ACES REVIEW CENTER

M6-Doña Amparo Bldg. España Blvd. Manila

TERMS IN ESAS
BY ENGR. JIMMY L. OCAMPO
0920.644.6246

1. For a system to be in equilibrium, the sum of external forces acting on the system must be

A. Zero

B. Equal to unity

C. A maximum

D. Indeterminate

2. The mass moment of inertia of a cylinder about its central axis perpendicular to a circular cross section is

A. Directly proportional to its length

B. Directly proportional to its radius

C. Independent of it radius

D.independent of its length

3. An airtight closed box of weight P is suspended from spring balance. A bird of weight W is placed on the floor of the box and the
balance reads W + P. If the bird flies around in the box at a constant elevation without accelerating, what is the balance reading?

A. P + W

B. P

C. P - W

D. P + 2W

4.The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the

A. Fourth power

B. First power

C. Third power

D. Fifth power

5.The vector which represents the sum of a group of force vectors is called the

A. Resultant

B. Force polygon

C. Magnitude

D. Sum

Which of the following is not a vector quantity;Speed;Velocity;Acceleration;Momentum;;1;1;;;

A rigid body is subjected to three concurrent, coplanar forces. What is the minimum number of independent equations that are
necessary to establish the equilibrium condition?;2;3;1;0;;1;1;;;

Where can a coupe be moved on a rigid body to have an equivalent effect?;Anywhere on a rigid body;Along the line of action;In a
parallel line;Along the perpendicular bisector joining the two original forces;;1;1;;;

How many degrees of freedom does a coin rolling on the ground have?;3;2;5;1;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is false?;The coefficient of restitution can be less than zero;The frictional force always acts to resist
motion;Momentum is conserved during elastic collision;The period of simple pendulum is independent of the mass of the
pendulum;;1;1;;;

A perfect sphere moves up a frictionless incline. Which of the following increase?;Potential energy;Angular velocity;Total
energy;Linear momentum;;1;1;;;
It is the study of motion and the forces that cause motion;Kinetics;Kinematics;Momentum;Rectilinear motion;;1;1;;;

It is the study of a body’s motion independent of the forces on the body.;Kinematics;Kinetics;Momentum;Rectilinear motion;;1;1;;;

The sum of forces on a particle is not equal to zero, the particle is;Accelerating in the same direction as the resultant force;Moving
with constant velocity on the direction of the resultant force;Accelerating in the direction opposite to the resultant force;Moving with
constant velocity opposite to the direction of the resultant force;;1;1;;;

The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to time is;Power;Force;Momentum;Work;;1;1;;;

the impulse momentum principle is mostly useful in solving problems involving;Force, velocity and time;Force, acceleration and
time;Velocity, acceleration and time;Force, velocity and acceleration;;1;1;;;

the stress in elastic material is;Proportional to the displacement of the material acted upon by force;Inversely proportional to the
material’s yield strength;Inversely proportional to strain;Inversely proportional to force acting;;1;1;;;

The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the;Elastic range;Plastic range;Modulus elongation;Irreversible
range;;1;1;;;

The slenderness ratio of a column is generally defined as the ratio of;Unsupported length to its least radius of gyration;Length to its
maximum width;Unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration;Unsupported length to its maximum cross sectional
area;;1;1;;;

Principal stresses occur on those planes;Where the shearing stress is zero;Which are 45° apart;Where the shearing stress is
maximum;Which are subjected only to tension;;1;1;;;

The differential of the shear equation is which one of the following?;Load on the beam;Tensile strength of beam;Bending moment of
the beam;Slope of the elastic curve;;1;1;;;

When air entrainment agent is introduced to a concrete mix;The strength will decrease;The strength will increase;The strength will not
be affected;The water cement ratio must be reduced from 10-15%;;1;1;;;

Structural steel element subjected to torsion develop.;Shearing stress;Tensile stress;Compressive stress;Moment;;1;1;;;

The differential of the shear equation is which one of the following?;Load on the beam;Tensile strength of the beam;Bending moment
of the beam;Slope of the elastic curve;;1;1;;;

The vertically loaded beam, fixed at one end and simply supported at the other end es indeterminate to what
degree?;First;Second;Third;Fourth;;1;1;;;

In a stress-strain diagram, what is the correct term for the stress level at Ɛ=0.2% offset?;The offset yield stress;The elastic limit;The
plastic limit;The offset rapture stress;;1;1;;;

Under which type of loading does a fatigue occur?;Repeated load;Static load;Plane load;High load;;1;1;;;

A specimen is subjected to load. When the load is removed, he strain disappears. From his information, which of the following can
be deduced about this material?;It is elastic;It is a plastic;It has high modulus of elasticity;It does not obey Hooke’s law;;1;1;;;

Which of the following may be the Poisson’s ration of a material?;0.45;0.50;0.55;0..85;;1;1;;;

In bending a rectangular beam under axial load, where is the location of maximum shear stress?;At the neutral axis;At the top
edge;At the bottom edge;At the location between the top edge and the neutral axis;;1;1;;;

What is the bending stress at a section of a loaded beam at its neutral axis?;Zero;A combination of both shear and moment at that
section;Equal to shear at that section;Maximum stress at that section;;1;1;;;

For a simply supported beam, where does the maximum shear stress occur?;At the support;At the section of maximum moment;At
the top fibers;At the bottom fibers;;1;1;;;

A point is located on the inside wall of a thin walled tank under internal pressure. The tank does not experience any torsion. What is
the maximum shear stress at that point, considering all three orthogonal directions?;50% of the hoop stress;25% of the hoop
stress;75% of the hoop stress;Zero;;1;1;;;

Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the ;Until lateral deformation to unit longitudinal deformation;Unit stress to unit strain;Elastic stress
to;proportional limit;Shear strain to compressive strain;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is not a basic component of motion of fluid element?;Twist;Translation;Rotation;Angular distortion;;1;1;;;
For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of proportionally between shear stress and what are the variable?;The spatial
derivative of velocity;The time derivative of pressure;The time derivative of density;The spatial derivative of density;;1;1;;;

A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of this phenomenon?;Surface
tension;Gravity;Air resistance;Viscosity of the fluid;;1;1;;;

If the shear stress in the fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?;It is a Newtonian
gas;It is inviscid;It is a perfect gas;It is a constant temperature;;1;1;;;

How are lines in constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?;They are perpendicular to the force field;They are parallel to
the force field;They are 45° angle to the force field;They are unrelated to force fields;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is most accurate about a streamline?;It is fixed in space in steady flow;It is a path of a fluid particle;It is
defined for non-uniform flow only;It is perpendicular to the path line;;1;1;;;

Under what condition is mass conserved in fluid flow?;It is always conserved;The fluid is baratropic;The flow is isentropic;The flow is
adiabatic;;1;1;;;

What is the origin of the energy conservation equation use in flow systems?;The first law of thermodynamics;Newton’s first law of
motion;Newton’s second law of motion;The second law of thermodynamics;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is the basis for Bernouli’s law of fluid flow?;The principle of conservation of energy;The principle of
conservation of mass;The continuity equation;Fourier’s law;;1;1;;;

What are the units of Reynolds number for pipe flow?;No unit;m/s;sq.ft/s;lb/ft-sec;;1;1;;;

Which of the following ratio is correct in providing a physical meaning for the Reynolds number?;Inertial force/viscous force;Buoyant
force/inertial force;Viscous force/inertial force;Drag force/viscous force;;1;1;;;

What is the friction factor for fully developed flow in circular pipe where Reynolds number is 1000?;0.064;0.008;0.08;0.10;;1;1;;;

For fully developed laminar flow of fluids through pipes, the average velocity is what fraction of the maximum velocity in
pipe?;1/2;1/8;1/4;3/4;;1;1;;;

How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of pure gaseous compound?;2;1;3;4;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is true for water at reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?;Internal energy is zero;Entropy is non
zero;Specific volume is zero;Vapor pressure is zero;;1;1;;;

The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following?;Conservation of energy;Heat transfer;The enthalpy-entropy
relationship;Action-reaction;;1;1;;;

What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?;Zero;Positive;Negative;Positive or negative;;1;1;;;

In reversible process, the area under pV curve in pV diagram represents which of the following?;Work done by the system;Heat
transfer;Enthalpy change;Entropy change;;1;1;;;

What is true about the polytropic exponent n for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?;n=0;n is greater than zero;n is less
than zero;n approaches infinity;;1;1;;;

During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?;It is always zero;It is always less than
zero;It is always greater than zero;It is temperature dependent;;1;1;;;

For irreversible process, what is true about the total change in entropy of the system and surroundings?;It is always greater than
zero;It is always less than zero;It is always zero;It is temperature dependent;;1;1;;;

For which type of process does the equation dQ=TdS hold?;Reversible;Irreversible;Isothermal;Isobaric;;1;1;;;

Which is always true for any process?;Change in entropy is greater than or equal to zero;Change in entropy is less than or equal to
zero;Change in entropy is less than zero;Change in entropy is greater than zero;;1;1;;;

The area under the TS curve in the TS diagram represents?;Heat transfer;Enthalpy change;Work;Free energy change;;1;1;;;

Which of the following thermodynamic cycle is the most efficient?;Carnot;Brayton;Rankine;Diesel;;1;1;;;

The ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic process. What type of process are they?;Two isothermal and two isentropic;All
isothermal;All adiabatic;All isentropic;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?;0°C and one atmosphere pressure;0°K and one atmosphere
pressure;0°F and zero pressure;32°F and zero pressure;;1;1;;;

The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the following cases?;The vapor and liquid have single form;The liquid has no
absorbed gas;The vapor phase is stable;The liquid is completely vaporized;;1;1;;;
How is molality defined?;The number of moles of solute in 1000g of solvent;The number of moles of solute in one liter of
solution;The number of gram-formula weight of solute per liter;The number of gram equivalent weight of solute in one liter of
solution;;1;1;;;

Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?;Sodium, Na;Helium, He;Carbon dioxide,
CO₂;Hydrochloric acid, HCI;;1;1;;;

Two major types of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the following has a bond that is
the least ionic in character?;H₂, hydrogen;NaCl, sodium chloride;CH₄, methane;H₂O, water;;1;1;;;

A substance is oxidized when which of the following is occur?;It losses electron;It turns red;It becomes more negative;It gives off
heat;;1;1;;;

The voltage of galvanic cell does not depend on which of the following parameters?;Volume;Concentration of
solution;Temperature;Pressure;;1;1;;;

Which of the following organic chemicals is most soluble in water?;CH₃OH, methanol;CCl, sodium chloride;CH₄, methane;C₂H₆,
ethane;;1;1;;;

Who discovered the electron?;Joseph John Thomson;John Dalton;Ernest Rutherford;James Chadwick;;1;1;;;

Who discovered the proton?;Ernest Rutherford;Joseph John Thomson;John Dalton;James Chadwick;;1;1;;;

Who discovered the neutron?;James Chadwick;Ernest Rutherford;Joseph John Thomson;John Dalton;;1;1;;;

Who is the father of the modern chemistry?;Antoine Lavoisier;Aristotle;Robert Boyle;John Dalton;;1;1;;;

Approximately, what percent of elements in the periodic table are metals?;80%;70%;60%;90%;;1;1;;;

Who formulated the atomic theory?;John Dalton;Henri Becquerel;Ernest Rutherford;Humphrey Davy;;1;1;;;

Who proposed a plum-pudding (raisin beard) model of an atom?;Joseph John Thomson;Robert Andrews Millikan;John Dalton;Ernest
Rutherford;;1;1;;;

Who discovered radioactivity?;Henri Becquerel;Marie Curie;Niels Bohr;Pierre Currie;;1;1;;;

What are the rows in periodic table called?;Periods;Groups;Families;Transitions;;1;1;;;

The elements with the similar properties are placed in column of the periodic table. The columns are commonly called?;Groups or
families;Periods;Groups;Families;;1;1;;;

The elements in group in the periodic table are called?;Cogeners;Affinities;Representatives;Families;;1;1;;;

Elements in group I A in the periodic table are called?;Alkali metals;Alkaline earth metals;Boron group;Carbon group;;1;1;;;

Elements in group II A in the periodic table are called?;Alkaline earth metals;Alkali metals;Boron group;Carbon group;;1;1;;;

What element is used as electric power source for pacemakers and artificial
hearts?;Promethium;Neodymium;Uranium;Plutonium;;1;1;;;

What element is commonly used in making lasers?;Neodymium;Chromium;Terbium;Promethium;;1;1;;;

What is a high energy, electrically charged gas, produced by heating the gas until the electrons in the outer orbital of the atoms
separates, leaving the atom with a positive charge?;Plasma;Boss-Einstein Condensate (BEC);Quartz;Quark;;1;1;;;

It is made of gas atoms that have been cooled to near absolute zero at which temperature the atoms combine and forms a super
atom?;Boss-Einstein Condensate (BEC);Plasma;Quartz;Quark;;1;1;;;

