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Quantitative Aptitude
Logical Reasoning
Verbal Reasoning
13. Roots…………………………………………………………………………………………….………………39
14. Verbal Ability 1……………………………………………………………………….…………………….41
15. Verbal Ability 2…………………………………………………………………….……………………….44
16. Verbal Ability 3……………………………………………………………………………………………..51
17. Verbal Ability 4………………………………………………………………….……………………….…53
18. Sentence Correction 1……………….……..…….………………………………………………….…55
19. Sentence Correction 2…………………………………………………………………….…………….63
20. Sentence Completion 3………………………………………………………………………………...67
21. Para-Jumbles………………………………………………………………………………...…….……….71
22. Reading Comprehension……………………………..………………………..……………………..74
23. Email and Letter Writing………………………………………………..…………..………………..81
24. Worksheet………………………………………………………………………………………………......85
25. Commonly Confused Words………………………………………….………………..……………87
Non-Verbal Reasoning
NOTE:
NOTE:
(i) Every positive irrational number has a
negative irrational number corresponding to it. If in a fraction, its numerator and denominator are of
equal value then fraction is equal to unity i.e.1.
(ii) 2+3≠ 5
5−3≠2
c) Mixed fraction: it consists of an integer and a
3×2=3×2=6 proper fraction. 5
6 For example: 1 2
6÷2= 1 , 3 ,7
=3 2 3 9
2
(iii) Some times, product of two irrational numbers NOTE:
is a rational number.
For example: 2 × 2 = 2 × 2 = 2
2
2 + 3 × 2 − 3 = 2 2 − 3 =4-3=1 Mixed fraction can always be changed into
improper fraction and vice versa.
Both rational and irrational numbers can be 5 7×9+5 63+5 68
represented on number line. Thus real numbers For example: 7 = = =
9 9 9 9
is the set of the union of rational and irrational 1 1
19 9×2+1
numbers. and = =9+ =9
2 2 2 2
R = Q ∪ Qʹ
Every real numbers is either rational or d) Equivalent fraction/Equal fractions:
irrational. Fractions with same value.
DIVISIBILITY RULES
Divisibility by 2: A number is divisible by 2 if it’s unit Divisible by 19: We use (+2) as osculator.
digit is even or 0.
e.g., 149264: 4 × 2 + 6 = 14
Divisibility by 3: A number is divisible by 3 if the
4 × 2 +1 + 2 = 11
sum of it’s digit are divisible by 3.
1 × 2 + 1 + 9 =12
Divisibility by 4: A number is divisible by 4 if the last
2 digits are divisible by 4, or if the last two digits are 2×2+1+4=9
0’s.
9 × 2 +1 = 19
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Again, a number is divisible by 11 if the Two different numbers x and y when divided
difference between the sum of digits at even by a certain divisor D leave remainder r1 and r2
places and sum of digits at the odd places is respectively. When the sum of them is divided
either 0 or is divisible by 11. by the same divisor, the remainder is r3. Then,
= M – N + 9 must be zero or it must be Method to find the number of different divisors (or
divisible by 11 factors) (including 1 and itself) of any composite
number N:
i.e. M – N = 2
STEP I: Express N as a product of prime numbers as.
⇒M=2+4=6 N = xa × yb × zc
Hence, M = 6; N = 4 STEP II: Number of different divisors (including l
and itself)
Example 7:
= (a + 1) (b + 1) (c +1) .....
The highest power of 9 dividing 99!
completely is: Example 8:
Solution: Find the number of different divisors of 50,
besides unity and the number itself.
(c) 9 = 3 × 3 = 32
Highest power of 3 in 99! Solution:
99 99 99 99
= + + +
3 32 33 34 If you solve this problem without knowing the
= 33 + 11 + 3 +1 = 48 rule, you will take the numbers in succession
But we have 32 and check the divisibility. In doing so, you
48
highest power of 9 in 99! = = 24 may miss some numbers. It will also take more
2
time.
DIVISION ALGORITHM: Different divisors of 50are: 1,2,5,10,25,50
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder
If we exclude 1 and 50, the number of divisors
where, Dividend = The number which is being divided
will be 4.
Divisor = The number which performs the division
process Quotient = Greatest possible integer as a result By rule: 50 -2 × 5 × 5 = 21× 52
of division Remainder = Rest part of dividend which
cannot be further divided by the divisor. ∴the number of total divisors = (l + 1) × (2+1)
= 2 × 3 = 6 or, the number of divisors excluding 1
Complete remainder: A complete remainder is the and 50 = 6 – 2 = 4
remainder obtained by a number by the method of
successive division. Example 9:
Complete reminder = [I divisor × II remainder] + I A certain number when divided by 899 leaves
remainder the remainder 63. Find the remainder when the
same number is divided by 29.
C.R. = d1 r2 + r1
Solution:
C.R. = d1 d2 r3 + d1 r2 + r1
Solution:
Example 11:
Here given number 15 is not a prime number
Number of zeros at the end of 100!
so first convert 15 as product of Primes 15= 3×
100 100 100
Solution: + + +....... 5 therefore we will find the highest power of 3
5 52 53 and 5 in 1001 Highest power of 3 in 100!
100 100 100 100
integral value will be =[ 3
] +[ 32
] +[ 33
] + 34
]
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= 33 +11 + 3 + 1 = 48 required power of 15 is 24, which is actually
the power of the largest prime factor 5 of 15,
Highest power of 5 in 100! because power of largest prime factor is away
100 100 equal to or less than the other prime factor of
= +
5 52
= 20+4 = 24 any number.
(.....1)n = ( ..... 1)
(.....5)n = ( ..... 5)
(.....6)n = ( ..... 6)
(ii) If the last digit or digit at the units place of a is 2,3,5,7 or 8, then the last digit of an depends upon the value of
n and follows a repeating pattern in terms of 4 as given below:
n last digit of ( ... 2)n last digit of ( ... 3)n last digit of ( ... 7)n last digit of ( ... 8)n
4x + 1 2 3 7 8
4x + 2 4 9 9 4
4x + 3 8 7 3 2
4x 6 1 1 6
(iii) If the last digit or digit at the unit’s place of a is 4 or 9, then the last digit of an depends upon the value of n and
follows repeating pattern in terms of2 as given below.
n Last digit of (...4)n Last digit of (...9)n
2x 6 1
2x+1 4 9
Example 16:
Find unit digit of2323. Example 18:
Solution: Here, 2,4,8,6 will repeat after every four Find unitdigitof96363× 7373.
interval till 320 next digit will be 2,4, 8 , so Solution: Unit digit of96363 = 7
unit digit of 2323 will be 8. Unit digit of 7373=3
So unit digit of96363× 7373= 7 × 3 = 21.
Example 17: i.e. 1.
Find unit digit of 133133.
Solution: Example 19:
Cycle of 3 is 3,9,7,1 which repeats after every Find Unit digit of 1717× 2727× 3737
fourth interval will 133132, so next unit digit Solution: Unit digit of 1717 = 7
will be 3. Unit digit of2727 = 3
𝑛𝑛𝑐𝑐3𝑥𝑥𝑛𝑛−3𝑎𝑎3 + ⋯ 𝑛𝑛𝑐𝑐 𝑛𝑛 −1
𝑥𝑥1𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛−1 + 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 ................ (i)
𝑥𝑥+𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛
∴ 𝑥𝑥
=
REMAINDERTHEOREM 𝑥𝑥 𝑛𝑛 +
𝑛𝑛 𝑥𝑥 𝑛𝑛 −1 𝑎𝑎 1 + 𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐 𝑥𝑥
𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐 𝑥𝑥 𝑛𝑛 −2 𝑎𝑎 2 +
𝑛𝑛 −3 𝑎𝑎 3 +⋯𝑛𝑛
𝑥𝑥 1 𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛 −1 +𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛
𝑐𝑐 1 2 3 𝑐𝑐 𝑛𝑛 −1
𝑥𝑥
𝑎𝑎×b×c remainder of expression (ii) will be equal to
Remainder of expression [i/e. a × b × c when 𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛
𝑛𝑛 remainder of because rest of the term
divided by n] is equal to the remainder of 𝑥𝑥
ar ×br×c r contains x are completely divisible by x.
expression [i.e. ar × br × cr when divided by
n
n], where Example 25:
aris remainder when a is divided by n. Find the remainder of
999
.
8
Solution: = 7
= 1×4
7
9100 (7+2)100 ⇒Reminder is 4.
⇒
7 7
2100 299 ×2 23×33 ×2 833 ×2
= = = = LAW OF SURDS
7 7 7 7 𝑛𝑛
2 1
(7+1)33 1×2
i.e. 2 = 𝑎𝑎
= 7 ×2= 7
= 7 𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛
1 1 1
= ab n
Example 29: an bn
1m 1
950 =a 1
Find remainder of . an
mn
7
Solution:
16
950 (7+2)50 250 23 ×22 816 ×4 LAW OF INDICES
= = = =
7 7
16
7 7 7 am × an = am+n
(7+1) ×4 1×4
⇒ = i.e., 4 am ÷ an = am−n
7 7
am n = amn
Example 30: 1 =m m a
a
2. If X:Y = 3:4
Y:Z = 3:4. Then (X+Y+Z/3Z) is
a) 13/27 b) 1 /2 c) 17/24 d) 37/48
3. Mayank, Mirza, Little and Jaspal bought a bike for Rs 60,000. Mayank paid one half of the sum
of the amounts paid by other boys, Mirza paid 1/3 of the amount paid by other boys and Little 1/
4 of the sum of amounts paid by other boys. How much does Jaspal has to pay?
