A HANDOUT OF

TOEFL PREPARATION SHORT COURSE PROGRAMME

FOR HEALTH STUDENTS

MINISTRY OF HEALTH OF REPUBLIC OF INDONESIA

HEALTH POLYTECHNIC OF YOGYAKARTA
LANGUAGE LABORATORY
 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time – 25 minutes
(including the reading of the direction)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes.

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of question in this section, with special
directions for each type.

Structure

Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrase, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word of phrase that
best competes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in
the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer

B C D
The president ____ the election by a landslide
(A) won
(B) he won
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore,
you should choose (A).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
When ____ the conference?

(A) the doctor attended

(B) did the doctor attend
(C) the doctor will attend
(D) the doctor’s attendance

the sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Now begin work on the question.

1. The North Pole ____ a latitude of 90
degrees north.
(A) it has
(B) is having
(C) which is having
(D) has
Answer: there is already a
singular subject in the beginning
of the sentence, so we just have
to put the verb. This sentence is a
simple sentence. So we need to
put "has" after the subject.
2. The city of Beverly Hills is
surrounded on _____ the city of Los
Angeles.
(A) its sides
(B) the sides are
(C) it is the side of
(D) all side by
Answer: The answer is D
because options A, B, and C are
not proper and do not have a
good meaning.
3. _____ greyhound, can achieve speeds
up to thirty-six miles per hour
(A) The
(B) The fastest
(C) The fastest dog
(D) The fastest dog, the
Answer: The answer is D
because it describes the
"greyhound" as the fastest dog
that can reach speeds of up to
thirty-six miles per hour.
4. Marmots spend their time foraging
among meadow plants and flowers or
______ on rocky cliffs
(A) Gets sun
(B) sunning
(C) the sun
(D) sunny
Answer: The answer is B becsuse
it has appropriate meaning for
the sentence. We need a verb that
explain the activity, and the most
appropriate answer is B.
5. The greenhouse effect occurs _____
heat radiated from the Sun.
(A) when does the Earth’s
atmosphere trap
(B) does the Earth’s atmosphere trap
(C) when the Earth’s atmosphere
traps
(D) the Earth’s atmosphere traps
Answer: the answer is C because
the sentence's type is embedded
question. So, answer C is the
most appropriate answer because
it has the true formula for
embadded question.
6. The Rose Bowl, ______ place on
New Year’s Day, is the oldest
postseason collegiate football game
in the United States.
(A) takes
(B) it takes
(C) which takes
(D) took
Answer: the answer is C because
the sentence has adjective clause
which needs an explanation. So,
we have to put "which" to
connect the sentence.
7. Experiments _____ represent a giant
step into the medicine of the future.
(A) using gene therapy
(B) use gene therapy
(C) they use
(D) gene therapy uses
Answer: the answer is B because
it explains what experiments
represent a giant step, so the true
answer is B and it also has the
true arrangement.
8. ______ off the Hawaiian coastline
are living others are dead
(A) While some types of coral reefs
(B) Some types of coral reefs
 (C) There are many types of coral (A) is produced
reefs (B) producing
(D) Coral reefs (C) that produces
9. Nimbostratus clouds are thick, dark (D) produced
gray clouds _____ forebode rain. Answer: The answer is A
(A) what because the type of this sentence
(B) which is a passive voice. So, we need to
(C) what they be + V3 after the subject.
(D) which they
14. ______ appears considerably larger
10. Some economists now suggest that at the horizon than it does overhead
home equity loans are merely a new is merely an optical illusion.
trap to push consumers beyond ____ (A) The Moon
(A) they can afford (B) That the Moon
(B) they can afford it (C) When the Moon
(C) what is affordable (D) The Moon which
(D) able to afford Answer: The type of this
Answer: the answer is C because sentence is adjective clause, so
it has the appropriate we need a subject and the
arrangement and meaning for the conjunction after the subject. The
sentence. appropriate answer is D.

11. People who reverse the letters of 15. According to the World Health
words _____ to read suffer from Organization. _____ any of the six
dyslexia most dangerous disease to break out,
(A) when trying it could be cause for quarantine.
(B) is they tried (A) were
(C) when tried (B) they were
(D) is he tries (C) there were
(D) were they
12. Featured at the Henry Ford Museum Answer: the answer is C because
_____ of antique cars dating from it is the only answer that has
1865. appropriate meaning and
(A) is an exhibit arrangement.
(B) an exhibit
(C) an exhibit is
(D) which is an exhibit
Answer: after subject must be a
to be for this sentence, so we put
"is" after the subject because the
subject is singular.