What is formed by sharing electrons between atoms?;Covalent bond;Ionic bond;Metallic bond;Electronic bond;;1;1;;;

It is the electrostatic attraction that holds together the oppositely charge ions in the solid compound?;Ionic bond;Covalent
bond;Metallic bond;Electronic bond;;1;1;;;

What force hold molecules together in crystals?;Van der Waals forces;Ionic forces;Cohesive force;Diffusive force;;1;1;;;

It is a substance which when added to reacting mixture increases the rate of reaction but remains
unchanged?;Catalyst;Inhibitors;Accelerators;Neutral substance;;1;1;;;

What is the opposite of alkali?;Acid;Fluid;Oxide;Carbon;;1;1;;;

The condition of liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of?;Specific gravity;Acid content;Voltage output;Current value;;1;1;;;

What bond is involved in bronze the alloy of copper and tin?;Metallic bond;Ionic bond;Covalent bond;Van der waals;;1;1;;;
What is the chemical formula for a Aluminum Nitride?;AlN;AlN₂;Al₂N₂;Al₂N;;1;1;;;

What is the chemical formula for Magnesium Nitrite?;Mg(NO₂)₂;Mg(NO₃)₂;Mg₂NO₂;Mg₂NO₃;;1;1;;;

What is the the chemical formula for nitric acid?;HNO₃;H₂NO₃;HNO₂;H₂NO₂;;1;1;;;

What is the the chemical formula for calcium chloride?;CaCl₂;CaCl;a₂Cl;CaCl₃;;1;1;;;

What is the chemical formula for dinitrogen pentoxide?;N₂O₅;NO₅;N₅O₂;N₅O;;1;1;;;

What is the chemical formula for magnesium hydroxide (a laxative)?;Mg(OH)₂;Mg₂OH;MgOh₂;Mg(OH)₃ ;;1;1;;;

What is the chemical formula for laughing gas?;N₂O;NO₂;NO₃;N₂O₅;;1;1;;;

What is the chemical formula for carbon diselinide?;CSe₂;C₂Se;CaSe;(CSe)₂ ;;1;1;;;

What is the chemical formula for sulfuric acid?;H₂SO₄;H₂SO₃;H₂SO₂;HSO;;1;1;;;

IEEE 802.11 is the code for global wireless standard representing;Wifi;Bluetooth;Wimax;GPS;;1;1;;;

The rear wheels of the car move forward. What is the nature the frictional force under the rear tires?;Static and backward;Static and
forward;Kinetic and backward;Kinetic and forward;;1;1;;;

Which of the following materials is not a viscoelastic material?;Metal;Plastic;Rubber;glass;;1;1;;;

In molecules of the same composition, what are variations of atomic arrangement known as?;Isomers;Polymers;Monomers;Crystal
system;;1;1;;;

How many atoms in the unit cell of a body centered cubic (BCC) crystal structure?;2;4;6;8;;1;1;;;

How many atoms per unit cell of face centered cubic crystal structured?;4;2;6;8;;1;1;;;

What is the first coordination number of a BCC structure?;8;12;6;16;;1;1;;;

What is the first coordination number of a FCC structure?;12;8;6;16;;1;1;;;

What is the atomic packing factor for a simple cubic crystal?;0.52;.48;1.00;1.05;;1;1;;;

Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of closed packed planes and closed packed directions?;Face centered
cubic;Body centered cubic;Simple cubic;Close packed hexagonal;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is a line defect in a lattice crystal structure?;Screw dislocation;Tilt boundary;Vacancy;Frenkel defect;;1;1;;;

Under a very slow deformation at high temperature, it is possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at shear stress lower that the
critical shear stress. This phenomenon is called?;Creep;Slip;Twining;Bending;;1;1;;;

To which of the following can the large discrepancy between actual and theoretical strengths of metals mainly
attributed?;Dislocation;Heat;Low density;Stress direction;;1;1;;;

In general, what are the effects of cold-working a metal?;Increase strength, decrease ductility;Increase strength and
ductility;Decrease strength and ductility;Decrease strength, increase ductility;;1;1;;;

For completely corrosion resistant stainless steel, what minimum percentage of chromium in the alloy is
required?;11%;1.1%;3.2%;15%;;1;1;;;

Which of the following would most likely require a steel containing 0.6% carbon that has been spheroidized, cold-drawn and slightly
tempered?;Cutting tool;Water pipe;Bridge beam;Ball bearing;;1;1;;;

A hollow circular bar has an inner radius r₁ and an outer radius r₂. If r₁ =1/2r₂, what percentage of torque can the shaft carry in
comparison with solid shaft?;94%;73%;50%;25%;;1;1;;;

Which of following effects are generally less for an alternating current than for a direct current?;Chemical effects;Heating
effects;Magnetic effects;Both chemical and magnetic effects;;1;1;;;

What type of materials usually has a higher index of refraction?;Denser materials;Lighter materials;Heavier materials;Gaseous
materials;;1;1;;;

Electrons are in a one dimensional box of length 2L. What is the relationship between E F, the Fermi energy and Eave, the average
energy?;Eave = EF/3;Eave = EF/4;Eave = EF/2;Eave = EF;;1;1;;;

What is the total relativistic energy of a particle if its mass is equal to one slug when it is traveling with a certain speed v?;c 2;1;c2-
1;5c2;;1;1;;;

The atomic nuclei of all isotopes have the same?;Number of protons;Number of neutrons;Radius;Mass;;1;1;;;

All of the following elementary particles have detectable mass, except?;Neutrino;Positron;Electron;Proton;;1;1;;;

An amphoteric hydroxide is one which?;Can act as acid or base in a chemical reaction;Has a valence of -2;Reacts violently with
water;Decays spontaneously;;1;1;;;

A chemical process which occurs when water is added to cement is?;Hydration;Oxidation;Plastic flow;Counter diffusion;;1;1;;;

Hydrogen is common to all?;Acids;Salts;Oxides;Metals;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is a member of the halogen family?;Fluorine;Sodium;Hydrogen;Phosphorus;;1;1;;;

Well exposed to atmosphere, which of the following liquids is the coldest?;Helium;Oxygen;Nitrogen;Argon;;1;1;;;

Which of the following metals is the best heat conductor?;Silver;Copper;Gold;Aluminum;;1;1;;;

Which metal is used in microelectronics because it does not turnish?;Gold ;Silver;Copper;Aluminum;;1;1;;;

Which is not equivalent to one ton of refrigeration?;42.4 BTU/min;200 BTU/min;211 kJ/min;288000 BTU/day;;1;1;;;

It is the rate of chemical quantity per unit area or volume.;Chemical flux;Chemical structure;Chemical composition;Chemical
Stoichiometry;;1;1;;;

It is the make up of any chemical compound described in a system for determining its properties?;Chemical structure;Chemical
compositions;Chemical bonds;Chemical components;;1;1;;;

What is the region described by two forward biased transistor?;Saturation;Active base emitter forward;Passive collector base
reverse;Cut-off;;1;1;;;

What is the region described by two reverse biased transistor?;Cut-off;Saturation;Active base emitter forward;Passive collector
based reverse;;1;1;;;

The external pressure applied of a confined fluid increases the pressure of every point in the fluid by an amount equal to external
pressure is known as;Pascal’s principle;Torricelli’s principle;Archimedes principle;Benoulli’s theorem;;1;1;;;

It is a device used to determine if a substance is radioactive.;Geiger counter;Van de Graaf generator;Linear

accelerator;Cyclotron;;1;1;;;

UPS represents which of the following?;Uninterruptible power supply;Uninterrupting portable supply;Uninterruptible portable
supply;Uninterrupting power supply;;1;1;;;

EPIRA represents which one of the following?;Electric power industry reform act;Electric power information reform act;Electric
power institute reform act;Electric power industry reform association;;1;1;;;

RES represents which one of the following?;Retail electricity suppliers;Retail electricity supply;Retail energy suppliers;Retail energy
supply;;1;1;;;

PDC represents which one of the following?;Philippine distribution code;Philippine development corporation;Philippine
development code;Philippine energy project;;1;1;;;

PEP represents which one of the following?;Philippine energy plan;Philippine energy program;Philippine electrical;Philippine energy
project;;1;1;;;

WESM represents which one of the following?;Wholesale electricity spot market;Wholesale energy spot market;Wholesale
electricity support market;Wholesale energy support market;;1;1;;;

CPE represents which one of the following?;Continuing professional education;Continuing program education;Continuing
professional enhancement;Continuing process of examination;;1;1;;;

The members of the board shall hold office for a term of yrs.;3;5;6;10;;1;1;;;

Each board member must be at least yrs of age at the time of his appointment.;35;30;40;28;;1;1;;;

Each board member must have practiced electrical engineering for a period of not less than yrs prior to his appointment with a
sworn statement as such.;10;15;20;5;;1;1;;;

Each board member must not be connected with schools, universities conferring a degree in electrical engineering and review
centers for at least yrs to prior to his appointment;3;5;10;7;;1;1;;;

The board of electrical engineering shall be composed of how many members?;2;3;1;4;;1;1;;;

What is annuity?;A series of uniform amounts over a period of time;The future worth of a present hour;An annual repayment of a
loan;A lump sum at the end of the year;;1;1;;;

When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate the
calculation?;Evaluating over different time period;Mutually exclusive projects;Non conventional cash flows;Difference in the
magnitude of the project;;1;1;;;
What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?;Different uniform annual cash flows;Identical
salvage values;Different salvage values;Identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows;;1;1;;;

What is work in process classified as?;Asset;Liability;Expenses;Revenue;;1;1;;;

Which of the following does not affect owner’s equity?;License to start business;Dividends paid;Invested capital;Revenue;;1;1;;;

What is acid test ratio?;The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities;The ratio of owner’s equity to
total current liabilities;The ratio of all assets to total liabilities;The ratio of profit after taxes to equity;;1;1;;;

It is responsible for the procurement and administration of funds with the view of achieving the objectives of
business.;Finance;Capital;Budget;Funds;;1;1;;;

Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that a profit will be earned.;Equity
capital;Credit;Savings;Investments;;1;1;;;

Funds that are required to make the enterprises or project a going concern.;Working capital;Accumulated amount;Present
worth;Banking;;1;1;;;

The length of time usually in years, for the cumulative annual profit to equalized the initial investment is;Payback period;Receivable
turnover;Return on investment ;Useful life;;1;1;;;

The unrecovered depreciation which resulted from poor estimate of the life of equipment.;Sunk cost;In-place value;Economic
life;Annuity;;1;1;;;

What factor must be considered by investor before he invests?;Rate of return;Return of investments;Hurdle rate;Return of
capital;;1;1;;;

A market situation with only one buyer of an item and no goods substitute.;Monopsony;Monopoly;Oligopoly;Duopsony;;1;1;;;

A market situation with few sellers and many buyers.;Oligopoly;Monopoly;Monopsony;Duopsony;;1;1;;;

It is an aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by law as fictitious
peson.;Corporation;Investors;Partnership;Stockholders;;1;1;;;

It is the secondary book of accounts of an enterprise where the credit and debit of an enterprise were
written.;Ledger;Journal;Worksheet;Balance sheet;;1;1;;;

It is the original book of accounts of an enterprise.;Journal ;Ledger;Balance sheet;Work sheet;;1;1;;;

It is the reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in general price
level.;Deflation;Inflation;Devaluation;Depreciation;;1;1;;;

It is the decrease in money’s purchasing power due to increase in material cost and
services.;Inflation;Deflation;Devaluation;Depreciation;;1;1;;;

It is the decrease in worth of the property due to passage of time.;Depreciation;Inflation;Deflation;Devaluation;;1;1;;;

It is the difference between the present worth and the future worth of a negotiable paper.;Discount;Interest;Rate of interest;Rate of
discount;;1;1;;;

it is the amount earned by one unit of principal during a unit of time.;Rate of interest;Interest;Discount;Rate of discount;;1;1;;;

It pertains to the series of equal payments occurring at equal period or interval of

time.;Annuity;Amortization;Depreciation;Depletion;;1;1;;;

It is a method of paying debt including the principal and interest which is usually done in a series of equal payments occuring at
equal period or interval of time.;Amortization;Depreciation;Depletion;Annuity;;1;1;;;

It is a type of annuity where payments are made indefinitely or forever.;Perpetuity;Ordinary annuity;Annuity due;Deferred
annuity;;1;1;;;

It pertains to series of payments on equal interval of time with common difference.;Arithmetic

gradient;Annuity;Depreciation;Geometric gradient;;1;1;;;

It pertains to series of payments on equal interval of time with common ratio.;Geometric gradient;Annuity;Arithmetic
gradient;Depreciation;;1;1;;;

It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of annual maintenance and operational costs, costs of repair and the renewal
costs.;Capitalized cost;Annual cost;Marginal cost;Future worth cost;;1;1;;;

It is the measure of the effectiveness of an investment.;Rate of return;Profit;Dividends;Revenue;;1;1;;;

