time at
start and stop of accidental
discharge Reason for
accidental discharge
D. Name of Person in Charge
of operation at time of
accidental discharge. Date
and Time of occurrence
Name of Responsible
Person, and Master of the
vessel Statement of
Responsible Person, and
Master of the vessel
Approximate quantity and
category of product
discharged Identity of
nearest sovereign State and
Authority of that State
contacted with applicable
report reference.
610. The ‘dew point’ of a liquid
chemical can be defined as:
A. The temperature at which a
gas is saturated with respect
to a condensable component,
as in operational terms is
seen at the point when air is
saturated with moisture.
B. The temperature at which a
condensable component is
saturated with respect to a
gas, as in operational terms
is seen at the point when
moisture no longer
detectable in air.
C. The temperature at which
dry-ice melts in Acetone.
D. The temperature at which a
saturated gas exhibits
condensation.
611. The carriage of a new
Noxious Liquid Substance
not yet listed in the IBC
Code may be considered
possible, provided it is
achieved through a ‘tri-
partite” agreement between:
A. The Port State of the Shipper
171
 / the Flag State of the
Carrier / the Port State of the
Receiver.
B. The Shipper / the Receiver /
the Operator or Charterer.
C. The IMO / the Port State of
the Shipper / the Port State
of the Receiver.
D. The Flag State of the
Shipper / the Flag State of
the Charterer / the Flag State
of the Receiver.
612. The chemical term for a
substance used as an
additive to start a chemical
reaction and speed up the
cleaning of a cargo tank on a
chemical tanker is:
A. Catalyst.
B. Reactant.
C. Accelerant.
D. Reagent.
613. The document which
confirms whether a chemical
tanker is authorised to carry
a particular Noxious Liquid
Substance, is called:
A. The (International)
Certificate of Fitness.
B. The IBC Code.
C. MARPOL.
D. The International Pollution
Prevention Certificate for
the Carriage of Noxious
Liquid Substances in Bulk.
614. The tank cleaning
requirements for a Category
“X” substance on a chemical
tanker constructed after 01
January 2007, require the
vessel to carry out:
A. Prewash / strip to 75 litres /
12 miles from land / 25
metres of water / minimum 7
knots, proceeding en route /
discharge below waterline.
B. Prewash / strip to 100 litres /
12 miles from land / 25
metres of water / minimum 7
knots, proceeding en route /
discharge below waterline.
C. Prewash for solidifying or
high viscosity substances /
strip to 75 litres / 12 miles
from land / 25 metres of
water / minimum 7 knots,
proceeding en route /
discharge below waterline.
D. Strip to 75 litres / 12 miles
from land / 25 metres of
water / minimum 7 knots,
proceeding en route /
discharge below waterline.
615. Vegetable Oils as per
MARPOL are classified
under:
A. Category "Y".
B. Category "Z".
C. Category "OS" - other
substances.
D. Category "A".
616. What is the name given to
the risk assessment
programme developed by
OCIMF, under which
tankers are inspected and the
results made available to
potential charterers through
a database of records?
A. The Ship Inspection Report
Programme (SIRE).
B. The Chemical Distribution
Institute (CDI)
Inpsectionprogramme.
C. The Enhanced Survey
Programme.
D. The Tanker Inspection and
Reporting System (TIRS).
617. When cleaning a cargo tank
after carriage and discharge
of Sulphuric Acid, it is
important to ensure that:
A. Once cleaning commences,
large quantities of washing
water can be delivered as
quickly as possible, so that
the acid is quickly diluted.
B. Once cleaning commences,
washing water must be
introduced in a controlled
manner, allowing time for
the acid and water to mix
slowly and thoroughly
before the rest of the tank
surfaces are flushed.DPKP
C. A mixture of hot fresh water
and Sodium Hydroxide
solution (50/50) is prepared
beforehand and then
circulated around the tank,
rapidly neutralising any
remaining acid.
D. Any acid remaining in the
sump should first be ejected
and the tank ventilated for a
minimum of 30 minutes
before the introduction of
any water, ensuring that
there are insufficient acid
residues to create any
dangerous reaction.
618. When small amounts of
cleaning additives (detergent
products) are added to water
in order to facilitate the
washing of tanks which
previously contained liquid
chemicals, must be ensured
that:
A. No additives containing
Pollution Category "X"
components shall be used,
except those components
that are readily
biodegradable and present in
a total concentration of less
than 10% of the cleaning
additive. No restrictions
additional to those
applicable to the tank due to
the previous cargo shall
apply.
B. The discharge shall be
governed by the provisions
of Annex I or II, which
would apply to the additive
had it been carried as cargo.
Tank washing procedures
involving the use of such
additives shall be set out in
the Procedures and
Arrangements Manual and
approved by the vessel's
Flag State Administration.
C. No conditions apply
provided not more than 200
litres per 1000 cubic metres
of tank volume is used in
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 any one washing operation.
D. If the additive contains
Pollution category "X"
products and more than 200
litres is used in the washing
operation for a single cargo
tank, then a prewash to
shore must be carried out
619. You are to load a number of
chemical cargoes in
Rotterdam in December, for
eventual discharge in
Australia, after the ship has
called at Singapore and
Malaysia. None of the
cargoes on board at any
stage of the voyage require
heating. None of the tanks
to be discharged in
Singapore and Malysia will
require hot washing after
discharge. When
determining the filling limits
of the tanks containing the
Australian cargoes, you will
need to consider that:
A. The maximum anticipated
temperature that the cargoes
will reach bearing in mind
ambient air and sea
temperatures to be
encountered on passage, so
that any expansion does not
result in overflow.
B. The accuracy of the tank
level monitoring systems in
potentially sub-zero
conditions.
C. The anticipated cargo loss
due to the projected
evaporation rates as the
vessel passes through the
tropics.
D. The potential damage to
tank coating in the upper
areas of any tanks which are
not fully loaded due to the
duration of exposure to
cargo vapour.
620. A greater number of
lashings may generally be
required to secure cargo
forward on deck compared
with amidships under deck
of a General Cargo Vessel,
because:
A. The dynamic stresses on the
lashing are much greater in
the forward areas of the
vessel.
B. The forward of the vessel is
subjected to more rolling
conditions.
C. Heavier cargo is generally
stowed forward.
D. The roll period is greater
forward.
621. A loaded General Cargo
ship is bound from Brazil to
Rotterdam during winter
time. During the voyage,
ventilation in cargo spaces
should:
A. Be carried out during
voyage, as the vessel is
moving from warm to colder
areas.
B. Should not be carried out as
the vessel is moving from a
cold area to a warmer area.
C. Should occasionally be
carried out as the vessel is
moving from a cold area to a
warmer area.
D. Would only be carried out
once, just before discharging
the cargo.
622. Additional lashings on
general cargoes must be
considered when:
A. Heavy weather is anticipated
for the planned voyage.
B. Passing through the Summer
Zone in winter months.
C. Passing through the Tropical
Zone in winter months.
D. After the vessel has started
to encounter heavy weather
conditions.
623. For a General Cargo ship not
specifically designed for
carriage of containers, the
maximum stowage height
for containers on deck is
limited to:
A. One container high.DPKP
B. Two container high.
C. The height of the
wheelhouse.
D. Three container high.
624. For a General Cargo ship to
load Dangerous Goods in
packaged form, it must have
on board a:
A. Document of Compliance
for carriage of dangerous
goods.
B. SOLAS Safety Equipment
Certificate.
C. Document of Authorization
for the carriage of bulk
IMDG Cargoes.
D. Safety Construction
Certificate for carriage of
IMDG cargoes in packaged
form.
625. For special category spaces
on board general cargo ship,
the minimum required air
changes per hour should be:
A. 6
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
626. Information on the forces
that may cause cargo
shifting on a general cargo
vessel may be available by
referring to:
A. The Cargo Stowage and
Security (CSS) Code.
B. The ship's stability manual.
C. The Code of Safe Practice
for Solid Bulk Cargoes (BC
Code).
D. The Cargo Securing Manual
(CSM).
627. On a voyage from cold to
hot climate countries, the
ventilation of cargo holds of
a General cargo ship should:
A. Not be carried out at all.
B. Be carried out continuously
during the voyage.
C. Be carried out during the
173
 day time only.
D. Be carried out during the
night time only.
628. On a voyage from hot to
cold climate countries, the
ventilation of cargo holds of
a General cargo ship should:
A. Be carried out continuously
during the voyage.
B. Not be carried out at all.
C. Be carried out during the
day time only.
D. Be carried out during the
night time only.
629. The IMO Cargo Stowage
and Securing Code (CSS)
indicates in the 'Rule of
Thumb', the total strength of
the lashings on each side of
a heavy lift; what is the
stated value ?
A. The Maximum Securing
load of the lashings must
equal the weight of the cargo
unit.
B. The Maximum Securing
load of the lashings must
equal the 50% weight of the
cargo unit.
C. The Maximum Securing
load of the lashings must
equal twice the weight of the
cargo unit.
D. The Maximum Securing
load of the lashings must
equal five times the weight
of the cargo unit.
630. The minimum information
to that must be provided be
given on a dangerous goods
declaration on a General
Cargo Vessel should be:
A. IMO Class, UN Number,
Gross weight, number of
units of cargo, Proper
Shipping Name.
B. IMO Class, weight, cargo
brand name, stowage
requirement.
C. Gross and net weight,
volume of cargo, proper
shipping name.
D. UN Number, Volume of
units, stowage requirements,
weight, centre of gravity.
631. The most important
consideration when planning
the lashing system for a
particular sea route on a
General Cargo Vessel is:
A. Transverse accelerations.
B. The breaking strength of
lashing materials.
C. Encountering heavy
weather.
D. The size and weight of
general cargo items to be
loaded.
632. The segregation
requirements for Dangerous
Goods to be loaded on a
General Cargo ship may be
obtained by referring to:
A. The IMO International
Maritime Dangerous Goods
Code.
B. The IMO Bulk cargo Code.
C. The Cargo Securing manual.
D. IMO SOLAS Handbook.
633. The two main considerations
when choosing an
appropriate paint for a cargo
space of a General Cargo
vessel would be:
A. Light reflective and
compatible with edible
cargoes.
B. Corrosion resistant and heat
resistant.
C. Low odour and heat
resistant.
D. Easy to clean and dark in
colour.
634. Which of these can be
loaded in the same hold of a
General Cargo Vessel, as
steel coils?
A. Steel rebars
B. Hygroscopic cargoes
C. Chemicals
D. Fertilizers
DPKP
635. How can you best
demonstrate in an audit that
you follow company cargo
handling procedures?
A. By being able to provide
comprehensive and
verifiable documentary
records of cargo operations.
B. By requesting that an audit
takes place during cargo
operations.
C. By providing a summary of
out-turn figures for the
auditor.
D. By providing a summary of
incident and lost time
figures for the auditor that
reflects a successful and
trouble-free system on
board.
636. If all indications are that a
cargo has been received
without damages,
irregularities or short
shipment and the phrase
"apparent good order and
condition" is entered on the
Bill of Lading, what type of
Bill is this said to be?
A. A clean Bill of Lading.
B. An endorsed Bill of Lading.
C. A Bill of Lading completed
for shipment.
D. A Due Title Bill of Lading.
637. What may be issued by the
shipper to indicate that a
vessel or her operators will
not be held responsible for
any damage that may arise
from the carrier issuing a
clean Bill of Lading, even
though the Mate's receipt is
marked as "unclean", such
as may apply to atmospheric
corrosion on steel plates that
have been waiting in a port
facility for some time
awaiting shipment?
A. A Letter of Indemnity.
B. A Letter of Credit.
C. An absolution clause in the
174
 shipping documents.
D. An addendum to the Bill of
Lading.
638. What term is applied to the
compensation payment by
the charterer that is due
when a vessel is unable to
load / discharge her cargo
within the allowed and
contracted time?
A. Demurrage.
B. Deferment.
C. Discretion.
D. Contractual penalty
discount.
639. What type of Bill of Lading
covers "door to door"
shipment?
A. A Through Bill of Lading.
B. An Ocean Bill of Lading.
C. A Destination Bill of
Lading.
D. A Multi-Phase Bill of
Lading.
640. When conducting a risk
assessment for a shipboard
work activity, what are the
two elements to be
considered?
A. The potential severity of
harm and the likelihood that
harm will occur.
B. The chance of an incident
re-occuring and the potential
effects of an loss.
C. The time available to
complete the task and the
resources to hand.
D. The available manpower and
their experience in this type
of work.
641. According to SIGTTO
publications, what is a
typical accuracy for LNG
pressure measurement
equipment?
A. +/- 0,0015 bar (which will
apply within the MARVS of
the tank)
B. +/- 1,00 bar (which will
apply within the MARVS of
the tank)
C. +/- 0,50 bar (which will
apply within the MARVS of
the tank)
D. +/- 0,0005 bar (which will
apply within the MARVS of
the tank)
642. According to the IMO Gas
Codes, what is the minimum
number of "Firemen’s
outfits" required to be
carried on an LNG carrier
with a cargo capacity above
5,000 m3?
A. 5 sets
B. 4 sets
C. 2 sets
D. 3 sets
643. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can
solidify and form dry ice at
low temperatures. What is
the solidifying temperature
of CO2?
A. Approximately minus 78.5
C up and cooling down
B. Approximately minus 87.5
C carrier which of the given
C. Approximately minus 30.5
C temperature, needs to be
D. Approximately minus 60.5
C A. Never allow temperature of
644. Does MARPOL apply to
LNG carriers?
A. Yes, MARPOL applies to all
ship types..
B. No, MARPOL only applies
to oil tankers.
C. Yes, but only annex IV.
D. Yes, but only annex V.
645. Does the Oil Pollution Act,
1990 (OPA90) apply to
vessels engaged in carrying
liquefied natural gas (LNG)?
A. Yes, OPA90 applies to all
ships.
B. No, OPA90 applies only to
oil tankers.
C. Only if the vessel is carrying
HC-products.
D. OPA90 only applies to non-
American flag vessels.
646. Due to the very lowDPKP
carriage
temperatures for LNG the
thermal conductivity, k
value, is an important
property of the insulation
material used in cargo
containment systems. For a
given rate of heat leakage
across the insulation, which
of the following statements
is true?
A. The higher the k value the
thicker the insulation needs
to be.
B. The higher the k value the
thinner the insulation needs
to be.
C. The rate of heat leakage is
unaffected by the thickness
of the insulation.
D. The k value depends on the
thickness of the insulation
material.
647. During cargo tank gassing
operations on an LNG
options, regarding
observed?
the insulation to fall below
the safe minimum
temperature.
B. Always control the outlet
temperature of methane
from the vaporiser.
C. Always control the
vaporisers so that the
temperature of methane
vapour is lower than existing
tank atmosphere
temperature.
D. Always control the
temperature in the shore
supply line.
648. Having water vapour in an
LNG carriers cargo tanks
prior to loading cargo is
unacceptable due to ice
formation at low carriage
temperatures. How can
water vapour in the tank
175
 atmosphere be removed
prior to the cooling down
and loading operation?
A. By displacing the tank
atmosphere with pre-dried
inert gas.
B. By displacing the tank
atmosphere with fresh air.
C. By displacing the tank
atmosphere with warm inert
gas direct from a B. Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
combustion type inert gas
generator.
D. By displacing the tank
atmosphere with heated air.
649. What is the approximate
normal daily cargo "boil off"
rate for an LNG carrier of
125000 cubic metre cargo
capacity?
A. From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per
day of total cargo.