13. Rubber ____ from vulcanized

silicones with a high molecular
weight is difficult to distinguish from
natural rubber.
 Written Expression

Direction: In question 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrases that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths
A B C D

The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
The research for the book Roots taking
A B C

Alex Haley twelve years

D

The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve
years” Therefore, you should choose (C).

Now begin work on the question.

16. On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-toped mountains more than a
A B C D
mile beneath see level.
Answer: the answer is "has"
17. Because of the Flourish with which John Hancock signed the Declaration of
A
Independence, his name become synonymous with signature.
B C D
Answer: the answer is "becomes"
18. Segregation in public schools was declare unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
A B C
in 1954
D
Answer: the answer is "was declared" because the sentence is passive voice
19. Sirius, the Dog Star, is the most brightest star in the sky with an absolute magnitude
A B
about twenty-three times that of the Sun.
C D
Answer: The answer is "the brightest"
20. Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt, play, and resting together.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "rest together"
21. Some of the most useful resistor material are carbon, metals, and metallic alloys.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "materials" because after some we must put the plural
noun
22. The community of Bethesda, Maryland, was previous known as Darcy’s Store.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "previously" because we need to put adverb there
23. Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "used” because have been+V3
24. J. H. Pratt used group therapy early in this century when he brought tuberculosis
A B C
patients together to discuss its disease
D
Answer: the answer is "their”
25. The United States has import all carpet wools in recent years because domestic wools
A B C
are too fine and soft for carpets.
 D
Answer: the answer is "imported”
26. Irving Berlin wrote “Oh How I Hate to Get Up in the Morning” while serving in a
A B C
U.S Army during World War I.
D
Answer: the answer is "the”
27. Banks are rushing to merge because consolidations enable them to slash theirs costs
A B C
and expand.
D
Answer: the answer is "their”
28. That water has a very high specific heat means that without a large temperature
A B
change water can add or lose a large number of heat.
C D
Answer: the answer is "amount”
29. Benny Goodman was equally talented as both a jazz performer as well as a
A B C
classical musician
D
Answer: the answer is "and”
30. The state seal still used in Massachusetts designed by Paul Revere, who also designed
A B C
the first Continental currency
D
Answer: the answer is "was designed by”
31. Quarter horses were developed in eighteenth-century Virginia to race on courses short
A B
of about a quarter of a mile in length.
C D
Answer: the answer is "short courses”
32. No longer satisfied with the emphasis of the Denishawn School, Marta Graham
A B C
has moved to the staff of the Eastman School in 1925
D
Answer: the answer is "moved”
33. William Hart was an act best known for his roles as western heroes in silent films.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "actor”
34. Prior to an extermination program earlier this century, alive wolves roamed
A B C
 across nearly all of North America.
D
Answer: the answer is "live”
35. During the 1960s the Berkeley campus of the University of California came to
A B
national attention as a result its radical political activity
C D
Answer: the answer is "result of”
36. Artist Gutzon Borglum designer the Mount Rusmore Memorial and worked on
A
project from 1925 until his death in 1941.
B C D
Answer: the answer is "the project”
37. It is roving less costly and more profitably for drugmakers to market directly to
A B C D
patients.
Answer: the answer is "profitable"
38. Sapphires weighing as much as two pounds have on occasion mined.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "are mined"
39. Like snakes, lizard can be found on all others continents except Antartica.
A B. C D
Answer: the answer is "other", because there is a plural noun after that
40. Banks, saving and loans, and finance companies have recently been doing home
A B
equity loans with greater frequency than ever before.
C D
Answer: the answer is "before"

This is the end of the Structures and Written Expression Pre-Test.

STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP

 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time – 25 minutes
(including the reading of the directions )
Now set your clock for 25 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of question in this section, with special
direction for each type.

Structure
Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentence. Beneath each sentence will see four
words of phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word of phrase that best
competes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the
space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer

A
The president ____ the election by a landslide B
(A) Won C
(B) he won D
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore,
you should choose (A).