The difference capital recovery factor (CRF) and the sinking fund factor (SFF) is equal to;Rate of
interest;Discount;Depreciation;Profit;;1;1;;;
The quantity (1 + I)n represents which of the following?;Future value factor;Present value factor;Capital recovery factor;Compound
amount factor;;1;1;;;

The quantity (1 + I)-n represents which one of the following?;Present value factor;Capital recovery factor;Compound amount
factor;Future value factor;;1;1;;;

The quantity (F/A,I%,n) represents which one of the following?;Compound amount factor;Present value factor;Capital recovery
factor;Future value factor;;1;1;;;

The quantity (A/P,I%,n) represents which of the following?;Capital recovery factor;Compound amount factor;Present value
factor;Future value factor;;1;1;;;

The quantity (A/F,i%,n) represents which one of the following?;Sinking fund factor;Compound amount factor;Present value
factor;Future value factor;;1;1;;;

When the net torque acting on the body is zero, the body is in;Rotational equilibrium;Unstable equilibrium;Stable
equilibrium;Transitional equilibrium;;1;1;;;

When the force that act on an object is have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in;Transitional equilibrium;Rotational
equilibrium;Unstable equilibrium;Stable equilibrium;;1;1;;;

If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?;Unstable equilibrium;Translational equilibrium;Rotational
equilibrium;Stable equilibrium;;1;1;;;

What principle states that for a horizontal flow of a fluid through a pipe the sum of pressure and kinetic energy per unit volume of
the fluid is constant?;Bernoulli’s pricinple;Pascal’s principle;Archimedes principle;Torricelli’s principle;;1;1;;;

The hydrometer is an instrument that uses the principle of;Archimedes principle;Pascal’s principle;Reynold’s principle;Bernoulli’s
principle;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is not a basic component of motion of a fluid element>;Twist;Translation;Rotation;Volume distortion;;1;1;;;

For a fluid, viscosity id defined as the constant of proportionality between shear stress and what are the other variables?;The spatial
derivative of velocity;The time derivative of density;The time derivative of pressure;The spatial derivative of density;;1;1;;;

What is the definition of pressure?;Limit of force over area as are approaches zero;Limit of force over area as force approaches
zero;Limit of force over force as force approaches zero;Limit of force over force as are approaches zero;;1;1;;;

A leak from faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of the phenomenon?;Surface
tension;Gravity;Air resistance;Viscosity of the fluid;;1;1;;;

If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?;It is a Newtonian
fluid;It is inviscid;It is a perfect gas;It is at constant temperature;;1;1;;;

If a fluid fails in piping system, the failure is related to which of the following properties?;Vapor pressure;Viscosity;Surface
tension;Bulk modulus;;1;1;;;

The speed by which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by;Torricelli’s principle;Bernoulli’s principle;Archimedes
principle;Flow equation;;1;1;;;

How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?;They are perpendicular to the force field;They are parallel to
the force field;They are at 45o angle to the force field;They are perpendicular only to the force of gravity;;1;1;;;

Under what condition is mass conserved in fluid flow?;It is always conserved;The fluid is baratropic;The fluid is incompressible;The
flow is adiabatic;;1;1;;;

What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at surface?;The velocity of the surface;The same as the bulk fluid
velocity;Zero;Proportional to the smoothness of the surface;;1;1;;;

What is the origin of the energy conservation equation used in flow system?;The first law of thermodynamics;Newton’s first law of
motion;Newton’s second law of motion;The second law of thermodynamics;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?;The principle of conservation of energy;The principle of
conservation of mass;The contnuity equation;Fourier’s law;;1;1;;;

Which of the following ratio is correct in providing a physical meaning for the Reynolds number?;Inertial force/Viscous
force;Bouyant force/Inertial Force;Viscous force/Inertial force;Drag force/Viscous force;;1;1;;;

Where does the Moody diagram for friction factors for pipe flow come from?;Experimental results for viscous fluids;Experimental
results for inviscid fluids;Calculations based on potential flow;Applying the principle of conservation of mass;;1;1;;;

For the pipe flow in the laminar region, the friction factor is equal to?;64/Re;1/Re;Re;Re 2;;1;1;;;
For fully developed laminar flow of fluid in pipes, the average velocity is what fraction of the maximum velocity in the pipe?;1/2;1/8;
1/4;3/4;;1;1;;;

It is the cause of the rise of fall of liquid in tubes with small diameter.;Capillarity;Surface tension;Cohesion;Adhesion;;1;1;;;

What is the negative pressure?;Vacuum pressure;Absolute pressure;Gage pressure;Hydrostatic pressure;;1;1;;;

How many Pascal is one bar?;105;103;100;106;;1;1;;;

How many Pa-s is one poise?;0.1;0.01;0.001;0.0001;;1;1;;;

209.What is PSALM corporation?

A. Power sector assets and liabilities management corporation

212.What is SPUG?

A. Small power utilities group

213.The chairman of the board of PSALM corporation is

A. Sec. Of the Department of Finance

214.From the effectivity of RA9136, PSALM corporation shall exist for,

A. 25 years

215.Sec.38 of the Electric Power Industry Reform Act (EPIRA) is the creation of Energy Regulatory Commission (ERC). The
chairman must be a lawyer and shall have a term of years.

A. 7 years

216.What is IPP?

A. Independent Power Producer

217.What is TRANSCO?

A. National Transmission Corporation

218.EPIRA is Republic Act No.

A. 9136

219.A notice issued by the system operator when a tropical disturbance is expected ti make land fall within 24hrs.

A. Blue alert

220.A notice issued by the system operator when the contingency reserve is less than the capacity of the largest synchronized
generating unit.

A. Yellow alert

221.A notice issue by the system operator when the grid contingency reserve is zero.

A. Red alert

222.The ability to respond to a re-dispatch performed by system operator during a trading interval.

A. Backup reserve

223.Generating capacity from qualified generating unit allocated to cover loss of a synchronized generating unit.

A. Contingency reserve

224.A synchronized generating capacity from qualified generating unit allocated to cover loss of a synchronized generating unit.

A. Spinning reserve

225.What is PEC?

A. Philippine Electrical Code

226.AC time overcurrent relay is device number .

A. 51

227.Instantaneous overcurrent relay is device number .

A. 50
228.Machine or transformer thermal relay is device number .

A. 49

229.AC circuit breaker is device number .

A. 52

230.Excited or DC generator relay is device number .

A. 53

ACES REVIEW CENTER

M6-Doña Amparo Bldg. España Blvd. Manila
TERMS IN ESAS
BY ENGR. JIMMY L. OCAMPO
0920.644.6246

What type of bond exist predominantly in sodium chloride crystal?;Ionic bond;Metallic bond;Covalent bond;Polar bond;;1;1;;;

Pure metal A undergoes an isothermal transformation in which its crystal structure changes from face centered cubic FCC to body
centered cubic BCC. As a result, the volume of a piece of metal A;Increase;Decrease;Remains the same;Decrease up to the midpoint
of the transformation and then asymptotically reaches its original value;;1;1;;;

Which of the following leads to a reduction in the electrical resistivity of a pure meal?;Annealing;Cold working;Grain
refinement;Addition of alloying elements;;1;1;;;

the rigidity of polymer can be increased by;All of these;Increase in degree of polymerization;Increasing the extent of cross
linking;Crystallization;;1;1;;;

Which of the following properties of a metal is insensitive to the micro structure?;Modulus of elasticity;Tensile
strength;Ductility;Hardness;;1;1;;;

The dominant charge carriers in a phosphorus-doped silicon crystal at room temperature are;Electrons;Electron
holes;Protons;Silicon ions;;1;1;;;

Metals are conductive because:;The electrons are loosely bound to the nuclei and therefore mobile;They have
a;characteristics;metallic luster;They have extra electrons as exhibited by normally positive valence states;They are on the left side
of the periodic table;;1;1;;;

An x-ray is;Electromagnetic radiation;A ray of electrons;A ray of helium nuclei;It is not known what it is, hence the name “x”
rays;;1;1;;;

An electron volt is;A unit of energy equal to the energy possessed by an electron accelerating through a potential of one volt;A
voltage unit commonly used when measuring the voltage of the electrons;The unit of electrical charge of one electron;None of the
above;;1;1;;;

Group Ia are easily ionized because:;They have a single “s” electrons in the outer orbit;They are metals and therefore
conductive;They react violently in water to liberate hydrogen;They have relatively low melting points for metals

The rare earth metals all have very similar chemical properties because:;Successive members of the series are formed by adding 4f
electrons which have little effect on reactivity;They are rare, hence little is known about their chemistry;They melt at extreme
temperatures, hence are nearly inert;They are in separate row at the bottom of periodic table;;1;1;;;

Which of the following group of elements all form crystals of diamond structural lattice?;Carbon, Silicon, Germanium;Carbon, Boron,
Aluminum;Carbon, Cobalt, Nickel;Lithium, Sodium, Potassium;;1;1;;;

The stress or load where a crystalline material fails is usually less than that predicted from calculated bond strengths in the crystal
lattice because;The strength at failure is governed by crystal defects of crystal bond strength;The stress at failure is not reproducible
experimentally;Plastic deformation occurs before failure;It is, to date, impossible to calculate something as complicated as the stress
at failure;;1;1;;;
Which of the following material properties is adversely affected by grain refinement?;Creep resistance;Tensile
strength;Ductility;Elastic module;;1;1;;;

Which of the following classes of materials exhibit a decreasing electrical conductivity with increasing
temperature?;Metals;Pure;ionic materials;Intrinsic semiconductors;P-type semiconductors;;1;1;;;

The property that characterizes a material’s ability to be drawn into a wire is its;Ductility;Tensile strength;Fatigue endurance
limit;Impact strength;;1;1;;;

Which of the following treatments will result in an increase in the fatigue strength of steel?;Shot peening;Annealing;Cold
working;Surface roughening;;1;1;;;

In p-type semiconductors, conductivity is provided by;The motion of holes;The motion of electrons;The motion of ions;The motion of
conductivity;;1;1;;;

A photon is;;A particle of electromagnetic radiation;A neutral proton;A neutral electron;A charge neuron;;1;1;;;

Isotopes of an element are atomic species with;The same number of protons and electrons, but differing numbers of neutrons;The
same number of protons, but differing numbers of neutrons and electrons;The same number of neutrons, but differing numbers of
protons and electrons;The same number of valence electrons, but differing numbers of protons, neurons and non-valence
electrons;;1;1;;;

The separation of isotopes of an element always requires a physical, rather than chemical, separation because;Differences
in;isotopes show up as differences in physical properties;The atomic mass, a physical characteristic, constitutes the difference
between the isotopes;The electron configuration and, hence, chemical reactivity are the same;All of the above;;1;1;;;

The electronic configuration, 1s22s22p63s23p5 is that of;A halogen;An alkali metal;An inert gas;A transition metal;;1;1;;;

An Angstrom unit, commonly used for atomic and sub-atomic distance is;10^-10m;10^10m;10^-6m;The distance light travels in
10^10sec;;1;1;;;

Which of the following statements about free carrier concentration associated w/ intrinsic semiconductors at room temperature is
valid?;It decreases w/ increasing values of energy gap;It increases w/ increasing values of energy gap;It increases w/ increasing
carrier mobility;It decreases w/ increasing carrier mobility;;1;1;;;

At absolute zero temperature (0oK), all the valence electrons in an intrinsic semiconductor;Are in the valence bond;Are in the
forbidden gap;Are in the conduction bond;Are free electrons;;1;1;;;

Carrier mobility depends on;Temperature and the regularity of the crystal structure;Resistivity;Conductivity;Charge per carrier;;1;1;;;

The movement of charges from an area of high carrier concentration to an area of lower concentration is
called,;Diffusion;Gradient;Mobility;Recombination;;1;1;;;

Which term describes a material whose properties depend on the direction of

stress?;Anisotropic;Isotropic;Endotropic;Asymmetrical;;1;1;;;

Materials that emit light in the absence of high heat and continue to emit light after the energy source has been removed are
called;Phosphorescent;Fluorescent;Semiconductor-laser diodes;Translucent diodes;;1;1;;;

A gamma ray is composed of;High energy electromagnetic radiation;High energy protons;High energy electrons;High energy
neutrons;;1;1;;;

Plank’s constant (6.625x10-27 erg-sec) represents;The ratio between the magnitude of a quantum of radiated energy and its
frequency;The quantum or smallest amount of energy that can be emitted by radiation;The number of ergs in a kilogram calorie;The
smallest number of any physical significance;;1;1;;;

The elements exhibit periodically recurring chemical and physical properties because;The properties are largely determined by the
quantum numbers of the outer electrons, all of whic except the first which indicates the orbit, recur in each orbit.;They are arranged
that way in the periodic table;The reason is unknown, It is simply observed experimentally;Probability considerations dictate that
properties will recur since there are limited number of possibilities;;1;1;;;

