HSN211 Nutritional Physiology - Practice Exam

Deakin University
Faculty of Health

School of Exercise and Nutrition Sciences

EXAMINATION PAPER

HSN211 Nutritional Physiology

Practice Exam

Writing Time: 120 minutes

Total number of marks: 60 marks

This examination is equivalent to 50% of your final grade for this unit

Do NOT write your name on the multiple-choice answer sheet, please use your student identity
number

Instructions to Candidates
The exam is made up of 60 multiple-choice questions where you need to select the CORRECT
response to each question. Each question is worth 1 mark making 60 marks in total. You should aim
to spend approximately 2 minutes on each question.

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 HSN211 Nutritional Physiology - Practice Exam

HSN211 Nutritional Physiology

Practice Exam

For each question, choose the CORRECT answer

This practice exam has EXACTLY the same format, layout, question weighting, number of questions,
question style, and instruction to select the correct option that you can expect in the final exam.

1. Glucose absorption in the small intestine is an example of what type of transport mechanism?
a) Active transport
b) Facilitated active transport
c) Diffusion
d) Facilitated diffusion

2. Which of the following statements regarding carbohydrate structure is correct?

a) Fructose is an example of disaccharide
b) Starch is an example of monosaccharide
c) Maltose is an example of an oligosaccharide
d) Sucrose is an example of a disaccharide

3. Which of the following forms of dietary fibre is water soluble?

a) Lactose
b) Pectins
c) Lignins
d) Cellulose

4. A benefit of soluble fibre on health is via:

a) raising gut pH
b) binding of bile and cholesterol
c) inhibiting bacterial fermentation
d) slowing bowel transit time

5. What is the name of one of the key enzymes involved in carbohydrate digestion?
a) Amylase
b) Lipase
c) Protease
d) Cellulase

6. Starch that has been liberated from granules in food during cooking is said to have been:
a) retrograded
b) gelatinised
c) deaminated
d) glycosylated

7. Which of the following is an example of a saturated fat?

a) Oleic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Palmitic acid
d) Alpha-linolenic acid

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 HSN211 Nutritional Physiology - Practice Exam

8. Which of the following statements regarding lipids is correct?

a) Only omega-3 fatty acids are considered essential for human health
b) Cholesterol is classified as a triglyceride
c) Lipoproteins are important for transport of amino acids in the blood and lymph
d) Cholesterol is a precursor for bile

9. What is the principle form of lipid consumed in the diet?

a) Triglycerides
b) Cholesterol
c) Phospholipids
d) Sterols

10. The main lipoprotein class involved in lipid transport after a meal is:
a) VLDL
b) LDL
c) HDL
d) chylomicron

11. Which of the following statements regarding essential fatty acids is correct?
a) Essential fatty acids are involved in vision and the immune system
b) Essential fatty acids can be made in the body
c) Essential fatty acids are the main form of lipid eaten in the diet
d) Essential fatty acids are involved in folate metabolism

12. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the digestion and absorption of lipids?
a) Triglycerides are mostly absorbed across the intestinal wall in an unmodified form
b) Lipases are an important component of the lipid digestion process
c) In the small intestinal cell, triglycerides are packaged into HDL lipoproteins
d) The amount of chylomicrons in the bloodstream are decreased after a mixed meal

13. A key step in the digestion of protein occurs in the stomach where:
a) denaturation and hydrolysis occurs
b) intrinsic factor attaches to the ingested protein
c) the alkaline environment speeds up digestion
d) lipase enzymes cleave the protein to individual amino acids

14. Which of the following statements regarding protein-energy malnutrition is correct?

a) Marasmus and kwashiorkor are a result of over-nutrition in children
b) Marasmus is essentially a disease of protein deficiency
c) Kwashiorkor is essentially a disease of protein and energy deficiency
d) A sign of kwashiorkor is oedema

15. A woman who is pregnant could be said to be in what type of protein state?
a) Negative nitrogen balance
b) Positive nitrogen balance
c) Nitrogen equilibrium
d) Positive nitrogen balance for the first trimester, and negative for the second and third

16. Good sources of combined protein foods for someone following a vegan diet include which of the
following?
a) Garlic, wheat and tumeric
b) Avocado and acai berries
c) Soy and eggs
d) Kidney beans and tofu

17. Which of the following statements regarding protein metabolism is correct?

a) Transamination is the process where the body can make non-essential amino acids
b) The biological value of a protein is a measure of protein length
c) Deamination is the process of joining two amino acids together
d) Cellulose is a protein that is difficult for humans to metabolise