a) Rs15,000 b) Rs 13,000 c) Rs 17,000 d) None
4. If the ratio of 3 numbers is 10:15:24 and their sum is 196. Find the smaller number.
a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60
5. Ratio of Income of Ram, Mohan and Sham is 7:9:10. If Ram’s income is Rs 2,400 less than
Mohan’s income, Find Sham’s Income
a) Rs 12,000 b) Rs 10,000 c) Rs 8,000 d) Rs 9,000
6. Rs 3,500 is distributed among A,B,C such that A:B = 5:4 , B:C = 3:2. Calculate share of B
a) 1500 b) 800 c) 1000 d) 1200
7. A bag contains 1 Re, 50 Paisa and 25 Paisa coins in the ratio 1:4:4. If the total amount in the bag
is 400 Rs, find the number of 25 paisa coins
a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 100
8. A bag contains 1 Re, 50 Paisa and 25 Paisa coins in the ratio 2:3:4. If the total amount in the bag
is 270 rs, then find the number of coins which is max
a) 120 b) 60 c) 240 d) 200
9. Ratio between monthly income of A and B is 9:8 and monthly expenditure is 8:7. If they save Rs
500 each, Find the monthly salary of A
a) 3,500 b) 4,000 c) 4,500 d) 5,000
10. The income of A and B are in the ratio 2:3 and their expenditure in the ratio 1:2. If each save Rs
24,000, find A’s income
a) 24,000 b) 72,000 c) 19,200 d) 48,000
11. Monthly incomes of A:B is 5:6 and the monthly expenditure is 3:4. If they save Rs 1800 and Rs
1600 respectively, Find monthly income of B
a) 3400 b) 1720 c) 2700 d) 7200
12. Ratio of Income of 2 people is 5:3 and their expenditure is 9:5. If they save 2600 rs and 1800 rs
respectively, find their incomes
a) 8000, 4800 b) 10000, 6000 c) 9000,5400 d) 60000,36000
14. Initial ratio of milk and water was 3:2, when 2.5 litres of water is added, ratio becomes 2:3. Find
initial quantity of milk
a) 6 L b) 5 L c) 4 L d) 3 L
15. The ratio of boys to girls becomes 2:1 when 15 girls leave. But afterwards, when 45 boys also
leave , the ratio becomes 1:5. Originally the number of girls in the group was
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50
16. The ratio of number of ladies to the number of gents at a party was 3:2. When 20 more gents
joined the party, the ratio reversed. The number of ladies at the party were
a) 36 b) 24 c) 32 d) 16
17. In a college union, there are 48 students. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is
5:3. The number of girls to be added to the union, so that the ratio of boys to girls is 6:5
a) 6 b) 7 c) 12 d) 17
18. The ratio of age of 2 boys is 5:6. After 2 years the ratio will be 7:8. The ratio of their age after 12
years will be
a) 22/24 b) 15/16 c) 17/18 d) 11/12
19. At present, the present age of Maya and Chaya is 6:5 and 15 years from now, the ratio will be
changed to 9:8. Maya’s present age is
a) 21 years b) 24 years c) 30 years d) 40 years
20. The ratio of present age of 2 brothers is 1:2 and 5 years back, the ratio was 1:3. What will be the
ratio of their age after 5 years
a) 1:4 b) 2:3 c) 3:5 d) 5:6
21. Ratio of weekly income of A and B is 9:7 and the ratio of their expenditure is 4:3. If each saves
200 Rs per week, then the sum of their weekly income will be
a) 3600 b) 3200 c) 4800 d) 5600
22. A:B = 4:9. If 4 is added to both the numbers then the new ratio becomes 21:46. What is the
difference between A and B
a) 80 b) 100 c) 125 d) 130
23. The ratio of boys and girls in a university is 5:3. If 50 boys leave the university and 50 girls join
the university, then the ratio becomes 9:7. What were the number of boys in the university?
a) 300 b) 400 c) 500 d) 600
24. In an industry, the ratio of number of employees is reduced to ratio 9:8 and income per employee
is increased to the ratio 14:15. Find in what ratio the total labor income increased or decreased?
a) 60:63 b) 42:30 c) 63:60 d) 30:42
5. Average marks of a class of 20 students is 40. It was later found that two students scored 48 and
40 instead of scoring 23 and 25. Find the right average.
a. 38 b. 41 c. 39 d. 43
6. Average age of a couple married 20 years ago was 25 yrs. Find the present average age of the
family if they have a 3-year-old daughter.
a. 33 years b. 31 years c. 29 years d. 27 years
7. Average age of husband and wife was 23 years at the time of their marriage. After 5 years they
have one-year old son. Find the present average age of the family.
a. 17 years b. 18 years c. 19 years d. 20 years
8. Average age of husband, wife and son 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and son 5 years
ago was 20 years. Find the present age of husband.
a. 30 years b. 40 years c. 50 years d.60 years
9. Two years ago, the average age of a family of 8 members was 18 years. After the addition of a
baby, the average age of family remains the same today. What is the age of the baby?
a. 1-year b. 2 years c. 4 years d. 3.5 years
10. 3 years ago, average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years . A baby having been born ;
average remains the same today. Find the present age of the baby.
a.1-year b.2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years
11. Average of 21 results is 18. Average of first 10 results is 17 and last 10 results is 14. Find the 11th
result.
a.65 b. 68 c. 72 d. 78
12. Average age of a class of 20 students is 11 years. When the teacher was added, average became
13 years. Find the age of the teacher.
a.53 years b.54 years c.55years d.56 years
14. Average age of a class of 20 students is 12 years. When the teachers age was added, the average
became 14 years. Find the age of the teacher.
a.40 years b. 46 years c. 52 years d. 54 years
15. Average age of a class of 30 students and a teacher reduces by 0.5 years when the teachers age
was excluded. If the initial average was 14 years, find the age of the teacher
a. 25years b. 29years c. 31years d. 33years
16. Average weight of 30 students is 50 kgs. 9 students whose average was 35 kgs were replaced by
9 students of average weight 45 kgs. Find the new average of the class
a. 47years b. 53years c. 55years d . None of these
17. Average weight of 30 students is 50 kgs. 10 students whose average was 35 kgs were replaced by
10 students of average weight 41 kgs. Find the new average of the class
a.52years b.48 years c.51years d.53years
18. Average weight of a class of 50 students was 50 kgs. When one student left, average of the
remaining members reduced by 100 grams. Find the weight of the student who left
a. 54.9 b. 53.8 c. 52.4 d. 52.8
19. There is a cricket team of 11 members. The captain was 26 years old and the wicket keeper 3
years older. When they both were removed, average of the remaining members reduced by 1 year.
Find the initial average of the team
a. 23 years b. 24 years c. 25 years d. 24.5 years
20. A batsman scored 135 runs in his 20th innings and increased his average by 5 runs. Find his
average after 20th innings.
A. 35 B. 40 C. 45 D. 50
2. Price of a machine increased by 30% during 1st year and then decreased by 30% in next year.
Find the net effect on its value at the end of two years.
A. Increased by 9% B. Decreased by 9% C. No change D. None of these
3. Length of a rectangle increases by 20% and breadth decreases by 10%. Find the change in area.
A. Decreased by 10% B. Increased by 8% C. Increased by 10% D. No change
4. Length of a rectangle increases by 110% and breadth decreases by 80%. Find the change in area.
A. Decreased by 38% B. Increased by 38% C. Increased by 58% D. Decreased by 58%
5. A’s salary is 25% more than B. By what % is B's salary is less than A.
A. 20% B. 10% C. 15% D. 12%
6. A’s salary is 25% less than B. By what % is B's salary is more than A.
A. 16.67% B. 11.11% C. 33.33% D. 14.28%
7. A’s salary is 50% more than B. By what % is B's salary is less than A.
A. 50% B. 55% C. 45% D. 33.33%
8. Due to 25% hike in the price of rice, a man is able to buy 80 kgs of less rice at Rs 400. Find initial
price of rice per kg.
A. Re 1 B. Rs 5 C. Rs 10 D. Rs 8
9. Ramesh scored 40% and failed by 40 marks. If the passing percent 50%. Find the max marks set
by the paper.
A. 100 B. 400 C. 450 D. 600
10. Price of sugar increased by 10% by what percent should the consumption decrease to keep the
overall cost same.
A. 18 % B. 11.11 % C.16.67 % D. 9.09 %
11. Price of wheat decreased by 16% by what percent should the consumption increase to keep the
overall cost same.
A. 19 % B. 14 % C.18 % D. 15 %
12. A man spends 80% of his income. If his income and expenditure increase by 40% and 20%
respectively. Find percentage change in savings
A. Increase by 100% B. Increase by 80% C. Increase by 60% D. Increase by 120%
13. A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total
score did he make by running between the wickets?
A. 45 B. 45 5/11 C. 54 6/11 D. 55
15. Ramesh has 20% savings with him from his monthly salary. If expenditure on clothing is 25% of
overall expenditure and his total expenditure except clothing is 7200 then find his saving.
A. 2000 B. 2500 C. 2600 D. 2400
16. A man spends 28% of his salary on food. From the remaining he spent 1/6 th on rent and sends
3/8 th to his mother. If he left with Rs 5280, what amount he sends to his mother .
A. Rs 8230 B. Rs 8640 C. Rs 9580 D. Rs 4320
17. In a school the number of boys and girls are in the ratio of 4:7 . If the number of boys are
increased by 25% and the number of girls are increased by 15%. What will be the new ratio of
number of boys to that of girls?
A. 100:131 B. 100:151 C. 100:161 D. 100:181
18. When the price of rice is increased by 25 percent , a family reduces its consumption such that the
expenditure is only 10 percent more than before. If 40 kg of rice is consumed by family before,
then find the new consumption of family.
A. 35.2 B. 36.2 C. 37.2 D. None of these
19. Number of students in 4th and 5th class is in the ratio 6:11. 40% in class 4 are girls and 48% in
class 5 are girls. What percentage of students in both the classes are boys ?
A. 62.5% B. 54.8% C. 52.6% D. 55.8%
20. Fresh grapes contain 80% water, while dry grapes contain 10% water. If the weight of dry grapes
is 500 kg, then what is its total weight when it is fresh?
A. 2350 kg B. 2085 kg C. 2255 kg D. 2250 kg
21. In an examination out of 480 students, 85% of the girls and 70% of the boys have passed. How
many boys appeared in the examination, if total pass percentage was 75%?