Which statement about crystal dislocations is not correct?;Dislocation is a crystalline lattice in an unexpected place;Dislocations
affect the tensile strength of a crystal;Edge, screw and mixed dislocations are possible;Dislocation is a defect caused by an atomic
misalignment in a crystal;;1;1;;;

Ions are formed when;All of these;Electrons are displaced from atoms or molecules by bombardment of high energy particles;A salt
forms in an acid-base neutralization reaction;A salt crystal forms from the reaction of elemental sodium and chlorine;;1;1;;;

Which of the following statements about the two crystalline forms of carbon, graphite and diamond is not correct?;The properties of
two crystals are, in fact, more similar than dissimilar.;The diamond lattice is transparent to visible light, graphite is not.;Diamond is
the hardest naturally occurring substance, graphite is soft;At high temperature diamond is a semiconductor, graphite is a
conductor;;1;1;;;
 Avogadro’s number (6.023x1023) represents,;The number of molecules in one gram mole of any compound;The number of
molecules in one gram of any compound;The number of molecules n one liter of any gas at 1 atm pressure and 0 oC;The number of
valence electrons in a mole of any elements;;1;1;;;

Aluminum hydroxide Al(OH)3 is called an amphoteric hydroxide because;It can react as either an acid or base;It has limited solubility
in water;It contains 3 hydroxyl groups;Either one, two or all three hydroxyl group can ionize in water;;1;1;;;

Which of the following characteristics of the alkaline earth elements is unique of this group of elements?;They are in group IIa if the
periodic table;They have two”s” electrons in outer orbit;They exhibit a valence of +2;They are found in soil;;1;1;;;

The chemical formula of the salt formed from the neutralization of potassium hydroxide and sulphuric acid
is;K2SO4;NACL;P2SO4;KSO4;;1;1;;;

The chemical formula of the most common compound formed from beryllium(a group II a element) and iodine (a group VIIa
element) is,;BeI2;Be2I7;BeI;Be7I2;;1;1;;;

Which of the following statements about the halogens is incorrect?;they will react with water to form very strong bases;they are
good oxidizing agents;they all exhibit a valence of -1;they form diatomic molecules;;1;1;;;

The group VIII elements, called the noble or rare gases, have the following properties;they do not react with other elements;they are
rare;they are lighter than air;they remain gaseous down to just few degrees above absolute zero;;1;1;;;

Many transition metals exhibit more than one valence state in simple chemical reaction because;d electrons from one orbital down
are not as reactive as the s electrons in the outer orbit;s and p electrons in the same orbit have very different reactivities;the valence
sate of metals change if the other elements in the molecule change;it is not always possible to predict how even simple reactions
will occur;;1;1;;;

For this reaction, the equilibrium conditions are H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI(g) deltaH = -7.9 kJ ;temperature and concentration;pressure,
temperature and concentration;pressure only;temperature only;;1;1;;;

Ammonia is prepared by Haber’s process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) deltaH = -5.3kJ In order to maximize the yield of ammonia, one
can:;increase concentrations of hydrogen and nitrogen and decrease the temperature;increase concentrations of hydrogen and
nitrogen and increase the temperature;increase concentrations of hydrogen and ammonia and decrease the temperature;increase
concentrations of all three gases and increase the temperature;;1;1;;;

A close system experiences a reversible process where heat rejection is the only energy transfer. the entropy change;must be
negative;must be zero;must be positive;is equal to the heat transfer;;1;1;;;

Consider an air-water vapour mixture similar to the atmosphere. If the dry-bulb temperature equals the dew point temperature, the
relative humidity will be;100%;25%;0%;50%;;1;1;;;

If the temperature of a medium is 0°, what will the temperature be if it is doubled?;273°C;0°C;524°C;460°C;;1;1;;;

A compression ignition cycle is modelled by which ideal cycle?;Diesel cycle;Otto cycle;Rankine Cycle;Brayton Cycle;;1;1;;;

An ideal gas is contained in a rigid container. There is no work of rotating shaft associated with the container. Any heat transfer is a
function of:;temperature only;pressure only;volume only;there cannot be any heat transfer;;1;1;;;

In a combustion chamber, fuel is burned to raise the temperature of the medium prior to production of work through and expansion
process. The heat generated during the combustion reaction is the ;heat of reaction;specific heat;heat of vaporization;heat of
formation;;1;1;;;

There many types of work associated with energy transfer across a boundary. One form of work is flow work which is described by
all of the following except;it is associated with a closed system;it is the work which pushes mass in or out of a device;it is necessary
to maintain a continuous flow;it is added to the internal energy to obtain enthalpy in the first law for a control volume;;1;1;;;

An open system First Law should be utilized for all of the following except,;a poison-cylinder device;a nozzle;a turbine;a
compressor;;1;1;;;

An insulated rigid container contains an ideal gas. The container is initially divided in half by a membrane such that one side is
vacuum and the other side contains the ideal gas. The membrane is broken and the gas fills the entire volume. All are true
except;the temperature is quadrupled;the pressure is halved;the volume is doubled;the process is irreversible;;1;1;;;

An adiabatic process characterized by which of the following?;the heat transfer is zero;the entropy change is zero;the work is zero;it
is reversible;;1;1;;;

A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work associated with the container. From the First Law of Thermodynamics,
you determine the resulting work to be;equal to zero;equal to the heat transfer;equal to the volume time the change in
pressure;equal to the change in internal energy;;1;1;;;

An inventor claims to have built an engine which will revolutionize the automotive industry. Which of the following would be the
best test to determine if the inventors claim are true?;Second law of thermodynamics;conservation of mass;First law of
thermodynamics;zeroth law of thermodynamics;;1;1;;;
The isentropic (process) efficiency is used to compare actual device such as turbines, compressors nozzle and diffusers to ideal ones.
Which statement is true;the inlet state and exit pressure are the same for both the ideal and actual device;only the ideal device is
considered adiabatic;the ideal device operate irreversibly;the efficiency can be greater than one;;1;1;;;

The steam power cycle is modelled by the ideal cycle known as the;Rankine cycle;Otto cycle;Diesel cycle;Brayton cycle;;1;1;;;

In an ideal refrigeration cycle, liquid leaves the condenser and is expanded in such a manner that enthalpy of the resulting saturated
mixture. This type of expansion is known;throttling process;an isothermal process;a compression process;an isochoric process;;1;1;;;

In the case of regenerative gas turbine engine, which of the following is false?;there is no heat rejected to the atmosphere in a
regenerative gas turbine engine;the regenerator improves the efficiency of the engine;the exit temperature of the generator is
higher that the inlet temperature of the compressor;if the regenerator is reversible, the effectiveness can approach 100%;;1;1;;;

For an ideal turbojet, all of the following statements are true except;the work produced by the turbine is greater than the work
required by the compressor;the process (isentropic) efficiency of the turbine is 100%;the process (isentropic) efficiency of the
compressor is 100%;the process (isentropic) efficiency of the nozzle is 100%;;1;1;;;

Which of the following statements about the Carnot efficiency is not true?;no reversible power cycles operating between two
thermal reservoirs can have an efficiency equal to the Carnot efficiency;it depends only on the temperature of the thermal
reservoirs;it can be used to determine if the cycle is possible or impossible;absolute temperature scales must be used when
performing Carnot efficiency calculation;;1;1;;;

Two independent intensive properties are require to fix state of pure, simple compressible substance. People often attempt to fix
the state of the medium using heat and work, which are not properties, which of the following statements about heat and work is
not true? ;heat and work are point function;heat and work are transient phenomena;heat and work are forms of energy;heat and
work are boundary of phenomena;;1;1;;;

For steady, incompressible, inviscid flow, with no shaft and heat transfer, Bernoullis’s equation can be written p/ρ + v^2/2 + gz =
constant. This form of equation is valid;for rotational flow, but only along streamlines;for irrotational flow, but only along
streamlines;for rotational flow everywhere;for rotational flow, but only across streamlines;;1;1;;;

The simplified continuity equation Ṽ/V = 0 is not valid for;steady compressible flow;steady incompressible flow;unsteady
incompressible flow;steady rotational incompressible flow;;1;1;;;

How many electrons are there in the outermost octate of a chlorine (CI) atom?;7;1;3;8;;1;1;;;

Heat transferred at constant volume process to the thermodynamic system of a fixed mass. The thermodynamic system will
produce;zero work;small amount of work;negative work;positive work;;1;1;;;

Compressibility factor Z is a measure of the deviation of the actual gas behaviour from ideal gas. An actual gas behaviour may be
assumed closed to the ideal gas when compressibility factor Z approaches ;1.0;zero;0.5;0.75;;1;1;;;

Let’s assume that gas can be heated either at constant pressure or at constant volume process. The amounts of heat Qp and Qv are
transferred to the gas accordingly. If the temperature increment per unit mass delta T = constant;Qp greater than Qv;Qp = Qv;Qp
less than Qv;Qp = Qv – deltaU;;1;1;;;

In manufacturing process 1000kW of waste heat at temperature 327°C is available for the utilization purposes. If the ambient
temperature is 27°C, the designed heat engine producing 510kW of the net power output will
be;impossible;possible;irreversible;reversible;;1;1;;;

Which of the following instruments for measuring fluid velocity does not need be calibrated?;pitot static tube;orifice meter;venturi
tube;weir;;1;1;;;

Capillarity or the rise or fall of a liquid in a thin tube is primarily controlled by which fluid property?;surface
tension;viscosity;density;temperature;;1;1;;;

A polytropic process is one in which the functional relationship between pressure p and volume V is given by pVn = constant with n
value from -∞ to +∞ depending on the particular process. A constant volume process is represented by n equals.;∞;zero;2;K;;1;1;;;

Cavitation in fluid mechanics refers to;the liquid to gaseous phase transition on the fluid due to low pressure;the oscillation of a
plate due to turbulent fluctuations;the condensation of vapor into liquid due to high pressure;the violation of the no slip condition
on a wall;;1;1;;;

In compressible fluid mechanics, a shock wave is considered normal shock wave when;the angle between the direction of flow and
the wave is 90°;the shock wave occurs in air;the shock wave occurs at oblique angle to the flow;the flow remains supersonic on both
sides of the shock wave;;1;1;;;

A large class of devices (such as turbines, centrifugal compressors and pumps) involve work. Assuming reversible steady state,
steady flow process with negligible changes in kinetic and potential energy, the elementary work is;–Vdp;pdV;Vdp + pdV;Vdp –
pdV;;1;1;;;

The reheat Rankine cycle is proposed to decrease;moisture content in the low pressure stages of the turbine;mass flow rate of
cooling water in the condenser;back pressure of the turbine;volumetric flow rate of the working fluid;;1;1;;;
Which of the following statements defines best the capitalized cost?;it is the present worth of a specified uniform cash flow for an
infinite analysis period;it is initial cost of some equipment;it is the salvage value of an equipment;it is the amount of money equal to
the cost minus benefit for an equipment;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is not taken into account in making an economic decision between two alternative
equipments?;reliability;operating cost;rate of return;salvage value;;1;1;;;

A heat ink will dissipate heat more rapidly if;its surface are is increased;its temperature is the same as the temperature of the
surrounding air;it is covered by a material having a high thermal resistance;it is kept away from air current;;1;1;;;

A reference frame which remains fixed while fluid flows through it is called;Eulerian;Lagrangian;Stokesian;A Navier-Stokes reference
frame

For stead incompressible fully developed flow in a constant area pipe, friction along the walls of the pipe causes;a reduction in static
pressure along the length of pipe;a reduction in mass flow rate along the length of pipe;a reduction of f velocity along the length of
pipe;an increase in the Darcy friction factor along the length of pipe;;1;1;;;

Select the answer which correctly ranks fluid meters from lowest to highest pressure loss;Venturi tube, flow nozzle, thin plate
orifice;Venturi tube, thin plate orifice, flow nozzle;thin plate orifice, flow nozzle, Venturi tube;flow nozzle, thin plate orifice, Venturi
tube;;1;1;;;

Identify one of the following problems for which the Moody chart would not be of use;flow in subsonic diffuser;flow of natural as in
long pipe;flow of oil in a long channel with square cross section;flow of water in a pipe at very high speed where the flow is
extremely turbulent;;1;1;;;

Effective interest rate per year is defined as;the annual interest rate taking into account the effect of any compounding during the
year;the nominal interest rate per year;the rate of return that can be realized from an investment;the interest rate per period times
the number of periods per year;;1;1;;;

During inflationary time, which one of the following statements describes best th loan payments of a fixed amount?;future payments
in a year zero dollars are not constant in amount;future payments are worth more in year zero dollars;in actual dollars, the amount
of future payments decreases;year zero dollars are worth less than future dollars;;1;1;;;

A pump is used to increase the pressure of water entering the boiler of steam power cycle. Which statement is true concerning the
pump?;the enthalpy of water leaving the pump is higher than the enthalpy of water entering the pump;the pump produces work;the
pump has no effect on the cycle;the enthalpy s constant during the process;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?;kg/m^2;Pa;Bars;N/m^2;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is the definition of joule?;a Newton-meter;a unit of power;a kg-m/s^2;a rate of change in energy;;1;1;;;