B. From 0,30 % to 0,35 % per
day of total cargo.
C. From 0,01 % to 0,05 % per
day of total cargo.
D. From 0,75 % to 0,80 % per
day of total cargo.
650. What is the normal
procedure for cooling down
the a cargo tank prior to
loading LNG?
A. Introducing liquid LNG into
the tank slowly through the
spray lines.
B. Introducing liquid LNG into
the bottom of the tank.
C. Introducing liquid LNG into
the tank quickly through the
liquid header.
D. Introducing liquid LNG into
the tank through a heater.
651. What is the typical accuracy
for onboard LNG
temperature measurement
systems?
A. +/- 0.2 C in the range of -
150 C / - 170 C
B. +/- 0.5 C in the range of -
150 C / - 170 C
C. +/- 1.0 C in the range of -
150 C / - 170 C
D. +/- 0.7 C in the range of -
150 C / - 170 C
652. Which of the gas groups,
identified by SIGTTO, in
'Liquid Gas Handling
Principles on Ships and in
Terminals', does LNG
belong to?
A. Saturated Hydrocarbons
C. Chemical Gases
D. Mixed Saturated and
Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
\ tanks must be cooled down
653. Which term is usually used
to describe the compressor
that collects the boil-off
from the header connected
to each cargo tank of an
LNG carrier?
A. The low-duty compressor.
B. The fuel-feed compressor.
C. The high-duty compressor.
D. The medium-duty
compressor.
654. Why is nitrogen used for the
inerting of hold spaces and
interbarrier spaces on LNG
carriers?
A. Because the carbon dioxide
in combustion generated
inert gas would freeze when
in close proximity to the
cargo.
B. Because of the high oxygen
content of combustion
generated inert gas.
C. Because of the high
temperature of combustion
generated inert gas.
D. Because of the high
humidity in combustion
generated inert gas.
655. With reference to
preparations of LNG carrier
cargo tanks for cargo
loading operations, how can
it be determined that the
cool down operation is
complete?
A. When temperature monitor,
or liquid level gauge, shows
DPKP
that liquid is forming in the
bottom of the cargo tank.
B. When the outlet temperature
from the spray header
reaches minus 10 C.
C. When the temperature at the
compressor vapour manifold
reaches minus 25 C.
D. When vapour temperature
from the HD compressor
reaches minus 40 C.
656. Before loading a refrigerated
cargo of LPG the cargo
slowly in order to minimise
thermal stresses for the
vessel and the cargo
containment system. What is
the generally accepted
cooling down rate?
A. 10 degrees C per hour.
B. 5 degrees C per hour.
C. 15 degrees C per hour.
D. 20 degrees C per hour.
657. Cargo tanks on an LPG
carrier can be inerted using
either inert gas from a
combustion type inert gas
generator or by using
nitrogen. Is gassing up of an
inerted cargo tank with LPG
allowed when the tank
contains combustion
generated inert gas?
A. Yes, but only if the
atmosphere has an oxygen
content of less than 5% by
volume and the charter
allows it.
B. Yes, it is always allowed if
the atmosphere of the
inerted tank has an oxygen
content of less than 5% by
volume.
C. Yes, but only if the
atmosphere has an oxygen
content of less than 1% by
volume and the charter
allows it.
D. No, it is never allowed; the
inert gas must first be
replaced by oxygen free
nitrogen.
176

658. During pre-entry checks of
an enclosed space onboard a
liquefied gas carrier it is
necessary to check the
condition of the atmosphere.
If the gas detection
equipment to be used for the
checks included a catalytic
type combustible gas
indicator, an absorption type
toxic gas detector and a
paramagnetic type oxygen
analyser, which would be
the preferred order for the
checks?
A. Oxygen content followed by
hydrocarbon gas content and
then toxic gas content.
B. Hydrocarbon gas content
followed by oxygen content
and then toxic gas content.
C. Hydrocarbon gas content
followed by toxic gas
content and then oxygen
content.
D. Toxic gas content followed
by hydrocarbon gas content
and then oxygen content
659. IMO publishes a number of
Codes relating to the
carriage of bulk cargoes
including the IGC Code for
liquefied gas carriers. What
is the main purpose of the
IGC Code?
A. To provide an international
standard for the construction
of, and equipment for, gas
carriers to ensure the safe
carriage of liquefied gases in
bulk.
B. To provide national
standards for the
construction of, and the
equipment for, gas carriers
to ensure the safe carriage of
liquefyed gases in bulk
C. To provide international
standards regarding the
maximum vessel size and
the minimum manning
levels for gas carriers to
ensure safe carriage of
liquefied gases in bulk.
D. To provide guidance to the
oil and gas companies as to
which gases can be carried
in liquefied state.
660. Inhibitors are often added to
liquefied gas cargoes prior
to loading to prevent or slow
down polymerisation. An
inhibitor information form
or certificate must be
provided by the cargo
shipper to the vessel. What
sort of information must this
certificate contain about the
inhibitor in addition to the
technical name and quantity
added?
A. Expected lifetime of the
inhibitor, temperature
limitations affecting the
lifetime of the inhibitor and
the date the inhibitor was
added.
B. Expected lifetime of the
inhibitor, name of person
who added the inhibitor and
the temperature limitations
affecting the lifetime of the
inhibitor
C. Date the inhibitor was
added, the name of the
person that added it and
expiry date of the inhibitor
D. Expected lifetime of the
inhibitor and the date the
cargo tanks were inhibited
661. Is it permitted to load fully
refrigerated propane directly
onto a fully pressurised LPG
carrier without additional
conditioning of the cargo or
cargo spaces?
A. Only if the cargo
containment system is
designed for temperatures of
minus 48 degrees C or less.
B. Only if the vessel is
equipped with cargo cooling
plant
C. Only if the loading rate is
kept below 100m3/h.
D. Fully refrigerated propane
DPKPonto
can be loaded directly
this type of vessel under any
circumstances
662. It is necessary for personnel
to enter a liquefied gas
carrier cargo tank to clean
up some dust and other loose
debris. What are the permit
requirements before entry
into the tank is allowed?
A. Both Enclosed Space Entry
and Cold Work Permits are
required.
B. Both Enclosed Space Entry
and Hot Work Permits are
required.
C. Both Enclosed Space Entry
Permit and a Gas Free
Certificate are required.
D. Only an Enclosed Space
Entry Permit is required.
663. Liquefied gas cargoes will
expand as the temperature
increases and therefore tanks
are not allowed to be filled
to 100%. What is the
maximum allowable filling
limit for the cargo tanks on
liquefied gas carriers?
A. aximum allowable filling
limit on cargo tanks is 98%
on gas carriers.
B. Maximum allowable filling
limit on cargo tanks is 95%
on gas carriers.
C. Maximum allowable filling
limit on cargo tanks is 92%
on gas carriers.
D. Maximum allowable filling
limit on cargo tanks is 90%
on gas carriers.
664. What is the full title of the
IMO code which applies to
all gas carriers built after
1986?
A. The International Code for
the Construction and
Equipment of Ships
Carrying Liquefied Gases in
Bulk (the IGC Code)
B. The International Code for
Ships Carrying Liquefied
177
 Gases in Bulk (the IGC
code)
C. The Code for Existing Ships
Carrying Liquefied Gases in
Bulk (the Existing Ship
Code)
D. The Code for the
Construction and Equipment
of Ships Carrying Liquefied
Gases in Bulk (the GC
Code)
665. What is the main reason for
adding inhibitors to some
liquefied gas cargoes such as
ethylene oxide and vinyl
chloride?
A. To prevent polymerisation
of the cargo.
B. To reduce the boil-off rate of
the cargo.
C. To reduce the toxicity of the
cargo.
D. To control the temperature
of the cargo.
666. What is the requirement for
the atmosphere in the hold
spaces surrounding cargo
tanks that require a D. Less than 5 parts per
secondary barrier when
carrying LPG cargoes?
A. The hold spaces must be
kept in an inert condition
whenever there is cargo in
the cargo tanks.
B. The hold spaces must be
filled with clean dry air at all
times.
C. The hold spaces must be
filled with cargo vapour
whenever there is cargo in
the cargo tanks.
D. The hold spaces must be
kept in an inert condition at
all times even when the
cargo tanks are empty.
667. What method should be used
to discharge a semi-
pressurised gas carrier if
there is a break down on the
cargo discharge pump?
A. y pressurising the vapour
space of the cargo tank using
a vaporiser and cargo
compressor to force liquid
cargo ashore.
B. By using a portable
submersible pump to empty
the affected tank
C. By using the cargo
compressor to pump the
cargo vapour ashore as it
boils off.
D. By using the inert gas
system to pressurise the
cargo tank and force the
liquid cargo ashore.
668. When a ship is switching
from ammonia to LPG
virtually all traces of
vapours must be removed.
What is the allowable
concentration of ammonia
vapour in the tank prior to
loading the next cargo?
A. Less than 20 parts per
million.
B. Less than 50 parts per
million.
C. Less than 100 parts per
million.
million.
669. Which certificate is issued to
LPG and other liquefied gas
carriers in accordance with
the IGC code?
A. The Certificate of Fitness is
issued in accordance with
the IGC code
B. The Cargo Ship Safety
Equipment Certificate is
issued in accordance with
the IGC code.
C. The Cargo Ship Safety
Construction Certificate is
issued in accordance with
the IGC code
D. The International Load Line
Certificate is issued in
accordance with the IGC
code
670. With some liquefied gas
cargoes special conditions
must be met before they can
DPKPtank.
be loaded into a cargo
Is it permitted load ammonia
into an inerted cargo tank?
A. Only if the tank is inerted
with nitrogen.
B. Only if the tank is inerted
with combustion generated
inert gas.
C. Ammonia cannot be loaded
into any tank with an inert
atmosphere.
D. Ammonia can be loaded into
any inerted tank containing
either inert gas or nitrogen.
671. A VLCC is to anchor in a
depth of 80 meters in open
water with moderate swell
running. How many
shackles of anchor chain
should be used to aid a safe
anchorage?
A. 11 shackles
B. 6 shackles
C. 8 shackles
D. 3 shackles
672. After the last entry being
made, the retention period of
an oil record book on board
must be:
A. Not less than 3 years after
the date of the last entry.
B. Not less than 5 years after
the date of the last entry.
C. Exactly 3 years from the
date of the first entry.
D. Until the next port where it
may be handed over to the
Port State Authority.
673. Any person who can assume
overall charge of the ships
crude oil washing operation
must have:
A. At least 12 months
appropriate experience on
oil tankers, have participated
in at least two COW
programmes and be fully
knowledgeable of the
contents of the Operations
and Equipment Manual.
B. At least three months
experience on tankers, have
178
 participated in at least six use them. DPKP
washing operations and be 676. As per requirements of the B. Available on board, legibly
aware of the procedures International Convention for printed in the English and
associated with the the Control and Spanish languages and
completion of the Oil Management of Ship's permanently posted in the
Record Book. Ballast Water and wheelhouse of the vessel.
C. At least six months Sediments, oil tankers must C. Available on board, in hard-
experience on tankers, be have a plan on board to copy or electronic format, to
knowledgeable of the achieve: the OOW in a language with
cleaning procedures and A. 95% volumetric exchange of which he is familiar.
equipment applicable on the ballast taken on-board at D. Available to the crew
board the vessel and be able the previous port. members, upon request from
to fully demonstrate B. 100% volumetric exchange the terminal representatives .
understanding of the of the ballast taken on-board
operation of the ODME at the previous port. 679. Crude Oils required by
equipment. C. 25% volumetric exchange of MARPOL to be specifically
D. At least 12 months the ballast taken on-board at listed in a tanker's Crude Oil
equivalent experience on a the previous port. Washing manual as
tanker of any type, provided D. 80% volumetric exchange of unsuitable for COW are:
at least three washing the ballast taken on-board at A. Those with high pour point
operations have been the previous port. or viscosity.
witnessed in a B. Those with high basic
supernumerary capacity and 677. As per the OCIMF Ship to sediment and water content.
be able to demonstrate full Ship Transfer Guide C. Those with highbenzene
knowledge of Annex I of (Petroleum) guidelines, both content.
MARPOL. vessels engaged in the cargo D. Those on the IMO Oil
transfer operation shall: Tanker Technical
674. As per MARPOL, Oil A. Have their main engines Committee COW banned
Record Book Part II, ready and available for list.
Cargo/Ballast Operations, immediate use
must be carried and B. Have their duty engineers on 680. Depending on density or
completed on oil tankers of: stand-by so as to prepare the API, an error measurement
A. 150 gross tonnes and above. engines if required for use at of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in a
B. 400 gross tonnes and above. any time tank containing 50,000 cubic
C. Any size, as long as they are C. Their officer of the watch metres (314,491 barrels) of
classified as tankers. manning the bridge at all oil will result in which of the
D. 50 gross tonnes and above. times, with engines on 30- following volumes?
minutes notice of readiness. A. 25 cubic metres (157
675. As per MARPOL, the D. Their main engines on 1 barrels).
contents of lines and pumps hour readiness of readiness B. 35 cubic metres (220
on an oil tanker at barrels).
completion of discharge 678. As per the US Code of C. 7 cubic metres (44 barrels).
must be: Federal Regulations, the D. 16.5 cubic metres (104
A. Drained and then pumped current Oil Transfer barrels).
either ashore, or to a cargo Procedures for a vessel
tank or slop tank on board. carrying out discharge in US 681. For a vessel proceeding
B. Cleared to shore by the use ports must be: enroute, located more than
of compressed air. A. Available on board, legibly 50 nm from nearest land
C. Drained directly (and only) printed in a language or outside a special area and
to shore. languages easily understood having in operation its
D. Discharged ashore or by personnel engaged in the ODME, the maximum
retained on board as per the transfer operation and instantaneous rate of oil
pre-discharge agreement permanently posted or discharge (from washings of
made between the ship and available at a place where cargo tanks) in to the sea is:
shore. crew members can see and A. 30 litres per nautical mile.

179
 B. 300 litres per nautical mile.
C. 60 litres per nautical mile.
D. 0.03 litres per nautical mile.
682. On board an oil tanker, slop
tanks may be used for the
carriage of oil:
A. When not being used for the
carriage of slops and are
included in the total cargo
capacity of the vessel.
B. Only under exceptional
circumstances and are not
included in the total cargo
capacity of the vessel.
C. Only on clean ballast tankers
and are only included in the
total cargo capacity of this
type of vessel.
D. Only by agreement between
the shipper, receiver and
charterer. They are not
normally included in the
total cargo capacity of the
vessel.
683. Prior to discharging cargo
from an oil tanker, ‘line
displacement’ or ‘line
pressing’ must be conducted
to ensure:
A. The verification of the shore
line for calculation purposes.
B. The calibration of the ship's
flow meter.
C. Balancing of a rigid cargo
arm.
D. Testing of the automatic
shut-down arrangements in
the shore line system.