A. 370 B. 340 C. 320 D. 360
22. It is required to get 40% marks to pass an exam. A candidate scored 200 marks and failed by 8
marks. What were the maximum marks of that exam?
A. 530 B. 540 C. 502 D. None of these
24. If 50% of a certain number is equal to 3/4th of another number, what is the ratio between the
number?
A. 3:2 B. 2:5 C.5:2 D. 3:4
25. The sum of 15% of a positive number and 10% of the same number is 70. What is twice of that
number?
A. 440 B. 280 C. 560 D. 140
1. A man bought an article at 300 Rs and sold it at 330 Rs. Find his profit percent.
a.10% b.20% c.30% d.40%
2. A man purchased 70 kgs of mangoes at 420 Rs and sold the entire lot at 9 Rs per kg. Find his
profit percent.
a.10% b.20% c.40% d.50%
3. A shopkeeper purchased 9 pens at 10 Rs and sold 6 pens at 7 Rs. Find his profit or loss percent.
a.5% b.10% c.15% d.20%
4. A shopkeeper purchased 54 books at 100 Rs and sold 18 book at 60 Rs. Find his profit or loss
percent.
a.60% b.70% c.80% d.90%
5. By selling 33 meters of cloth, a man gained the selling price of 11 meters of cloth. Find his profit
percent .
a.30% b.40% c.50% d.60%
6. By selling 9 dozen Bananas, a man incurred a loss of selling price of 1 dozen Banana. Find his
Loss percent.
a.20% b.10% c.5% d.15%
7. By selling 18 toys at 16,800 Rs, a man gained the cost price of 3 toys. Find the cost price of 1
toy.
a.700 b.800 c.900 d.1000
8. By selling 15 mangoes, a man recovers the cost of 20 mangoes. Find his profit or loss percent.
a.50% b.33.33% c.20% d.40%
9. The selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 15 articles. Find his profit or loss
percent.
a.50% b.33.33% c.20% d.40%
10. The selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 19 articles. Find his profit or loss
percent.
a.50% b.33.33% c.90% d.40%
11. The selling price of 20 articles is equal to the cost price of 15 articles. Find his profit or loss
percent
a.50% b.33.33% c.90% d.40%
12. By selling an article at 1140 Rs a man incurs a loss of 5%. At what amount must he sell the article
to get 5% profit?
a.1260Rs b.1280Rs c.1480Rs d.1520Rs
14. A man sold an article at 50 Rs and gained 25%. Find his profit percent, if he sells the article at 60
Rs.
a.50% b.33.33% c.90% d.40%
15. A man sold at article at 36 Rs and gained 20% profit. Find his profit or loss percent if he sells the
article at 42 Rs.
a.50% b.33.33% c.40% d.20%
16. There would be 10% loss if an article is sold at 90 Rs . If a profit of 25% is to be earned, at what
price should the article be sold?
a.120Rs b.125Rs c.195Rs d.130Rs
17. The sale of a wholesaler increases by 10% every week. If the difference between the sales of 4th
week and 2nd week is Rs 115.50 Rs, what was the sales on the second week?
a.440 b.190 c.550 d.660
18. The sale of a trader increases by 20% every week. If the difference between the sales of 1st week
and
3rd week is Rs 880 Rs, what was the sales on the second week?
a.2000 b.2400 c.3456 d.880
19. A merchant gains one fifth of the cost price by selling an article for 12 Rs. What would be his
profit percent if he sells it at 11 Rs?
a.10% b.5% c.15% d.20%
20. A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. Had he increased the selling price by 100 Rs, he would
have gained 5%.Find the cost price of the article.
a.400 b.570 c.600 d.500
21. A man bought a horse and a carriage at 3000 Rs. He sold the horse at 20% profit and the carriage
at a loss of 10% thereby gaining 2% overall. Find the cost price of the horse
a.1000 b.1200 c.1440 d.1550
22. A man buys a certain number of articles at 50 per 10 Rs, and the same number at 40 per 10 Rs.
He sells the articles at 90 per 20 Rs. Do he gain or lose and by what percentage?
a.20%loss b.1.33%loss c.1.33%profit d.20%profit
23. A dealer sold 3/4th of his articles at a profit of 20%and the remaining at a loss of 20%. Find his
overall profit percent.
a.10% b.5% c.15% d.20%
24. A person spend 80% of his income. If his income and expenditure increase by 40% and 20% resp.
find percentage increase in saving.
a.120% b.115% c.125% d.80%
25. A man sold an article and incurred a loss of 20%. If the selling price was increased by 150Rs he
would gain 5%. Find cost price.
a.120 b.360 c.500 d.600
1. A takes 16 days to finish a job alone, while B takes 8 days to finish the same job. What is the ratio of
efficiency of A and B?
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4 D. 2:3
2. A is thrice as efficient as B and takes 20 days to complete a piece of work. B completes the same
work in how many days
A. 40 days B. 45 days C. 60 days D. 50 days
3. If 20 persons are needed to complete the piece of work in 7 days, then how many people are required
to complete the same work in 28 days.
A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
4. A completes (1/10) of the work in one day. How many days will he take to complete 5 units of the
entire work if he works 100% more efficiently.
A. 25 days B. 30 days C. 27 days D. 24 days
5. A completes (1/10) of the work in 5 days . How many days will he take to complete 3 units of the
same work, if he works 50% more efficiently.
A. 120 days B. 70 days C. 60 days D. 100 days
6. 20 men complete the work in 30 days. How many men are needed to complete the same work in 15
days
A. 35 B. 30 C. 45 D. 40
7. 20 men complete the work in 30 days. How many days will 15 men take to complete the same work?
A. 50 days B. 45 days C. 90 days D. 40 days
8. 25 women complete a work in 15 days. How many more women are needed to complete the same
work in 5 days?
A. 75 B. 80 C. 50 D. 50
9. 42 men take 25 days to dig a pond. If the pond would have to be dug in 14 days, then what is the
number of men to be employed?
A. 100 B. 40 C. 80 D. 75
10. 18 men take 20 days to complete a job working 12 hours a day. Find the number of days that 15 men
will take to complete it if they work 9 hours a day?
A. 48 days B. 35 days C. 41 days D. 32 days
11. 5 men can prepare 10 toys in 6 days working 6 hours a day, then in how many days 12 men prepare
16 toys working 8 hours a day
A. 6 days B. 4 days C. 2 days D. 3 days
12. A can finish a work in 12 days while B can do it in 15 days. If both work together, they will complete
the work in
A. 6 2/3 days B. 10 days C. 6 1/5 days D. 4 2/3 days
14. If A completes a work in 50 days and B does it in 12.5 days, then what is the time taken by them to
complete the same work if they work together?
A. 12 days B. 14 days C. 24 days D. 10 days
15. If A completes a work in 25 days and B does it in 20 days, then what is the time taken by them to
complete the same work if they work together?
A. 11.11 days B. 5 days C. 7.14 days D. 9.09 days
16. If A completes a work in 10 days and B does it in 12 days and C in 15 days, then what is the time
taken by them to complete the same work if they work together?
A. 3 days B. 4 days C. 8 days D. 5 days
17. If A completes a work in 60 days and B does it in 12 days and C in 15 days, then what is the time
taken by them to complete the same work if they work together?
A. 6 days B. 16 days C. 10 days D. 5 days
18. If A completes a work in 20 days and B in 30 days if B works at (1/2) his usual rate, how many days
will A and B together take to complete (1/3) of the work?
a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d.20 days
19. If Mohan completes a work in 40 days while Mohan and Ram together will do it in 2 days. What is
the time taken by ram to complete the same work if he works alone?
a. 2 2/19 days b. 4 days c. 2 1/19 days d. 2 days
20. A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works for 10 days and B alone finishes the remaining work
in 42 days. If they work together, in how many days will they complete the work?
a. 30 days b. 40 days c. 45 days d. None
21. A and B completes a work in 30 days, B and C in 24 days and A and C in 20 days. If they all work
together for 10 days and then B and C leave. How many more days will A take to finish the remaining
work?
a.60 days b. 70 days c.48 days d.30 days
22. A can do (3/4) of the work in 12 days. After working for 8 days, B joins him and both work together
for 3 days, After which A leaves. If B alone takes 12 more days to complete the remaining work, then
how many days will B take to complete the entire work alone.
a. 48 days b. 54 days c. 64 days d. None of these
23. A is twice as good as B and together they complete the work in 18 days. A alone will complete the
work in
a. 27 days b. 36 days c. 24 days d. 42 days
24. A is thrice as good as B and together they complete the work in 18 days. A alone will complete the
work in
a. 45 days b. 27 days c. 21 days d. 18 days
26. P is thrice as efficient as Q and therefore completes the work in 60 days less than Q. Find the time
taken in which P and Q can complete the work individually
a. 30,90 b. 90,30 c. 20,60 d. None of these
27. A is twice as good as B and therefore completes the work in 30 days less than B. Find the time taken
in which A and B can complete the work together
a. 20 days b. 22 days c.15 days d.14 days
28. A tube can be filled in 20 mins but there is a leakage which empties it in 60 minutes. In how many
minutes it can be filled?
a. 30 mins b. 20 mins c. 15 mins d. 45 mins
29. Ram completes a work in 10 days and sham in 20 days, now sham works alone for 8 days and later
ram joins him. Together they complete the remaining work in how many days.
a. 6 days b. 8 days c. 5 days d. 4 days
30. 45 men can complete the work in 16 days. They work for 6 days after which 30 more men joined.
How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
a. 3 days b.6 days c. 4 days d. 8 days
31. A and B undertake a piece of work for 600 rs. A alone can do it in 6 days, B alone in 8 days, and with
the help of C they complete the work in 3 days. Find A’s share
a. Rs 300 b. Rs 225 c. Rs 150 d. Rs 175
32. If 18 men can earn 1440 rs in 5 days, then how much will 10 men earn in 6 days?
a. Rs 890 b. Rs 960 c. Rs 1040 d. Rs 840
33. If 3 men or 4 woman can reap a field in 43 days, how long will 7 men and 5 woman take to reap it?
a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 12 days d. 8 days
34. 2 Boys and 3 Girls take 10 days to complete a work while 3 Boys and 2 Girls take 8 days so 2 Boys
and 1 Girls will take how many days to complete the work
a. 12.5 days b. 12 days c. 16 days d. 10.5 day
1. Walking at (5/6) his original speed, a man reaches his destination 10 mins late. Find the original
time taken to reach the destination.
