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Contents

Quantitative Aptitude

1. Number Systems and Simplification………………………………………………………………..1


2. Ratio and Proportion……………………………………………………………………………………..11
3. Averages………………………………………………………………………………………………………..13
4. Percentage…………………………………………………………………………………………………….15
5. Profit and Loss……………………………………………………………………………………………….17
6. Time and Work………………………………………………………………………………………………19
7. Time Speed Distance……………………………………………………………………………………..22
8. Interests………………………………………………………………………………………………………..26
9. Permutations Combinations………………………………………………………………………….28
10. Probability…………………………………………………………………………………………………….32

Logical Reasoning

11. Blood Relations…………………………………………………………………………………………….35


12. Coding-Decoding………………………………………………………………………………………….37

Verbal Reasoning

13. Roots…………………………………………………………………………………………….………………39
14. Verbal Ability 1……………………………………………………………………….…………………….41
15. Verbal Ability 2…………………………………………………………………….……………………….44
16. Verbal Ability 3……………………………………………………………………………………………..51
17. Verbal Ability 4………………………………………………………………….……………………….…53
18. Sentence Correction 1……………….……..…….………………………………………………….…55
19. Sentence Correction 2…………………………………………………………………….…………….63
20. Sentence Completion 3………………………………………………………………………………...67
21. Para-Jumbles………………………………………………………………………………...…….……….71
22. Reading Comprehension……………………………..………………………..……………………..74
23. Email and Letter Writing………………………………………………..…………..………………..81
24. Worksheet………………………………………………………………………………………………......85
25. Commonly Confused Words………………………………………….………………..……………87

Non-Verbal Reasoning

26. Venn Diagrams…………………………………………………………………………………………….89


27. Series……………………………………………………………………………………………………………92

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1. NUMBER SYSTEM & SIMPLIFICATION
The ten symbols 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 are called There is no largest whole number and
digits, which can represent any number. The smallest whole number is 0.
Integers: The number system consisting of natural
Natural Numbers: These are the numbers (1, 2, 3, numbers, their negative and zero is called integers.
etc.) that are used for counting. It is denoted by N. It is denoted by Z or I.
There are infinite natural numbers and the smallest The smallest and the largest integers cannot be
natural number is one (1) determined.
Remember
Even numbers: Natural numbers which are divisible
by 2 are even numbers. It is denoted by E.
 1 is neither prime nor composite
E = 2, 4, 6, 8, ....  1 is an odd integer.
 0 is neither positive nor negative.
Smallest even number is 2. There is no largest even  0 is an even integer.
number.  2 is prime & even both.
 All prime numbers (except 2) are odd.
Odd numbers: Natural numbers which are not
divisible by 2 are odd numbers.
The number line: The number line is a straight line
It is denoted by O. between negative infinity on the left to positive infinity
on the right.
O = 1, 3, 5, 7, ....

Smallest odd number is 1. -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4


Real Numbers: All numbers that can be represented
There is no largest odd number. on the number line are called real numbers.
It is denoted by R.
Based on divisibility, there could be two types of
R+: Positive real numbers and
natural numbers:
R- : Negative real numbers.
Prime and Composite. Real numbers = Rational numbers + Irrational
numbers.
a) Prime Numbers: Natural numbers which have a) Rational numbers: Any number that can be
exactly two factors, i.e., 1 and the number put in the form of𝑃𝑃, where p and q are integers
𝑞𝑞
itself are called prime numbers. The lowest
and q ≠ 0, is called a rational number.
prime number is 2. 2 is also the only even
It is denoted by Q.
prime number.
Every integer is a rational number.
b) Composite Numbers: It is a natural number
Zero (0) is also a rational number. The
that has atleast one divisor different from unity
smallest and largest rational numbers cannot
and itself.
be determined. Every fraction (and decimal
Every composite number can be factorized into its
fraction) is a rational number.
prime factors.
p (Numerator)
For example: 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3. Hence, 24 is a Q=
composite number. q (Denominator)
𝑥𝑥+𝑦𝑦
The smallest composite number is 4.  If x and y are two rational numbers, then
Whole Numbers: The natural numbers along with 2
is also a rational number and its value lies
zero (0), from the system of whole numbers.
It is denoted by W.