Which of the following relations defines enthalpy?;h = u + pV;h = u + p/T;h = u + p/V;h = pV + T;;1;1;;;

How is the quality x of a liquid vapor mixture defined?;the fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor;the fraction of the total
volume that is saturated vapor;the fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid;the fraction of the total mass that is saturated
liquid;;1;1;;;

What is the actual shape of the methane CH4 molecule?;tetrahedral;linear;square planar;pyramidal;;1;1;;;

What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in NO3?;+5;-1;+3;+1;;1;1;;;

What is the oxidation number of Cr in the dichromate ion (Cr2O7)-2?;6;-1;0;7;;1;1;;;

Reactions generally proceed faster at higher temperature because of which of the following?;the activation energy is less;the
molecules are less energetic;the bonds are easier to break;the molecules collides more frequently;;1;1;;;

In organic chemistry, which compound families are associated with the following bonds?1. C – C 2. C = C 3. C ≡ C;1:alkane,
2:alkene, 3:alkyne;1:alkene, 2:alkyne, 3:alkane;1:alkyne, 2:alkane, 3:alkene;1:alkane, 2:alkyne, 3:alkene;;1;1;;;

Determine the height of the centroid of the semi-circle with radius r from its diameter;4r/3 π;2r/3;2 πr/5;3r/4 π;;1;1;;;

What are valence electrons?;the outer shell electrons;electrons with positive charge;the electrons with positive charge;the K-
quantum shell electrons;;1;1;;;

What is the strong bond between hydrogen atoms know as?;covalent bond;ionic bond;metallic bond;ionic and metallic bond;;1;1;;;

What are Van der Waals forces?;weak secondary bonds between atoms;primary bonds between atoms;forces between electrons
and protons;forces present only in gases;;1;1;;;

Compare the metallic iron atom Fe and the ferric ions Fe+2, and Fe+3. Which has the smallest atomic radius at the same
temperature?;Fe+3;Fe+2;Fe;they have the same radii;;1;1;;;

Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the following;an atactic configuration of side group;small side
group;only one repeating unit;small chain length;;1;1;;;
In general, what are the effects of cold working a metal?;increase strength, decrease ductility;increase strength and
ductility;decrease strength and ductility;decrease strength, increase ductility;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is not structural class steels?;tool and die;carbon;stainless;low – alloy;;1;1;;;

Which of the following phases of steel has face-centered cubic structure?;austenite;ferrite;pearlite;martensite;;1;1;;;

The state of a thermodynamic system is always defined by its;properties;absolute temperature;process;temperature and

pressure;;1;1;;;

Mathematically, a thermodynamic property is which of the following?;a point function;a path function;an exact
differential;discontinuous;;1;1;;;

The first law of thermodynamics states that;energy can be neither created nor destroyed;heat energy cannot be completely
transformed into work;internal energy is due to molecular motion;entropy of the universe is increased by irreversible process;;1;1;;;

In terms of QH (heat from high temperature source) and QL (heat to low temperature sink), the net work of a Cannot cycle is;W =
QH - QL;W = QH - QL/QL;W = QL/QH - QL;W = QL - QH;;1;1;;;

In any non-quasistatic thermodynamic process, the overall enrtopy of an isolated system will be;increase only;decrease only;stay the
same;decrease and then increase;;1;1;;;

Entropy is the measure of;randomness or disorder;the change in enthalpy of the system;the internal energy of the gas;the heat
capacity of a substance;;1;1;;;

For spontaneously occurring natural process in an isolated system, which expression best express dS?;dS is greater than zero;dS =
0;dS is less than zero;dS = dQ / T;;1;1;;;

Energy changes are represented by all except which one of the following?;dQrev / T;negative integral of Vdp;mCpT;TdS – pdV;;1;1;;;

Work or energy can be a function of all of the following except ;force and time;force and distance;torque and angular rotation;power
and time;;1;1;;;

U + pV is a quantity called;enthalpy;flow energy;shaft work;entropy;;1;1;;;

In flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes, negative integral of Vdp represents which item below?;shaft work;heat
transfer;closed system work;flow energy;;1;1;;;

Power may be express in units of;BTU/hr;ft-lbs;HP-hours;kW-hours;;1;1;;;

Equilibrium condition exist in all except which of the following?;in steady state flow of process;in reversible process;in process where
driving forces are infinitesimals;where nothing can occur without an effect on the system’s surroundings;;1;1;;;

Name the process that has no heat transfer;isentropic;isothermal;quasistatic;polytropic;;1;1;;;

An ideal gas (k = 1.4) is expanded in a nozzle from po = 1.5MPa, To = 150°C, (Vo = 0), to p2= 0.3 MPa. Assuming reversible adiabatic
process the nozzle should be;convergent – divergent;diverging;converging;constant cross section;;1;1;;;

A small plastic bag is filled with moist air at 50% relative humidity, scaled and placed in an environmental chamber whose
temperature and pressure maybe independently varied. The relative humidity in the bag will be lowered under which of the
following conditions;pressure is decreased;pressure is increased;temperature is decreased;temperature is decreased and pressure is
increased;;1;1;;;

The rate of heat transfer through a given section of a uniform wall or a given temperature difference is;directly proportional to the
thermal conductivity and inversely proportional to the thickness of the wall;directly proportional to the thermal conductivity and to
the thickness of the wall;inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity and directly proportional to the thickness of the
wall;inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity and to the thickness of the wall;;1;1;;;

Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat capacity at 100°C?;aluminum;bismuth;copper;iron;;1;1;;;

The radical ion (NO2) is called;nitrite;nitrate;nitride;binitrite;;1;1;;;

A sample of a substance to which a chemical formula can be assigned, whose weight is equal to its formula weight is termed
a;;mole;molecule;gram equivalent weight;atom;;1;1;;;

Hard water is a water which contains soluble salts of which of the following;calcium;sodium;sulfur;chlorine;;1;1;;;

The number of molecules in 22.4 liters (under standard condition) of a substance in its gaseous state is called;Avogadro’s
number;Dulong’s number;Petit’s number;Graham’s number;;1;1;;;

Which of the following mode of radioactive decay results in an increased Z or number of protons in the nucleus?;negative beta decay
(electron emission);alpha decay (helium nucleus emission);positive beta decay (proton emission);gamma emission (photon energy
emission) ;;1;1;;;
The relationship between the extension of a spring and the force required to produce the extension is;F = kx;F = ma;F = µN;F =
mv^2/r;;1;1;;;

The deflection of beam is;inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia;directly proportional to the
modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia;inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and length of the beam
cube;inversely proportional to the weight and length;;1;1;;;

A homogeneous round bar of diameter D, length L and total weight W is hung vertically from one en;If E is the modulus elasticity,
what is the total elongation of the bar?;2WL/πD^2E;WL/πD^2E;WL/2πD^2E;WL/2E;;1;1;;;

A thin walled pressurized vessel consists of a right circular cylinder with flat ends. Midway between the ends the stress is greatest in
what direction?;circumferential;longitudinal;radial;at an angle of 45° to the longitudinal and circumferential directions;;1;1;;;

The stress concentration factor;is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in a cross section to the allowable stress;is the ratio of
the average stress produced in a cross section to the allowable stress;is the ratio of areas involved in the sudden change in cross
section;cannot be evaluated for brittle material;;1;1;;;

Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of;unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation;unit stress to unit strain;elastic limit to
proportional limit;shear strain to compressive strain;;1;1;;;

The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is;defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit shear deformation;a function of the
length and depth;equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by one plus Poisson’s ratio;defined as the length divided by the moment
of inertia;;1;1;;;

A thin homogeneous metallic plate containing a hole is heated sufficiently to cause expansion. If the coefficient of surface expansion
is linear, the area of the hole will;increase at the same rate as the area of the metal increases;decrease at the same rate as the area
of the metal increases;stay the same;increase at twice the rate the area of the metal increases;;1;1;;;

Hooke’s law for an isotropic homogeneous medium experiencing one dimensional stress is;stress = E (strain);strain = E (stress);strain
energy = E (internal energy);Force (area) = E (change in length)/(size);;1;1;;;

The three moment equation may be used to analyze;continuous beam;beam loaded at the third point;a three element composite
beam;a step tapered column;;1;1;;;

The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any two points on the beam is equal to the;change in moment between the two
points;change in shear between the two points;total shear beyond the two points;average moment between the two points;;1;1;;;

Fixing both ends of a simply supported beam that has only a concentrated load at midspan will increase the allowable load
by;100%;50%;25%;no change;;1;1;;;

Young’s modulus of elasticity for a material can be calculated indirectly from which of the following properties of material?;density
and velocity of sound in the material;temperature coefficient of expansion and dielectric constant;temperature coefficient of
expansion and specific heat;density and interatomic spacing in the material;;1;1;;;

Modulus of resilience is;the measure of a materials ability to store strain energy;the same as the modulus of elasticity;the reciprocal
of the modulus of elasticity;a measure of the deflection of a member;;1;1;;;

When a metal is cold worked all of the following generally occur except;grains becomes equi-axed;ductility decreases;tensile
strength increases;recrystallization temperature decreases;;1;1;;;

Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conductive, with electrons as majority carriers, when doped
with;antimony;boron;germanium;aluminum;;1;1;;;

Steel can be strengthened by the following except;annealing;quenching and tempering;work hardening;grain refinement;;1;1;;;

If 1080 steel (0.80wt.%C) is annealed by very slow cooling from 1000°C to ambient temperature, its microstructure will consist
almost solely of;pearlite;austenite;bainite;cementite;;1;1;;;

Which of the following is not a method of non-deconstructive testing of steel castings and forgings?;chemical
analysis;radiography;magnetic particles;ultrasonic;;1;1;;;

Compressive strength of fully cure concrete is most directly related to;water-cement ration;sand gravel ratio;fineness
modulus;aggregate gradation;;1;1;;;
EE Board September 2003, EE Board October 1999
1. _____ is a device converting computer digital signals to analog signals for transmission over copper
telephone wires and then back to digital signals.
A. Fax machine
B. Telegram
C. Telephone
D. Modem
2. What is the most widely used 7-bit alphanumeric code?
A. ASCII
B. EBCDIC
C. Straight binary code
D. Gray code
3. What is a computer programming language in which groups of 1s and 0s are used to represent instructions
and the only language a computer actually understood?
A. Machine language
B. Application software
 C. High-level language
D. FORTRAN
4. An area of memory that holds the ASCII characters that are being displayed on a monitor is called _____
A. space
B. start bit
C. terminal
D. screen image
5. Processors with more than two registers for arithmetic and logical operators are classified as:
A. specific register processors
B. general register processors
C. accumulator based
D. serial register processors
6. What input device translates motions of a ball rolled on a flat surface to the monitor screen?
A. Wand reader
B. Pen
C. Bar code reader
D. Mouse
7. What is the system program used to translate directly an assembly language to machine language called?
A. Assembler
B. Compiler
C. Interpreter
D. Debugger
8. What is an operated address?
A. The binary code that represents the operation to be performed by the CPU.
B. The address of the data to be operated as the CPU executes the instruction called for by the op code
C. A short abbreviation for the operation
D. All of the choices
9. What is the standard method for coding data on 80-column, 12-row card?
A. Baudot code
B. ASCII
C. Hollerith code
D. EBCDIC
10. A software program designed to enter a computer system, usually a network, through security “holes” and
then replicate itself.
A. Computer virus
B. Worm
C. Trojan horse
D. HTTP
11. What refers to the computer’s use of hard disk storage to simulate RAM?
A. Volatile memory
B. ROM
C. Data storage
D. Virtual memory
12. What is a set of instructions that resides on a storage device such as a hard drive, and can be loaded into
memory and executed called?
A. Stored program
B. Device program
C. Operating program
D. Memory-resident program
13. Which of the following devices is NOT serially interfaced to a PC?
A. Mouse
B. Printer
C. Modem
D. All of these
EE Board April 2003
14. _____ is a software that allows users to have fast and flexible access to information in large documents,
constructing associations among data items needed.
A. Voice mail
B. Internet
C. E-mail
D. Hypertext
15. Which memory holds the most recently read and frequently read data in memory, making subsequent
retrieval of that data much faster than reading from a tape or disk drive or even from the main memory?
A. Cache memory
B. Virtual memory
C. Static memory
D. Dynamic memory
16. A large application or program is divided into modules of equal size called _____
A. pages
B. sectors
C. segments
D. stacks
17. What 5-bit code that has long been used in telex and teletype writer communications?
A. Baudot code
B. BCD
C. EBCDIC
D. ASCII
18. What is the term for a deadlock situation that occurs when a program references a different page for almost
every instruction, and there is not even enough real memory to hold most of the virtual memory?
A. Paging
B. Scanning
C. Thrashing
D. Handshaking
19. What is a single word memory location used to temporarily hold data during program execution
A. Accumulator
B. Register
C. Buffer
D. Stack
20. What refers to the debugging method in which the program is executed one instruction at a time and the
register contents can be examined after each step?
A. Text editing
B. Syntax analyzing
C. Trace
D. Stacking
21. In a computer system, _____ is a hardware unit where the control keys are located.
A. CPU
B. Keyboard
C. I/O section
D. Console
22. All are parts of the computer hardware organization except one. Which one?
A. Architecture
B. Implementation
C. Hardware realization
D. Assembler
23. The data manipulated by a program is called _____ depending on its nature and extent.
A. database
B. file
C. input
D. all of these
24. Which one represents machine instructions by mnemonic names and allows memory addresses and other
constants to be represented by symbols rather than bit strings?
A. Assembler
B. Interpreter
C. Machine language
D. Assembly language
25. Which of the following is an instruction that causes data to be brought from memory into an accumulator
register?
A. LOAD
B. LOOP
C. FETCH
D. JUMP
26. What term is used to describe storing of data into a memory?
A. Writing
B. Loading
C. Reading
D. Memorizing
27. What register holds the data being written into or read out of the addressed memory location?
A. Hold register
B. Memory address register
C. Memory data register
D. Access register
28. What does “CMOS” means?
A. Complementary Main-Oxide Semiconductor
B. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
C. Complements Main-Oxide Semiconductor
D. Computer Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
EE Board September 2003
29. _____ a system software that translate a program written in a computer language by a computer programmer
(such as BASIC) into the language (machine language) that the computer understand.
A. Driver
B. Transfer program
C. Language translator
D. RAM
30. What do you call a translated program in machine language?
A. A source program
B. An object program
C. A machine program
D. A user’s program
31. A program designed to attached itself to a file, reproduce, and spread from one file to another, destroying
data, displaying an irritating message, or otherwise disrupting computer operations.
A. Computer virus
B. Worm
C. Trojan horse
D. All of the above
32. Which one is the portion of an instruction cycle where the instruction is sent from memory to the instruction
register?
A. LOAD
B. ACCUMULATE
C. EXECUTE
D. FETCH
33. The decimal system is composed of how many numerals or symbols?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16