A. 50 mins B. 45 mins C. 60 mins D. 55 mins
2. Ratio of speeds of A and B is 7:8 respectively. If A takes 20 mins more than B to do the work,
find the total time taken by B to complete the work.
A. 2 hrs 20 min B. 2 hrs 40 min C. 3 hrs D. 2 hrs 50 min
3. A man covers a distance at V Kmph. He now covers half of the distance in double the time.
Compare his Initial and final speed.
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4 D. 4:1
4. A policeman spots a thief from a distance of 550 meters. When the policeman starts to chase, the
thief also starts running. In what time will the policeman catch the thief if they are running at
10mps and 5mps respectively.
A. 100 secs B. 120 secs C. 110 secs D. 90 secs
5. A burglar is spotted by a cop from a distance of 600 meters. When the cop starts to chase, the
burglar also starts running. In what time will the burglar be caught? Given speed of policeman 8
mps and burglar 5 mps.
A. 180 secs B. 270 secs C. 220 secs D. 200 secs
6. A dog covers 4 leaps for every 5 leaps of the rabbit, but 3 leaps of the dog is equal to 4 leaps of
the rabbit. Compare their speeds.
A. 16:15 B. 4:3 C. 15:16 D. 3:4
7. A man covers (2/3) of the distance at 4 kmph and remaining at 5 kmph. If he took 1 hour 24 mins
to complete the entire journey, find the total distance travelled by him.
A. 5 km B. 7.5 km C. 9 km D. 6 km
8. A man travels from A to B at 25kmph and returns back at 4 kmph. If he took 5 hours 48 minutes
to cover the entire journey, find the distance between A and B.
A. 18 km B. 20 km C.15 km D. 22 km
9. Walking from house towards railway station at 5 kmph, a man misses the train by 7 minutes. Had
he increased his speed to 6kmph, he would had reached the station 5 minutes before the arrival of
the train. Find the distance from his house to railway station.
A. 6 km B. 4 km C. 8 km D. 5 km
10. On an escalator, it took me 30 seconds and 26 steps to reach the bottom. However, if I am able to
step down 34 stairs, I would only require 18 seconds to reach the bottom. How many steps are
there when the escalator is idle?
A. 46 B. 45 C. 41 D. 55
12. A train of length 250 meters is running at a speed of 36 kmph. Find the time taken by it to pass a
man standing near the railway line
A. 20 secs B. 25 secs C. 30 secs D. 28 secs
14. A train 150 meters long is running at a speed of 98 kmph. In what time will it cross a man who is
running in the same direction of the train at 8 kmph
A. 6 secs B. 8 secs C. 5 secs D. 7 secs
15. Two trains, 163 meters and 137 meters, move towards each other in opposite directions at
48kmph and 42 kmph, respectively. In what time will they completely cross each other from the
moment they meet?
A. 10 secs B. 12 secs C. 15 secs D. Cannot be
determined
16. A man seated in a train travelling at 50 kmph observes a goods train 280 meters long travelling in
opposite direction, takes 9 seconds to pass him. Find its speed
A. 62 kmph B. 50 kmph C. 69 kmph D. 72 kmph
17. A train travelling at 48 kmph completely crosses another train in 12 seconds having half its length
which is travelling at 42 kmph in the opposite direction. It also passes a railway platform in 45
seconds. Find the length of the platform
A. 250 meters B. 350 meters C. 400 meters D. 450 meters
18. Two trains stationed 110 kms apart depart their respective stations at 7 am (at 20 kmph) and 8
am(25 kmph) respectively. At what time will they meet?
A. 10 am B. 12 pm C. 12:30 pm D. 10:30 am
19. A man standing on the railway bridge which is 180 meters long observes that the train crosses
the bridge in 20 seconds and himself in 8 seconds. Find the length and speed of the train
A. 120m, 15m/s B. 150m , 15m/s C. 90m, 12m/s D. 120m, 12m/s
20. Two trains travelling from Bangalore to Mysore depart at the same speed 30 kmph at an interval
of 10 mins. Another train coming from Mysore meets both the trains in 4 mins. Find its speed
A. 75 kmph B. 30 kmph C. 45 kmph D. 60 kmph
21. Two trains, B from Bangalore to Delhi and D from Delhi to Bangalore start Simultaneously after
they meet, the trains reach their respective destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours, respectively.
Find the ratio of their speeds
23. After travelling for 30 mins, a train met with an accident and halted for 45 mins. Due to the
accident its speed reduced to ( 2/3)rd. of its original speed and thus reached the destination 1h 30
mins late. Had the accident occurred 60 kms further, the train would have reached 30 mins
earlier. What is the length of the journey?
A. 140 kms B. 120 kms C. 150 kms D. 160 kms
24. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 60 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 40 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 15 mins B. 18 mins C. 21 mins D. 20 mins
25. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 90 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 75 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 15 mins B. 14 mins C. 12 mins D. 10 mins
26. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 120 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 90 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 14 mins B. 15 mins C. 16 mins D. 18 mins
27. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 80 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 60 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 15 mins B. 14 mins C. 18 mins D. 24 mins
28. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 50 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 40 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 10 mins B. 16 mins C. 13 mins D. 12 mins
29. Two trains stationed 100 kms apart depart towards each other(opposite direction) at the same
speed 25 kmph at the same time from their respective stations. It was observed that a bird flew
along one train at the same time at 100 kmph and upon meeting the other train flew back and so
on. Find the total distance covered by the bird when the trains collided
a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d.200
30. Two trains, each 2 km long, enter two 1 km long tunnel that are 2 km apart from each other on
the same track. The trains enter the tunnels at exactly the same time. The first train is going at 5
kmph, and the second at 10 kmph, respectively. What is the sum of the lengths of the two trains
that will protrude from the tunnels at the exact moment of their collision? The trains are on the
same track headed in opposite direction ( i.e. directly towards each other )
a. 2 km b.4 km c. 3.5 km d. 2.5 km
31. In one hour , a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5km/hr against the stream. The speed of
the boat in still water (in km/hr) is
32. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the
same distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
34. In one hour , A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km
along the current in 10 minutes . How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water ?
A. 40 mins B. 1 hour C. 1 hour 15 mins D. 1 hour 30 mins
35. A man takes twice as long to grow a distance against the stream as to row the same distance in
favor of the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still water) and the stream is:
A. 2:1 B. 3:1 C. 3:2 D. 4:3
2. A man borrowed 15000 Rs at 24% per annum simple interest .To clear the debt after 5 years, find
the final amount he must return.
a. 18000rs b. 36000rs c. 33000rs d. 42000rs
4. A man borrowed 12000rs at 10% per annum and lent the same amount to another person at 15% per
annum. Find his profit after 5 years
a.1800rs b. 3000rs c. 2000rs d. 2400rs
5. A sum of money at SI amounts to 815rs in 3 years and 854rs in 4years. Find sum.
a. 698rs b. 458rs c. 678rs d. 360rs
7. How much time will it take for an amount of 450rs to yield 81rs at an interest of 4% per annum.
a.4.5yrs b. 5yrs c. 5.5yrs d. 6yrs
8. A sum of money doubles itself in 7 years. In how many years it becomes four-fold, if it is calculated
at SI?
a. 35 years b. 28 years c. 14 years d. 21 years
10. At what rate of interest will a sum of money triple itself in 8 years.
a. 10% b. 25% c. 14% d. 15%
11. Find compound interest for a sum of 2,00,000rs at a rate of 5% per annum for 2years.
a. 20000rs b.10500rs c. 20500rs d. 12800rs
12. Find compound interest for a sum of 800rs at a rate of 10% per annum for 3years.
a. 265.8rs b.264.8rs c. 205.8rs d. 278.6rs
13. Find compound interest on 1 lakh at 10% per annum for 3 years.
a.33000rs b.33100rs c.33300rs d.30000rs
14. Sum of 6000rs is deposited for 3 years at 5% per annum compounded annually. Find difference
of interest for 2nd and 3rd year.
a.330.75rs b. 330.25rs c.330rs d. 335.75rs
15. Find compound interest for a sum of 1000rs at a rate of 10% per annum for 1year compounded
biannually.
16. Find compound interest for a sum of 1 lakh rs at a rate of 20% per annum for 2years compounded
biannually.
a.45410rs b.46410rs c.46510rs d.46420rs
17. Find compound interest on 12000rs for 9 months at 20% per annum compounded quarterly
a. 1720rs b. 1610rs c. 1881.5rs d. 1891.5rs
18. The difference between the simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2
years at 15% p. a. is Rs. 45. Find the sum.
a. Rs. 2700 b. Rs. 2500 c. Rs. 2000 d. None
19. Find compound interest if a man borrowed 9 lakhs at 36% per annum for 2 months compounded
monthly.
a.57800rs b. 57900rs c.54810rs d. 58810rs
20. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of
money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:
a.625rs b.620rs c.630rs d.640rs
21. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest
of
Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
a.2160rs b.3120rs c.3972rs d.6240rs
22. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is:
a.2yrs b.2.5yrs c.3yrs d.4yrs
23. At what rate of compound interest per annum will a sum of Rs. 1200 become Rs. 1348.32 in 2 years?
a. 6% b. 6.5% c. 7% d. 7.5%
24. Albert invested an amount of Rs. 8000 in a fixed deposit scheme for 2 years at compound interest
rate 5 % p.a.
How much amount will Albert get on maturity of the fixed deposit?
a. 8600rs b. 8620rs c. 8820rs d. none
25. Simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 8% per annum is half the compound interest
on Rs. 4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum placed on simple interest is
a. 1550rs b. 1650rs c. 1750rs d.2000rs
ii. 4! = (4 x 3 x 2 x 1) = 24.
iii. 5! = (5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1) = 120.