684. The details of an internal
transfer of oil must be
entered in the Oil Record
Book:
A. At all times whenever such
an operation is carried out
B. Only is more than 25% of
the total cargo volume is
transferred
C. Only if required by the
specific instructions of the
owners or Flag State of the
vessel
D. Only is such transfer has
taken place within a port
685. The ideal maximum
viscosity at which aromatic
crude oil cargoes are best
discharged at, is:
A. 250 cst (250 mm2/s)
B. 450 cst (450 mm2/s)
C. 45 cst (45 mm2/s)
D. 1,250 cst (1,250 mm2/s)
686. The maximum permitted
oxygen content in the inert
gas main when inerting a
cargo oil tank prior to gas
freeing is:
A. 5% by volume.
B. 8% by volume.
C. 12% by volume.
D. 2% by volume.
687. The ODME printouts for
tank cleaning operations
must be retained on board
for a minimum period:
A. Of 3 years.
B. Of 5 years.
C. Till the end of the voyage in
which the ODME operation
took place
D. Of 12 months.
688. The recommended guideline
for avoiding the risk of
electrostatic potential in a
mist produced by using oil
and water during Crude Oil
Washing operations is that:
A. Before washing begins, any
tank that is to be used as a
source of oil for Crude Oil
Washing should be partly
discharged to remove any
water that has settled out
during the voyage. The
discharge of a layer of at
least 1 metreis necessary for
this purpose.
B. As washing begins, any
water observed in the stream
should be diverted to a slop
tank, before Crude Oil
Washing af any cargo
compartment is commenced.
C. If a slop tank is to be used to
supply oil to driveDPKP
a Crude
Oil Washing operation in a
cargo tank, then that slop
tank must not have
contained slops with a water
content of more than 2%.
D. Crude Oil Washing, where
the oil source is stored in a
slop tank or other tank that
has previously contained
slops, should be avoided.
689. To correctly report an oil
spill in US waters:
A. The person in charge must
report the spill to the
National Response Center
or, if not practicable, to the
Environmental Protection
Agency regional office or
local U.S. Coast Guard
Marine Safety Office. This
must be done immediately
that person has knowledge
of the spill.
B. The person responsible for
the spill must report
preliminary details to the
appropriate State Police
within 30 minutes of the
accidental discharge taking
place.
C. The person or persons in
charge must submit a full
report of the incident
through the vessel's agent to
the appropriate authorities
within 24 hours of the
incident.
D. The master of the vessel
responsible for the spill must
advise the Environmental
Protection Agency National
Incident Reporting Center
(or the appropriate regional
office) within 2 hours of the
incident being reported to
that person.
690. hat do we mean with a IOPP
certificate?
A. With IOPP certificate we
mean International Oil
Pollution Prevention
certificate and the ship is
180
 classed to prevent oil
pollution
B. With IOPP certificate we
mean International Oil
Pollution Prevention
certificate and the certificate
prevent oil pollution from
the ship
C. With IOPP certificate we
mean International Oil
Pollution Prevention
certificate and it is to
prevent oil pollution
D. There isn’t any IOPP
certificate on gas carriers
691. When discharging dirty
ballast from an oil tanker at
a high flow rate with main
cargo pumps, the
instantaneous rate of
discharge of oil is calculated
by formula:
A. Instantaneous rate of
discharge (l/nm) = oil
content (ppm) x flow rate
(m3/h) / speed (knots) x
1,000
B. Instantaneous rate of
discharge (l/nm) = oil
content (ppm) x 1,000 / flow
rate (l/h) x speed (knots)
C. Instantaneous rate of
discharge (l/h) = oil content
(ppm) x flow rate (l/h) /
speed (knots) x 10,000
D. Instantaneous rate of
discharge (ml/nm) = oil
content (ml/nm) x flow rate
(l/m) / speed (knots) x 100
692. When internally transferring
any oil cargo within the
vessel, the correct procedure
would be to:
A. Obtain permission from the
charterers and document all
operations fully in the Oil
Record Book.
B. Obtain permission from the
receivers and retain all e-
mail correspondence for the
attention of the cargo
surveyors.
C. Transfer no more than 5% of
the total cargo volume at any
one time.
D. Transfer the cargo, and then
make an appropriate entry in
the deck log book.
693. Within the Oil Discharge
Monitoring and Control
System, an ‘overboard
discharge control’ is defined
as:
A. A device which
automatically initiates the
sequence to stop the
overboard discharge of the
effluent in alarm conditions
and prevents the discharge
throughout the period the
alarm prevails.
B. A system which monitors
the discharge into the sea of
oily ballast or other oil-
contaminated water from the
cargo tank areas.
C. A facility which prevents the
initiation of the opening of
the discharge valve or the
operation of other equivalent
arrangements before the
monitoring system is fully
operational.
D. A system which receives
automatic signals of oil
content, flow rate, ship's
speed, ship's position, date
and time.
694. A hazard is is a source of
potential harm or damage or
a situation with potential for
harm or damage. Risk is
determined based on
evaluation of two elements.
Which two elements?
A. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the
consequences of the
hazardous event
B. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the financial
consequences for the
Company
C. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the available
personal protective
equipment we have DPKP
onboard
D. The consequences of the
hazardous event and the
available personal protective
equipment we have onboard
695. How frequently should the
PA-system (Public Address)
be tested?
A. Every week
B. Every day
C. Every year
D. Every second year
696. How often shall abandon
ship- and fire drills take
place on board passenger
ships?
A. Weekly
B. Bi-weekly
C. Monthly
D. At least two abandon ship
drills and one fire drill every
month
697. How often shall drills for the
operation of watertight
doors, side scuttles, valves
and closing mechanism of
scuppers, ash-chutes and
rubbish chutes take place in
passenger ships?
A. Weekly
B. Daily
C. Every two weeks
D. Every month
698. How should chemicals and
harmful substances be stored
on board?
A. In a separate locker. The
locker shall be clearly
marked, locked and
ventilated.
B. In a locker preferably on
boat deck. The locker shall
be clearly marked.
C. N the central store or in the
engine room
D. In a gas-tight locker close to
the bridge
699. Personnel on board
passenger vessels must
undergo training courses

181
 before they can be part of Substances in Bulk, Harmful B. To provide personnelDPKP in
the safe manning and Substances in Packaged deck- and engine department
assigned to emergency Form, Sewage, Garbage and with procedures for handling
duties on board. What is Ballast Water or working with that
minimum training C. Proper Pollution Prevention substance in a safe manner
requirement for all Training C. To provide the safety officer
personnel? D. All Harmful Substances we with procedures for handling
A. Basic Safety Training have onboard or working with that
Course and Crowd & Crisis substance in a safe manner
Management Training 702. What information is required D. To determine if the
Course on passengers prior to substance is flammable or
B. Basic Safety Training departure? not
Course and Company A. All persons on board shall
Specific Familiarisation be counted and details of 705. What necessary precautions
Course persons who have declared a should be taken before
C. Basic Safety Training need for special care or entering a tank or an
Course assistance in emergency enclosed space?
D. No Training Course is situations shall be recorded A. Make sure that the tank/
required as long as the and communicated to the enclosed space is gas free,
personnel have relevant Master ventilated and the oxygen
experience B. Details and number of content is measured. O2
persons who have declared a content shall be 21% before
700. SOLAS regulations require need for special care or entering the tank/ enclosed
surveys of ships to be assistance in emergency space
carried out at certain times situations shall be recorded B. Use a breathing apparatus if
and at certain intervals. and communicated to the the oxygen level is below
Which of the following Master 21%
surveys apply to passenger C. It is sufficient to count the C. Remember to have a
ships only? number of passengers prior colleague standing by to
A. Periodical survey every 12 to departure assist you if any problems
months D. The safety officer shall D. Bring a flashlight and put on
B. Periodical survey every 24 count the number of safety shoes
months passengers
C. Periodical survey every 6 706. Which international
months 703. What is important to prepare convention deals with
D. A survey before the prior to a helicopter maritime safety and safety
commence of each voyage operation? equipment onboard ro-ro
A. Make sure all loose deck passenger vessels?
701. The International equipment at helicopter deck A. SOLAS
Convention for the is stowed away and secured. B. MARPOL
Prevention of Pollution from B. To light up the area for pick- C. STCW
Ships (MARPOL) covers up D. ISM
detailed regulations to C. To increase the speed of the
prevent various sources of vessel 707. Who is responsible to ensure
ship generated pollution. D. To stop the vessel that all personnel on board
Annex I - VI deals with completely are provided with suitable
regulations for the Personal Protective
prevention/ control of 704. What is the purpose of Equipment where it is
pollution from: Material Safety Data Sheets? needed?
A. Harmful Substances in A. To provide all personnel A. The Company/ employer
Packaged Form, Sewage, including emergency B. The Master
Air Pollution, Garbage, Oil personnel with procedures C. The safety officer
and Noxious Liquid for handling or working with D. The Head Department
Substances in Bulk that substance in a safe
B. Oil, Noxious Liquid manner 708. You are burning garbage

182
 containing plastics. What
shall you do with the ashes
from the vessel's
incinerator?
A. Discharge the ashes to a
shore facility
B. Discharge the ashes at sea
providing you are more than
25 nautical miles offshore
C. Discharge at sea providing
you are not in any river or
estuary
D. Nothing, ashes from any
substance which is
incinerated can be
discharged over board
709. A cellular container vessel is
to load frozen ice cream in
containers. Space is
available either in the hold
or as a deck stow. Select,
from the options given, the
most suitable stowage
position, with the reason, for
this cargo.
A. The deck stow as it is less
sensitive to temperature in
the event of a mechanical
problem.
B. The deck stow as it is more
accessible for checking the
status lights on the reefer
panel.
C. The hold as it is more
sheltered from the effects of
bad weather.
D. The hold as it is more
accessible for maintenance
and repair in the event of a
mechanical problem.
710. A conventional reefer vessel
operating a Controlled
Atmosphere (CA) is
approaching the port of
discharge in Northern
Europe. Which is the most
suitable action to take from
the options given?
A. Turn off the CA plant and
thoroughly ventilate the
cargo spaces under CA with
fresh air just prior to arrival.
B. Continue to apply CA until
the hatches are opened to
maintain the condition of the
cargo.
C. Continue to apply CA
throughout the discharge to
maintain the condition of the
cargo.
D. Turn off the CA plant just
prior to the start of discharge
operations.
711. A reefer vessel is loading a
cargo of fruit alongside in a
South African port. During
loading another vessel
arrives at an adjacent berth
to have its cargo discharged
after having been towed in
following a fire onboard
which had resulted in
abandonment. What should
concern the Master of the
reefer vessel most about the
situation?
A. That the cargo may be
contaminated by the smell of
smoke and the products of
combustion from the
damaged vessel.
B. The damaged vessel is
unmanned and may not be
cared for properly.
C. The cargo being discharged
from the damaged vessel
may be in poor condition
and may contaminate the
loading vessel's cargo.
D. The speed of cargo
operations may be hindered
due to the discharge of cargo
from the damaged vessel.
712. A reefer vessel is to load a
cargo of plantains and
bananas. Due to space
restrictions both have to be
loaded into a common space.
The usual delivery
temperature for bananas is
about 13 degrees Celsius
and for plantains it is 7
degree Celsius. What would
be the best delivery
temperature for the mixture
of these two fruits?
A. 13 C as plantains DPKP
are less
sensitive to the
consequences of a higher
delivery temperature.
B. 7 C as plantains are more
sensitive to the higher
delivery temperature of the
bananas.
C. 10 C as this is the mean
temperature of the two
cargoes and they would both
carry satisfactorily at this
temperature.
D. Adjust the set point of the
delivery temperature to 7 C
for 12 hour periods and 13 C
for the intervening 12 hour
periods.
713. A reefer vessel is to load a
part cargo of frozen beef
hocks (large joints of beef,
usually quarters, not packed
in cartons). In deciding
which would be the most
appropriate space on a
conventional reefer vessel,
which of the given options
would be the preferred
choice?
A. 1C deck as this is the
narrowest space on the
vessel and will best
constrain the cargo from any
possible movement during
the voyage.
B. 4A deck as this is the largest
square space on the vessel
and will allow good access
and air flow for the cargo.
C. Any space will be
acceptable as this is a hard
frozen cargo and relatively
easy to handle and carry.
D. A cargo space low in the
vessel as this cargo has a
relatively high stowage
factor.
714. A reefer vessel, which is
about to carry a palletised
cargo, has to have available
sufficient cargo equipment
including air bags (dunnage
bags), air lines and valves,
183
 cargo slings, wooden
dunnage, nails, etc. These
items are required to ensure
a quick loading operation
and a successful passage.
Complete the following
statement from the options
given. "Air bags are
particularly important in that
….
A. … they reduce the
movement of the pallets and
prevent short circuiting of
the air flow."
B. … they are quick and easy
to deploy."
C. … they protect the pillars
and the vent trunking against
damage during heavy
weather."
D. … they secure the pallets
against movement during the
passage."
715. A situation arises where
there is insufficient fruit
cargo available to fill a
cargo space. There is a
cooler arrangement
(cooler/evaporator/brine
nest/fans) positioned at one
end of the cargo space.
Select, from the options
given, the best method for
stowage of the fruit.
A. Start at the end with the
cooler arrangement and
work away from the cooler.
B. Start at the opposite end to
the cooler arrangement and
work towards the cooler.
C. Start from one side of the
space.
D. Start from the centre of the
space and work towards
both ends.
716. A situation exists where a
cargo of palletised fruit is
being loaded to capacity on
a conventional reefer vessel.
In order to load all of the
available cargo it is
proposed to break down
some of the pallets and place
the loose cartons on top of
the pallets; there is just
enough space to
accommodate this below the
deckhead. From the options
given which is the most
suitable action to take?
A. Reject the plan as the
reduced gap at the top of the
stow will restrict the return
air flow.
B. Accept the plan in order to
carry all of the cargo.
C. Reject the plan as the extra
handling will incur greater
stevedoring costs.
D. Reject the plan as the charter
is to carry only palletised
cargo.
717. A standard convention for a
4 deck reefer vessel is to
designate the decks A to D
from upper to lower deck.
Decks A and B common as
are C and D with a gas tight
seal between B and C.
Apples are to be carried in
decks C and D with bananas
in A and B. Which of the
options is the best to avoid
the risk of crossover of
temperature and respiration
between the two cargoes?
A. Create a pressure differential
with a higher pressure in
decks C and D.
B. Create a pressure differential
with a higher pressure in
decks A and B.
C. Run the cargo fans
intermittently in one of the
spaces.
D. Operate the two spaces at
equal pressures as the
cargoes are compatible.
718. After discharge of any
refrigerated cargo a speed would generate too
thorough inspection of the
vessel should be carried out
before presenting the vessel
for loading the next cargo.
Amongst the reasons for this
is to ensure that any traces
of or residues from DPKP the
previous cargo are removed.
This is particularly so if a
fruit or meat cargo is to be
loaded after a fish cargo has
been carried. Select, from
the options given, the main
reason for this requirement.
A. Fish is strong smelling and
the odour may contaminate
the next cargo.
B. Fish is usually carried frozen
and there may be some
damage to the insulation.
C. Fish can be oily and may
leave an oily residue in the
cargo space.
D. Ventilating with fresh air
may only remove the odour
temporarily and it will build
up again if residues are
present.
719. Apart from temperature
there are few differences
between carrying cargoes of
chilled meat, minus 1 degree
Celsius, and frozen meat,
minus 18 degrees Celsius. A
key difference is that for
frozen meat the cooling fans
are operated at half speed or
some are switched off
whereas for chilled meat the
fans are run constantly at
full speed. Select, from the
options given, the main
reason for this difference in
fan operation.
A. The chilled meat is more
sensitive to damage and
therefore tighter temperature
control is necessary.
B. The fans may be damaged if
they were run at full speed
delivering very cold air to
the frozen cargo.
C. Running the fans at full
much heat which may affect
the frozen meat.
D. It is an energy saving
measure since chilled meat
cargoes do not require as
much cold air.