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18. The measure of how quickly proteins turnover is based on its:

a) sulphur content
b) essential amino acid content
c) biological value
d) half life

19. What is a key trigger for the release of insulin after a mixed meal?
a) Glucose entry into pancreatic beta-cells
b) Glucose entry into hepatocytes
c) Glucose absorption from the large intestine
d) Glucose absorption from the stomach

20. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the GLUT4 transporter?
a) Hypoglycaemia promotes GLUT4 accumulation on the cell surface
b) Insulin inhibits GLUT4 accumulation at the cell surface
c) When glucagon levels are high, GLUT4 is most highly activated
d) GLUT4 is the most insulin-responsive transporter

21. Which of the following statements regarding glycogen is correct?

a) Glycogen stores in the body can usually meet glucose needs for the first two weeks during
starvation
b) Glycogen synthase is activated by insulin
c) Glycogen stores are greater than fat stores
d) Glycogen synthesis is greatest after an overnight fast

22. After a mixed meal, when blood glucose is high, what changes in substrate oxidation would you
expect to see?
a) Protein oxidation is decreased
b) Glucose oxidation is decreased
c) Both fat and glucose oxidation are decreased
d) Glucose oxidation is increased

23. Which of the following statements regarding hormone-sensitive lipase is correct?

a) Hormone-sensitive lipase activity is increased after a high-fat/high-carbohydrate meal
b) Hormone-sensitive lipase activity promotes fatty acid update into adipocytes
c) Hormone-sensitive lipase activity is increased when fasting
d) Hormone-sensitive lipase activity is promoted by insulin

24. Approximately how much energy is ‘lost’ from the available energy in food arising from the
digestion and absorption costs of processing the food?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 35%

25. Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is correct?

a) In terms of macronutrient metabolism, glucagon has similar effects to insulin
b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase coverts acetyl CoA to pyruvate
c) Insulin promotes glucose storage and oxidation while inhibiting lipid oxidation
d) The citric acid cycle is essentially an anaerobic process

26. Which of the following statements regarding basal metabolic rate (BMR) is correct?
a) BMR is dependent on muscle mass
b) BMR typically increases as we get older
c) Physical activity is a component of BMR
d) Eating can increase BMR

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27. In which of the following metabolic pathways would you expect to see the most electron carriers
produced from the metabolism of a single molecule of glucose?
a) Glycolysis
b) Cori cycle
c) Citric acid cycle
d) Electron transport chain

28. During fasting or starvation, which metabolic process would you expect to see elevated?
a) Fasting or starvation accelerates glucose uptake
b) Fasting or starvation accelerates lipid synthesis
c) Fasting or starvation accelerates proteolysis
d) Fasting or starvation accelerates glycogen synthesis

29. In what part of the cell does the electron transport chain occur?
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytosol
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

30. A period when you’d expect to see the Cori cycle most activity would be:
a) when oxygen levels are high in the bloodstream
b) when there is an oversupply of NAD
c) during intense physical activity
d) on a high fat diet

31. Which of the following statements regarding ketosis is correct?

a) Ketosis is normally seen on a high carbohydrate diet
b) Acetone production is a symptom of ketosis
c) Ketone bodies can raise the blood pH
d) Ketone bodies can be used by all organs except the brain

32. Glucose can be made from many sources including which of the following?
a) Pyruvate
b) Ketogenic amino acids
c) Fatty acids
d) Resistant starch

33. During fasting, what is a key role of glucagon?

a) Conversion of fatty acids to glycerol
b) Glycogen storage
c) Action upon the liver to promote protein breakdown
d) Augmenting insulin action

34. Which of the following statements regarding niacin deficiency would be considered the most
correct?
a) Symptoms of niacin deficiency can have effects on the liver
b) Symptoms of niacin deficiency can have effects on the eyes
c) Symptoms of niacin deficiency can have effects on the kidneys
d) Symptoms of niacin deficiency can have effects on the gastrointestinal system

35. A primary function of thiamin is:

a) as a coenzyme in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
b) the synthesis of niacin from tryptophan
c) as an antioxidant
d) degrading the myelin sheaths of nerve fibres

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36. Which of the following statements regarding riboflavin is correct?

a) Riboflavin is important in redox reactions in energy production
b) NAD and NADH are coenzymes that contain riboflavin
c) Dairy products are a poor source of riboflavin
d) Refrigeration can destroy riboflavin

37. Why would a deficiency of pantothenic acid be considered rare?

a) Because it is not a true vitamin
b) Because it is water soluble so the body can maintain a long-term store
c) Because it is found widely in most foods
d) It is found in high-protein foods