2. Permutations:
The different arrangements of a given number of things by taking some or all at a time, are called
permutations.
Examples:
i. All permutations (or arrangements) made with the letters a, b, c by taking two at a time are
(ab, ba, ac, ca, bc, cb).
ii. All permutations made with the letters a, b, c taking all at a time are:
( abc, acb, bac, bca, cab, cba)
3. Number of Permutations:
Number of all permutations of n things, taken r at a time, is given by:
4. An Important Result:
If there are n subjects of which p1 are alike of one kind; p2 are alike of another kind; p3 are alike of third
kind and so on and pr are alike of rth kind,
such that (p1 + p2 + ... pr) = n.
n!
Then, number of permutations of these n objects is =
(p1!).(p2)!.....(pr!)
5. Combinations:
Each of the different groups or selections which can be formed by taking some or all of a number of
objects is called a combination.
Examples:
a. Suppose we want to select two out of three boys A, B, C. Then, possible selections are
AB, BC and CA.
Number of Combinations:
The number of all combinations of n things, taken r at a time is:
n! n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... to r factors
n
Cr = = .
(r!)(n - r)! r!
Note:
. n
Cn = 1 and nC0 = 1.
i. n
Cr = nC(n - r)
Examples:
(11 x 10 x 9 x 8)
i. 11C4 = = 330.
(4 x 3 x 2 x 1)
16 x 15 x 14 16 x 15 x 14
ii. 16C13 = 16C(16 - 13) = 16C3 = = = 560.
3! 3x2x1
1. EDUCATION
How many 9 lettered words can be formed
I. Words starting with E
a.9! b.8! c.9P8 d.9C8
II. Letters E and N at extreme positions
a.9! b.7! c.7! *2 d.9C7
III. Letters ‘A’ and ‘T’ always together
a.8! b.8! *2! c.9! *2! d.7!
IV. Letters ‘C’, ’A’, ’T’ always together
a.7! *2! b.7! *3! c.6! *3! d.7!
V. Word CAT visible in the 9 lettered word
a.7! b.7! *3! c.8! *2! d.8! *3!
VI. All vowels together
a.4! *4! b.5! *4! c.5! *5! d.5!
VII. Letters ‘A’ and ‘T’ never together
a.8! *2! b.9! -8! *2! c.9P7 d.7! *2!
2. How many 4 letter words with or without meaning, can be formed out of the letters of the word,
LOGARITHMS if repetition is not allowed?
a.40 b.400 c.5040 d.2520
3. In how many ways can the letters of the word LEADING be arranged so that the vowels always
come together?
a.360 b.480 c.720 d.5040
6. How many 4 digits numbers can be formed using 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 divisible by 5 without repetition .
a.60 b.120 c.30 d.180
7. How many 4 digit numbers can be formed from 1,2,3,4,5 divisible by 3 (without repetition) .
a.60 b.24 c.48 d.120
8. In how many ways can a class representative be selected from a class of 10 boys and 8 girls .
a.18 b.10 c.8 d.80
9. In how many ways can a boy representative and a girl representative be selected from a class of
10 boys and 8 girls.
a.18 b.10 c.8 d.80
10. There are 6 MCQ’s in an exam. How many sequence of answers are possible if first 3 questions
have 4 choices and next 3 questions have 5 choices.
a.43*53 b.34*35 c.45*54 d.65
11. 5 people entered a lift on ground floor of a 7 floor house and each of them can leave the lift
independently at any floor beginning with the first. Find the total number of ways each of the 5
people can leave
I. at any one of the floors
a.57 b.75 c.49 d.81
12. In how many ways can 5 prizes be given away to 4 boys when each boy is eligible for all the
prizes .
a.54 b.45 c.5! d.4!
13. In how many ways can 5 letters be posted in 3 post boxes, if any number of letters can be posted
in all 3 post boxes.
a.35 b.53 c.5! d.3!
14. In how many ways can a committee of 5 members be selected out of 7 men and 6 women having
at least 3 men.
a.564 b.645 c.735 d.756
15. In a party there are 12 people. How many handshakes are possible if every person handshakes
with every other person (no handshake with the same person and no handshake with yourself.
a.72 b.60 c.66 d.48
16. 8 teams participated in IPL 2018 where each team played against each other twice. Find the total
number of matches played.
a.56 b.66 c.88 d.78
20. Out of 8 consonants and 5 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels be formed (
No repetition).
a.560 b.560*5! c.5! d.720
1. Experiment:
An operation which can produce some well-defined outcomes is called an experiment.
2. Random Experiment:
An experiment in which all possible outcomes are know and the exact output cannot be predicted in
advance, is called a random experiment.
Examples:
DETAILS
a. When we throw a coin, then either a Head (H) or a Tail (T) appears.
b. A dice is a solid cube, having 6 faces, marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 respectively. When we throw a die,
the outcome is the number that appears on its upper face.
c. A pack of cards has 52 cards.
i. It has 13 cards of each suit, name Spades, Clubs, Hearts and Diamonds.
ii. Cards of spades and clubs are black cards.
iii. Cards of hearts and diamonds are red cards.
iv. There are 4 honours of each unit.
v. There are Kings, Queens and Jacks. These are all called face cards.
3. Sample Space:
When we perform an experiment, then the set S of all possible outcomes is called the sample space.
Examples:
Then, E S.
n(E)
P(E) = .
n(S)
6. Results on Probability:
1. A bag has 5 green balls and 3 blue balls ,If 3 balls are picked at random, what is the probability of
having 2 green and 1 blue ball?
a.16/29 b.15/28 c.12/29 d.17/33
2. A bag has 2 red,3 green balls and 2 blue balls. If 2 balls are picked at random, what is the
probability that none of the balls drawn are blue?
a.10/21 b.11/21 c.2/7 d.5/7
3. In a box, there are 8 red,7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked at random. What is the
probability that it is neither red nor green?
a.1/3 b.3/4 c.7/19 d.8/21
4. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting Sum more than 7?
a.17/36 b.15/36 c.16/36 d.18/36
5. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting both the throws having
the same values?
a.1/3 b.1/2 c.1/6 d.1/8
6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting First throw prime number
and second throw composite number?
a.1/2 b.1/4 c.1/6 d.1/8
8. 2 cards are drawn at random. Find the probability that both the cards are kings.
a.1/221 b.1/169 c.1/13 d.none
9. 1 cards is drawn at random. Find the probability that it is king or diamond card.
a.1/8 b.4/13 c.17/52 d.15/52
10. Find the probability that a leap year chosen at random will have 53 Sundays.
a.2/7 b.1/7 c.2/49 d.1/49
11. Find the probability that a leap year chosen at random will have 53 Sundays and 53 Saturdays.
a.2/7 b.1/7 c.3/7 d.1/49
12. Find the probability that a leap year chosen at random will have 53 Mondays or 53 Tuesdays .
a.2/7 b.1/7 c.4/7 d.3/7
14. When the coin is tossed 4 times, what is the probability that head appears exactly twice?
a.1/2 b.3/8 c.5/8 d.7/8
15. Out of 13 applicants for a job, there are 5 women and 8 men. Two people are to be selected for
the job. The probability that at least one of the selected person will be a woman is
a.20/39 b.25/39 c.9/37 d.30/47
16. The probability that A can solve the problem is 2/3 and B is 3/4 . If both of them attempt, then
what is the probability that the problem gets solved
a.1/4 b.1/3 c.2/3 d.1/2
17. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads?
a.3/4 b.1/4 c.3/8 d.7/8
18. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
a.1/2 b.2/5 c.8/15 d.9/20
19. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability
that the ball drawn is white??
a.3/4 b.4/7 c.1/8 d.3/7
20. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose
product is even?
a.1/2 b.3/4 c.3/8 d.5/16
Mother’s (or) father’s son – Brother Husband’s (or) Wife’s father – Father in
Mother’s (or) Father’s Daughter – Sister law
Mother’s brother – Maternal Uncle Husband’s (or) Wife’s mother – Mother in
Father’s Brother – Paternal uncle law
Mother’s (or) Father’s sister – Aunt Husband’s (or) Wife’s brother – Brother in
Mother’s (or) Father’s father – Grand father law
Mother’s (or) Father’s mother – Grand Husband’s (or) Wife’s sister – Sister in law
mother Sister’s husband – Brother in law
Son’s wife – Daughter in law Brother’s (or) Sister’s son – Nephew
Daughter’s husband – Son in law Brother’s (or) Sister’s daughter – Niece
1. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “ I have no brother or sister, but that man’s father is my father’s
son”. Whose photograph was it?
a. His own b. His son’s c. His father’s d. His nephew’s
2. Anil introduces Rohit as a son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Rohit related to Anil?
a. Cousin b. Son c. Uncle d. Son in law
3. Pointing to a man on the stage , Rita said “ he is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my
husband”. How is the man on the stage related to Rita?
a. Cousin b. Son c. Husband d. Brother in law
4. Showing the man receiving the prize Saroj said “ he is the brother of my uncle’s daughter”. Who is
the man to Saroj?
a. Cousin b. Son c. Uncle d. Brother in law
5. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “ his mother is the only daughter of my mother”. How is woman
related to the man?
a. Mother b. Daughter c. Sister d. Grandmother
6. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his friend, “She is the granddaughter of the elder brother of
my father.” How is the girl in the photograph related to his man?
a. Niece b. Daughter c. Sister d. Sister in law
7. A man said to a lady “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is the lady related to the
man?
a. Mother b. Daughter c. Sister d. Aunt
8. Rita told Mani, “ The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest daughter of the brother-in-
law of my friend’s mother”. How is the girl related to Rita’s friend?
a. Niece b. Daughter c. Cousin d. Aunt
9. A man pointing to a photograph says, “The lady in the photograph is my nephew’s maternal
grandmother”. How is the lady in the photograph related to the man’s sister who has no other sister?