184

720. In preparing a reefer vessel
for loading the next cargo a
careful inspection of the
cargo spaces should be
carried out. All required
maintenance and the repair
of any damage identified
during the inspection should
be completed prior to
loading. Select, from the
options given, the most
appropriate action to be
taken when the maintenance
and any repairs are
completed.
A. Make a detailed record of all
maintenance and repairs
carried out for presentation
to the supervisor at the
loading port as proof that the
vessel is in an acceptable
condition for loading the
cargo.
B. Keep a record of all the
repairs in the planned
maintenance schedule.
C. Don't bother recording
anything as this type of work
is considered routine.
D. Keep a record of the hours
worked as a basis for a claim
against the previous
charterers.
721. On some trades fruit cargoes
may be subjected to 'in-
transit cold treatment' also
known as cold treatment.
From the options given
which is the main purpose of
this cold treatment?
A. To maintain a specified
minimum temperature for a
prescribed time period to kill
off any fruit fly which may
be present when loading the
cargo.
B. To ensure that the fruit is
carried as cold as possible
without damaging the fruit.
C. To achieve uniform quality
of the fruit at discharge.
D. To maintain the temperature
of the fruit within very tight
tolerances.
722. Reefer vessels form part of
the 'cold chain' in the
transport of perishable goods
from the producer to the
consumer. There are times
when hatches have to remain
open in less than perfect
conditions, for example
strong winds. There are
steps that can be taken
however to mitigate the
effects of this on cargo that
has already been loaded.
Which of the options given
could be considered to be
the most important measure
to counter the effect of such
conditions?
A. Cover the stow with a
Tenasco (heavy plastic)
sheet where possible to
protect it from the wind.
B. Run the cargo fans
continuously during cargo
operations.
C. Reduce the air delivery
temperature.
D. Refrain from ventilating the
cargo with fresh air.
723. With the exception of some
citrus fruits and bananas,
fruit is usually pre-cooled to
the required carriage
temperature prior to loading
on a reefer vessel. In order
to protect the cold chain, and
to maintain the temperature
of the fruit, a minimum
exposure time to ambient
conditions during loading is
necessary. What action
should the deck officers take
during loading to achieve
this minimum exposure
time?
A. Close the hatches and apply
cooling to the cargo already
loaded during any break in
cargo operations that exceed
30 minutes.
B. Close the hatches and apply
cooling to the cargo already
DPKP
loaded during any overnight
break in cargo operations.
C. Close the hatches for any
break in cargo operations
that exceed 60 minutes.
D. Request that the stevedores
work faster to minimise
loading time.
724. A Standard Ro-Ro unit
weighing 18mt is to be
loaded in the fore and aft
direction and lashed by belts
of SWL 2mt. Using the
general rule How many
lashing belts should be used
to secure the unit?
A. 9 on each side
B. 11 on each side
C. 11 on each side
D. One fore every securing
point on the unit
725. A standard Ro-Ro unit
weighing 2mt is to be loaded
fore and aft and lashed by
belts of SWL 0.6mt. Using
the general rule How many
lashing belts should be used
to secure the unit?
A. 4 on each side
B. 4 in total
C. 4 in total
D. 10 in total
726. On a roro vessel, a ro-ro unit
weighing 2mt is to be loaded
in the fore and aft direction
and lashed by belts of SWL
0.6mt. How many lashing
belts should be used to
secure the unit?
A. 4 on each side
B. 4 in total
C. 4 in total
D. 10 in total
727. On a roro vessel, a vehicle
weighing 50mt is to be
loaded in the fore and aft
direction and lashed by
chains/turnbuckles of SWL
5mt. By the general Rule
How many sets of
chains/turnbuckles should be
185
 used to secure the unit?
A. At least 10 per side
B. At least 10 in total
C. At least 10 in total
D. At least 15 per side
728. On a roro vessel, how often
should a dangerous goods
stowage plan be produced
A. Every time you load a
dangerous cargo
B. Every time you load any
cargo
C. Every time you load any
cargo
D. You only ever produce one
729. On a roro vessel, if the
vessel is loaded by
stevedores, who is
responsible for the lashing
of the cargo
A. The vessel is responsible for
cargo as soon as it crosses
the ramp including its
securing
B. The Stevedores who loaded
the ship
C. The Stevedores who loaded
the ship
D. The cargo owners
730. On a roro vessel, what
dangers are associated with
using a steep loading ramp?
A. The ends of ro-ro units can
be damaged
B. The ramp's hoisting wires
can be damaged
C. It will not be possible to
drive vehicles off the ramp
D. The ramp may slide off the
pier
731. On a roro vessel, what
instruction should be given
to the crew about unlashing
of cargo prior to arrival at
the berth
A. This can only be done when
the bridge gives permission
and no unit stowed on a
ramp or incline can be
unlashed. Provided the
company allow it.
B. The crew can start unlashing
without the permission from
the bridge
C. The crew can start unlashing
without the permission from
the bridge
D. You can remove half the
lashings on any unit when
the bridge give permission
732. On a roro vessel, what must
be considered when
planning the loading of ro-ro
cargoes on ramps?
A. SWL and loading limit of
the ramp and Minimum
clearances for the operation
of ramp doors
B. The extent of lashings due to
the ramp slope
C. The extent of lashings due to
the ramp slope
D. Cargo volumes
733. On a roro vessel, what must
be ensured onboard the
vessel prior to commencing
cargo?
A. Cargo hold ventilation
systems are operational
B. That all cargo is ready for
loading
C. That all cargo is ready for
loading
D. That the vessel has been
cleared by immigration
734. On a roro vessel, what
standing instruction should
be given to prevent a
blackout on board?
A. Check with the duty
engineer before switching on
motors, fans or other
machinery
B. Check with the duty
engineer before correcting
the vessel's list
C. Switch off lights in idle
cargo holds
D. Use the minimum number of
deck lights at night
735. On a roro vessel, what
standing instruction should
be given to protect DPKP the
Ramps when loading ro-ro
units?
A. Units whose weights exceed
the ramp load density/SWL
must not be loaded
B. Damaged units should be
rejected for loading
C. Damaged units should be
rejected for loading
D. All ro-ro units must be
thoroughly checked for
damage prior to the loading
ramp
736. On a roro vessel, what
stowage factors should be
taken into account when
planning the loading of cars?
A. The longitudinal and
athwartship distances
between the cars
B. Cargo dimensions
C. Cargo volumes
D. Cargo characteristics
737. On a roro vessel, which of
the following is not required
in the pre-stowage plan?
A. Checking communications
equipment
B. The operation of gas-tight
and watertight doors
C. Assigning crew duties
D. Stowage and securing of
specialised cargoes
738. On a roro vessel, which of
the ships trading certificates
details the type and location
that dangerous goods are
allowed to be stowed
onboard
a. Certificate of compliance for
the carriage of Dangerous
goods
b. Safety Equipment certificate
c. Safety Equipment certificate
d. The Cargo Ship Safety
construction certificate
739. On a roro vessel, which of
these situations will result in
an emergency shutdown of
cargo operations?
186
 A. Any of the listed situations B. The likelihood that a hazard B. Bi-weekly DPKP
B. Failure of the cargo hold may occur and the financial C. Monthly
ventilation system consequences for the D. At least two abandon ship
C. Failure of the cargo hold Company drills and one fire drill every
ventilation system C. The likelihood that a hazard month
D. The vessel developing a may occur and the available
sudden and unexpected list personal protective 747. How often shall drills for the
equipment we have onboard operation of watertight
740. On a roro vessel, which D. The consequences of the doors, side scuttles, valves
regulations require hazardous event and the and closing mechanism of
supervising the embarkation available personal protective scuppers, ash-chutes and
of persons on board ship? equipment we have onboard rubbish chutes take place in
A. The International Ship and passenger ships?
Port Facility Security (ISPS) 744. How can the Master ensure A. Weekly
Code that all cargo loading doors, B. Daily
B. The Safety Of Life At Sea bow visors, weathertight C. Every two weeks
(SOLAS) Convention ramps etc. Are locked and D. Every month
C. Standards of Training secured before the ship
Certification and Watch- proceeds on any voyage? 748. How should chemicals and
keeping (STCW) Code A. By having an effective harmful substances be stored
D. International Labour system of supervision and on board?
Organization (ILO) reporting of the closing and A. In a separate locker. The
standards opening of doors. Time of locker shall be clearly
closing and opening of doors marked, locked and
741. Under SOLAS, what are the shall be entered in the log- ventilated.
minimum required air book. B. In a locker preferably on
changes per hour for 'Special B. By having experinced boat deck. The locker shall
Category Spaces' on a roro officers and crew to be clearly marked.
vessel,? supervise the closing and C. In the central store or in the
A. 10 opening of doors. Time of engine room
B. 20 closing and opening of doors D. In a gas-tight locker close to
C. 15 shall be entered in the log- the bridge
D. 8 book.
C. Automatic systems will 749. On most ro-ro passenger
742. What must not be obstructed alarm you if the doors are ships there is no requirement
when planning the loading not properly secured. to carry out drills with the
of ro-ro cargoes? D. The bosun is always passengers. What is the most
A. Access to fire-fighting responsible to check the effective ways of informing
equipment watertight integrity before embarking passengers about
B. Fixed cargo lashing points the ship proceeds on any the emergency procedures?
C. Ships' bracket connections to voyage. A. Information on boarding
the deck cards, public announcement
D. In-built non-skid bars 745. How frequently should the on departure, posters in
PA-system (Public Address) public areas and cabins,
743. A hazard is is a source of be tested? safety video running
potential harm or damage or A. Every week continuously
a situation with potential for B. Every day B. Posters in public areas and
harm or damage. Risk is C. Every year cabins, safety video running
determined based on D. Every second year continuously
evaluation of two elements. C. Safety video and folders in
Which two elements? 746. How often shall abandon tax free shops
A. The likelihood that a hazard ship- and fire drills take D. Information from the crew
may occur and the place onboard ro-ro
consequences of the passenger vessels? 750. Personnel on board ro-ro
hazardous event A. Weekly passenger vessels must

187
 undergo training courses assistance in emergency enclosed space? DPKP
before they can be part of situations shall be recorded A. Make sure that the tank/
the safe manning and and communicated to the enclosed space is gas free,
assigned to emergency Master ventilated and the oxygen
duties on board. What is B. Details and number of content is measured. O2
minimum training persons who have declared a content shall be 21% before
requirement for all need for special care or entering the tank/ enclosed
personnel? assistance in emergency space
A. Basic Safety Training situations shall be recorded B. Use a breathing apparatus if
Course and Crowd & Crisis and communicated to the the oxygen level is below
Management Training Master 21%
Course C. It is sufficient to count the C. Remember to have a
B. Basic Safety Training number of passengers prior colleague standing by to
Course and Company to departure assist you if any problems
Specific Familiarisation D. The safety officer shall D. Bring a flashlight and put on
Course count the number of safety shoes
C. Basic Safety Training Corse passengers
D. No Training Course is
required as long as the 753. What is important to prepare 756. Which international
personnel have relevant prior to a helicopter convention deals with
experience operation? maritime safety and safety
A. Make sure all loose deck equipment onboard ro-ro
751. The International equipment at helicopter deck passenger vessels?
Convention for the is stowed away and secured. A. SOLAS
Prevention of Pollution from B. To light up the area for pick- B. MARPOL
Ships (MARPOL) covers up C. STCW
detailed regulations to C. To increase the speed of the D. ISM
prevent various sources of vessel
ship generated pollution. D. To stop the vessel 757. Who is responsible to ensure
Annex I - VI deals with completely that all personnel on board
regulations for the are provided with suitable
prevention/ control of 754. What is the purpose of Personal Protective
pollution from: Material Safety Data Sheets? Equipment where it is
A. Harmful Substances in A. To provide all personnel needed?
Packaged Form, Sewage, including emergency A. The Company/ employer
Air Pollution, Garbage, Oil personnel with procedures B. The Master
and Noxious Liquid for handling or working with C. The safety officer
Substances in Bulk that substance in a safe D. The Head Department
B. Oil, Noxious Liquid manner
Substances in Bulk, Harmful B. To provide personnel in 758. You are burning garbage
Substances in Packaged deck- and engine department containing plastics. What
Form, Sewage, Garbage and with procedures for handling shall you do with the ashes
Ballast Water or working with that from the vessel's
C. Proper Pollution Prevention substance in a safe manner incinerator?
Training C. To provide the safety officer A. Discharge the ashes to a
D. All Harmful Substances we with procedures for handling shore facility
have onboard or working with that B. Discharge the ashes at sea
substance in a safe manner providing you are more than
752. What information is required D. To determine if the 25 nautical miles offshore
on passengers prior to substance is flammable or C. Discharge at sea providing
departure? not you are not in any river or
A. All persons on board shall estuary
be counted and details of 755. What necessary precautions D. Nothing, ashes from any
persons who have declared a should be taken before substance which is
need for special care or entering a tank or an incinerated can be

188
 discharged over board
759. A bulk vessel loads a full
cargo to summer marks of a
high density bulk cargo such
as iron ore concentrate; what
would be the possible
stability conditions
produced?
A. The vessel will normally
have a large intact
metacentric height (GM) and
have a fast roll period
B. The vessel will normally
have a small intact
metacentric height (GM) and
have a slow roll period
C. The vessel will be tender
and have a poor curve of
righting levers.
D. The vessel may have a list
760. A cargo hatch cover seal on
a Bulk Carrier is known to
be damaged and not weather
tight prior to sailing; what is
the legal significance of this
situation?
A. The vessel may well be
judged to be un-seaworthy;
this could invalidate some
certification and hull and
machinery insurance
B. There are no legal concerns
over this
C. The vessel is still seaworthy
but repairs must be carried
out at next port
D. The vessel may have its
classification affected
761. Before a solid bulk cargo is
loaded, the Master and shore
representative must agree a
loading plan which covers
which of the following
aspects?
A. All of the items specified in
the possible answers
B. Maximum permissible
forces and moments on the
ship
C. Quantity and rate of loading
the cargo
D. Sequence of loading
762. How are cargoes on self-
unloading bulk carriers fed
to the vessel's conveyor belts
during discharge?
A. Via hydraulically-operated
hopper gates at the bottom
of each hold
B. Via mechanically-operated
hopper gates at the bottom
of each hold
C. By gravity through
mechanical hopper gates at
the bottom of each hold
D. Via remote-controlled
hopper gates at the bottom
of each hold
763. The high level water ingress
alarm in number 1 hold of a
Bulk Carrier activates in bad
weather at sea; what would
be the actions of a prudent
Master?
A. Sound general alarm, muster
ships crew and transmit a
Mayday call and message.
B. Investigate when the
weather improves
C. The alarms could be faulty
and should be ignored
D. Assess all spaces for signs of
damage if weather
conditions permit
764. Under international
regulations for a Bulk
Carrier, who needs to be
trained in the use of oxygen
analysis and gas detection
equipment?
A. The ship's crew
B. The master
C. The master and chief
engineer
D. All cargo watch-keeping
officers
765. What does the IMSBC Code
emphasise with reference to
the exposure of personal to
the dust created when
carrying some bulk cargoes?
A. A high standard of personal
hygiene
DPKP of
B. The restricted loading
certain cargoes which may
be excessively dusty
C. The code does not make any
reference to this hazard
D. The responsibility of the
Master to ensure that staff
are wearing the correct
clothing
766. What extent of hatch cover
spares should be available
on board a Bulk Carrier at
all times?