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between the given two rational numbers x and Fraction: A fraction is a quantity which expresses a
y. part of the whole.
 An infinite number of rational number can be
Numerator
determined between any two rational numbers. Fraction =
Denominator
Example 1:
Find three rational numbers between 3 and 5. Example 2:
Write a fraction whose numerator is 22 + 1 and
Solution: denominator is 32 – 1.
3 +5 8
1st rational number = 2 = 2=4 Solution:
nd Numerator = 22 + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5
2 rational number (i.e., between 3 and 4)
3+4 7 Denominator = 32 – 1= 9 -1 = 8
= 2 = 2 Numerator 5
∴ Fraction = =
3rd rational number (i.e., between 4 and 5) Denominator 8
4+5 9
= = 2
2 TYPES OF FRACTIONS:
b) Irrational numbers: The numbers which are a) Proper fraction : If numerator is less than its
not rational or which cannot be put in the form denominator, then it is a proper fraction:
of 𝑝𝑝, where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0, is 2 6
𝑞𝑞 For example: ,
called irrational number. 5 18
b) Improper fraction: If numerator is greater
It is denoted by Q’ or Qc.
than or equal to its denominator, then it is a
2, 3, 5, 2 + 3, 3 − 5, 3 3 are irrational improper fraction.
numbers. 5 18 13
For example: , ,
2 7 13

NOTE:
NOTE:
(i) Every positive irrational number has a
negative irrational number corresponding to it. If in a fraction, its numerator and denominator are of
equal value then fraction is equal to unity i.e.1.
(ii) 2+3≠ 5
5−3≠2
c) Mixed fraction: it consists of an integer and a
3×2=3×2=6 proper fraction. 5
6 For example: 1 2

6÷2= 1 , 3 ,7
=3 2 3 9
2
(iii) Some times, product of two irrational numbers NOTE:
is a rational number.
For example: 2 × 2 = 2 × 2 = 2
2
2 + 3 × 2 − 3 = 2 2 − 3 =4-3=1 Mixed fraction can always be changed into
improper fraction and vice versa.
 Both rational and irrational numbers can be 5 7×9+5 63+5 68
represented on number line. Thus real numbers For example: 7 = = =
9 9 9 9
is the set of the union of rational and irrational 1 1
19 9×2+1
numbers. and = =9+ =9
2 2 2 2
R = Q ∪ Qʹ
 Every real numbers is either rational or d) Equivalent fraction/Equal fractions:
irrational. Fractions with same value.