10. Pointing to a lady, a man said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. How is the
lady related to the man?
a. Mother’s sister b. Sister of father-in-law c. Mother in law d. Grandmother
12. Pointing to an old man, Kailash said, “ His son is my son’s uncle. "How is the old man related to
Kailash?
a. Brother b. Uncle c. Father d. Grand father
13. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C?
a. Grandfather b. Father c. Brother in law d. Uncle
14. A is the mother of B.C is the son of A.D is the brother of E.E is the daughter of B. The grandmother
of D is?
a. A b. B c. E d. Cannot be determined
15. If A’s father is B, C is the father of B and D is A’s mother, then How is C related to D?
a. Father b. Grandfather c. Father in law d. Uncle
There is a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. They are Lawyer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman,
Engineer and Accountant. There are two married couples in the family. D, the salesman is married to
the lady teacher. The doctor is married to the lawyer. F, the Accountant is the son of B and brother of
E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of A. E is the unmarried Engineer. A is the grandmother of F.
SYNONYMS
Directions for questions 1 to 10: For each word given below, choose from among the choices, the word which
means the same (synonym), as your answer.
1. ACUMEN 8. DOCTRINE
(1) Insight (2) Ignorance (3) Apathy (1) Credo (2) Incredible (3) Learned
2. PRESCIENT 9. EUPHORIA
(1) Announce (2) Confirm (3) Contradict (1) Doleful (2) Joyous (3) Slothful
3. AMIABLE 10.PROGENY
(1) Hostile (2) Amicable (3) Critic (1) Offspring (2) Ancestor (3) Acme
4. BENIGN ANTONYMS
(1) Noxious (2) Toxic (3) Malicious Directions for questions 11 to 20 : Each question has
a word followed by five choices. From the choices,
(4) Harmless (5) Timid identify the one which is opposite in meaning
5. SENILE (antonym) to the main word and mark its number as
your answer.
(1) Senescent (2) Mature (3) Juvenile
11. EXCULPATE
(4) Octogenarian (5) Adolescent
(1) Acquit (2) Convict (3) Pardon
6. REINCARNATION
(4) Absolve (5) Culprit
(1) Carnage (2) Rebirth (3) Carnivore
12. HOMOGENEOUS
(4) Regress (5) Retrogress
(1) Disparate (2)Discard (3) Heterodox
7. GENOCIDE
(4) Indistinguishable (5) Generic
(1) Suicide (2) Homicide (3) Massacre
13. AUTOCRACY
(4) Antigen (5) Senicide
(1) Dictatorship (2) Tyranny (3) Monarch
14. PATRIARCHY
(4) Newbie (5) Greenhorn (1) Autobiography (2) Chronicle (3) Annals
(4) Infallible (5) Introspection (1) Harmless (2) Innocent (3) Kind
(1) Misanthropy (2)Bibliophile (3) Philology Directions for questions 25 to 30: In each question,
four words are given. Two of the words may be either
(4) Philosophy (5) Misogyny synonyms or antonyms. Identify the correct synonym
or antonym pair.
19. PACIFY
(1) Embargo (2) Enrage (3) Soothe 26. (1) Urbane (2) Insomnia
Directions for question 31 and 32: Four capitalized words and four choices are given. From among the choices
identify the word that can be associated with all the four capitalized words.
CONTEXTUAL USAGE
Directions for question 33: In the question, the word at the top is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4.
Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
33. LINE
(1) There is a fine line between the actual situation and the apparent situation.
(2) This movie is the latest in a long line of action movies he has directed.
(3) The rail track was blocked because a tree had fallen across the line.
Directions for questions 34 and 35: From the four words given below identify the one which does not belong to
the category of the other three. Mark the letter corresponding with the odd one as your answer.
Directions for questions 1 to 10: For each word given below, choose from among the choices, the word
which means the same (synonym), as your answer.
1. FAD 6. ANTIPATHY
- Quick - Malice
- Vague - affinity
- Vogue - pseudonym
- Slow - antithesis
2. PANACEA 7. GENOCIDE
- Wonder - massacre
- Elixir - cheerfulness
- Placebo - technique
- Honey - abstraction
3. FAMISHED 8. ORTHODOX
- Agricultural - conventional
- Hungry - heterodox
- Prestigious - splenic
- Feasible - ugly
4. ZEST 9. PROCLIVITY
- Humour - senicide
- Keen Interest - cognizance
- Attitude - predilection
- Liking - tyranny
21. DISPEL
a) UPSPLY
b) SHABIN
c) LEGPURS
d) RESQUAND
22. PROXY
a) PUDETY
b) MENEY
c) REALDE
d) YALL
23. MALIGN
a) BOEY
b) CROPTET
c) FAMEDE
d) DEMONNC
24. AUGMENT
a) ZISEE
b) SIERA
c) LADEY
d) TINH
25. BECKON
a) CASEH
b) GISLAN
c) PUDE
d) HECAT
IDIOMS
b) A state of terror
35. Putting the cart before the horse
c) A profitable position
a) Getting excited
d) A political bias
b) Doing things in the wrong order
b) Injured himself
Directions for question 6: In the following question a capitalized pair of words is given
followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair of words that best expresses a relationship
similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.
3. Comprehend: Unintelligible
A. Swallow: Edible
B. Avoid: Risky
C. Accumulate: Insignificant
D. Control: Ungovernable
A. walk
B. play
C. dance
6. Shed: Hair ::
A. shear : wool
B. molt :skin
C. stimulate : nerve
D. fracture : bone
Directions for questions 1 to 5: The following questions consists of a single sentence with one blank. You have to
select two words from the options, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.
1. The government and the opposition in Venezuela agreed to hold talks to __________ weeks of violence in the
country.
a) Justify d) Clarity
b) Resolve e) Achieve
c) Explain f) Fix
2. Bio-metric security doesn’t _________ on what you can remember, but who you are.
a) Rely d) Depend
b) Count e) Track
c) Revolve f) Emphasize
3. The more a person knows about financial instruments and opportunities, the better his ability to
______ his hard-earned money.
a) Supervise d) Support
b) Guide e) Safeguard
c) Protect f) Revere
4. The first step towards planning finances for a family is __________ out the actual income of the
family.
a) Counting d) Figuring
b) Sorting e) Estimating
c) Summing f) Calculating
5. The vast ocean of Bharatiya Sangeetham is a/an __________ of the two great streams of music,
Hindustani and Carnatic
a) Confluence d) Congress
b) Garnering e) Gathering
c) Assembly f) Unison
Directions for questions 6 to 8: The following questions consists of a single sentence with two
blanks. You have to select the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
6. Doctors must ________ heartburn and acidity pills in the lowest possible doses and for the
shortest time to ______ potential side effects.
a) Prescribe ……… ward off
b) Render ……… exalt
c) Transcribe ….. prevent
d) Encourage ……. Rule out
e) Impede ……… avert
8. Unlike modern works, The Gita isn’t __________ , some ideas are scattered over several
chapters, and many ideas are constantly _________.
a) Linear …. repeated
b) Sequential ….. cuddled
c) Vague ….. dislocated
d) Orderly … enumerated
e) Resilient …. Distinguished
Directions for questions 9 and 10: The following questions consists of two sentences with one blank
each. You have to select an option which best fits both the blanks.
9. I . He is a jovial, relaxed man, but always puts on a serious __________ for strangers.
II. The general sent fresh troops to the _________.
a) Battlefield
b) Front
c) Border
d) Attitude
e) Demeanor
MEANING WORD
1. One who can use either hand with ease a) Egotist
2. A critical judge of any art and craft b) Utopia
3. One who often talks of his achievements c) Anarchy
4. One who studies the evolution of mankind d) Euphemism
5. A state of disorder due to absence of authority e) Connoisseur
6. Fear or hatred of books f) Bibliophobia
7. Incapable of making mistakes or being wrong g) Twitter
8. Misuse of what is regarded sacred h) Autocracy
9. An imaginary ideal society free of poverty and suffering i) Ambidextrous
10.In exactly the same words as were used originally j) Agnostic
11.The sound of birds k) Sacrilege
12.One who is unable to pay his debts l) Anthropologist
13.Having excessive enthusiasm in religious matters m) Verbatim
14.One who is not sure about God’s existence n) Infallible
15.One person rule with absolute power o) Fanatic
16.A polite word for something shocking p) Insolvent
7. An advocate/ adviser
14. A person who accompanies you or shows you the way around a place
Fill the table with the singular/ plural forms of these words
Sentence Correction
4. She has invited all her brother-in-laws to her parent-in-laws wedding anniversary.
15. The postman delivered many letters this morning but neither of them was for me.
20. I went to the office early enough but could not meet either of my three friends.
26. Either Usha or Shravanthi have forgotten their hall ticket at home.
32. The three students are competing with each other to win the competition.
Choose the correct option from the brackets to fill in the blanks.
1. If this dog were _______, I would teach it to fetch the morning newspaper. (my/mine)
4. ______ your responsibility to report such matters to the concerned authority. (It’s / Its)
1. Anil’s and Sunil’s / bakery that is four blocks / away, makes / delicious cakes. / No error
2. Lesser tourists have / been visiting Syria in the recent past / due to the civil war that / has been raging
(5)
3. He is so good at / playing violin that he has been / selected to play / in the school orchestra. / No error
4. Only men with / five years teaching experience / are eligible / for this post. / No error
5. Academic ability is / not the only criteria on / which a person is selected by / a quality business school.
/ No error
(5)
Select the correct alternative from the given choices to fill/replace the underlined part.
1. Despite the high esteem in which I hold Mr. Coles, I believe that Mr. Smith as well as his
b) are more familiar with the company's cash disbursements than him
3. Designed for users, project managers, and data processing professionals, the book
a) has provided
b) provided
c) provides
d) will provide
Which of the phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase in bold to make it
grammatically correct?
2. The movie’s last part is full of suspense and succeeds in keeping the viewers on the edges of their
seats.