A. Specimen fittings shown in
the hatch cover
manufacturer's manual
B. Rubber packing and hatch
cleat washers for one panel
section
C. Rubber packing and hatch
cleat washers for two panel
sections
D. Rubber packing hatch cleat
washers and glue for two
panel sections
767. What height of water above
the inner bottom will
activate the cargo hold high
level alarm on a Bulk
Carrier
A. Any height above 2.0m
B. Any more than 2.2m
C. Any more than 2.5m
D. Any more than 2.8m
768. What is the maximum
period between the
sampling/testing of the
moisture content of a solid
bulk cargo and the loading
of that cargo into a bulk
carrier?
A. A maximum for seven (7)
days, when there has been
no change in the moisture
content due to rain or snow
B. It must always be conducted
immediately before loading
C. A test is not required each
time of loading
D. Testing must be carried out
on a random sampling basis.
189
769. What must be specified
when ordering gas detection
equipment when used in
association with bulk
carriers?
A. That the instrument is suited
for its purpose of application
B. That the instrument
complies with international
regulations
C. That the instrument can
measure flammable
atmospheres
D. That the instrument can
measure methane and
hydrogen when used in low-
oxygen atmospheres
770. What specific data must be
displayed on the loading
instruments carried on bulk
carriers of 150m or more in
length?
A. The shear forces exerted on
the hull structure associated
with the entered loaded
weight distribution
B. The segregation
requirements of the cargoes
carried.
C. The ultimate strength of
main deck plating
D. The permeability of the
cargo carried in the cargo
holds
771. Where are cargo hold water
level detectors required to be
fitted on bulk carriers?
A. At the after end of each
cargo hold
B. At the forward end of each
cargo hold
C. In cargo hold bilges
D. At the port and starboard
midship sections of each
cargo hold
772. Which of the following is a
warning sign of a faulty
hydraulic hatch cover
system on a Bulk Carrier?
A. A fall in the hydraulic
header tank level
B. The presence of dust and
cargo particles around the DPKP
by the attending surveyors.
piston gland The most important item to
C. Noisy hatch cover be checked during this
operations inspection would be:
D. Dry greasing points A. Certificates of approval
related to lashing equipment
773. Who needs to be trained in used to secure those
the use of oxygen analysis containers.
and gas detection B. The vessel's Safety
equipment? Construction certificate.
A. The entire ship's crew C. The vessel's Class
B. The Master certificate.
C. The Master and Chief D. The on-board cargo lashing
Engineer inventory.
D. Cargo watch-keeping
officers 777. An inspection in the
amidships area of the
774. Why do bulk cargo carriers weather deck of a Panamax
need to carry oxygen container vessel has revealed
analysis and gas detection cracks in the hatch
equipment? coamings. It is extremely
A. Because of enclosed or important to urgently inspect
confined space entry the:
requirements A. Longitudinals in the double
B. Because it is good practice bottom tanks in the
to have this equipment on amidships half length of the
board vessel.
C. Because the equipment is B. Stiffening in the forepeak
required under the tank at approximately water
International Maritime Solid line level.
Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC) C. Transverse bulkhead
Code beneath the bridge front.
D. Because the equipment is D. Transverse bulkhead
required under MARPOL immediately aft of the
engine room.
775. Why do the cargo holds of a
self-unloading bulk carrier 778. For a ships loading
have a "W" shaped cross computer to be safely used
section? for loading planning and
A. So that during discharge the stress calculations, it must
cargo will automatically fall be approved by:
onto the underlying A. A Classification Society.
conveyor belts B. IT Department of Ship
B. So that cargoes are self- owner.
trimming during loading C. Hull and Machinery Insurers
C. To make it easier for cargo of the vessel.
to be discharged by grabs D. The Port State where vessel
D. To reduce the extent of tank is currently loading.
top damages when
discharging cargo 779. On a container vessel,
flexitanks are used for:
776. A vessel has lost several A. The carriage of non-
containers overboard during hazardous liquids, in bulk.
a voyage. Upon arrival into B. The carriage of hazardous
port, she is being inspected liquids, in bulk.
190
 C. The carriage of liquid
cargoes that do not have a
Proper Shipping Name.
D. The carriage of liquid
cargoes of a particular
specific gravity.
780. Racking forces imposed on a
container would likely cause
the greatest deflection to:
A. The door end of the
container.
B. The closed end of the
container.
C. The base of the container.
D. The corner posts of the
container.
781. Shock loads in a container
lashing system are generally
caused by:
A. Loose cargo lashings.
B. Resonant rolling.
C. Ship vibrations.
D. Ship torsion.
782. The correct weight of a
wrongly declared container
may be best indicated by:
A. Strain gauges fitted to the
shore gantry cranes.
B. The container CSC plate.
C. The tare weight stamped on
the container.
D. The ship's loading computer.
783. The most appropriate way of
dealing with twist-locks
suffering from excessive
wear and tear is to:
A. Isolate them from use and
dispose them appropriately.
B. Repair them in the ships
workshop, and then re-use.
C. Land them ashore for repair.
D. Get them surveyed by Class
prior re-use.
784. The most dangerous
consequence of the
corrosion and wear down of
container stools on weather
deck/hatch tops of a
container vessel would be:
A. Collapse of the deck stool,
leading to lashings
becoming slack.
B. Uneven loading of the
container on the deck.
C. Twist locks not being able to
be fully closed.
D. Twist locks not being able to
be removed after discharge.
785. The most effective method
of dealing with an under-
deck cargo space fire on
board a container ship, is to:
A. Deploy the fixed firefighting
system.
B. Tackle the fire locally with
fire hoses.
C. Turn the vessel off the wind
to reduce the relative wind
strength.
D. Boundary cool the cargo
hold from the deck.
786. The most important function
of a buttress fitting on a
container vessel is:
A. To transfer forces from the
container stow to the ships
structure.
B. To maintain a uniform level
stow across the tier of
containers.
C. To avoid excess load placed
on the tank top.
D. To ensure an even
distribution of weight
throughout the stack.
787. What contributes to wear-
down of twistlocks on a
container vessel?
A. The continuous action of
longitudinal forces.
B. Careless handling by
stevedores.
C. Improper greasing
procedures.
D. Continuous use with
containers exceeding 40' in
length.
788. What items of container
securing equipment must be
used in conjunction with
buttresses?
DPKP
A. Double stacking cones or
link plates.
B. Twistlocks.
C. Single stacking cones.
D. Single stacking cones and
bridge fittings.
789. When planning the loading
of containers, the planning
officer must refer to:
A. The Cargo Securing Manual
(CSM).
B. The Safety of Life at Sea
Convention (SOLAS).
C. The Cargo Stowage and
Security (CSS) Code.
D. MARPOL 73/78 Annex IV.
790. "Passivation" is a restorative
process periodically applied
to stainless steel tanks on a
chemical tanker. What
effect does this process have
on the steel surface?
A. It restores and reforms the
passive Chromium
Hydroxide surface layer.
B. It restricts active corrosion
on the surface steel.
C. It restores the surface steel
to an even and smooth
finish, thereby encouraging
drainage during discharge.
D. It causes a chemical
reaction, which produces a
new inert Chromium Oxide
layer on the surface of the
steel.
791. A cargo pumproom or other
enclosed space which
contains cargo handling
equipment on a chemical
tanker shall be fitted with a
mechanical ventilation
system, capable of being
controlled from outside the
space. What is the
minimum number of
atmosphere changes per
hour, based on the total
volume of the space, that
such a system must deliver?
A. Not less than 30 changes per
hour.
191
 B. Not less than 10 changes per
hour.
C. If the ventilation is
permanent, it shall deliver at
least 20 changes per hour; if
it involves part recirculation,
then it shall deliver at least
30 changes per hour.
D. There is no specified
minimum number of
changes, provided it is
running continuously
throughout any cargo
operation.
792. Basic manual dew point
measurement devices are
commonly used by
surveyors when monitoring
the dryness of a cargo tank
prior to loading a liquid
chemical product. Which of
the descriptions below is a
summary of how the
measurement is carried out?
A. A small quantity of Acetone
is placed into the device and
dry-ice is progressively
added to it to steadily reduce
the temperature. A sample
of the atmosphere in the tank
is continuously drawn
through the device, passing
over the polished or
mirrored surface of the
container. When the first
drop of mositure (dew) is
observed to form on the
polished surface, the
temperature of the Acetone
bath is noted. Reference may
be required to tables to
correct the reading for
desired parameters.
B. A quantity of Acetone is
placed into the device and
dry-ice is progressively
added to it to steadily reduce
the temperature. A sample
of the atmosphere in the tank
is continuously pumped
through the liquid. Bubbles
will be seen to reach the
surface of the bath until the
dew point is reached. When
the flow of bubbles ceases,
the temperature of the
Acetone is noted. Reference
may be required to tables to
correct the reading for
desired parameters.
C. A small quantity of dry-ice
is placed into the device,
submerged in deionized
water. A sample of the
atmosphere in the tank is
continuously drawn through
the device, passing across a
reagent filter. When the
dew point is reached, this
reagent filter will change
colour from white to green,
indicating saturation. The
temperature of the deionized
water is noted at this time
and corresponds to the dew
point. Reference to
correction tables is required
to correct the reading for
barometric pressure.
D. A small quantity of
Methanol is placed into the
device and dry-ice is
progressively added to it to
steadily reduce the
temperature. A sample of the
atmosphere in the tank is
continuously drawn through
the device, passing over the
surface of the Methanol.
When the first signs of
evaporation are observed
(smoke rising from the
surface), the temperature of
the Methanol is noted.
Reference may be required
to tables to correct the
reading for calculation
purposes.
793. Chemical tankers of 20,000
tonnes DWT or above, with
a keel laid on or after 1st
July 1986, when carrying
flammable products with a
flashpoint not exceeding 60
degrees Celsius, such as
those listed in chapters 17
and 18 of the International
Bulk Chemical Code, are
exempt from DPKP the
requirement to be fitted with
and use an inert gas plant
provided certain conditions
are met. Which of the
following is a summary of
those conditions?
A. The cargo tank does not
exceed 3000 cubic metres
capacity / each tank washing
machine nozzle does not
exceed 17.5 cubic metres per
hour delivery rate / the total
wash water input to the tank
from all tank washing
machines does not exceed
110 cubic metres per hour.
B. The cargo tank is greater
than 3000 cubic metres
capacity / each tank washing
machine nozzle is capable of
delivering a minimum of
17.5 cubic metres per hour /
the total wash water input to
the tank from all tank
washing machines must be
at least 110 cubic metres per
hour.
C. The cargo tank does not
exceed 1250 cubic metres
capacity / each tank washing
machine nozzle does not
exceed 12.5 cubic metres per
hour delivery rate / the total
wash water input to the tank
from all tank washing
machines does not exceed
90 cubic metres per hour.
D. The cargo tank is greater
than 1250 cubic metres
capacity / the number of
tank washing machines in
use at any one time must be
such that no more than 17.5
cubic metres per hour is
delivered / the minimum
quantity of wash water
delivered in the washing
operation must be greater
than 110 cubic metres.
794. High level and high-high
level alarms must be tested
at the tank for proper
operation within 24 hours of
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 the start of cargo transfer on
a chemical tanker. What
acceptable alternative is
there to this requirement?
A. That a function test is
carried out by means of an
automatic self-test and
circuit monitoring facility
within the alarm system.
B. There is no alternative to
this requirement. The test
must be conducted at the
tank location and the audible
and visual alrams sighted.
The results must be logged
accordingly.
C. That a function test is
carried out on completion of
cleaning operations
following discharge.
D. That a programme of
maintenance, including
selective function tests,
exists within the vessel's
Planned maintenance
System, provided all such
level alarms are tested at
least once within a period of
three months.
795. How would you determine
whether a particular cargo
transfer hose was compatible
with the chemical product to
be transferred?
A. Refer to the product entry in
the hose manufacturer's
chemical resistance chart.
B. Check the product
classification mark stamped
on the flange collar of the
hose.
C. Check the colour of the hose
against the general
classification code in the
IBC Code.
D. There will be no need to
check. If the hose has been
supplied to a chemical
tanker, it will have been
certified for the transfer of
all chemical products.
796. 118. If your chemical tanker
is equipped with high
velocity venting valves, at
what minimum height above
the weather deck or catwalk
should they be installed?
A. 3 metres
B. 2.5 metres
C. 4.5 metres
D. 6 metres
797. In a typical shipboard de-
humidifier plant as may be
found on a modern chemical
tanker, operating on a
"rotating bed" principle,
what names are given to the
two parts of the rotating
bed?
A. The "process sector" and the
"reactivation sector".
B. The "inbound sector" and
"outbound sector".
C. The "active sector" and the
"dormant sector".
D. The "live sector" and the
"reserve sector".
798. The IBC Code prescribes
certain design conditions for
a cargo heating or cooling
system fitted to a chemical
tanker. What does it require
in respect of pressure within
such a system, for any
condition other than when it
is empty?
A. That a higher pressure can
be maintained within the
system than the maximum
pressure head that could be
exerted by the contents of
the cargo tank on that
system.
B. That a lower pressure will be
maintained within the
system than the actual
pressure head that is being
exerted by the contents of
the cargo tank on that
system.
C. That the system must be
fitted with automatic control
valves that will maintain the
inlet pressure at not less than
0.2 bar above the return
pressure.
D. That an automatic DPKP
alarm is
fitted to alert the operator
when the pressure within the
system drops to within 0.2
bar of the pressure measured
at the lowest located cargo
pressure sensor within the
tank.
799. The specified maximum
working pressure of a cargo
hose in service on a
chemical tanker should be at
least which of the
following?
A. 10 bar gauge.
B. 12 bar gauge.
C. 5 bar gauge.
D. 1/3 design burst pressure.
800. To what pressure will a new
length of cargo hose be
tested by a manufacturer
prior to its supply to a vessel
for service onboard a
chemical tanker?
A. Not less than one and a half
times its specified maximum
working pressure, but not
more than two-fifths of its
bursting pressure.
B. Not more than one and a
half times its specified
maximum working pressure,
but not less than two-fifths
of its bursting pressure.
C. Not less than one and a half
times its nominal bursting
pressure, but not more than
four-fifths of its specified
maximum working pressure.
D. 2 times its designed working
pressure, but not more than
three-fifths of its nominal
bursting pressure.
801. What temperature defines
"hot" water in the context of
tank washing on a chemical
tanker?
A. At least 60 degrees Celsius.
B. At least 70 degrees Celsius.
C. At least 40 degrees Celsius.
D. A minimum of 10 degrees
Celsius above the discharge
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 temperature of the cargo.
802. When a submerged
centrifugal cargo pump is
being run at too high a speed
during discharge of a
viscous chemical cargo, the
pump may start racing,
causing a heat build-up
around the suction, possible
localised solidification of the
cargo and consequent
damage to the pump. What
term is applied to this
problem?
A. Cavitation.
B. Gravitation.
C. Aggregation.
D. Synthesis.
803. Which of the following is a
summary of the features of a
"controlled tank venting
system" as may be found on
a chemical tanker?
A. PV valves are fitted to limit
the pressure or vacuum in
the tank; no shut-off valves
may be fitted either above or
below the PV valves;
provision may be made to
by-pass the PV valves under
certain operating conditions;
such a system shall consist
of a primary and secondary
means of allowing full flow
of vapour, except that the
secondary system may be
replaced by pressure sensors
fitted within the tank.
B. PV valves are fitted to limit
the pressure or vacuum
within the tank; the PV
valves shall be capable of
being isolated or by-passed;
the system shall be
supplemented by pressure
sensors within the cargo
tank.