34. A specific file that is used by the operating system to store the physical location of all the files on a storage
medium, such as a hard disk or floppy disk called _____
A Field
B. File allocation table
C. File format
D. File information table
35. What is the part of a computer instruction that defines what type of operation the computer is to execute on
specified data?
A. Machine language
B. Mnemonic
C. Assembly language
D. Op code
36. A digital circuit is also known as
A. arithmetic circuit
B. logic circuit
C. electronic circuit
D. sequential circuit
37. What does “TTL” means?
A. Transistor Transistor Logic
B. Transformed Tapped Logic
C. Transistorized Transmission Logic
D. Transmit Time Logic
38. Which computer port is commonly used in order to speed up the transfer of the computer data?
A. Parallel port
B. Serial port
C. Video port
D. Modem port
39. Which device puts data on the data bus during a write operation?
A. ALU
B. CPU
C. Keyboard
D. Accumulator
40. What is an instruction mnemonic?
A. A short abbreviation for the operation
B. A binary code that represents the operation to be performed by the CPU
C. A technical term sometimes added to an IC’s description
D. A representation of a quantity that varies in discrete steps
41. What is the term used to describe the moving of software from another computer to your own computer?
A. Surfing
B. Downloading
C. Uploading
D. Accessing

42. What abbreviaton represents the op code of a computer instruction?

A. ASCII
B. Mnemonic
C. Oclets
D. Algorithm
43. Which of the following classes of mass memory devices use a laser beam to write and read onto a specified
coated disk?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Non-volatile memory
D. Optical disk memory
44. Which of the following is the busiest bus and the one that carries that actual data?
A. Address bus
B. Data bus
C. Control bus
D. Microprocessor
45. HTTP:// is and identifier that appears at the beginning of most Web page. What does HTTP stands for?
A. Hypertext Time Protocol
B. Hypertime Text Protocol
C. Hypertext Transmission Protocol
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol
46. A megabyte is exactly _____ bytes
 A. 1,000,000
B. 999,999
C. 1,000,001
D. 1,048,576
47. The bus that communicates control and status information is the
A. Address bus
B. Data bus
C. Control bus
D. Microprocessor
48. What do you call a program stored in ROM that loads and initializes the operating system on a computer?
A. Bootsector program
B. CMOS program
C. BIOS program
D. Bootstrap program
49. What is the term for a computer or software that requests information from another computer or server?
A. Host
B. Workstation
C. Client
D. All of the choices
50. A software that translates a program written in a high-level language into low-level instructions before the
program is executed is called _____.
A. Compiler
B. Assembler
C. Integrator
D. Interpreter
51. The term “bus” refers to:
A. the physical path along which the signal travels
B. the logical path
C. both the physical path and the logical path
D. the microprocessor peripheral that executes data
52. What computer memory is used during the first cycles of data processing activity?
A. Read only memory
B. Cache memory
C. Hard drive memory
D. Program memory
EE Board September 2003
53. A parity bit is also called ____ is an extra bit attached to the end of a byte for purposes of checking for
accuracy.
 A. chip size
B. check bit
C. silicon type
D. RAM capacity
54. Which of the following belongs to a class of codes called the minimum-change codes, in which only one bit
in the code group changes when going from one step to the next?
A. Morse code
B. BCD code
C. Excess-3 code
D. Gray code
55. What is the difference between the high and low frequency spectrum?
A. Cut-off frequency
B. Bandwidth
C. Resonance frequency
D. Center frequency
56. What does “DTML” means?
A. Diode Transistor Macro Logic
B. Diode Transistor Minimum Logic
C. Diode Transistor Maximum Logic
D. Diode Transistor Micro Logic
57. A group of records are stored in a _____
A. file
B. database
C. drive
D. memory
58. Which of the following takes the complete decimal number and represents it in binary?
A. BCD
B. Gray code
C. Excess-3 code
D. Straight binary code
59. All are basic operation in Boolean Algebra except:
A. Logical addition
B. Logical subtraction
C. Logical multiplication
D. Logical complementation
60. What is the most common type of digital IC package?
A. DIP
B. Metal type
 C. CMOS
D. TTL
61. What refers to the time with which a disk can find data being sought?
A. Access time
B. Data rate time
C. Transfer time
D. Enter time
62. What type of database contains records in an organized, structured format?
A. Hierarchical database
B. Relational database
C. Ordered database
D. Sequential database
63. In what slot does the CD drive will be connected to the mother board of the computer?
A. PCI slot
B. IDE slot
C. ISA slot
D. AGP slot
EE Board September 2003
64. _____ two way parallel path connecting processors and memory containing addresses.
A. Buffer
B. Cache memory
C. Control bus
D. Address bus
65. What is the smallest changeable data unit?
A. Bit
B. Byte
C. Nibble
D. Word
66. The command line in basic programming is always started by which of the following?
A. Integer
B. Alphanumeric character
C. Machine code
D. Clear command
67. An instruction that alters the normal course of a program by causing it to jump to another instructions is the
_____
A. rotate instruction
B. skip instruction
C. JUMP
 D. loop instruction
68. An instruction that causes data in the accumulator to be moved to the memory or peripheral register.
A. FETCH
B. STORE
C. LOOP
D. LOAD
69. What refers to a specific register that always points to the address of the next instruction to be expected?
A. Instruction register
B. Pushdown stack
C. Program counter
D. Control bus
70. What is the term for a high-speed memory used to store a small amount of data temporarily so that the data
can be retrieved quickly?
A. Cache memory
B. Video memory
C. Volatile memory
D. Scratchpad memory
71. What program is executed on several different computers to compare their speed and performance?
A. Compiler
B. Assembler
C. Diagnostic program
D. Benchmark
72. A computer or software on the network that supplies the network with data and storage is called _____
A. server
B. mainframe
C. host
D. workstation
73. Which of the following has a function of directing memory and I/O devices transfers?
A. Address bus
B. Data bus
C. Control bus
D. Device bus
74. What is the language used in making an internet web page?
A. Highertext Machine Language?
B. Hypertext Mark-up Language
C. Hightech Mark-up Language
D. Hypertext Machine Language
75. What do you mean by the acronym “DCTL”?
 A. Diode Capacitor Transistor Logic
B. Diode Coupled Transistor Logic
C. Direct Connected Transistor Logic
D. Direct Coupled Transistor Logic
76. What register holds the current instruction during its execution?
A. Instruction register
B. Pushdown register
C. Program register
D. Execution register
77. A BCD code has how many bits per number?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
EE Board September 2003
78. A non-impact printer that forms images with little dots and procedures high quality images
A. Card printer
B. Dot-matrix printer
C. Computer printer
D. Ink jet printer
79. A nibble is composed of how many bits?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
80. The term “firmware” is used to describe programs stored in which of the following memory hardware?
A. ROMs and EPROMs
B. RAMs and ROMs
C. PROMs add EPROMs
D. PROMs and ROMs
81. Which one refers to an assembly of computer hardware and software that enables computers to share data,
software and other resources with each other?
A. Local area network
B. Wide area network
C. Metropolitan area network
D. Multi-level network
EE Board April 2001
82. In digital codes, how do you identify codes running from 0 to 1 or run from 0 to 7?
 A. Base 10
B. Octal
C. Binary
D. Gray
83. What is needed to translate a high level program into a sequence of machine instructions that performs the
desired task?
A. Assembler
B. Interpreter
C. Compiler
D. Debugger
84. Text editors and formatters belong to which are of computing
A. Compilers
B. Accounting
C. Assembling
D. Word processing
85. A computer program that appears to perform one function while actually doing something else, such as
inserting a virus into a computer system, or stealing a password?
A. Computer virus
B. Worm
C. Trojan horse
D. Hypertext
86. Which one refers to a device that amplifies a signal and passes it on?
A. Repeater
B. Amplifier
C. Trap
D. Modulator
87. What refers to a character that can be displayed or printed, including numerals and symbols?
A. Control characters
B. Alphanumeric data
C. Binary characters
D. Alphanumeric control
88. What refers to the manner in which alphanumeric data and control characters are represented by sequences
of bits?
A. Controlling
B. Processing
C. Coding
D. Transforming
89. What type of file has a record of web site activity?
A. Cookie file
 B. Java file
C. HTTP file
D. HTML file
90. What memory in a computer is used to hold the computer’s start up routine?
A. RAM
B. CMOS
C. ROM
D. SDRAM
91. What term is used to describe retrieval of data from a memory?
A. Unloading
B. Downloading
C. Reading
D. Accessing
92. What type of bus carries the memory address from the computer to the memory?
A. Data bus
B. Address bus
C. Control bus
D. Parallel bus
93. What type of bus carries lines that control the operation of the memory from the microprocessor to the
memory?
A. Data bus
B. Address bus
C. Control bus
D. Parallel bus
94. What register holds the address of the word currently being accessed?
A. Hold register
B. Memory address register
C. Memory data register
D. Access register
95. A state of the art technology designed to provide supervisory control and data acquisition capability for
industrial, commercial and utility power substation and systems.

A. Monitor
B. Cobol
C. SCADA
D. IBM PC

96. What is the technique used to ensure that the bits within a memory byte are correct?

A. Handshaking
B. Parity
 C. Swapping
D. Processing

97. What is the term for a sequence or computer instructions that performs some functions?

A. Algorithm
B. Machine language
C. Program
D. Assembly language

98. If the executable program is kept on disk or tape, it is normally referred to as _____

A. Software
B. Firmware
C. Hardware
D. All of the choices

99. What do you call a network where people can retrieve information, communicate, entertain or do business
from the comfort of a PC?

A. Internet
B. Web site
C. Facsimile
D. E-mail

100. What do you call a projector that will be used to project video signals from a computer?

A. Multimedia projector
B. Electronic projector
C. Overhead projector
D. Laptop projector

101. A type of computer memory circuit that holds data program instructions and the operating system while the
computer is on

A. Random access memory

B. Read-only memory
C. Volatile memory
D. CMOS

102. What refers to one or more integrated circuits that contain permanent instructions that the computer uses
during boot process?