38. Which of the following statements regarding vitamin B6 is correct?

a) Vitamin B6 is involved in amino acid metabolism
b) Vitamin B6 is also known as cobalamin
c) Vitamin B6 aids methylation of folate
d) Fish, oils and dairy products are the best dietary sources of vitamin B6

39. Megaloblastic anaemia is related to a deficiency of:

a) vitamin C
b) vitamin B6
c) folate
d) iron

40. A principle function of vitamin B12 includes:

a) synthesis of DNA
b) amino acid deamination and transamination
c) carbohydrate metabolism
d) vitamin D activation

41. Which of the following would you most likely expect to see with a deficiency of vitamin C?
a) Diarrhoea
b) Liver damage
c) Nerve tingling
d) Bleeding around the gums and teeth

42. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins would most likely lead to anaemia?
a) Vitamin B12
b) Thiamin
c) Biotin
d) Riboflavin

43. Which of the following statements regarding vitamin A is the most accurate?
a) Vitamin A plays an important role in blood clotting
b) Vitamin A plays an important role in electrolyte balance
c) Vitamin A plays an important role in the immune system
d) Vitamin A plays an important role in respiration

44. Which of the following statements regarding vitamin D is correct?

a) Green leafy vegetables are good sources of vitamin D
b) 7-dehydrocholesterol is the precursor form of vitamin D found in the kidney
c) Both the kidneys and liver are involved in vitamin D activation
d) High levels of vitamin D in the body act to lower blood calcium

45. Which of the following statements regarding vitamin K is correct?

a) Apart from blood clotting, vitamin K has potent anti-oxidant functions in the body
b) Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn is caused by vitamin K deficiency
c) Vitamin K is water soluble
d) Vegetable oil is the best source of vitamin K

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46. A disease of vitamin D deficiency seen in children is:

a) rickets
b) osteomalacia
c) cretinism
d) pellagra

47. Which of the following statements regarding vitamin E is correct?

a) Foods high in beta-carotene are also usually high in vitamin E
b) Vitamin E can activate free radicals by accepting an electron
c) Most of the body’s vitamin E is found in plasma membranes
d) Vitamin E acts mostly as an enzyme cofactor

48. Which of the following symptoms best characterise vitamin A toxicity?

a) Dermatitis and diarrhoea
b) Oedema and fatigue
c) Vision problems and bone and muscle pain
d) Anaemia and nerve tingling

49. In regards to calcium regulation, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Plasma calcium levels are controlled by PTH (parathyroid hormone)
b) Calcium is excreted via the lungs
c) Calcium absorption is inhibited by vitamin D in the small intestine
d) A high calcium diet can result in hypocalcaemia

50. Neurological impairment and cretinism would be most likely with deficiency of which mineral?
a) Iodine
b) Phosphorus
c) Calcium
d) Zinc

51. Which of the following factors would promote iron absorption?

a) Excess phytates in the diet
b) Iron being in the ferrous form
c) Following a vegetarian diet
d) Consuming iron with calcium and fibre

52. In what part of the cell does the electron transport chain occur?
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytosol
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

53. Which of the following statements regarding zinc is correct?

a) Zinc plays an important part in the functioning of the immune system
b) Shellfish are a poor source of zinc
c) Haemochromatosis is a disease of zinc toxicity
d) Zinc is poorly absorbed from meat

54. Where is main store of phosphorous found in the body?

a) In muscle cells as ATP
b) In the liver as bile salts
c) In the blood as phosphoric acid
d) In the bones as hydroxyapatite

55. What is the major extracellular cation?

a) Sodium
b) Magnesium
c) Calcium
d) Potassium

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56. What is main role of the hypothalamus in regulation of water balance?

a) Release of aldosterone
b) Production of pro-diuretic hormone
c) Control of the thirst mechanism
d) Regulation of intracellular potassium concentrations

57. Which of the following statements regarding aldosterone is correct?

a) Aldosterone increases sodium retention by the kidneys
b) Aldosterone increases water excretion by the kidneys
c) Aldosterone is produce by the pituitary gland
d) Aldosterone can increase calcium absorption

58. A key proteolytic enzyme produced by the kidneys involved in water balance is:
a) renin
b) antidiuretic hormone
c) aldosterone
d) parathyroid hormone

59. In the typical Western diet, about how much of the sodium eaten has been added to food by
manufacturers?
a) 20%
b) 35%
c) 50%
d) 75%

60. Which of the following statements regarding potassium is correct?

a) Potassium is a major extracellular cation
b) Potassium is found in only a small number of foods
c) Diets high in potassium have been linked to hypertension
d) Both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias

End of the Exam

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