C. The system permits vapour
recovery via a collection
manifold which may be
connected to a shore
reception facility.
D. The system is fitted to a tank
used for cargoes having a
flash point not exceeding 60
degrees Celsius and is fitted
with a device to prevent the
passage of flame into the
cargo tank.
804. You are carrying a bulk
cargo of Phosphoric Acid.
Which components of the
cargo pumps may be
damaged as a result of
discharging this particular
cargo and why?
A. The cargo seals may be
damaged from the abbrasive
effect of any sediment.
B. The outer casing may be
corroded by the unstable
impurities within the acid.
C. The impeller veins may be
damaged as a result of the
relatively high density of the
cargo if the pumps are run at
too high a speed.
D. The valves in the associated
piping may be distorted by
pressure surges created by
cavitation as the acid is
discharged
805. A five yearly thorough
survey of cargo gear on a
General Cargo vessel should
be carried out by:
E. A classification society
surveyor.
F. The master.
G. A deck officer designated by
the master.
H. A marine surveyor
appointed by the company.
806. A General Cargo vessel has
a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift
derrick and a load of 48
tonnes is to be loaded. The
lifting gear of slings and
spreader bar weighs 4
tonnes. In this case, it would
be correct to state that:
E. The load cannot be loaded
because the combined
weight of the load and the
lifting gear will exceed the
SWL by two tonnes.DPKP
F. The load can be loaded
because the load itself is less
than the SWL of the derrick.
G. The load can be loaded
because the SWL can
sometimes be exceeded by
small amounts in cargo
operations, since the
Breaking Load of the slings
is much higher.
H. The load cannot be loaded
because the combined
weight of the load and the
lifting gear must be at least
10% less than the SWL of
the derrick.
807. During a pre-loading survey
on board a General Cargo
ship, the most efficient
method of testing the
weather tightness of the
hatch covers is considered to
be:
E. Ultra sonic test.
F. Chalk test.
G. Visual inspection.
H. Hose test.
808. During cargo watch on a
General Cargo ship, if the
OOW informs you that the
condition of the discharge
equipment such as slings
and shackles being used by
the stevedores is unsuitable
for use, you should:
E. Inform stevedores of
concern and protest by letter.
F. Continue discharge as
planned and inform
Designated Person
Ashore(DPA).
G. Refuse to discharge and
inform the local agents.
H. Provide ships equipment to
discharge.
809. Information about the
maximum point loading in
cargo holds and on decks of
a General Cargo Vessel may
be obtained from:
E. Ships Capacity plan.
194
 F. General Arrangement plan.
G. Docking plan.
H. Planned maintenance
schedules.
810. On a general cargo ship,
operating the heavy lift
derricks with the boom close
to horizontal could result in:
E. Excessive stresses acting on
parts of the derrick system.
F. The operator having a
restricted view of the lifting
operation.
G. Sudden loss of stability of
the vessel.
H. Damage to the cargo by ship
structures.
811. On a General Cargo ship,
the most likely cause of a
hatch cover hydraulic
system to deteriorate would
be:
E. Due to dust and cargo
particles lodged around the
piston seals.
F. Due to repeated hatch cover
operations.
G. Due to hatch cover
operations in high summer
temperatures.
H. Due to ice accretion on
piston jackets.
812. On a General Cargo vessel,
a 16T derrick should be
tested to a proof load of:
A. 20T
B. 18T
C. 22T
D. 24T
813. Prior to loading cotton on a
General Cargo vessel, it is
important to ensure that:
A. The cargo hold fire-fighting
system is thoroughly
examined.
B. The holds are inspected for
signs of previous cargo
residues.
C. Tank tops should be
sheathed.
D. The cargo hold ventilation
system is thoroughly
examined.
814. Prior to loading general
cargo on a General Cargo
vessel, with regard to
lashing wires, terminations,
shackles, turnbuckles, pad
eyes and D rings etc., you
must make sure that:
A. They must all be certified
and be visually inspected for
any apparent damage.
B. They must all be visually
inspected.
C. They must all be certified.
D. Lashing wires must be new
whereas other accessories
may be certified.
815. Proper guidance on the
stowage and securing of
general cargo may be
obtained by referring to:
A. IMO Code of practice for
stowage and securing of
cargoes.
B. IMO Code of Practice for
Bulk and General Cargoes.
C. International Load Line
Regulations.
D. IMO Code of Practice for
maintaining stowage safety
on cargo ships.
816. The lifting plant on a
General Cargo vessel be
proof load tested:
A. When equipment is new,
every five years and after
repairs or major
modifications.
B. Only after initial installation
of equipment.
C. Only when major repairs
have been carried out to the
equipment.
D. Every four years and after
major repairs and
modifications.
817. The main purpose of a hatch
cover ventilator grill on a
General Cargo vessel is:
E. To prevent sparks entering
the cargo hold. DPKP
F. To prevent the ventilator
fans from damage.
G. To prevent moisture from
entering the hold.
H. To act as a strength member
inside the ventilation shaft.
818. The ship’s lifting plant must
be proof load tested and all
parts thoroughly examined
at intervals not exceeding:
E. 5 years
F. 3 years
G. 1 year
H. 6 months
819. When general cargo is
damaged during heavy
weather on a General Cargo
vessel, it must be ensured
that the damage is inspected
by the:
E. Surveyor representing the
vessel's P. & I. Club.
F. Class surveyor.
G. Surveyor representing the
vessel's hull & machinery
underwriters.
H. Surveyor representing the
consignee.
820. According to "Summary of
minimum requirements" in
the IGC Code, what is the
requirement for vapour
detection for methane
(LNG) cargoes?
A. Flammable vapour
detection.
B. Toxic vapour detection.
C. Flammable and toxic
detection.
D. Oxygen analyser.
821. According to the IMO Gas
Code, what is the
requirement for the number
of sets of portable gas
detection equipment that
must be carried onboard an
LNG carrier?
A. There must be at least two
sets.
B. There must be at least one
set.
195
 C. Sets of portable gas
detection equipment are only
required to be carried when
there is no fixed installation.
D. It is only necessary to carry
a portable oxygen analyser.
822. According to the IMO Gas
Codes, what are the
maximum time intervals for
sampling and analysing
samples from the permanent
installed gas detection
system on a LNG carrier?
A. 30 minutes.
B. 20 minutes.
C. 45 minutes.
D. 10 minutes.
823. According to the IMO Gas
Codes, what is the required
number of temperature
indicating devices in the
cargo tanks of an LNG
carrier?
A. At least two devices in each
tank.
B. At least three devices in
each tank. One placed at the
bottom of the tank, one in
the middle of the tank and
one near the top of the tank.
C. One device in each tank.
D. There is no requirement for
the number of devices.
824. Gas carrier type A and B
cargo tanks have a MARVS
of less than 0.7 barg? What
is the liquid and vapour
connection shut off valve
requirement for this type of
tank according to the IMO
gas codes?
A. Single shut-off valves with
manual closing facility.
B. Double remote operated shut
off valves.
C. One manually operated
globe valve and one
remotely operated valve.
D. Double butterfly valves
fitted in series.
825. LNG tankers are often fitted
with fixed water spray
system for fire protection
purposes for deck areas,
deck tanks, deck manifolds
and pipelines. What is the
minimum required flow rate
of water per minute for
horizontal and vertical
surfaces to ensure adequate,
uniform coverage of these
areas?
A. 10 litre/m2 per minute for
horizontal surfaces and 4
litre/m2 per minute for
vertical surfaces.
B. 20 litre/m2 per minute for
horizontal surfaces and 10
litre/m2 per minute for
vertical surfaces.
C. 100 litre/m2 per minute for
horizontal surfaces and 50
litre/m2 per minute for
vertical surfaces.
D. 50 litre/m2 per minute for
horizontal surfaces and 25
litre/m2 per minute for
vertical surfaces.
826. Select, from the options
given, the one that best
describes a requirement of
the remotely controlled
valves fitted in the ESD
(Emergency Shut-Down)
systems on an LNG carrier?
A. They must be fail-safe.
B. They must be pneumatically
operated.
C. They must be hydraulically
operated.
D. They must be electrically
operated.
827. Some LNG carriers are
fitted with a water glycol
system for heating the
cofferdam spaces next to
cargo tanks when the vessel
is loaded. What is the
purpose of this heating
system?
A. To maintain the temperature
inside the space above 5
degrees C to protect the
steel.
DPKP
B. To maintain the temperature
inside the space at
approximately 25 degrees C
to prevent the fuel tanks
from cooling down too
much.
C. To maintain the temperature
inside the space at
approximately 15 degrees C
to protect the insulation.
D. To maintain the temperature
inside the space at below
minus 5 degrees C to reduce
cargo vaporisation.
828. What is the minimum
requirement with respect to
pressure relief valves on the
cargo tanks of an LNG
carrier where the individual
tanks are over 20 cubic
metres capacity?
A. Two valves.
B. One valve.
C. Three valves.
D. There is no such
requirement.
829. What is the preferred
method of accommodating
expansion in cargo pipeline
systems on LNG carriers?
A. Use expansion loops.
B. Use sliding couplings.
C. Use expansion bellows.
D. Use Viking Johnson
expansion couplings.
830. What is the purpose of the
"forcing vaporizer" found in
some LNG carrier cargo
plants?
A. To provide gas for burning
in the boiler.
B. To displace inert gas from
cargo tanks.
C. For initial heating in the
insulating spaces.
D. To discharge cargo without
a vapour return from shore.
831. When LNG is used as fuel a
double wall piping system
must be used in the engine
room. What condition
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 should the annular space
between the concentric pipes
be maintained in when the
fuel system is in service?
A. Filled with nitrogen at a
pressure greater than the
LNG fuel pressure.
B. Filled with nitrogen at a
pressure less than the LNG
fuel pressure.
C. Filled with nitrogen at a
partial vacuum.
D. Maintained at a full vacuum.
832. Which kind of cargo pumps
are the most commonly used
in cargo systems for LNG
carriers?
A. Submerged electric motor
pumps.
B. Hydraulic driven submerged
pumps.
C. Electric driven screw
pumps.
D. Hydraulic driven screw
pumps.
833. Which line can be utilized to
prevent line surge when
starting the main pumps of a
LNG carrier's cargo system?
A. The condensate spray line.
B. The inert gas line.
C. The vent line.
D. The aeration pipes.
834. Which of the following
insulation materials that are
used in the cargo
containment systems for
LNG carriers has the highest
diffusion resistance?
A. Polyurethane foam.
B. Balsa wood.
C. Perlite.
D. Mineral wool.
835. A chlorine carrier must be
equipped with a chlorine
absorption plant connected
to the cargo tanks and cargo
lines. This requirement
includes the provision of gas
detectors for the spaces and
areas around the cargo
containment system and the
absorption plant outlet.
What is the recommended
setting for the visual and
audible alarms of the gas
detectors?
A. 5 ppm.
B. 10 ppm.
C. 15 ppm.
D. 20 ppm.
836. Cargo heaters are frequently
used when discharging
refrigerated LPG cargoes
into pressurised shore tanks.
What would be a typical
"heating range" required
from a heater for discharge
of fully refrigerated
propane?
A. From - 45 C to - 5 C.
B. From - 55 C to - 15 C.
C. From - 35 C to + 5 C.
D. From -25 C to +15 C.
837. Cargo hoses intended for
liquefied gas carriers have to
be prototyped tested before
being approved. When new
hoses of an already
approved type are received
onboard they also need to be
pressure tested before being
put into service. What are
the IMO Gas Code
requirements for such hoses
before they are put into
service?
A. Not less than 1.5 times the
specified maximum working
pressure or more than two
fifths of bursting pressure at
ambient temperature.
B. Not less than 1.5 times the
specified maximum working
pressure or more than two
fifths of bursting pressure at
the expected cargo carriage
temperature.
C. 5 times the specified
maximum working pressure
at ambient temperature.
D. 5 times the specified
maximum working pressure
at expected cargo DPKP
carriage
temperature.
838. LPG carriers rely heavily on
the compressors fitted as
part of the reliquefaction
plant. Screw and
reciprocating types are
widely used. Which type of
reciprocating compressor is
most common as a cargo
compressor?
A. Double acting, single stage,
oil free compressor.
B. Double acting, single stage,
oil lubricated piston
compressor.
C. Single acting, single stage,
oil free piston compressor.
D. Double acting, two stage, oil
free compressor.
839. Most reliquefaction plants
on LPG carriers use a direct
cooling system. Which of
the statements given in the
options best describes a
direct cooling cycle?
A. Cargo vapours are drawn off
by a compressor,
compressed, condensed than
passed through an expansion
valve back to the tank.
B. Cargo liquid is pumped to a
condenser where it is cooled
by seawater and then passed
through an expansion valve
back to the cargo tank.
C. Refrigerant gas is passed
through a cooling coil in the
cargo tank vapour space
which cools the cargo
vapour below the dew point
turning it back into liquid
cargo.
D. All direct cooling systems
require a refrigerant gas
cooled vapour condenser so
that the lowest possible
temperature is achieved to
change the vapour back to
the liquid state.
840. Some liquefied gas carriers
are fitted with nitrogen
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 generating equipment, often
of the membrane module
design. What would be the
expected purity of the
nitrogen produced by such
equipment?
A. 95 to 97% pure nitrogen.
B. 100% pure nitrogen.
C. 90 to 92% pure nitrogen.
D. 87 to 89% pure nitrogen.
841. The IMO Gas Codes require
that all liquefied gas carrier
cargo tanks are fitted with
pressure relief valves. Pilot
operated relief valves are
frequently used, particularly
with refrigerated cargoes.
What is the main advantage
of using pilot operated relief
valves rather than simple
spring loaded types for
refrigerated liquefied gas
cargoes tanks?
A. They ensure accurate
operation at the very low
cargo carriage pressures.
B. They ensure accurate
operation at the very low
cargo carriage temperatures.
C. The set pressure can be
adjusted to above MARVS
if problems occur with the
reliquefaction plant.
D. When pilot operated valves
are used only one valve per
cargo tank is required
irrespective of tank size.
842. The reliquefaction plant for
cargo cooling of liquefied
gas cargoes can operate on
either a direct or indirect
cycle. On which liquefied
gas cargoes must indirect
cycle cargo cooling plant be
used according to the IMO
Gas Codes?
A. Cargoes such as chlorine,
ethylene oxide and
propylene oxide for which
the vapours cannot be
compressed due to
temperature restrictions.
B. LPG cargoes being carried
in north European waters
during winter time
C. All liquefied cargoes in
north European waters
during winter time
D. Cargoes such as butadiene
and vinyl chloride which
need two stage cycle with
intercooling.
843. There are a number of
standard reliquefaction
plants commonly fitted
onboard LPG and other
liquefied gas carriers. What
type of reliquefaction plant
is required for a cargo of
Ethylene Oxide?
A. Indirect cycle.
B. Cascade direct cycle.
C. Two-stage direct cycle.
D. Single-stage direct cycle.
844. There are strict rules
governing the placement and
category of electrical
equipment allowed in certain
areas of liquefied gas
carriers. One such category
is that of flameproof
enclosures. What is a
flameproof enclosure?
A. One which can withstand the
pressure build-up during an
internal ignition of a
flammable mixture and is
designed to cool any flames
occurring within the
enclosure to below the
ignition temperature.
B. One which is maintained
under positive pressure so
preventing the formation of
a flammable mixture.
C. One in which the equipment
has such low electrical
power that there is
insufficient energy to ignite
a flammable mixture and
cause a flame.