A. CMOS
B. ROM
C. RAM
D. Boot sector

103. Which of the following is used to capture real and moving objects and displays it into a computer?
 A. Scanner
B. Video player
C. Electronic recorder
D. Digital camera

104. Which of the following is related to a monitor?

A. Video display
B. Screen
C. Monochrome monitor
D. RGB monitor

105. Which port in a PC is a modem normally connected?

A. Serial port
B. Parallel port
C. Special port
D. Any of these

106. What is a network with continuous loop communication?

A. Star network
B. Ring network
C. Cascaded network
D. Local network

108. A computer that interacts with a television set is called

A. Personal computer
B. Net computer
C. Personal digital assistant
D. Telecomputer

109. What is the smallest unit of information handled by a computer?

A. Bit
B. Byte
C. Cell
D. Character

110. A collection of information that may be stored in more than one file is called _____

A. Databank
B. Database
C. Dataware
D. Data module

111. Which one is a tiny electrically operated switch that can alternate between on and off million times?
 A. Diode
B. Latch
C. Pentode
D. Transistor

112. A boot disk that contains operating system files plus antivirus software is called _____

A. Boot disk
B. Rescue disk
C. Reserve disk
D. Restore disk

113. What do you call viruses designed to corrupt antivirus softwares?

A. Anti-antivirus
B. Antivirus eradicator
C. Worm
D. Retro viruses

114. A computer that is smaller and more portable than a computer notebook. It is sometimes called palm-top
computers

A. Microcomputer
B. Minicomputer
C. Personal digital assistant (PDA)
D. Micro PC

115. What do you call a communication network covering a geographical area the size of a city or suburban?

A. Local area network

B. Wide area network
C. Metropolitan area network
D. Multi-level network

116. What is a large computer called?

A. A laptop computer
B. A mega computer
C. A main frame computer
D. A desktop computer

117. This term refers to preparing the disk for usage so that the operating system can be written on it. Which
one?

A. Multitasking
B. Formatting
C. Setting
D. Debugging
118. What is a step-by-step drawing representing a specific procedure algorithm?

A. Flowchart
B. Block diagram
C. Assembler diagram
D. Machine code

119. What is used to translate high level statement into machine language?

A. Macros
B. Assembler
C. Compiler or interpreter
D. Loader

120. What code is widely used in mainframe computers?

A. BCD
B. Baudot code
C. Hollerith code
D. EBCDIC

121. What is RS 2320?

A. An interface standard
B. A type of computer memory
C. A type of computer hard disk
D. A computer cable connecting the hardwares

122. The term that refers to the physical equipment or components of an electronic data processing system

A. Software
B. Central processing unit
C. Firmware
D. Hardware

123. Which one is not needed to be connected to the internet?

A. Modem
B. Security code
C. Telephone line
D. PC

124. When the computer software is easy to use, it is termed as:

A. Custom software
B. Instant access software
C. User-friendly software
D. Shareware
125. What refers to a technique where each user of a computer takes turns, under the control of the operating
system using the entire computer main memory for a certain length of time?

A. Multitasking
B. Time-sharing
C. Handshaking
D. Batch processing

126. A multi-user system is similar to a multi-tasking system except that all users are:

A. Using different programs

B. Using different computers
C. Using the same program
D. Using mobile computers

127. A computer that infects the macros that are affected to documents and spreadsheets is called _____

A. Micro virus
B. File virus
C. Document virus
D. Spread sheet virus

128. What do you call a computer that receives and stores e-mail data until retrieved by the email account
holder?

A. ISP
B. POP server
C. POST
D. MPEG

129. In computer work, an antivirus is:

A. A software full of virus in order to minimize a software against a specific defect

B. A specific virus that protects a program from other unprecedented attacks by other virus
C. A software that scans a computer system to detect viruses or other harmful software
D. A vaccine injected by the operator into the hard disk of a computer to remove interference

130. What do you call a microscopic plate of silicon that contains thousands of micro miniature electronic
circuit components?

A. Integrated transistor
B. Memory
C. Central processing unit
D. Microchip

131. Available for purchase software is known as:

A. Application software
B. Package software
 C. System software
D. Market software

132. What code is a 7-bit code that allows only 128 different combinations and commonly used in
microcomputers?

A. EBCDIC
B. ASCII
C. Baudot code
D. Hollerith code

133. What do you call a person who gains illegal access to a computer system?

A. Electronic enthusiast
B. Hacker
C. Computer pirate
D. All of the choices

134. What do you call a process of retrieving a file from the internet and storing it in the PC?

A. Scanning
B. Browsing
C. Downloading
D. Uploading

135. All data processing systems involve the following operations regardless of the kind of data processed or
the kind of device or equipment used. Which one of the following are these?

A. Analyzing, logic determination and coding

B. Input, processing and output
C. Input, storage and processing
D. Processing, storage and distribution

136. What refers to a computer-base system in which a telephone message is recorded in digital form and then
forwarded to others?

A. Voice mail
B. Answering machine
C. Teleconference
D. Audio conference

137. It refers to the rate at which data is sent over communication lines. Which one?

A. Propagation ratio
B. Uploading rate
C. Baud rate
D. Attenuation rate

138. What holds data and instructions for further manipulation in the ALU?
 A. Register
B. Accumulator
C. Control bus
D. Data bus

139. What is in a machine that implies that it is capable of absorbing and organizing new data, learning new
concept, reasoning logically and responding to inquiries?

A. Self-Process intelligence
B. Artificial intelligence
C. Main-free intelligence
D. All of the choices

140. “AT” command is used in PC communications. What do you mean by “AT”?

A. Attention
B. Attraction
C. Attack
D. Attempt

141. Which of the ff. refers to a round piece of plastic that stores data and program as a magnetized spot?

A. Digital disk

B. Hard disk

C. Floppy disk

D. None

142. It is a very powerful small component of a computer.

A. Diode

B. Triode

C. Chip

D. Internet

143. What do you call a series of concentric or spiral storage areas created on a storage medium during the

formatting process?

A. Traces

B. Routes

C. Dmanins

D. Tracks

144. What do you call a device that provides the computer with electricity if there is a power failure?

A. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

 B. Automatic transfer switch (ATS)

C. Power supply rectifier

D. Power inverter

145. What type of database stores all information is the equivalent of a matrix?

A. Hierarchical database

B. Relational database

C. Ordered database

D. Sequential database

146. What is the term for a computer professional who pans an entire computer system?

A. Programmer

B. Software developer

C. Systems analyst

D. All

147. What type of computer accepts input in handwriting on a screen?

A. Stylus computer

B. Pen-based computer

C. Touch-screen computer

D. All

148. A megabyte is a computer term which means _____.

A. A thousand kilobytes

B. A million kilobytes

C. A group of characters that can fill a computer storage

D. A hundred thousand bytes

149. What is the storage capacity of a 3 ½’’ floppy disk?

A. 1.44 MB

B. 1.8 MB

C. 1.25 MB

D. 1.5 MB

150. What is used to gain access to the internet?

A. Gopher

B. Web page
 C. Password

D. Browser

151. Which one is not a data communication equipment?

A. Modem

B. Data auxiliary set

C. Personal computer

D. None

152. Which of the ff. devices merges signals?

A. Oscillator

B. Multiplexer

C. Demodulator

D. Demultiplexer

153. Which one is not required in video conferencing through a PC?

A. Microphone

B. Digital camera

C. Speakers

D. Screen filter

154. What do you call a collection of fields?

A. File

B. Record

C. Document

D. Database

155. What device is used in converting a computer digital signal to analog signals for transmission over

telephone wires?

A. Modem

B. Network hub

C. Digital switch

D. Demodulator

156. The Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Cod (EBCDIC) uses how many bits for each character?

A. 2

B. 4
 C. 8

D. 16

157. In a network of computers, what do you call the computer wherein commonly used files are stored and

accessed?

A. Network computer

B. Host computer

C. File server

D. PC

158. The digital system usually operates on _____ system.

A. Decimal

B. Hexadecimal

C. Binary

D. Octal

159. Which one refers to a way of sending and receiving mails between two or more people through the global

computer network?

A. Electronic mail

B. Express mail

C. Facsimile

D. Internet

160. What do you call a communication network that covers a wide geographical area such as a state or a

country?

A. Local area network

B. Wide area network

C. Metropolitan area network

D. Multi-level network

161. What is another term for memory?

A. Tape storage

B. Disk storage

C. Primary storage

D. Secondary storage

162. It is the computerized data gathering, monitoring and switching equipment.

 A. Supervising control

B. Remote control

C. SCADA

D. Control and monitoring system

163. What refers to the process of sending a copy of a file from a local computer to a remote computer?

A. Downloading

B. Electronic mail

C. Uploading

D. Routing

164. An individual computer can be interconnected to a network of computers using which of the ff.?

A. Interface

B. Serial point

C. Modem

D. Network hub

165. What type of communication system uses light rather that electricity to communicate?

A. Data communication

B. Optical communication

C. Microwave communication

D. Fiber optic communication

166. _____ is a device converting computer digital signals to analog signals for transmission over copper

telephone wires and then back to digital signals.

A. Fax machine

B. Modem

C. Telegram

D. Telephone

167. An email address should consist of which of the ff.?

A. Username and domain name

B. Username and user address

C. Username and service provider name

D. Username, domain name, and service provider name

168. Maximum capacity of a recordable compact disc.

 A. 1 Gb

B. 10 Gb

C. 650 Mb

D. 100 Mb

169. Which of the ff. is a binary coding commonly used in computers?

A. Baudot

B. ASCII

C. BCD

D. EBCDIC

170. What is the name of a place in the internet which can be accessed and gather information?

A. Yahoo

B. Hotmail

C. Web site

D. Web page

171. What do you call the making of illegal copies of copyrighted softwares?

A. Software hacking

B. Software piracy

C. Software replication

D. Software collaboration

172. Which one is used in the screen of a laptop computer?

A. LCD

B. CRT

C. JRT

D. RSC

173. In order for a program to run, it must be placed in the computer’s memory by a _____.

A. Compiler

B. Loader

C. Installer

D. Interpreter

174. For PC to PC communications, a data terminal equipment is directly connected to _____.

A. DDE equipment
 B. Telephone line

C. ATE equipment

D. DCE equipment

175. Which computer slot provides a high speed data pathway that is primarily used for graphic cards?

A. ISA

B. PCI

C. AGP

D. IDE

176. Octal coding involves grouping the bits in _____?

A. 6’s

B. 9’s

C. 1’s

D. 3’s

178. The EBCDIC allows a maximum of how many different characters?

A. 512

B. 256

C. 128

D. 64

179. What is a network with a host computer called?

A. Star network

B. Ring network

C. Mesh network

D. Local network

180. It refers to a device that modulates and demodulates signal transmitted over data communication facilities.

A. Facsimile machine

B. Communication hub

C. Modem

D. Cellular phone

181. What does “DTL” mean?

A. Data Terminal Load

B. Data Terminal Logic

 C. Diode Transistor Load

D. Diode Transistor Logic

182. This slot in the computer typically houses a graphic card, sound card, video card, or modem. Which one?

A. IDE

B. ISA

C. AGP

D. PCI

183. What part of the microprocessor fetches and decodes the incoming instructions and generates the signals

necessary for the arithmetic logic unit to perform the intended function?

A. ALU

B. Stack

C. Accumulator

D. Control unit

184. Which one refers to “technological merger”?

A. Digital access

B. Digital protocol

C. Digital convergence

D. Digital technology

185. The process of notifying network that you are using a specific computer is called _____.

A. Log-in

B. Booting

C. Password

D. Log-out

186. What is another term for operating system (OS)?

A. Start-up program

B. Computer program

C. Monitor program

D. All

187. If the program is placed in ROM or EPROM, it is referred to as _____.

A. Software

B. Firmware
 C. Hardware

D. Software and firmware

188. What is the smallest type of computer in terms of their physical sizes?

A. Minicomputer

B. Mainframe

C. Maxicomputer

D. Micropcomputer

189. What is a central processing unit (CPU) on a single chip?

A. Integrated circuit

B. Microprocessor

C. Accumulator

D. ALU

190. What is the function of the Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)?

A. Executes command and manipulates data

B. Holds data for further manipulation

C. Provide temporary data storage in sequential order

D. Carries the actual data

191. Which of the ff. is a volatile memory?

A. RAM

B. ROM

C. PROM

D. EPROM

192. What are used for temporary storage of instructions or data?

A. Accumulators

B. Registers

C. Program counters

D. Control units

193. What code results when each digit of a decimal number is represented by its binary equivalent?

A. Morse code

B. Gray code

C. Binary-coded decimal
 D. Straight binary code

194. What provide temporary data storage in sequential order usually on a last-in, first-out basis?

A. Registers

B. Stacks

C. Accumulators

D. Counters

195. What refers to a program that controls the computer at its most basic level and provides the environment

for application programs?

A. Computer program

B. Multi-tasking program

C. Operating system

D. Assembly language

196. A byte is composed of how many bits?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

197. What is the term used to describe a copyrighted software marketed under a license that allows users to use

the users to use the software for a trial period and then send in a registration if they wish to continue the use of

it?