Example II Sample Answer

When ____ the conference? A

(A) The doctor attended B
(B) did the doctor attend C
(C) the doctor will attend D
(D) the doctor’s attendance

the sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Now begin work on the question.

1. ____ range in color from pale yellow
to bright orange.
(A) Canaries
(B) Canaries which
(C) That canaries
(D) Canaries that are
2. Carnivorous plants _____ insects to
obtain nitrogen.
(A) are generally trapped
(B) trap generally
(C) are trapped generally
(D) generally trap
Answer: the answer is D because
we need an adverb + verb in
active sentence.
3. A Federal type of government result
in _______
(A) a vertical distribution of power
(B) power is distribution vertically
(C) vertically distributed
(D) the distribution of power is
vertical
4. February normally has twenty-eight
days, but every fourth year, _____
has twenty nine.
(A) there
(B) its
(C) is a leap year
(D) a leap year, it
5. evidence suggest that one-quarter of
operations _____ bypass surgery may
be unnecessary.
(A) they involve
(B) involve
(C) involving
(D) which they involve
6. ______ a tornado spins in a
counterclockwise direction in the
northern hemisphere, it spins in the
opposite direction in the southern
hemisphere.
(A) However
(B) Because of
(C) Although
(D) That
7. The Caldecott Medal _____ for the
best children’s pictures book, is
awarded each January.
(A) is a prize which
(B) which prize
(C) which is a prize
(D) is a prize
8. Sports medicine is a medical
specially that deals with the
identification and treatment of
injuries to persons ______
(A) sports are involved
(B) involved in sports
(C) they are involved in sports
(D) sports involve them
9. The Wilmington Oil Field, in Long
Beach California, is one of ____ oil
fields in the continental United
States.
(A) productive
(B) the most productive
(C) most are productive
(D) productive
10. Thunder occurs as _____ through air,
causing the heated air to expand and
collide with layers of cooler air.
(A) an electrical charge
(B) passes an electrical charge
(C) the passing of an electrical
charge
(D) an electrical charge passes
11. The population of Houston was
ravage by yellow fever in 1839 ____
in 1867.
 (A) it happened again (D) when interviewing
(B) and again Answer: the answer is A because
(C) was ravage we need a passive voice in this
(D) again once more sentence

12. Researchers have long debated ____ 15. In the northern and central parts of
Saturn’s moon Titan contains the state of Idaho _____ and
hydrocarbon oceans and lakes churning rivers.
(A) majestic mountains are found
(A) over it (B) are majestic mountains found
(B) whether the (C) are found majestic mountains
(C) whether over (D) finding majestic mountains.
(D) whether Answer: the answer is C because
we need a passive voice in this
13. According to Bernoulli’s principle, sentence. And the appropriate
the higher speed of a Fluid gas, ____ form from these options is C (to
the pressure. be + V3+ object)
(A) it will be lower
(B) lower than the
(C) the lower
(D) lower it is

14. The flight instructor _____ at the air

base said that orders not to fight has
been issued.
(A) when interviewed
(B) when he interviewed
(C) when the interview
 Written Expression

Direction: In question 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrases that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths
A B C D

The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
The research for the book Roots taking
A B C

Alex Haley twelve years

D

The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve
years” Therefore, you should choose (C).

Now begin work on the question.

16. Light can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty seconds.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "travel" because after modal must be original verb.
Modal (can) + verb 1 (travel)
17. Every human typically have twenty-three pairs of chromosomes in most cells.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "has" because the subject is singular. Subject verb
agreement: every termasuk dalam kategori singular, jadi butuh verb yang
singular
18. In the sport of fencing, three type of swords are used: the foil, the epee, and the sabre.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "types" because after three we need to use plural noun
19. The Internal Revenue Service uses computers to check tax return computation, to
A B
determine the reasonableness of deductions, and for verifying the accuracy
C
of reported income.
D
Answer: the answer is "reporting income", because after preposition must be
gerund
20. There was four groups of twenty rats each involved in the test.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "were" because the noun is plural
21. The type of jazz known as “swing” introduced by Duke Ellington when he wrote and
A B C
record “It Don’t Mean a Thing If It Ain’t Got That Swing”
D
Answer: the answer is "recorded" because the tense is past. Parallel structure
(tense): wrote (verb 2) + recorded (verb 2)
22. The bones of mammals, not alike those of other vertebrates, show a high degree of
A B C D
differentiation
Answer: the answer is "which show"
23. The United States receives a lager amount of revenue from taxation of a tobacco
A B C D
products.
Answer: the answer is "large amount"
24. Much fats are composed of one molecule of glycerin combined with three molecules
A B C
of fatty acids.
D
Answer: the answer is "many" because fats is countable noun (plural). If use
“much”, it will be much + uncountable noun (tanpa tambahan -s)
25. The capital of the Confederacy was originally in Mobile, but they were moved to
A B C D
Richmond.
Answer: the answer is "it was” because pronoun reference: they (plural)
seharusnya it (singular) kembali ke subject kalimat yang singular (the capital)
26. A pearl develops when a tiny grain of sand or some another irritant accidentally enter
A B C D
into the shell of a pearl oyster.