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2 4 2
For example: , , 6 , 8 Remaining homework to complete the biology
3 6 9 12 3 assignment
e) Like fractions: Fractions with same 2 2 6−2 4
= 5 − 15 = 15 = 15
denominators.
3
For example: , , ,
2 9 11
5 7 8 16 Rounding off (Approximation) of Decimals: There
f) Unlike fractions: Fractions with different are some decimals in which numbers are found upto
denominators. large number of decimal places.
2 4
For example: , , 9 , 9 For example: 3.4578, 21.358940789.
5 7 8 2
But many times we require decimal numbers upto a
certain number of decimal places. Therefore,
NOTE: If the digit of the decimal place is five or more than
five, then the digit in the preceding decimal place is
Unlike fractions can be converted into like increased by one and if the digit in the last place is less
fractions. than five, then the digit in the precedence place
3 4
For example: 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 remains unchanged.
5 7 Example 4:
3 7 21 4 5 20
× = and × = (a) Write 21.3751 upto two places of
5 7 35 7 5 35
decimal.
(b) Write 3.27645 upto three places of
g) Simple fractions: Numerator and
decimal.
denominator are integers.
3 2 Solution:
For example: 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 (a) 21.3751 = 21.38
7 5
h) Complex fraction: Numerator or denominator (b) 3.27645 = 3.276
or both are fractional numbers. Operations: The following operations of addition,
2
7 subtraction, multiplication and division are valid for
For example: 2 21 2+1+ real numbers.
5 , 3
2 , 3
5 2 (a) Commutative property of addition:
7 3
i) Decimal fraction: Denominator with the a+b=b+a
powers of 10. (b) Associative property of addition:
9
For example: 2 = 0.2 , = (0.09) (a + b) + c = a + (b + c)
10 100 (c) Commutative property of multiplication:
j) Vulgar fraction: Denominators are not the
power of 10. a*b=b*a
3 9 5 (d) Associative property of multiplication:
For example: , , . (a * b) * c = a * (b * c)
7 2 193
Example 3: (e) Distributive property of multiplication with
respect to addition:
After doing 3/5 of the Biology homework on
(a + b) * c = a * c + b * c
Monday night, Sanjay did 1/3 of the remaining
Complex numbers: A number of the form a + bi,
homework on Tuesday night. What fraction of
the original homework would Sanjay have to where a and b are real number and i = −1 (imaginary
do on Wednesday night to complete the number) is called a complex number.
Biology assignment? It is denoted by C.
Solution: For Example: 5i (a = 0 and b = 5), 5 + 3i (a = 5 and
Remaining homework on Monday night b = 3)
3 2
=1− =
5 5
1 2 2 NOTE:
Work done on Tuesday night = of =
3 5 15

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i = −1, i2 = -1, i3 = -i, i4 = 1 255: 25 – 5 × 5 =0
∴ 294678 is completely divisible by 17.

DIVISIBILITY RULES
Divisibility by 2: A number is divisible by 2 if it’s unit Divisible by 19: We use (+2) as osculator.
digit is even or 0.
e.g., 149264: 4 × 2 + 6 = 14
Divisibility by 3: A number is divisible by 3 if the
4 × 2 +1 + 2 = 11
sum of it’s digit are divisible by 3.
1 × 2 + 1 + 9 =12
Divisibility by 4: A number is divisible by 4 if the last
2 digits are divisible by 4, or if the last two digits are 2×2+1+4=9
0’s.
9 × 2 +1 = 19

Divisibility by 5: A number is divisible by 5 if it’s unit 19 is divisible by 19


digit is 5 or 0.
∴ 149264 is divisible by 19.
Divisibility by 6: A number is divisible by 6 if it is
Divisibility by a Composite number:
simultaneously divisible by 2 and 3.
A number is divisible by a given composite number if
Divisibility by 7: We use osculator (-2) for divisibility it is divisible by all factors of composite number.
test.
99995: 9999 – 2 × 5 = 9989 Example 5:
9989: 998 – 2 × 9 = 980
980: 98 – 2 × 0 = 98 Is 2331024 divisible by 12
Now 98 is divisible by 7, so 99995 is also divisible by
Solution:
7.
Divisible by 11: In a number, if difference of sum of 12 = 4 × 3
digit at even places and sum of digit at odd places is
either 0 or multiple of 11, then no. is divisible by 11. 2331024 is divisible by 3 as (2+3+3+1+2+4)=
For example, 12342 ÷ 11 15 is divisible by 3 2331024 is also divisible
Sum of even place digit = 2 + 4 =6 by 4 because last two digits (24) is divisible by
Sum of odd place digit = 1 + 3 + 2= 6 4
Difference = 6 – 6 = 0
∴ 12342 is divisible by 11. Therefore 2331024 is divisible by 12
Divisible by 13: we use (+4) as osculator.
e.g., 876538 ÷ 13
Example 6:
876538: 8 × 4 + 3 = 35 What is the value of M and N respectively if
5 × 4 + 3 + 5 = 28 M39048458N is divisible by 8 and 11, where
8 × 4 + 2 + 6 = 40 M and N are single digit integers?
0 × 4 + 4 + 7 = 11
1 × 4 + 1 + 8 = 13 Solution:
13 is divisible by 13.
∴ 876538 is also divisible by 13. A number is divisible by 8 if the number
Divisible by 17: We use (-5) as osculator. formed by the last three digits is divisible by 8.
e.g., 294678: 29467 – 5 × 8 = 29427 i.e., 58N is divisible by 8.
27427: 2942 – 5 × 7 =2907
2907: 290 – 5 × 7 = 255 Clearly, N = 4