(1) The movies last part is full of suspense and succeeds
(2) The movie’s last part is full with suspense and succeeds
(3) The last part of the movie is full of suspense and succeeds
(4) No correction required
3. My boss told me that either of these two procedure is good enough to crack the problem.
(1) either of these two procedures are good enough to crack the problem.
(2) either of these procedures is good enough to crack the problem.
(3) either of these two procedures is good enough to crack the problem.
(4) No correction required
4. Social service gives one an opportunity to make a difference to others while also adding meaning to
his own life.
(1) while also add meaning to one’s own life.
(2) while also adding meaning to their own lives.
(3) while also adding meaning to one’s own life.
(4) No correction required
Correct:
Correct:
Correct:
Correct:
ADVERBS
Exercise: Match the Following Verbs With Appropriate Adverbs And Frame Sentences.
VERBS ADVERBS
Sing Carefully
Listen Diligently
Walk Melodiously
Write Neatly
Work Fast
1. Sing:
_________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
2. Listen:
_________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
4. Write:
_________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
5. Work:
_________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
PREPOSITIONS
CONJUNCTIONS
Each question contains two sentences. Join the two sentences (using a conjunction) to frame one coherent sentence.
Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.
Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.
Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.
Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.
Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.
6. You cannot go down and play. You must finish your homework first.
Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________
1. AND
2. OR
3. UNCOUNTABLE NOUNS
4. COLLECTIVE NOUNS
5. MANY
• The Captain along with his team members _______ present in the conference room.
INDIRECT SPEECH: Meena said that she didn’t want to play then.
_______________________________________________________________.
_______________________________________________________________.
_______________________________________________________________.
_______________________________________________________________.
• Mother said , ‘ Mahesh drinks tea before going to bed every night’.
_______________________________________________________________.
_______________________________________________________________.
_______________________________________________________________.
DIRECT INDIRECT
This/these That/those
Here There
Now Then
QUESTION TAGS
PARALLELISM
Correct:
2. Wrong: Her husband had bought a car, found a job, and chose a school for the children before she
arrived.
Correct:
Directions: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. From among the four choices given below each question, choose the most logical order
of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph.
Question 1
1. Now under liberated economy they are learning to compete domestically and globally.
Question 2
1. However, different rulers and governments dealt with the different groups in a compartmentalised manner.
2. Various situational and political changes have taken place over the past three and half centuries.
3. This tendency resulted in deeply embedded fragmented South African society which became even more prominent
in the period 1948 until the new commencement of the new Constitution on May 10 1994.
4. South Africa is a racially divided society since the first European settlers arrived in 1652.
Question 3
1. In his literacy work he spoke of that province of human life which mere intellect does not speak.
2. He has also given innocent joy to many children by his stories like 'Kabuliwalah'
3. These songs are sung not only in Bengal but all over the country.
Question 4
2. The industry on its part has formed an organisation to specially gather information, educate and drag and software
pirates to courts.
3. But more than the legality, there is always a different way of looking at piracy and that is in terms of morality.
5. As far as the issue of tackling piracy is concerned, both the industry and government have already started initiating
action.
Question 5
1. A Study to this effect suggests that the average white-collar worker demonstrates only about 25% listening
efficiency.
2. However, for trained and good listeners it is not unusual to use all the three approaches during a setting, thus
improving listening efficiency.
3. There are three approaches to listening: Listening for comprehension, listening for empathy and listening for
evaluation.
4. Although we spend nearly half of each communication interaction listening, we do not listen well.
5. Each approach has a particular emphasis that may help us to receive and process information in different settings.
Question 6
A. But whereas the secret agent's wage seemed to have been tied to his productivity, that of the minister also
included a premium to prevent him crossing over to the enemy.
B. It is interesting to know that some kind of productivity-based wage setting seems to have been used
even in ancient India.
C. The wage differentials give a pointer to the kind of income distribution that existed in India during
Kautilya's time, almost 2000 years ago.
D. Kautilya, in his treatise on statecraft and economics, recommended a wage level for a minister or a
palace guru which was 200 times that for a secret agent - with a still higher difference relative to the
wage of an ordinary palace worker.
Question 7
A. Incidents have also been reported of locals poisoning waterholes in protected areas to kill peacocks for their
meat.
B. Primarily due to poaching, peacock populations are plummeting across India.
C. Peacock feathers are sold openly in Udhagarnandalam and other tourist destinations.
D. Peacocks are coveted for their beautiful feathers and even for their fat, which is erroneously believed to be
useful in the treatment of arthritis.
(1) ACBD (2) BDCA (3) DCAB (4) CABD
Question 8
Question 9
A. Michelangelo lived in Florence for many years producing splendid works before moving to Rome.
B. All roads lead to Florence this year as the great artist Michelangelo's creation David celebrates his 500°
birthday.
C. After his death, his remains were brought here and people turned out by the hundreds to pay homage to him.
D. This sculpture depicts the young Biblical hero who slew the giant Goliath armed with just a sling and
pebbles.
(1) DCAB (2) BCAD (3) BDAC (4) ACDB
Question 10
1. The French wrote, thought: and spoke 'exclusively in French; the English in English.
2. Between 1920 and 1930, or thereabouts, Bengali and Marathi were the only bilingual intellectual cultures
in the world.
3. The historians and social scientists can make best use of this bilingualism - they can operate simultaneously in
more than one tongue.
4. In Pune and Calcutta, however, original works of scholarship were written and discussed both in English
and in the language of the bazaar.
(1 ) B ACD (2) B ADC (3) ADB C (4) CDB A
Quest io n 11
A. In the past year blogs have shared information on various issues like giving money, finding missing family
members etc.
B. Software tools developed in recent years have made blogs easier to create and maintain.
C. Despite the attention to blogging, a large number of Americans remain clueless- only 38% of internet users
know what a blog is.
D. Readership of online journals known as blogs grew significantly in 2008.
1) AB CD 2) CDAB 3) DAB C 4) BDAC
Directions: Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content, answer all questions following a passage based on
what is stated or implied in that passage.
Questions 1 to 5
The best Eskimo carvings of all ages seem to possess a powerful ability to reach across the great barriers of language and time and
communicate directly with us. The more we look at these carvings, the more life we perceive hidden within them. We discover subtle
living forms of the animal, human, and mystical world. These arctic carvings are not the cold sculptures of a frozen world. Instead,
they reveal to us the passionate feelings of a vital people well aware of all the joys, terrors, tranquility, and wildness of life around
them.
Eskimo carvers are people moved by dreams. In spite of all their new contacts with outsiders, they are still concerned with their own
kind of mystical imagery. The most skillful carvers possess a bold confidence, a direct approach to their art that has special freedom
unsullied by any kind of formalized training.
Eskimo carvers have strong skilled hands, used to forcing hard materials with their simple tools. Their hunting life and the northern
environment invigorates them. Bad weather often imposes a special kind leisure, giving them time in which to perfect their carvings.
They are among the last of the hunting societies that have retained some part of the keen sense of observation that we have so long
forgotten. The carvers are also butchers of meat, and therefore masters in the understanding of animal anatomy. Flesh and bones and
sheaths of muscle seem to move in their works. They show us how to drive the caribou, how to hold a child, how to walk cautiously
on thin ice. Through their eyes we understand the dangerous power of a polar bear. In the very best of Eskimo art we see vibrant
animal and human forms that stand quietly or tensely, strongly radiating a sense of life. We can see, and even feel with our hands, the
cold sleekness of seals, the hulking weight of walrus, the icy swiftness of trout, the flowing rhythm in a flight of geese. In their art we
catch brief glimpses of a people who have long possessed a very different approach to the whole question of life and death.
In Eskimo art there is much evidence of humor which the carvers have in abundance. Some of the carvings are caricatures of
themselves, of ourselves, and of situations, or records of ancient legends. Their laughter may be subtle, or broad and Chaucerian.
Perhaps no one can accurately define the right way of wrong way to create a carving. Each carver must follow his own way. In his
own time. Technique in itself is meaningless unless it serves to express content. According to the Eskimo, the best possesses a sense
of movement that seems to come from within the material itself, a feeling of tension, a living excitement.
1. The author is primarily concerned with
a) Showing how Eskimo carvings achieve their effects
b) Describing how Eskimo artists resist the influence of outsiders
c) Discussing the significant characteristics of Eskimo art
d) Explaining how Eskimo carvers use their strength to manipulate hard materials
e) Interpreting the symbolism of Eskimo art
5. According to the passage, Eskimo carvings have all the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. wit b. subtlety c Passion d. Formality e. terror
Questions 6 and 7
The whole atmosphere of the world in which we live is tinged by science, as is shown most immediately and strikingly by our modern
conveniences and material resources. A little deeper thinking shows that the influence of science goes much farther and colors the
entire mental outlook of modern civilized man on the world about him. Perhaps one of the most telling evidences of this is his growing
freedom from superstition. Freedom from superstition is the result of the conviction that the world is not governed by caprice, but that
it is a world of order and can be understood by man if he will only try hard enough and be clever enough. This conviction that the
world is understandable is, doubtless, the most important single gift of science to civilization. The widespread acceptance of this view
can be dated to the discovery by Newton of the universal sway of the law of gravitation; and for this reason, Newton may be justly
regarded as the most important single contributor to modern life.
6. Which of the following best expresses the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
a. To give an opinion of the chief benefit of science
b. To enumerate the modem conveniences produced by science
c. To inform readers about important scientific principles to describe Newtons’ discoveries
E. To persuade readers that science leads to civilization
In the worm enclosed waters of farm ponds, conditions are very likely to be lethal for fish when insecticides are applied in the vicinity.
As many examples show, the poison is carried in by rains and runoff from surrounding lands, Sometimes the ponds receive not only
contaminated runoff but also a direct dose as crop-dusting pilots neglect to shut off the duster in passing over a pond. Even without
such complications normal agricultural use subjects fish to heavier concentrations of chemicals than would be required to kill them.