Answer: the answer is "enters"

27. The English horn is an alto oboe with a pitch one fifth lower as that of the soprano
A B C D
oboe.
Answer: the answer is "than"
28. In the Milky Way galaxy, the most recent observed supernova appeared in 1604.
A B C D
 Answer: the answer is "recently". Adverb + adjective + noun: recently (adverb)
+ observed (adjective) + supernova (noun)
29. Although the name suggests otherwise, the ship known as Old Ironsides was built of
A B C
oak and cedar rather than it was built of iron.
D
Answer: the answer is "built"
30. Never in the history of humanity there have been more people living on this relative
A B C D
small planet.
Answer: the answer is "live"
31. Because of the mobile of Americans today, it is difficult for them to put down real
A B C D
roots.
Answer: the answer is "the mobility"
32. For five years after the Civil War, Robert E. Lee served to president of Washington
A B
College, which later was called Washington and Lee.
C D
Answer: the answer is "as". Pasangan phrase: served + as
33. Doctors successfully used hypnosis during World War II to treat fatigue battle.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "fatigue fighters"
34. The lobster, like many crustaceans, can cast off a damaging appendage and
A B C
regenerate a new appendage to nearly normal size.
D
Answer: the answer is "damaged"
35. The main cause of the oceans’ tides is the gravitation pull of the Moon.
A B C D
Answer: the answer is "ocean tide"
36. The curricula of American public schools are set in individual states; they do not
A B C D
determine by the federal government.
Answer: the answer is "are not determined"
37. The fact that the sophisticated technology has become part of revolution in travel
A B
delivery system has not made travel schedules less hectic.
C D
Answer: the answer is "becomes" because for fact we use simple present tense
38. Balanchin’s plotless ballets, such Jewels and The Four Temperaments, present dance
A B C
purely as a celebration of the movement of the human body.
Answer: the answer is "such as"
39. In a solar battery, a photosensitive semiconducting substance such as silicon crystal is
A B
the source of electrician.
C D
 Answer: the answer is "electricity"
40. In early days hydrochloric acid was done by heating a mixture of sodium chloride
A B C
with iron sulfate.
D
Answer: the answer is "and"

This is the end of Section 2

If you finish before 25 minutes has ender,
Check your work on Section 2 only.

SECTION 3
READING COMPHREHENSION
Time – 55 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages
similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American
universities and colleges.

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a
number of on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.

Read the following passage :

John Quincy Adam, who served as the sixth president of the United States
from 1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his masterful statesmanship and
diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service, both in the presidency an in the
Lin various other political offices that he held. Throughout his political career he
e demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of speech, the antislavery cause, and
the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.
(5)
Example I Sample Answer
A B C D

To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?

(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business

According to the passage, John Quincy Adams “dedicated his life to public service”.
Therefore, you should choose (B)

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
 In line 4, the word “unswerving” is closest in meaning to
(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business

The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving believe
“throughout his career”. This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore, you
should choose (C)
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1 – 9

Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless and inflammable liquid that can be

produced by combining carbon disulfide and chlorine. This compound is widely
used in industry today because of its effectiveness as a solvent as well as its use
in the production of propellants.
Despite its widespread use in industry, carbon tetrachloride has been
banned for home use. In the past, carbon tetrachloride was a common ingredient
in cleaning compounds that were used throughout the home, but it was found to
be dangerous: when heated, it changes into a poisonous gas that can cause
severe illness and even death if it is inhaled. Because of this dangerous
characteristic, the United States revoked permission for the home use of carbon
tetrachloride in 1970. The United the United States has taken similar action with
various other chemical compounds.