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Again, a number is divisible by 11 if the  Two different numbers x and y when divided
difference between the sum of digits at even by a certain divisor D leave remainder r1 and r2
places and sum of digits at the odd places is respectively. When the sum of them is divided
either 0 or is divisible by 11. by the same divisor, the remainder is r3. Then,

i.e. (M+9+4+4+8) – (3+0+8+5+N) divisor D = r1 + r2 – r3


= M + 25 – (16 + N)

= M – N + 9 must be zero or it must be Method to find the number of different divisors (or
divisible by 11 factors) (including 1 and itself) of any composite
number N:
i.e. M – N = 2
STEP I: Express N as a product of prime numbers as.
⇒M=2+4=6 N = xa × yb × zc
Hence, M = 6; N = 4 STEP II: Number of different divisors (including l
and itself)
Example 7:
= (a + 1) (b + 1) (c +1) .....
The highest power of 9 dividing 99!
completely is: Example 8:
Solution: Find the number of different divisors of 50,
besides unity and the number itself.
(c) 9 = 3 × 3 = 32
Highest power of 3 in 99! Solution:
99 99 99 99
= + + +
3 32 33 34 If you solve this problem without knowing the
= 33 + 11 + 3 +1 = 48 rule, you will take the numbers in succession
But we have 32 and check the divisibility. In doing so, you
48
highest power of 9 in 99! = = 24 may miss some numbers. It will also take more
2
time.
DIVISION ALGORITHM: Different divisors of 50are: 1,2,5,10,25,50
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder
If we exclude 1 and 50, the number of divisors
where, Dividend = The number which is being divided
will be 4.
Divisor = The number which performs the division
process Quotient = Greatest possible integer as a result By rule: 50 -2 × 5 × 5 = 21× 52
of division Remainder = Rest part of dividend which
cannot be further divided by the divisor. ∴the number of total divisors = (l + 1) × (2+1)
= 2 × 3 = 6 or, the number of divisors excluding 1
Complete remainder: A complete remainder is the and 50 = 6 – 2 = 4
remainder obtained by a number by the method of
successive division. Example 9:
Complete reminder = [I divisor × II remainder] + I A certain number when divided by 899 leaves
remainder the remainder 63. Find the remainder when the
same number is divided by 29.
C.R. = d1 r2 + r1
Solution:
C.R. = d1 d2 r3 + d1 r2 + r1

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Number = 899Q+63, where Q is quotient = 20+4 = 24 zeros.

= 31 × 29Q+ (58 + 5) =29[31Q+2] + 5 Example 12:


∴Remainder = 5 Number of zeros at the end of 126!