A. Firmware

B. Trial software

C. Shareware

D. Test run software

198. Data does not need to be refreshed and remains as long as the power stays on for what type of memory?

A. Dynamic memory

B. Static memory

C. Kinetic memory

D. Virtual memory

199. What is the meaning of SCADA?

A. System Coordinated Area Distribution Area

 B. System Control and Data Acquisition

C. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

D. Super Computer and Deck Accessibility

200. What memory contains the BIOS that is read in when the computer is first started?

A. Cache memory

B. Virtual memory

C. OS memory

D. Video memory

ACES REVIEW CENTER

M6-Doña Amparo Bldg. España Blvd. Manila
TERMS IN ESAS - 3
BY ENGR. JIMMY L. OCAMPO
0920.644.6246

1. What is annuity?
A. A series of uniform amounts over a period of time
B. The future worth of a present amount
C. An annual repayment of a loan
D. A lump sum at the end of the year
2. When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate
the calculation?
A. Evaluating over different time period
B. Differences in the magnitudes of the projects
C. Mutually exclusive projects
D. Nonconventional cash flows
3. What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
A. Different equivalent uniform annual cash flows
B. Identical salvage values
C. Different salvage values
D. Identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows
4. What is the formula for a straight line depreciation rate?
A. (100% - % net salvage value) / estimated service life
B. % net salvage value / estimated service life
C. 100% net salvage value / estimated service life
 D. Average net salvage value / estimated service life
5. Which of the following is true regarding the minimum attractive rate of return used in judging proposed
investments?
A. It is frequently a policy decision made by an organization’s management
B. It is the same for every organization
C. It is not relevant in engineering economy study
D. It is larger than the interest rate used to discount expected cash flow from investments.
6. The economic order quantity (EOC) is defined as the order quantity which minimizes the inventory cost per
unit time. Which of the following is not an assumption of the basic EOQ model with no shortages?
A. There is an upper bound on the quantity ordered
B. The demand rate is uniform and constant
C. There is a positive cost on each unit inventoried
D. The entire reorder quantity is delivered instantaneous
7. Which of the following events will cause the optimal lot size, given by the classic EOQ model with no
shortages, to increase?
A. B or c
B. A decrease in carrying cost
C. An increase in demand
D. A decrease in demand
8. What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required to do during repayment?
A. Repay the loan over an agreed upon amount of time
B. Pay exactly the same amount of interest ach payment
C. Pay exactly the same amount of principal each payment
D. A and c
9. What is the indirect product cost (IPC) spending variance?
A. The difference between actual IPC and IPC volume adjusted budget
B. The difference between actual IPC and IPC absorbed
C. The IPC volume adjusted budget (fixed+volume(variable IPC rate))
D. The IPC volume adjusted budget minus the total IPC absorbed
10. What is acid test ratio?
A. The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
B. The ratio of owners equity to total current liabilities
C. The ratio of all assets to total liabilities
D. The ratio of profit after taxes to equity
11. Which of the following does not affect owner’s equity?
A. License to start business
B. Dividends paid
C. Invested capital
D. Revenue
12. What is work in process classified as?
A. Asset
B. Liability
 C. Expenses
D. Revenue
13. How is the material purchased price variance defined?
A. (quantity purchased x actual price)-(quantity purchased x standard price)
B. (quantity issued-standard quantity)(standard price)
C. (actual price-standard price)(quantity used)
D. (quantity purchased-quantity used)(actual price)
14. A company is planning to grow 30$=% during the next fiscal year. What has to increase if the company is to
achieve their goal?
A. Any combination of (b),(c) and (d)
B. The ratio of sales to total assets
C. The ratio of total assets to equity
D. Equity
15. Which statement is true for a fluid?
A. It cannot sustain a shear force at rest
B. It cannot sustain a shear orce
C. It is a liquid only
D. It can strain
16. Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow of any fluid, real or ideal?
I – Newtons second law of motion
II – The continuity equation
III – the requirement of uniform velocity distribution
IV – Newtons law of viscosity
V – The principle of conservation of energy
A. I, II and V
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

17. Surface tension has which of the following properties?

i. It has units of force per unit length
ii. It exists whenever there is a density of discontinuity
iii. It is strongly affected by pressure
A. I and II
B. I only
C. II only
D. III only
18. Which of the following describes shear stress in moving fluid?
A. B and c
B. It is proportional to the absolute viscosity
C. It is proportional to the velocity gradient at the point of interest
D. It is proportional to the fluid density
19. Which of the following describes a streamline?
i. It is a mathematical concept
ii. It cannot be crossed by the flow
iii. It is a line of constant entropy
A. I and II
B. I only
C. II only
D. I and III

20. What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at the surface?

A. The velocity at the surface
B. The same as the bulk fluid velocity
C. Zero
D. Proportional to the smoothness of the surface
21. Which of the statements is true concerning continuity equation?
A. It is derived from the principle of the conservation of mass
B. It is derived from the principle of the conservation of energy
C. It is valid only for incompressible flow
D. It is valid only for steady flow
22. Under which of the following conditions is Bernoullis equation valid?
A. All of these
B. All point evaluated must be on the same stream line
C. The fluid must be incompressible
D. The fluid must be inviscid
23. Which of the following statements is incorrect
A. The Reynolds number is the ratio of viscous force to inertial force
B. Steady flow do not change with time at an point
C. Bernoullis equation only holds on the same streamline
D. For a fluid at rest, the pressure is equal in all lateral directions
24. Which of the following flow meters measures the average fluid velocity in a pipe rather than a point or local
velocity
i. Venturi meter
ii. Pitot tube
iii. Impact tube
iv. Orifice meter
v. Hot wire anemometer
A. I and IV
B. I only
C. II only
D. II and V
25. Which of the following properties are intensive properties
i. Temperature
 ii. Pressure
iii. Composition
iv. Mass
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. I and IV
D. II and II
26. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous
compound?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 0
27. On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted?
A. H-s
B. P-V
C. S-u
D. P-T
28. What is the expression for heat of vaporization hfg if hg = enthalphy o the saturated vapor and hf = enthalphy
of saturated liquid
A. Hg-hf
B. Hg
C. Hf
D. Hg ^2 – hf^2
29. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process
A. Both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic is reversible
B. Adiabatic: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer is not zero
C. Adiabatic: heat transfer is not zero:isentropic:heat transfer=0
D. Adiabatic:reversible:isentropic:not reversible
30. Which of the following reversible processes describes an ideal otto cycle?
i. Adiabatic compression,isometric heat addition,adiabatic expression, isometric heat
rejection
ii. Isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric heat
rejection
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II in succession
D. II and I in succession
31. The Carnot refrigerator operates between two reservoirs. One reservoir is at a higher temperature th and the
other is a cooler, Tc- What is the coefficient of performance, COP, of the refrigerator?
A. Tc/(Th-Tc)
B. Th/Tc
 C. Th-(Tc-Th)
D. L-(Tc-Th)
32. The mole is the basic unit of measurement in chemistry. Which of the following is not equal to or the same
as one mole of the substance indicated?
A. 16g of oxygen (O2) molecules
B. 22.4 liters of nitrogen (N2) gas at STP
C. 6.02 x 10^23 oxygen (O2) molecules
D. 1g of hydrogen(H) atoms
33. Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure
A. 0 C and one atmosphere pressure
B. 0 K and one atmosphere pressure
C. 0 F and zero pressure
D. 32 F and zero pressure
34. Which of the following statements is true for real gas but not for an ideal gas?
A. the total volume of the molecules in a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a whole
B. pV=nRT
C. collisions between gas molecules are perfectly elastic with no net decrease in kinetic energy
D. no attractive forces exist between the molecules of a gas
35. The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the following cases?
A. The vapor and liquid have a single form
B. The liquid has no absorbed gas
C. The vapor phase is stable
D. The liquid is completely vaporized
36. How is molality defined?
A. The number of moles solute in 1000g of solvent
B. The number of moles o solute in 1l of solution
C. The number of gram formula weights of solute per liter
D. The number of gram equivalent weights of solute in one liter of solution
36. The following statements are made with regards to the boiling point of a liquid. Which statement is false?
A. at high elevation, water boils at lower temperature because of the reduction in the surface tension of
the water
B. a non-volatile substance having zero vapor pressure in solution (for example sugar or salt) has no true
boiling point
C. the boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the applied
pressure of the liquid
D. the total vapor pressure of a solution is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the components of
the solution
37. In any of the ff postulates does Bohr model of the hydrogen atom involve?
A. In any of its energy state, the electron moves in circular orbit about the nucleus
B. The electron in an atom has an infinite range of motion allowed to it.
C. He states of allowed electron motion are those in which the angular momentum of the electrum is the
integral multiple of h/r
 D. When an atom changes from low energy state to high energy state, it emits a quantum of radiation
whose energy is equal to the difference in energy between two states.
38. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?
A. Sodium(Na)
B. Helium(He)
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
D. Hydrochloric acid(HCI)
39. Two major type of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding:ionic and covalent. Which of the
following has a bond that is the least ionic in character?
A. H2
B. NaCL
C. CH4
D. H2O
40. Which of the following chemical equations is incorrect?
A. ZnS+O2=SO2+ZnO
B. S+Fe=FeS
C. ZnSO4+Na2S+ZnS+Na2SO4
D. H2SO4+ZnS+ZnSO4+H2S
41. The voltage of galvanic cell does not depends on which of the following parameters?
A. Volume
B. Temperature
C. Pressure
D. Concentration of solutions
42. Which of the following organic chemicals is most soluble in water?
A. CH3OH
B. CCI4
C. CH4
D. CH3CH3
43. Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials?
A. The electrons, particularly the outermost ones
B. The atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-atom
C. The magnitude of the electrical charge of the protons
D. The weight of the atoms
44. The atomic weight of hydrogen is one gram per gram-atom. What is the mass of a hydrogen atom?
A. 1.66 x 10^-24g/atom
B. 6.02 x 10^-23g/atom
C. 1,0x10^-10g/atom
D. 1g/atom
45. Comparing the face centered cubic lattice with the hexagonal close packed lattice, which of the following
features describes the hexagonal close-packed structure only?
A. The deformation properties are more directional
B. It has closest packed lattice structure
 C. Its coordination number is 12
D. It has four octahedral planes
46. A plane intercepts the coordinate axis at x=1,y=3 and z=2. What are the miller indices of the plane?
A. (623)
B. (123)
C. (132)
D. (326)
47. In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?
A. An extra atom sitting at non-lattice point
B. An atom missing at a lattice point
C. A different element at a lattice point
D. A line defect
48. Which of the following describes diffusion in a crystal structure?
A. It often uses an exchange or vacancy mechanism
B. It is not possible
C. It occurs only in alloys, never in pure crystals
D. It occurs primarily as a result of mechanical work
49. Which of the following bet describes the 0.2% offset yield stress?
A. It is the stress at which the material plastically strains 0.2%
B. It is the stress at which the material elastically strains 0.2%
C. It is 0.2% below the fracture point of the material
D. It is the elastic limit after which a measurable plastic strain has occurred
50. Which of the following are true regarding creep?
i. It is caused by the diffusion of vacancies to edge dislocations, permitting dislocation
climb
ii. It involves the plastic deformation of materials at loads below yield stress
iii. It may involve whole grain sliding

A. I , II and III
B. I only
C. II only
D. I and III

51. A shat is made of quality steel breaks in half due to fatigue. What would the surface of the fracture site look
like?
A. Smooth over most of the surfaces although it appears tom at the location of fracture
B. Like a cup and cone
C. Very jagged and rough
D. Pocketmarked, with very small cavities
52. As the amount of slip increases, additional deformation becomes more difficult and decreases until the
plastic flow finally stops. Slip may begin again only if a larger stress is applied. What is the phenomenon
known as?
 A. Strain hardening
B. Cooling
C. Crowding
D. Twinning
53. Which of the following does not produce vacancies, interstitial defects or impurity defects in a material?
A. Slow equilibrium cooling
B. Plastic deformation
C. Quenching
D. Irradiation with high energy particles
54. Which of the following are true statements about the modulus of elasticity E?
A. It is the slope of the stress-strain diagram in the linearly elastic region
B. It is the same as the rupture modulus
C. It is the ratio of stress to volumetric strain
D. It is dimensionless
55. What is the proper relationship between the modulus of elasticity E, the Poisson’s ratio v, and the bulk
modulus of elasticity K.
A. E=3K(1-2V)
B. E=K(1-2V)
C. E=K(1-V)
D. E=3K(1-v)
56. Given that d is the distance between dislocations, and b is the burgers vector, what is the expression for the
misorientation angle θ of the tilt boundary?
A. Tan θ = b/d
B. sin θ= d/b
C. θ = b/d
D. θ = d/b
57. If G is the sear modulus, b is the burgers vector and τ is half the distance between particles, what is the local
stress τ required to bend dislocations around a particle?
A. Τ=GB/r
B. Τ=Gbr
C. Br/G
D. Τ=Gr/b
58. Low carbon steel are generally used in the “as rolled” or “as fabricated” state. What is the reason for this?
A. Their strength generally cannot be increased by heat treatment.
B. They come in many different shapes and thickness
C. The degrade severely under heat treatment
D. Their density is too high
59. Where do stress concentrations occur?
i. Near the points of application of concentrated loads
ii. Along the entire length of high distributed loads
iii. At discontinuities
A. I and III
 B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II

60. The ease with which dislocations are able to move through a crystal under stress accounts for which of the
following?
i. Ductility
ii. Lower yield strength
iii. Hardness
A. I and III
bII and III
c. I, II and III
d. I and II