D. One which is filled with
inert gas to prevent
formation and possible
ignition of a flammable
mixture.
845. What is the DPKPmain
disadvantage of using oil
free, screw type compressors
for the reliquefaction plant
of an LPG carrier?
A. The compressor has to run at
very high speeds to
compensate for internal
leakage.
B. The compressor rotor
elements wear quickly as
they have no lubrication.
C. The compressors quickly
overheat.
D. The compressor bearings
wear out very quickly.
846. What is the purpose of an
automatic shut-down system
fitted onboard most liquefied
gas carriers and how is it
initiated?
A. To prevent overfilling of the
cargo tanks. It is initiated by
a high level sensor in the
cargo tank.
B. To prevent overfilling of the
cargo tanks. It is initiated by
a back-pressure switch in the
cargo loading line.
C. To prevent cargo tanks from
being overcooled. It is
initiated by a temperature
switch on the cargo cooling
plant.
D. To prevent overpressure of
the cargo tanks. It is initiated
by a pressure switch in the
cargo tank.
847. What is the purpose of the
purge gas condenser fitted to
some liquefied gas carrier
reliquefaction plants?
A. It is used to condense out
any cargo vapours which
have passed through the
main condenser with
incondensable gases.
B. It is used to condense out
any nitrogen or inert gas that
has collected in the main
condenser.
C. It is used to condense all of
the cargo vapours that have
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 been used in purging a cargo
tank.
D. It is used to generate the
cargo vapours required for
purging the cargo tanks.
848. When measuring the liquid
level in the cargo tank of a
liquefied gas carrier a
number of different
corrections may be
necessary to get a true
reading. Why do readings
obtained from a float type
ullage tape sometimes
require a 'tape correction'?
A. The length of tape in contact
with very cold cargo
vapours may contract.
B. The float may become
heavier and partly sink due
to liquid cargo absorption.
C. The vessel may not be on an
even keel when the readings
are taken.
D. The vessel may have a list
when the readings are taken.
849. Which type of reliquefaction
plant can have the cooling
coil placed directly in the
vapour space of the cargo
tank?
A. One type of the indirect
cycle reliquefaction plants.
B. The cascade direct cycle
reliquefaction plant.
C. The single-stage direct cycle
reliquefaction plant.
D. The two-stage direct cycle
reliquefaction plant.
850. A “Pellistor” is:
A. It is an electrical sensor unit
fitted in a flammable gas
detector for measuring
hydrocarbon vapours and air
mixtures to determine
whether the mixture is
within the flammable range
B. It is the common term
applied to the metal, ceramic
or other heat-resisting
material which can cool
even an intense flame below
the temperature required for
ignition, as utilised in a
flame arrester
C. It is the electrical sensor
which detects low pressure
in an Inert Gas generating
control system
D. It is the reactive element in
an oil / water interface
detector
851. According to 33 CFR 156,
for oil tankers trading in US
waters, the minimum
requirement for testing of
cargo transfer hoses and
associated piping system
are:
A. That no leakage occurs
under static liquid pressure
of at least 1.5 times the
maximum allowable
working pressure.
B. That no leakage occurs
under static liquid pressure
of at least 1.25 times the
maximum allowable
working pressure.
C. That no leakage occurs
under dynamic fluid
pressure of less than 1.5
times the maximum
allowable working pressure.
D. That no leakage occurs at
the nominal anticipated
working pressure.
852. After passing through the
scrubbing tower of an inert
gas system, the approximate
level of carbon dioxide in
the inert flue gas should be:
A. 13%
B. 1%
C. 3%
D. 21%
853. An oil tanker with a
defective Oil Discharge
Monitoring Equipment may
be allowed by a Port State
Authority to trade for:
A. One ballast voyage before
proceeding to a repair port.
B. One ballast and one loaded
voyage, DPKP no
provided
cleaning operations are
carried out.
C. An indefinite period as long
as the owners can
demonstrate they have
ordered the spare parts for
repairs.
D. One year, provided that the
vessel is scheduled for a dry-
dock during the next 12
months.
854. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning
machine with a rotational
speed of 1 rpm and a
selected pitch angle of 1.5
degrees is used to perform a
bottom wash with a vertical
angle from 40 degrees to 0
degrees for 1.5 cycles (3
passes). If the throughput of
the machine at design
pressure is 90 m3/hr, what
will be the washing time and
quantity of crude oil
required?
A. 40 minutes and 60 cubic
metres of oil.
B. 30 minutes and 45 cubic
metres of oil.
C. 48 minutes and 70 cubic
metres of oil.
D. 36 minutes and 48 cubic
metres of oil.
855. As per IMO requirements,
the mechanical ventilation
system of the cargo pump
room shall be capable of
making:
A. At least 20 air changes per
hour
B. At least 30 air changes per
hour
C. At least 40 air changes per
hour
D. At least 50 air changes per
hour
856. As per OPA 90
requirements, a vessel over
400 feet (121.9 metres) in
length must carry oil spill
clean-up gear to be able to
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 handle oil spillages of:
A. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic
metres).
B. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic
metres).
C. 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
D. 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).
857. Fluid driven eductors
operate on Bernoulli’s
principle, which states that:
A. The speed of a moving fluid
increases as the pressure in
the fluid decreases.
B. The volume of a fluid
increases as the pressure in it
decreases.The increase in
pressure at the eductor inlet
is inversely proportional to
the decrease in pressure as
measured at the discharge
orifice.
C. The discharge rate is
inversely proportional to the
pressure applied in the drive
inlet.
858. Ship’s cargo pump room
alarm must be automatically
activated when levels of
hydrocarbon gas
concentration are:
A. No higher than 10% of LEL.
B. No higher than 15% of LEL.
C. No higher than 20% of LEL.
D. No higher than 5% of LEL.
859. The automatic stripping
systems fitted on some of
the centrifugal cargo pumps
operate on the principle that:
A. If cargo vapour can be
stopped from entering the
cargo pump suction inlet, the
flow will continue without
cavitation.
B. If the suction is fitted low
enough in the cargo oil tank
and a specified minimum
trim is maintained, suction
will be available until the
tank is completely
discharged.
C. By automatically reducing
the rate at which oil cargo
enters the cargo pump, such
that no vapour is lifted along
with the liquid, there will be
no loss of suction.
D. By the optimum size and
positioning of the suction
inlet that feeds the automatic
stripping system, the cargo
oil tank is discharged to the
maximum possible extent.
860. The calibration of the
ODME is carried with the
use of:
A. Fresh water.
B. The product being carried on
that voyage.
C. Approved bio-degradable
light oil
D. Sea water.
861. The difference between the
absolute pressure of a liquid
at the inlet to a cargo pump
and the vapour pressure of
the liquid is called the:
A. Net Positive Suction Head
Available.
B. Net Positive Suction Head
Requirement.
C. Residual Suction Head
Pressure.
D. Effective Suction Head
Pressure.
862. The inert gas system shall be
capable of delivering inert
gas to the cargo tanks at the
rate of:
A. At least 125% of the
maximum discharge
capacity.
B. At least 150% of the
maximum discharge
capacity.
C. At least 200% of the
maximum discharge
capacity.
D. Equal to the cargo discharge
capacity.
863. The typical amounts of
sulphur dioxide gas in flue
gas produced when burning
high sulphur content fuels
would be: DPKP
A. 2,000 ppm
B. 200 ppm
C. 4,000 ppm
D. 850 ppm
864. The usual pressure and
vacuum levels at which the
P/V valves on board an oil
tanker are required to
activate are:
A. Pressure: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
Vacuum: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar)
B. Pressure: 3.2 psi (0.22 bar)
Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
C. Pressure 7 psi (0.048 bar)
Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
D. Pressure: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar)
Vacuum: 0.2 psi (0.014 bar)
865. When in-service testing a
hose used for cargo transfer
on an oil tanker (and for
which the elongation of the
hose assembly when new
was greater than 2.5%), the
maximum permitted
elongation before the hose
must be withdrawn from
service should be:
A. Not more than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation
measured when the hose
assembly was new, as
documented in the
manufacturer's certificate.
B. Not less than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation
measured when the hose
assembly was new, as
documented in the
manufacturer's certificate.
C. Not more than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation
measured at the previous in-
service test, as documented
in the ship's annual test
record.
D. Not more than 1.25 times
the temporary elongation
measured when the hose
assembly was last tested, as
documented in the
appropriate certificate.
200
866. When tank cleaning hoses
are tested for electrical
continuity, they must display
a reading of:
A. Not greater than 6 ohms per
metre length.
B. Not more than 10 ohms per
metre length.
C. At least 8 ohms per metre
length.
D. It depends on the
manufacturer's
recommendations.
867. A decision support system
for emergency management
shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What
type of emergency situations
shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency
plans?
A. Fire, Damage to ship,
Pollution, Unlawful acts
threatening the safety of the
ship and the security of its
passenger and crew,
Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-
related accidents,
Emergency assistance to
other ships
B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution,
Personnel accidents and
Ship Security
C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution
and Man-Over-Board
D. Man-Over-Board,
Evacuation and Fire
868. Emergency instructions in
appropriate languages shall
be posted in passenger
cabins. Which information
shall as a minimum be
included in the emergency
instructions?
A. The method of donning life-
jackets, escape routes and
alarm signals
B. Escape routes and alarm
signals
C. Name of cabin attendant
D. Where to find thermal
protective aids
869. Here do you find detailed
information and specific
technical requirements for
life-saving appliances?
A. Life-Saving Apliance Code
(LSA Code)
B. SOLAS
C. ISM Code
D. Safety Management System
870. How many lifejackets are
required in a passenger
cabin?
A. Same number as beds in the
cabin
B. At least 2
C. Twice the number of beds in
the cabin
D. Non, they will be handed out
at the muster station
871. How many rescue boats
should be provided on
passenger ships of 500 gross
tons and above?
A. Two, one on each side of the
ship
B. Two, and at least one of the
rescue boats shall be a Fast
Rescue Boat
C. One Fast Rescue Boat
D. None
872. How many two-way VHF
radiotelephone apparatus
shall be provided on board a
passenger ship of 500 gross
tonnage and upwards?
A. 3
B. 2
C. One for each survival craft
D. It is required to have a fixed
two-way VHF fitted in a
survival craft
873. Is it required that the PA-
system (Public Address) is
connected to a back-up
power sypply?
A. Yes, the public address
system shall be connected to
the emergency source of
power
B. Yes, only if the voyage is
more than 12 hours
DPKP the
C. No, the crew will inform
passengers in case of any
black out or power failure
D. No
874. Is it required to have
supplementary emergency
lighting on board passenger
ships?
A. Yes, all passenger public
spaces and alleyways shall
be provided with
supplementary electric
lighting
B. No, portable battery
operated lamps shall be
provided in alleyways and
public spaces
C. No, passengers should bring
their own flashlights
D. No, reflective marking
indicates the escape routes
875. One water fog applicator is
required for each pair of
breathing apparatus on board
which type of ship?
A. Passenger ships carrying
more than 36 passengers
B. Chemical tankers
C. Tankers
D. Passenger ships fitted with
car decks
876. Passenger ships have a
normal requirement of 1
lifejacket per person + 10%
for children. In addition to
this, how many lifejackets
have to be stowed in
conspicuous places on deck
or at the muster stations?
A. 5% extra
B. 10% extra
C. 25% extra
D. 50% extra
877. Passenger ships shall either
carry automatically self-
righting liferafts or canopied
reversible liferafts. What
does it mean that a liferaft is
automatically self-righting?
A. The liferaft will
automatically turn back into
201
 an upright position when it
is empty of people
B. The liferaft will
automatically turn back into
an upright position when it
is fully loaded with people
C. One person can manage to
turn the liferaft back into an
upright position
D. It means the same as self-
righting lifeboats
878. What is the minimum
number of independently
driven fire pumps that must
be provided on passenger
ships of 4000 tons gross
tonnage and upwards?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
879. What is the minimum
number of lifebuoys that
shall be provided with self-
igniting lights an self-
activating smoke signals?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 50% of the total number of
lifebuoys
D. At least 1
880. What is the name of this
unit?
A. A hydrostatic release unit
B. A liferaft release unit
C. An antistatic release unit
D. A slip hook
881. What is the purpose of an
evacuation analysis?
A. To identify and eliminate, as
far as practicable,
congestion which may
develop during an
abandonment
B. To ensure the ship can be
evacuated in less than 30
minutes
C. To provide port state control
inspectors with reports
D. To provide the passengers
with written results of the
analysis
882. What is the time limit for
abandonment of passenger
ships?
A. 30 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
B. 15 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
C. 2 hours from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
D. There is no time limit
883. Where do you find detailed
information and specific
technical requirements for
fire safety systems?
A. Fire Safety Systems Code
(FSS Code)
B. SOLAS
C. ISM Code
D. Safety Management System
884. Where shall you be able to
activate the ship security
alert system on board
passenger ships?
A. From the navigation bridge
and in at least one other
location
B. Navigation bridge
C. Captain's- and Chief
Officer's office
D. Captain's office
885. Which one of the listed
requirements for passenger
ships regarding personal
life-saving appliances do not
correspond to present
regulations?
A. All lifejackets shall be fitted
with a whistle, a light and a
smoke signal
B. Ro-ro passenger ships shall
carry at least 2 lifebuoys
provided with self-igniting
lights an self-activating
smoke signals
C. All lifejackets shall be fitted
with reflex, a whistle and a
light
D. The 5% extra lifejackets
carried on board have to be
stowed in conspicuous
places on deck orDPKP
at the
muster stations?
886. As part of the
decommissioning process
for old reefer vessels they
are sent to a recycling yard
where any refrigerant
remaining in the
refrigeration system is dealt
with. Which one of the
actions given in the options
needs to be carried out in
preparation for delivery of a
vessel to a recycling yard?
A. Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard
and note this in the Ozone
depletionrecord Book prior
to discharging the gas into
recovery bottles.
B. Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard
prior to arrival at the yard
and note this in the Ozone
Depleting Record Book.
C. Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard
and note this in the Ozone
Depleting Record Book
before discharging the gas to
atmosphere.
D. Discharge the gas to
atmosphere prior to arrival
to minimise handling costs
at the recycling yard.
887. As well as having
temperature sensors located
in the cargo holds some
reefer vessels are also fitted
with ethylene sensors. Why
is it useful to have
information regarding the
ethylene content in a reefer
vessel cargo hold when
carrying fruit cargoes?
A. Some fruit cargoes are
sensitive to ethylene and the
quality of the cargo can
deteriorate as they may
over-ripen.
B. The ethylene content can be
used as a guide as to when
air change fans need to run.
202
 C. The ethylene content is
beneficial to perishable
cargoes in transit so the
content needs to be
monitored in case the level
falls.
D. The ethylene content must
be maintained to help ripen
the fruit during the sea
voyage.
888. Data loggers are a vital part
of the temperature control
and monitoring system on a
reefer vessel. In a situation
where the data logger fails
several days before the end
of the voyage it is still
necessary to maintain
control of and monitor cargo
temperatures. How could an
accurate, portable
thermometer be used to the
best effect, to achieve this,
in such a situation?
A. Use the thermometer to
check and control the
delivery air temperature by
inserting it in the delivery air
ducting close to the
evaporators.
B. Use the thermometer to
check and control the return
air temperature by holding it
in the return air space on top
of the cargo.
C. Use the thermometer to
check the pulp temperature
by entering the cargo space
and placing it in the centre
of the stow.