Counting Number of Zeros Solution:


126 126 126
Sometimes we come across problems in which + + +.......
we have to count number of zeros at the end of 5 52 53
factorial of any numbers. for example- ⇒integral value will be
Number of zeros at the end of 10!
= 25 + 5 + 1 = 31 zeros.
10! = 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 ×1
Example 13:
Here basically we have to count number of
fives, because multiplication of five by any Number of zeros at the end of90!
even number will result in 0 at the end of final
product. In 10! we have 2 fives thus total Solution:
number of zeros are 2. 90 90 90
+ + +........= 18 + 3 = 21 zeros
5 52 53
Short cut:-
Power of a number contained in a factorial
Counting number of zeros at the end of n!
value will be Highest power of a prime number P in N!
𝑛𝑛 𝑛𝑛 𝑛𝑛 𝑛𝑛 N N N N
+ + + + ...... = + + +⋯+ where [x]
5 52 53 54 P P2 P3 Pr
denotes the greatest integers less than or equal
The integral value of this number will be the to x and is a natural number such that Pr< n.
total number of zeros.
Example 14:
Example 10:
Find highest power of 7nin 50!
Number of zeros at the end of 10!
10 10 Solution:
Solution: + +. ..... Integral value
5 52 The highest power 7 in 50!
=2+0 50 50
= + = 7 + 1 =8
7 72
So, number of zeros in 10! = 2.
10 Example 15:
Note:- Here is less than 1 so will not count
52
it. Find highest power 15 in 100!

Solution:
Example 11:
Here given number 15 is not a prime number
Number of zeros at the end of 100!
so first convert 15 as product of Primes 15= 3×
100 100 100
Solution: + + +....... 5 therefore we will find the highest power of 3
5 52 53 and 5 in 1001 Highest power of 3 in 100!
100 100 100 100
integral value will be =[ 3
] +[ 32
] +[ 33
] + 34
]
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= 33 +11 + 3 + 1 = 48 required power of 15 is 24, which is actually
the power of the largest prime factor 5 of 15,
Highest power of 5 in 100! because power of largest prime factor is away
100 100 equal to or less than the other prime factor of
= +
5 52
= 20+4 = 24 any number.

So 100! contains (3)48× (5)24. Hence it


contains 24 pairs of3 and5.Therefore,

TO FIND THE LAST DIGIT OR DIGIT ATTHE UNIT’S PLACE OF an.


(i) If the last digit or digit at the unit’s place of a is 1,5 or 6, whatever be the value of n, it will have the same
digit at unit’s place, i.e,

(.....1)n = ( ..... 1)

(.....5)n = ( ..... 5)

(.....6)n = ( ..... 6)

(ii) If the last digit or digit at the units place of a is 2,3,5,7 or 8, then the last digit of an depends upon the value of
n and follows a repeating pattern in terms of 4 as given below:
n last digit of ( ... 2)n last digit of ( ... 3)n last digit of ( ... 7)n last digit of ( ... 8)n
4x + 1 2 3 7 8
4x + 2 4 9 9 4
4x + 3 8 7 3 2
4x 6 1 1 6

(iii) If the last digit or digit at the unit’s place of a is 4 or 9, then the last digit of an depends upon the value of n and
follows repeating pattern in terms of2 as given below.
n Last digit of (...4)n Last digit of (...9)n
2x 6 1
2x+1 4 9

Example 16:
Find unit digit of2323. Example 18:
Solution: Here, 2,4,8,6 will repeat after every four Find unitdigitof96363× 7373.
interval till 320 next digit will be 2,4, 8 , so Solution: Unit digit of96363 = 7
unit digit of 2323 will be 8. Unit digit of 7373=3
So unit digit of96363× 7373= 7 × 3 = 21.
Example 17: i.e. 1.
Find unit digit of 133133.
Solution: Example 19:
Cycle of 3 is 3,9,7,1 which repeats after every Find Unit digit of 1717× 2727× 3737
fourth interval will 133132, so next unit digit Solution: Unit digit of 1717 = 7
will be 3. Unit digit of2727 = 3