1. The main point of this passage is that (A) used by itself as a cleanser
(A) carbon tetrachloride can be (B) banned in industrial use
very dangerous when it is (C) often used as a component of
heated cleaning products
(B) the government banned carbon (D) not allowed in home cleaning
tetrachloride in 1970 products
(C) although carbon tetrachloride can 5. It is stated in the passage that when
legally be used in industry, it is carbon tetrachloride is heated, it
not allowed in home products becomes
(D) carbon tetrachloride used to be a (A) harmful
regular part of cleaning (B) colorless
compounds (C) a cleaning compound
2. the word “widely” in line 2 could (D) inflammable
most easily be replaced by 6. The word “inhaled” in line 7 is
(A) grandly closest in meaning to
(B) extensively (A) warmed
(C) largely (B) breathed in
(D) hugely (C) carelessly used
3. The word “banned” in line 4 is (D) blown
closest in meaning to 7. The word “revoked” in line 8 could
(A) forbidden most easily be replaced by
(B) allowed (A) gave
(C) suggested (B) granted
(D) instituted (C) instituted
4. According to the passage, before (D) took away
1970 carbon tetrachloride was
8. It can be inferred from the passage (A) additional uses for carbon
that one role of the U.S government tetrachloride
is to (B) the banning of various
(A) Regulate product safety chemical compounds by the
(B) Prohibit any use of carbon U.S. government
tetrachloride (C) further dangerous effects of
(C) Instruct industry on cleaning carbon tetrachloride
methodologies (D) the major characteristics of
(D) Ban the use of any chemicals carbon tetrachloride
9. The paragraph following the passage
most likely discusses

Questions 10 – 19

The next artist in this survey of American artists is James Whistler; he is included
in this survey of American artists because he was born in the United States, although the
majority of his artwork was completed in Europe. Whistler was born in Massachusetts in
1834, but nine years later his father moved the family to St. Petersburg, Russia, to work
on the construction of a railroad. The family returned to the United States in 1849. Two
years later Whistler entered the U.S. military academy at West Point, but he was unable
to graduate. At the age of twenty-one, Whistler went to Europe to study art despite
familial objections, and he remained in Europe until his death.
Whistler worked in various art forms, including etchings and lithographs.
However, he is most famous for his paintings, particularly Arrangement in Gray and
Black No.1:Portrait of the Artist’s Mother or Whistler’s Mother, as it is more commonly
known. This painting shows a side view of Whistler’s mother, dressed in black posing
against a gray wall. The asymmetrical nature of the portrait, with his mother seated off-
center, is highly characteristic of Whistler’ work.

10. The paragraph preceding this passage (B) he spent most of his life in
most likely discusses . America
(A) a survey of eighteenth-century (C) he served in the U.S. military
art. (D) he created most of his famous art
(B) a different American artist. in America
(C) Whistler’s other famous 13. The word “majority” in line 2 is
paintings. closets in meaning to .
(D) European artist. (A) seniority
11. Which of the following best (B) maturity
describes the information in the (C) large pieces
passage ? (D) high percentage
(A) Several artists are presented. 14. It is implied in the passage that
(B) One artist’s life and works are Whistler’s family was .
described. (A) unable to find any work at all in
(C) Various paintings are contrasted. the Russia
(D) Whistler’s family life is outlined. (B) highly supportive of his desire to
12. Whistler is considered an American family was
artist because . (C) working class
(A) he was born in America (D) military
15. The word “objections” in line 7 is 18. Which of the following is NOT true
closest in meaning to . according to the passage ?
(A) protests (A) Whistler worked with a variety
(B) goals of art forms.
(C) agreements (B) Whistler’s Mother is the not the
(D) battles official name of his painting.
16. In line 8, the “etchings” are . (C) Whistler is best known for his
(A) a type of painting etchings.
(B) the same as a lithograph (D) Whistler’s Mother is painted in
(C) an art form introduced by somber tones.
Whistler 19. Where in the passage does the author
(D) an art form involving engraving. mention the types of artwork that
17. The word “asymmetrical” in line 11 Whistler was involved in ?
is closest in meaning to . (A) Lines 1 – 3
(A) proportionate (B) Lines 4 – 5
(B) uneven (C) Lines 6 – 7
(C) balanced (D) Lines 8 – 10
(D) lyrical