In other works, a marked reduction in the poundage’s used would hardly after the lethal situation, for applications of over o.1 pound
per acre to the pond itself are generally considered hazardous. And the poison, once introduced is hard to get rid of. One pond that
had been treated with DDT to remove unwanted shiners remained so poisonous through repeated drainages and flushing that it killed
94 percent of the sunfish with which it was later stocked. Apparently, the chemical remained in the mud of the pond bottom.
In some parts of the world the cultivation of fish in ponds provides on indispensable source of food. In such places the use of
insecticides without regard for the effects on fish creates immediate problems. In Rhodesia, for example, the young of an important
food fish, the Kafue bream, are killed by exposure to only 0.04 parts per million of DDT in shallow pools. Even smaller doses of
many other insecticides would be lethal. The shallow waters in which these fish live are favorable mosquito-breeding places. The
problem of controlling mosquitoes and at the same time conserving a fish important in the Central African diet has obviously not been
solved satisfactorily.
8. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The water of Farm Ponds
(B) The Effects of Insecticides on fish
(C) The uses of DDT
(D) The cultivation of Fish as Food
(E) Saving African Food Supplies.
10. According to the passage, which of the following are responsible for the presence of insecticides in ponds?
I. The weather II. Human error III. Common farming methods
(A) I only (B) III Only (c) I and II only (D) I and III only (E) I, II and III
11. The author uses the case of the Rhodesian fish primarily in order to
(A) the harmful effects of killing fish
(B) prove that problems are the same everywhere
(C) evaluate African farming practices
(D) Consider the problem of controlling mosquitoes
(E) contrast African and American insecticide use.
Directions 13 to 17
Specifically, India’s female labour participation rate is very low. Official statistics have always shown that India’s female labour
participation rate is low and falling. Researchers have shown that this fall is because of rising household incomes that reduce the need
for women to join the labour force; increased enrolment in higher education by women which delays their entry into the labour force,
and cultural and security factors that keep women away from the labour market in India. Further, it is evident that employers are also
biased against hiring women.
The CPHS shows that the situation with respect to women’s participation in the labour force is extremely poor —(A)
………………………………………... The entire brunt of demonetisation was borne by women. Their labour participation fell
sharply while that of men did not.
After the demonetisation jolt came the Goods and Services Tax shock of July 2017 that drove away small enterprises which could not
compete in a tax-compliant environment out of business. This caused a substantial loss of jobs. Preliminary estimates suggest that
employment shrunk by 11 million in 2018. The brunt of this was again borne largely by women. But men too were also impacted.
Male labour participation rate was 74.5% in 2016. This dropped to 72.4% in 2017 and then to 71.7% in 2018. In contrast, female
labour participation was as low as 15.5% in 2016 which dropped to 11.9% in 2017 and then 11% in 2018. Urban female labour
participation rates fell faster than rural female participation. In urban India it dropped from 15.2% in 2016 to 10.5% in 2018. The
corresponding values for rural women were 15.6% and 11.3%, respectively.
13. Which of the following statements is/are correct as per the passage above?
a) Male labour participation rate was 78.5% in 2016.
b) India’s female labour participation rate is very low
c) Urban female labour participation rates fell faster than rural female participation.
d) Both (b) and (c)
e) All are correct
14. In the passage above, two lines are given in bold. In the lines a phrase is used, i.e., 'bear the brunt of' in context of the passage.
What is the meaning of this phrase?
a) To enjoy the best part of an unpleasant or problematic situation.
b) To suffer the worst part of an unpleasant or problematic situation.
c) To support someone in an unpleasant or problematic situation.
d) To get good results for your hard work.
e) Both (b) and (c)
15. What are the reasons for the fall in India’s female labour participation rate in context of the passage?
16. Which of the following phrases can suitably fit in the blank given in (A) to make it grammatically and contextually correct?
a) much poorer then what the official agencies tell us
b) much poorer than who the official agencies tell us
c) much poorer than what the official agencies telling us
d) much poorer than what the official agencies tell us
e) None of the Above
17. Which of the following can replace the word 'jolt' given in bold in the passage?
a) shock
b) surprise
c) impacted
d) disadvantage
e) Both (a) and (b)
Directions for questions 18 to 20: Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows it.
18. The childhood story of the world’s fifth most powerful woman may pan out on the Indian advertising landscape. Pepsi Co India’s
campaign talks of how even at the age of five, the now global CEO, had to wake up at dawn to fill buckets of water. Pepsi Co India
believes that Nooyi’s saga will add fizz to its ad blitz.
Which of the following statements is an assumption that underlines the above conclusion?
(A) Nooyi wants every child to catch up on studies instead of wasting time filling buckets of water.
(B) Ambitious young girls aspiring to become CEO’s of big companies will have Nooyi as their role model.
(C) The typically middle class situation depicted in the story will draw in more middle class customers.
(D) Emotional response among the buyers of cool drinks will influence their choice.
19. Whether her family is poor or wealthy, whatever her caste, class or religion, a woman knows that motherhood confers upon her a
purpose and an identity that nothing else in her culture can. Each infant born and nurtured by her is both a certification and a
redemption. The vivid ideals of womanhood and motherhood that are the common themes in a traditional society pervade and
circumscribe the identities of individual women. Where and when tradition governs, a woman never stands alone. Her identity is
always wholly defined by her relationship to others. This loss of her individual identity equips her to experience autonomy and to
exercise power once she attains motherhood.
20. Outwardly the western countries that adhere to ethics and democracy and the tyrannical monarchies are poles apart. However,
there is an imperceptible similarity. The tyrannical regimes restrict interaction between peoples.
Which of the following statements would strengthen the argument that western governments are no better?
(1) Western governments impose draconian taxes that do not augur well for the citizen’s economic growth.
(2) Western governments practice erroneous policies that earn them an equally bad reputation.
(3) Western governments do not think it necessary to open u their borders.
(4) Western governments do nothing to bridge the gap between the elite and those living below the poverty line.
CRITICAL REASONING
COURSES OF ACTION
Directions for question 21: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
21. Statement: The proposed strike by employees of a financial organization will affect the businesses in the country.
Courses of action:
I. The demands of the employees, whatever they may be, should be met by the management.
II. The employees who go on strike should be suspended.
Directions for question 22: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.
Assumptions:
Directions for question 23: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
23. Statement: With the onslaught of tourism, the ethnic culture of Goa, has gone out of public life.
Conclusions:
I. The ethnic culture of the places, where no tourist visits, remains unaffected.
II. Tourism is the only thing that leads to erosion of ethnic culture.
Directions for question 24: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
24. Statement: Should dictionaries give meanings of the words which are treated to be unparliamentary.
Arguments:
Directions for question 25: In the question given below there are two events numbered I and II. Read both the events and decide
which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two events.
Give answer (A) if event I is the cause and event II is its effect.
Give answer (B) if event II is the cause and event I is its effect.
Give answer (C) if both events I and II are effects of independent causes.
Give answer (D) if both events I and II are effects of some common cause.
A. E-mail writing
Opening salutation
Opening sentence
Less formal
Sign off
Example:
William Williamson
Assistant Director, XYZ Marketing
+91 999999999
wwilliamson@email.com
From Address
Name,
Designation,
Department,
Company name,
To Address
Name,
Designation,
Department,
Company name,
Dear Sir/Ma’am,
Subject:
************************************************************************************************************
*************************************. (Opening Remark + Purpose of writing the letter)
************************************************************************************************************
****************************************. (Explain the matter/ give reasons/ justification etc.)
Regards,
Phone number
Email address
a) Tell me a bit about yourself: your educational qualifications, your family background etc.
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Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some
inter-linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at (a), (b), (c) or (d). You must
indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.
Q1. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Biology, Zoology and
Physics?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q2. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Stamp, Pen and Chalk?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q3. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Singers, Athletes and Girls?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q4. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Teachers, Women and
Doctors?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q5. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Clothes, Flowers and White?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q6. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Doctors, Human Beings and
Married People?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q7. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Children, Naughty, and
Studious?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q8. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Thief, Criminal and Police?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q9. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Man, Worker and Garden?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q10. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Males,
Cousins and Nephews?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. A
1-5. In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which
when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.
Q1.
Q2.
Q4.
Q16-20. In each problem, out of the four figures marked (a) (b) (c) and (d) three are similar in a certain
manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
Q16.
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q21.
Q26.
AVERAGES
1. c 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. b
7.c 8.b 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. a
13. a 14. a 14. d 15. b 16.b 17. a
18. a 19. a 20. b
PERCENTAGES
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c
7. d 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. d
13. c 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. c 18.a
19. b 20.d 21.c 22. d 23. a 24. a
25. c
PROBABILTY
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. b
7. b 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. b
13. b 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. c 18. d
19. b 20. b
BLOOD RELATIONS
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. a
7. c 8. c 9. d 10. b 11. d 12. c
13. d 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. b
19. d 20. a
Verbal Ability I
1. 1 2. 4 3. 2 4. 4 5. 1 6. 2
7. 3 8. 1 9. 2 10. 1 11. 2 12. 1
13. 4 14. 4 15. 3 16. 1 17. 3 18. 1
19. 2 20. 2 21. 1,3 22. 1,3 23. 1,2,3,4 24. 2,4
25. 1,2,3 26. 1-3 27. 1-4 28. 2-3 29. 1-4 30. 1-4
31. 1 32. 4 33. 4 34. C 35. D
Verbal Ability II
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. A
7. A 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. A
13. A 14. D 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C
Analogy
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B
Sentence Correction I
1. 1 2. 1 3. 2 4. 2 5. 2
1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b
1. 1 2. 3 3. 2 4. 3 5. 2
Para-formation questions
1. 2 2. 2 3. 1 4. 3 5. 3 6. 3
7. 3 8. 3 9. 3 10. 2 11. 3
Reading Comprehension
1. c 2. c 3. a 4. e 5. d 6. a
7. c 8. b 9. a 10. ii, iii 11. a 12. b
13. d 14. b 15. e 16. d 17. a 18. c
19. 3 20. 4 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. d
Series
1. b 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. d
7. c 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. c
13. b 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. a
19. b 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. c
25. c 26. b 27. d 28. d 29. a