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Unit digit of3737= 7 bris remainder when b, is divided by n, and
So unit digit of 1717× 2727× 3737=7 × 3 × 7 cris remainder when c is divided by n.
=147
i.e., unit digit = 7
Example 23:
Find remainder of 15 × 17 × 19 when
Example 20: divided by 7.
Find unit digit of 1818 × 2828× 288288. Solution:
Solution: 15×17×19
Unit digit of 1818 is 4. Remainder of Expression will be
7
Unit digit of 2828 is 6. equal to
Unit digit of 288288 is 6 1×3×5 15 1
= = 2 i.e. 1
So unit digit of 1818× 2828× 288288 7 7 7
= 4 × 6 × 6 = 144 i.e.,4 On dividing 15 by 7, we get 1 as remainder.
On dividing 17 by 7, we get 3 as remainder.
On dividing 19 by 7, we get 5 as remainder.
Example 21:
Find unit digit of 1111 + 1212+1313+1414 + 1515
And combined remainder will be equal to
Solution: 15
Unit digit of 1111 = 1 remainder of i.e. 1.
7
Unit digit of 1212 = 6 Example 24:
Unit digit of 1313 = 3 19×20×21
Find the remainder of expression
Unit digit of 1414 = 6 9
Unit digit of 1515 = 5 Solution:
So unit digit of given sum will be 1×2×3
Remainder of given expression = =
1+6+3+6+5=21 i.e., 1 6
9
equal to 6.
9
Example 22:
Find unit digit of POLYNOMIALTHEOREM
2121 × 2222 × 2323 × 2424 × 2525.
Solution:
2525 will give 5 in unit place, when This is very powerful theorem to find the
multiplied by an even number i.e. reminder.
0,2,4,6,8. It will give zero at unit place. So, According to polynomial theorem.
𝑥𝑥 + 𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛 = 𝑥𝑥𝑛𝑛 + 𝑛𝑛𝑐𝑐 𝑥𝑥𝑛𝑛−1𝑎𝑎1 + 𝑛𝑛𝑐𝑐 𝑥𝑥𝑛𝑛−2𝑎𝑎2 +
zero will be at the unit digit of given question. 1 2

𝑛𝑛𝑐𝑐3𝑥𝑥𝑛𝑛−3𝑎𝑎3 + ⋯ 𝑛𝑛𝑐𝑐 𝑛𝑛 −1
𝑥𝑥1𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛−1 + 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 ................ (i)
𝑥𝑥+𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛
∴ 𝑥𝑥
=
REMAINDERTHEOREM 𝑥𝑥 𝑛𝑛 +
𝑛𝑛 𝑥𝑥 𝑛𝑛 −1 𝑎𝑎 1 + 𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐 𝑥𝑥
𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐 𝑥𝑥 𝑛𝑛 −2 𝑎𝑎 2 +
𝑛𝑛 −3 𝑎𝑎 3 +⋯𝑛𝑛
𝑥𝑥 1 𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛 −1 +𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛
𝑐𝑐 1 2 3 𝑐𝑐 𝑛𝑛 −1
𝑥𝑥
𝑎𝑎×b×c remainder of expression (ii) will be equal to
Remainder of expression [i/e. a × b × c when 𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛
𝑛𝑛 remainder of because rest of the term
divided by n] is equal to the remainder of 𝑥𝑥
ar ×br×c r contains x are completely divisible by x.
expression [i.e. ar × br × cr when divided by
n
n], where Example 25:
aris remainder when a is divided by n. Find the remainder of
999
.
8

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Solution: 25100
Find remainder of .
999 (8 + 1)99 7
= Solution:
8 8 25100 (3×7+4)50 450
According to polynomial theorem remainder = =
will be equal to remainder of the expression 7 7 7
2100 (23 )33 ×2 (7+1)33 1×2
199
= ,1
1
7
= ⇒ ×2⇒
7 7 7
8 8 ⇒Reminder is 2.