Questions 20 – 30

The locations of stars in the sky relative to one another do not appear to the naked
eye to change, and as a result stars are often considered to be fixed in position. Many
unaware stargazers falsely assume that each star has its own permanent home in the
nighttime sky.
In reality, though, stars are always moving, but because of the tremendous
distances between stars themselves and from stars to Earth, the changes are barely
perceptible here. An example of a rather fast-moving star demonstrates why this
misconception prevails; it takes approximately 200 years for a relatively rapid star like
Bernard’s star to move a distance in the skies equal to the diameter of the earth’s moon.
When the apparently negligible movement of the stars is contrasted with the movement of
the planets, the stars are seemingly unmoving.

20. Which of the following is the best
title for this passage ?
(A) What the Eye Can See in the Sky
(B) Bernard’s Star
(C) Planetary Movement
(D) The Ever moving Stars
21. The expression “naked eye” in line 1
most probably refers to.
(A) a telescope
(B) a scientific method for observing
stars
(C) unassisted vision
(D) a camera with a powerful lens
22. According to the passage, the
distances between the stars and Earth
are …
(A) Barely perceptible
(B) huge
(C) fixed
(D) moderate
23. The word = “ perceptible” in line 5 is
closets in meaning to which of the
following.
(A) Noticeable
(B) Persuasive
(C) Conceivable
(D) Astonishing
24. In line 6, a “misconception” is
closest in meaning to a(n)
(A) idea
(B) proven fact
(C) erroneous belief
(D) theory
25. This passage states that in 200 years.
Bernard’s star can move.
(A) around Earth’s moon
(B) next to Earth’s moon
(C) a distance equal to he distance
from Earth to the Moon
 (D) a distance seemingly equal to
the diameter of the Moon
26. This passage implies that from Earth
it appears that the planets.
(A) are fixed in the sky
(B) move more slowly than the stars
(C) show approximately the same
amount of movement as the
stars
(D) travel through the sky
considerably more rapidly than
the stars
27. The word “negligible” in line 8 could
most easily be replaced by.
(A) negative
(B) insignificant
(C) rapid
(D) distant
28. Which of the following is NOT true
according to the passage ?
(A) Stars do not appear to the eye to
move
(B) The large distance between
stars and the earth tend to
magnify movement to the eye
(C) Bernard’s star moves quickly
comparison with other stars.
(D) Although stars move, they seem
to be fixed.
29. The paragraph following the passage
most probably discusses.
(A) The movement of the planets
(B) Bernard’s Star
(C) The distance from Earth to the
Moon .
(D) Why stars are always moving
30. This passage would most probably be
assigned reading in which course ?
(A) Astrology
(B) Geophysics
(C) Astronomy
(D) Geography

Questions 31 – 40

It has been noted that, traditionally, courts have granted divorces on fault
grounds : one spouse is deemed to be at fault in causing the divorce. More and
more today, however, divorces are being granted on a no-fault basis.
Proponents of no-fault divorce argue that when a marriage fails, it is rarely
the case that one marriage partner is completely to blame and the other blameless.
A failed marriage is much more often the result of mistakes by both partners.
Another argument in favor of no-fault divorce is that proving fault in court,
in a public arena, is a destructive process that only serves to lengthen the divorce
process and that dramatically increases the negative feelings present in a divorce.
If a couple can reach a decision to divorce without first deciding which partner is
to blame, the divorce settlement can be negotiated more easily and equitably and
the post divorce healing process can begin more rapidly.