D. Use the thermometer to
maintain the delivery air
settings as they were prior to
the data logger breaking
down.
889. Despite setting what appears
to be the correct delivery air
temperatures in accordance
with shipper's instructions,
large cargo loss claims can
still occur when operating
reefer vessels. Which of the
options given is likely to
help avoid the majority of
these large claims?
A. By confirming the
temperature scale that the
shipper is using in his
carriage instructions,
Fahrenheit or Celsius.
B. By confirming that the
shipper is supplying to a
market that works in
Fahrenheit or Celsius.
C. By confirming that the
vessel plant is calibrated in
the same temperature scale
that the shipper is quoting.
D. By confirming the whether
the shipper is referring to the
delivery air or pulp
temperature of the cargo.
890. Many fruit cargoes are
carried refrigerated and also
under controlled atmosphere
(CA) conditions. A situation
develops where there is a
problem with the main
reefer plant that will take
several hours to repair but
the CA system is still
operation. Which of the
statements given in the
options is the most accurate
in these circumstances?
A. The CA plant is only an
adjunct for the refrigeration
plant and therefore there
should be concern about the
condition of the cargo.
B. The CA plant will take care
of the cargo without the
refrigeration plant and
therefore there is no further
action required and no need
for concern.
C. The CA plant could be used
to increase the levels of
carbon dioxide in the cargo
space which will be
sufficient to preserve the
fruit.
D. The CA plant could be used
to increase the levels of
nitrogen in the cargo spaces
which will be sufficient to
preserve the fruit.
DPKP
891. Many reefer vessels are
fitted with controlled
atmosphere systems (CA).
There are a number of
different systems available
but generally they all work
by introducing nitrogen into
the cargo space. Select, from
the options given, the main
reason why nitrogen is
generally the gas chosen for
controlling the atmosphere
in the cargo spaces of a
reefer vessel.
A. Nitrogen displaces the
oxygen in the cargo space
and allows the respiration of
the fruit to be controlled.
B. Nitrogen is the most
plentiful gas available.
C. Nitrogen remains as a gas at
all temperatures used in
refrigerated transport.
D. Nitrogen is inert and there is
no risk of creating a
flammable mixture in the
cargo space.
892. Most fruit cargoes carried
under refrigeration require
introduction of fresh air into
the cargo space to remove
any excess carbon dioxide
and ethylene produced by
respiration of the cargo and
sensors are fitted to detect
these gases. Shipper's
instructions will often
indicate 'constant air change'
as a requirement for a cargo.
Why, even though this is a
crude method for controlling
the cargo space atmosphere,
is this type of instruction
given?
A. Some cargoes are very
sensitive to ethylene levels
and it may be difficult to
accurately measure the low
levels that would affect a
cargo.
B. It is the standard method and
it is always done that way
for simplicity.
203
 C. As much fresh air as
possible should always be
introduced into the cargo
space throughout the voyage
to maintain cargo quality.
D. Fresh air helps to
acclimatise the cargo to the
prevailing ambient
conditions.
893. On a conventional reefer
vessel is possible to ventilate
the cargo spaces with fresh
air using fans and trunkings.
One of the reasons for using
fresh air ventilation is to
control the relative humidity
within the cargo space.
Select the option which best
completes the following
statement. "It is beneficial to
be able to control the
relative humidity within the
cargo space because fruit
cargoes should be kept…
A. …relatively moist to avoid
the cargo dehydrating during
the passage."
B. … relatively dry to avoid the
formation of fungus in the
vent trunkings during the
passage."
C. …relatively dry to avoid
deterioration of the
packaging during the
passage."
D. ... As dry as possible to
avoid build up of mould
during the passage."
894. On a reefer vessel air is
passed over the cooling coils
before entering the cargo
hatch via trunking to cool
the cargo. It is important to
ensure that the cooling coils
are clear of any material
such as plastic sheeting or
bags. Why is this so
important?
A. The plastic may interfere
with the air flow over the
cooling coils and
subsequently the cooling of
the cargo.
B. The plastic sheeting may be
picked up by and foul the
cooling fans.
C. The plastic material may
block scuppers and bilges.
D. The plastic material may
affect condensation forming
on the cooling coils.
895. Prior to loading a reefer
cargo it is good practise to
carry out an 'ice test' of the
temperature sensors within
the cargo space. Part of the
test is to immerse the
sensors in a test bucket of
known temperature, usually
zero degrees Celsius as this
is the melting point of ice.
Which of the options is
correct in relation to
preparing the test bucket?
A. Insulated ice buckets should
be filled with ice cubes
approximately 2 centimetres
square and a small quantity
of distilled water to produce
an ice-water mixture. The
ice cubes should be
produced from clean
distilled water.
B. Insulated ice buckets should
be filled with ice cubes
approximately 2 centimetres
square which have been
made from clean distilled
water.
C. Insulated ice buckets should
be filled with ice produced
in the vessel's low
temperature chamber. A
hole the exact size of the
sensor should be drilled into
the ice and the sensor
inserted into the hole to give
a rapid test process.
D. Insulated ice buckets should
be filled with crushed ice
purchased in bulk from a
shore supplier.
896. Refrigerated cargo spaces
are fitted with temperature
sensors and in some cases
carbon dioxide sensors.
From the options DPKPgiven
select the one which best
completes the following
statement. "Monitoring the
carbon dioxide content in a
cargo space loaded with fruit
can be useful because…
A. … increasing levels indicate
that the fruit may be starting
to ripen."
B. … its presence indicates that
the fruit is ripe."
C. … low levels indicate that
there are insufficient
numbers of air changes."
D. … its presence indicates that
the fruit is still not ripe."
897. Select the option which
correctly completes the
following statement. "A
conventional reefer vessel
operating with a controlled
atmosphere plant must have
cargo spaces which…
A. … have a gas tight seal."
B. … have a minimum number
of deckhead and bulkhead
penetrations."
C. … have the normal bulkhead
and deckhead penetrations
required for a reefer
compartment."
D. … are fitted with variable
speed fans."
898. The data logger on a reefer
vessel normally records
temperatures for air
delivery, air return and cargo
pulp. How would the air
delivery and return
temperatures be expected to
vary during the first few
days of carrying a cargo of
citrus fruit which had not
been pre-cooled before
loading?
A. The difference between the
two temperatures would
steadily reduce.
B. The difference between the
two temperatures would
steadily increase.
C. The difference between the
204
 two temperatures would
remain constant.
D. The two temperatures would
remain constant
899. To correctly interpret the
readings on the printout
from a reefer vessel’s cargo
data logger it is essential to
have some knowledge of the
location of the temperature
sensors. Where would the
temperature sensor for the
delivery air to a cargo hold
be expected to be located?
A. In the air flow path from the
cooling coils, about 3 metres
from the coils.
B. In the air flow path from the
cooling coils, but at the
opposite end of the cargo
space to the coils.
C. Just above the cooling coils
where the air returns from
the cargo space.
D. Near the centre of the cargo
space.
900. What should be done with
the data logger printouts
after completing the
discharge of a refrigerated
cargo?
A. They should be retained
onboard for a minimum of 2
years.
B. They should be retained
onboard indefinitely.
C. They can be discarded once
the discharge is completed.
D. They should be handed over
to the cargo receiver.
901. During sea passage on a roro
vessel, how would you know
if gasoline vapours were
escaping from vehicles?
A. By using flammable gas
detectors in the vehicle
decks
B. By sense of smell
C. By using oxygen meters in
the vehicle decks
D. By using carbon monoxide
meters in the vehicle decks
902. On a roro vessel, to what
should you pay very close
attention, when inspecting
the structure and condition
of movable car decks?
A. Cracks in way of deck
supports
B. General condition of the
portable deck
C. Safety markings on the
portable deck
D. Abrasions over the deck
surface
903. On a roro vessel, what
additional securing
arrangements should be used
when loading a vehicle on
an incline or fixed Ramp
A. The Vehicle should also be
chocked under its wheels
B. Double the normal lashings
should be used
C. Lashings should be checked
to make sure they are really
tight
D. None
904. On a roro vessel, what is
Maximum Securing Load?
A. The load capacity of a
device used to secure cargo
on board
B. The combined capacity of
several devices used to
secure an item of cargo on
board
C. The safe working load of a
device used to secure cargo
on board
D. The combined safe working
loads of various devices
used to secure an items of
cargo on board
905. On a roro vessel, what is the
Maximum Securing Load of
'D' rings?
A. 50% of the breaking strength
B. 25% of the breaking strength
C. 35% of the breaking strength
D. 40% of the breaking strength
906. On a roro vessel, what is the
Maximum SecuringDPKPLoad of
fibre ropes?
A. 33% of the breaking strength
B. 25% of the breaking strength
C. 30% of the breaking strength
D. 40% of the breaking strength
907. On a roro vessel, what is the
Maximum Securing Load of
mild steel shackles?
A. 50% of the breaking strength
B. 40% of the breaking strength
C. 35% of the breaking strength
D. 25% of the breaking strength
908. On a roro vessel, what is the
Maximum Securing Load of
reusable use wire ropes?
A. 30% of the breaking strength
B. 25% of the breaking strength
C. 35% of the breaking strength
D. 40% of the breaking strength
909. On a roro vessel, what is the
Maximum Securing Load of
single use wire ropes?
A. 80% of the breaking strength
B. 65% of the breaking strength
C. 70% of the breaking strength
D. 75% of the breaking strength
910. On a roro vessel, what is the
Maximum Securing Load of
web lashings?
A. 50% of the breaking strength
B. 60% of the breaking strength
C. 55% of the breaking strength
D. 65% of the breaking strength
911. On a roro vessel, when
should a trailer horse be
taken out of service
A. If there is any damage to the
wheel or spring, the frame is
rusted or distorted or the
pads are worn out
B. Every 6 months for routine
maintenance
C. Once per year
D. Never you use them until
they collapse
912. On a roro vessel, where can
you find the validity of web
lashings
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 A. On the certificate supplied
with the equipment
B. On the bridge
C. In the cargo office
D. It does not have one they
last forever
913. On a roro vessel, where will
escaping gasoline
vapourssettle in a cargo
hold? If the forced
ventilation system is shut
down
A. At the lowest levels
B. At deckhead level
C. In ventilator shafts
D. At all levels
914. What must you ensure when
using portable slopes to
discharge ro-ro units?
A. They must be exactly
aligned with the units' tyres
B. They must be new
C. They must be free of dirt
D. The surfaces must be of the
fish-bone type
915. When lowering a roro Cargo
Side or Stern Ramp what
must be ensured ?
A. The vessel is securely
moored and there is nothing
beneath the ramp
B. The ramp must be lowered
by the duty officer only
C. The ramp must be lowered
at the minimum speed
D. The ramp surface must be
clean
916. A decision support system
for emergency management
shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What
type of emergency situations
shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency
plans?
A. Fire, Damage to ship,
Pollution, Unlawful acts
threatening the safety of the
ship and the security of its
passenger and crew,
Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-
related accidents,
Emergency assistance to
other ships
B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution,
Personnel accidents and
Ship Security
C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution
and Man-Over-Board
D. Man-Over-Board,
Evacuation and Fire
917. Emergency instructions in
appropriate languages shall
be posted in passenger
cabins. Which information
shall as a minimum be
included in the emergency
instructions?
A. The method of donning life-
jackets, escape routes and
alarm signals
B. Escape routes and alarm
signals
C. Name of cabin attendant
D. Where to find thermal
protective aids
918. How many lifejackets are
required in a passenger
cabin?
A. Same number as beds in the
cabin
B. At least 2
C. Twice the number of beds in
the cabin
D. None, they will be handed
out at the muster station
919. How many rescue boats
should be provided on ro-ro
passenger ships of 500 gross
tons and above?
A. Two, and at least one of the
rescue boats shall be a Fast
Rescue Boat
B. Two Fast Rescue Boats, one
on each side of the ship
C. One Fast Rescue Boat
D. None providing the ship has
lifeboats
920. How many two-way VHF
radiotelephone apparatus
shall be provided on board a
ro-ro passenger ship of 500
DPKP
gross tonnage and upwards?
A. 3
B. 2
C. One for each survival craft
D. It is required to have a fixed
two-way VHF fitted in a
survival craft
921. Is it required that the PA-
system (Public Address) is
connected to a back-up
power sypply?
A. Yes, the public address
system shall be connected to
the emergency source of
power
B. Yes, only if the voyage is
more than 12 hours
C. No, the crew will inform the
passengers in case of any
black out or power failure
D. No
922. Is it required to have
supplementary emergency
lighting on board ro-ro
ships?
A. Yes, all passenger public
spaces and alleyways shall
be provided with
supplementary electric
lighting
B. No, portable battery
operated lamps shall be
provided in alleyways and
public spaces
C. No, passengers should bring
their own flashlights
D. No, reflective marking
indicates the escape routes
923. Passenger ships have a
normal requirement of 1
lifejacket per person + 10%
for children. In addition to
this, how many lifejackets
have to be stowed in
conspicuous places on deck
or at the muster stations?
A. 5% extra
B. 10% extra
C. 25% extra
D. 50% extra
924. Ro-ro passenger ships shall
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 either carry automatically
self-righting liferafts or
canopied reversible liferafts.
What does it mean that a
liferaft is automatically self-
righting?
A. The liferaft will
automatically turn back into
an upright position when it
is empty of people
B. The liferaft will
automatically turn back into
an upright position when it
is fully loaded with people
C. One person can manage to
turn the liferaft back into an
upright position
D. It means the same as self-
righting lifeboats
925. What is the minimum
number of independently
driven fire pumps that must
be provided on passenger
ships of 4000 tons gross
tonnage and upwards?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
926. What is the minimum
number of lifebuoys that
shall be provided with self-
igniting lights an self-
activating smoke signals?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 50% of the total number of
lifebuoys
D. At least 1
927. What is the purpose of an
evacuation analysis?
A. To identify and eliminate, as
far as practicable,
congestion which may
develop during an
abandonment
B. To ensure the ship can be
evacuated in less than 30
minutes
C. Provide port state control
inspectors with reports
D. To provide the passengers
with written results of the
analysis
928. What is the time limit for
abandonment of ro-ro
passenger ships?
A. 30 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
B. 15 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
C. 2 hours from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
D. There is no time limit
929. What is this?
A. A hydrostatic release unit
B. A liferaft release unit
C. An antistatic release unit
D. A slip hook
930. Where do you find detailed
information and specific
technical requirements for
fire safety systems?
A. Fire Safety Systems Code
(FSS Code)
B. SOLAS
C. ISM Code
D. Safety Management System
931. Where do you find detailed
information and DPKP specific
technical requirements for
life-saving appliances?
A. Life-Saving Apliance Code
(LSA Code)
B. SOLAS
C. ISM Code
D. Safety Management System
932. Where shall you be able to
activate the ship security
alert system on board ro-ro
passenger ships?
A. From the navigation bridge
and in at least one other
location
B. Navigation bridge
C. Captain's- and Chief
Officer's office
D. Captain's office
933. Which one of the listed
requirements for passenger
ships regarding personal
life-saving appliances do not
correspond to present
regulations?
A. All lifejackets shall be fitted
with a whistle, a light and a
smoke signal
B. Ro-ro passenger ships shall
carry at least 2 lifebuoys
provided with self-igniting
lights an self-activating
smoke signals
C. All lifejackets shall be fitted
with reflex, a whistle and a
light
D. The 5% extra lifejackets
carried on board have to be
stowed in conspicuous
places on deck or at the
muster stations?
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