Example 26: Example 31:


899 350
Find the remainder of Find remainder of .
7
7
Solution: Solution:
899 (7+1) 199 25
⇒ = i.e. 1 350 32 (7+2)25
7 7 7 = ⇒
7 7 7
25 38
Example 27: =7
2
=8
2 ×2
11×13×17 7
Find remainder of (7+1) ×2 1×2
6 = 7 = 7
Solution:
⇒Reminder is 2.
11 × 13 × 17 5×1×5
=
6 6 Example 32:
1 3250
⇒1
6 Find remainder of .
7
Solution:
Example 28: 32
125
=
(7+2)125
=
2125
9100 7 7 7
Find remainder of . 41
7 23 ×2
2

Solution: = 7
= 1×4
7
9100 (7+2)100 ⇒Reminder is 4.

7 7
2100 299 ×2 23×33 ×2 833 ×2
= = = = LAW OF SURDS
7 7 7 7 𝑛𝑛
2 1
(7+1)33 1×2
i.e. 2  = 𝑎𝑎
= 7 ×2= 7
= 7 𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛
1 1 1

 = ab n
Example 29: an bn
1m 1
950  =a 1
Find remainder of . an
mn
7
Solution:
16
950 (7+2)50 250 23 ×22 816 ×4 LAW OF INDICES
= = = =
7 7
16
7 7 7  am × an = am+n
(7+1) ×4 1×4
⇒ = i.e., 4  am ÷ an = am−n
7 7
 am n = amn
Example 30:  1 =m m a
a

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1
 a−m =
am
n
 am/n = am
 a0 = 1

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Ratio and Proportion

1. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5. Find the value of A:B:C


a)8:10:15 b) 12:8:15 c) 8:12:15 d) 12:15:8

2. If X:Y = 3:4
Y:Z = 3:4. Then (X+Y+Z/3Z) is
a) 13/27 b) 1 /2 c) 17/24 d) 37/48

3. Mayank, Mirza, Little and Jaspal bought a bike for Rs 60,000. Mayank paid one half of the sum
of the amounts paid by other boys, Mirza paid 1/3 of the amount paid by other boys and Little 1/
4 of the sum of amounts paid by other boys. How much does Jaspal has to pay?
a) Rs15,000 b) Rs 13,000 c) Rs 17,000 d) None

4. If the ratio of 3 numbers is 10:15:24 and their sum is 196. Find the smaller number.
a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60

5. Ratio of Income of Ram, Mohan and Sham is 7:9:10. If Ram’s income is Rs 2,400 less than
Mohan’s income, Find Sham’s Income
a) Rs 12,000 b) Rs 10,000 c) Rs 8,000 d) Rs 9,000

6. Rs 3,500 is distributed among A,B,C such that A:B = 5:4 , B:C = 3:2. Calculate share of B
a) 1500 b) 800 c) 1000 d) 1200

7. A bag contains 1 Re, 50 Paisa and 25 Paisa coins in the ratio 1:4:4. If the total amount in the bag
is 400 Rs, find the number of 25 paisa coins
a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 100

8. A bag contains 1 Re, 50 Paisa and 25 Paisa coins in the ratio 2:3:4. If the total amount in the bag
is 270 rs, then find the number of coins which is max
a) 120 b) 60 c) 240 d) 200

9. Ratio between monthly income of A and B is 9:8 and monthly expenditure is 8:7. If they save Rs
500 each, Find the monthly salary of A
a) 3,500 b) 4,000 c) 4,500 d) 5,000

10. The income of A and B are in the ratio 2:3 and their expenditure in the ratio 1:2. If each save Rs
24,000, find A’s income
a) 24,000 b) 72,000 c) 19,200 d) 48,000

11. Monthly incomes of A:B is 5:6 and the monthly expenditure is 3:4. If they save Rs 1800 and Rs
1600 respectively, Find monthly income of B
a) 3400 b) 1720 c) 2700 d) 7200

12. Ratio of Income of 2 people is 5:3 and their expenditure is 9:5. If they save 2600 rs and 1800 rs
respectively, find their incomes
a) 8000, 4800 b) 10000, 6000 c) 9000,5400 d) 60000,36000