31. What does the passage mainly
discuss ?
(A) Traditional grounds for divorce
(B) Who is at fault in a divorce
(C) Why no-fault divorces are
becoming more common
(D) The various reasons for
divorces
32. The word “spouse” in line 1 is
closest in meaning to a .
(A) judge
(B) problem
(C) divorce decree
(D) marriage partner
33. According to the passage, no-fault
divorces .
(A) are on the increase
(B) are the traditional form of
divorce
(C) are less popular than they used
to be
(D) were granted more in the past
34. It is implied in the passage that .
(A) there recently has been a
decrease in no-fault divorces
(B) not all divorces today are no-
fault divorces
(C) a no-fault divorce is not as
equitable as a fault divorce
 (D) people recover more slowly from (C) Finding fault in a divorce
a no-fault divorce. increases negative feelings
35. The word “Proponents” in line 4 is (D) A no-fault divorce settlement is
closest in meaning to which of the generally easier to negotiate.
following ? 38. The word “present” in line 9 could
(A) Advocates most easily be replaced by .
(B) Recipients (A) existing
(C) Authorities (B) giving
(D) Enemies (C) introducing
36. The passage states that a public trial (D) resulting
to prove the fault of one spouse can . 39. The word “Settlement” in line 10 is
(A) be satisfying to the wronged closest in meaning to .
spouse (A) development
(B) lead to a shorter divorce process (B) serenity
(C) reduce negative feelings (C) discussion
(D) be a harmful process (D) agreement
37. Which of following is NOT listed in 40. The tone of this passage is .
this passage as an argument in favor (A) emotional
of no-fault divorce ? (B) enthusiastic
(A) Rarely is only one marriage (C) expository
partner to blame for a divorce (D) reactionary
(B) A no-fault divorce generally
costs less in legal fees

Questions 41 – 50

Whereas literature in the first half of the eighteenth century in America had been
largely religious and moral in tone, by the latter half of the century the revolutionary
fervor that was coming to life in the colonies began to be reflected in the literature of the
time, which in turn served to further influence the population. Although not all writers of
this period supported the Revolution, the two best-known and most influential writers,
Ben Franklin and Thomas Paine, were both strongly supportive of that cause.
Ben Franklin first attained popular success through his writings in his brother’s
newspaper, the New England Current. In these articles he used a simple style of language
and common sense argumentation to defend the point of view of the farmer and the
Leather Apron man. He continued with the same common sense practicality and appeal to
the common man with his work on Poor Richard’s Almanac from 1733 until 1758.
Firmly established in his popular acceptance by the people, Franklin wrote a variety of
extremely effective articles and pamphlets about the colonists’ revolutionary cause
against England.
Thomas Paine was an Englishman working as a magazine editor in Philadelphia at
the time of the Revolution. Hus pamphlet Common Sense, which appeared in 1976, was a
force in encouraging the colonists to declare their independence from England. Them
throughout the long and desperate war years he published a series of Crisis papers (from
1776 until 1783) to encourage the colonists to continue on with the struggle. The
effectiveness of his writing was probably due to his emotional yet oversimplified
depiction of the cause of the colonists against England as a classic struggle of good and
evil.

41. The paragraph preceding this passage (B) religious and moral literature
most likely discusses . (C) literature supporting the cause of
(A) how literature influences the the American Revolution
population
 (D) what made Thomas Paine’s (D) trait
literature successful 47. According to the passage. The tone
42. The word “fervor” in line 2 is closest of Poor Richard’s Almanac is .
in meaning to . (A) pragmatic
(A) war (B) erudite
(B) anxiety (C) theoretical
(C) spirit (D) scholarly
(D) action 48. The word “desperate” on line 16
43. The word “time” in line 3 could best could best be replaced by .
be replace by . (A) unending
(A) hour (B) hopeless
(B) period (C) strategic
(C) appointment (D) combative
(D) duration 49. Where is the passage does the author
44. It is implied in the passage that . describe Thomas Paine’s style of
(A) some writers in the American writing ?
colonies supported England (A) Lines 4 – 6
during the Revolution (B) Lines 8 – 9
(B) Franklin and Paine were the (C) Lines 14 – 15
only writers to influence the (D) Lines 18 – 20
Revolution 50. The purpose of the passage is to .
(C) because Thomas Paine was an (A) discuss American literature in the
Englishman, he supported first half of the eighteenth
England against the colonies century
(D) authors who supported England (B) give biographical data on two
did not remain in the colonies American writers
during the Revolution (C) explain which authors supported
45. The pronoun “he” in line 8 refers to . the Revolution
(A) Thomas Paine (D) describe the literary influence
(B) Ben Franklin during revolutionary America
(C) Ben Franklin’s brother
(D) Poor Richard
46. The expression “point of view” in
line 9 could best be replaced by .
(A) perspective This is the end of the Reading Diagnost
(B) sight
(C) circumstance