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13. The incomes of 2 people are in the ratio 5:3, while their expenditure is in the ratio 9:5. If each of
them saves 1300 Rs and 900 Rs respectively, then find the income of each
a) 2400, 4000 b) 4000, 2400 c) 3000,1800 d) 3500, 2100

14. Initial ratio of milk and water was 3:2, when 2.5 litres of water is added, ratio becomes 2:3. Find
initial quantity of milk
a) 6 L b) 5 L c) 4 L d) 3 L

15. The ratio of boys to girls becomes 2:1 when 15 girls leave. But afterwards, when 45 boys also
leave , the ratio becomes 1:5. Originally the number of girls in the group was
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50

16. The ratio of number of ladies to the number of gents at a party was 3:2. When 20 more gents
joined the party, the ratio reversed. The number of ladies at the party were
a) 36 b) 24 c) 32 d) 16

17. In a college union, there are 48 students. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is
5:3. The number of girls to be added to the union, so that the ratio of boys to girls is 6:5
a) 6 b) 7 c) 12 d) 17

18. The ratio of age of 2 boys is 5:6. After 2 years the ratio will be 7:8. The ratio of their age after 12
years will be
a) 22/24 b) 15/16 c) 17/18 d) 11/12

19. At present, the present age of Maya and Chaya is 6:5 and 15 years from now, the ratio will be
changed to 9:8. Maya’s present age is
a) 21 years b) 24 years c) 30 years d) 40 years

20. The ratio of present age of 2 brothers is 1:2 and 5 years back, the ratio was 1:3. What will be the
ratio of their age after 5 years
a) 1:4 b) 2:3 c) 3:5 d) 5:6

21. Ratio of weekly income of A and B is 9:7 and the ratio of their expenditure is 4:3. If each saves
200 Rs per week, then the sum of their weekly income will be
a) 3600 b) 3200 c) 4800 d) 5600

22. A:B = 4:9. If 4 is added to both the numbers then the new ratio becomes 21:46. What is the
difference between A and B
a) 80 b) 100 c) 125 d) 130

23. The ratio of boys and girls in a university is 5:3. If 50 boys leave the university and 50 girls join
the university, then the ratio becomes 9:7. What were the number of boys in the university?
a) 300 b) 400 c) 500 d) 600

24. In an industry, the ratio of number of employees is reduced to ratio 9:8 and income per employee
is increased to the ratio 14:15. Find in what ratio the total labor income increased or decreased?
a) 60:63 b) 42:30 c) 63:60 d) 30:42

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AVERAGES

1. The average of 30, 40 and X is 60. Find the value of X.


a.80 b. 90 c. 110 d. 120

2. The average of 81, 93, 99 and X is 87. Find the value of X.


a. 75 b. 80 c. 85 d. 90

3. Find the average of 100,200, 300,……800,900.


a. 400 b. 450 c. 500 d. 550

4. Find the average of 45, 50, 55,…., 450, 455.


a.200 b. 250 c. 300 d. 350

5. Average marks of a class of 20 students is 40. It was later found that two students scored 48 and
40 instead of scoring 23 and 25. Find the right average.
a. 38 b. 41 c. 39 d. 43

6. Average age of a couple married 20 years ago was 25 yrs. Find the present average age of the
family if they have a 3-year-old daughter.
a. 33 years b. 31 years c. 29 years d. 27 years

7. Average age of husband and wife was 23 years at the time of their marriage. After 5 years they
have one-year old son. Find the present average age of the family.
a. 17 years b. 18 years c. 19 years d. 20 years

8. Average age of husband, wife and son 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and son 5 years
ago was 20 years. Find the present age of husband.
a. 30 years b. 40 years c. 50 years d.60 years

9. Two years ago, the average age of a family of 8 members was 18 years. After the addition of a
baby, the average age of family remains the same today. What is the age of the baby?
a. 1-year b. 2 years c. 4 years d. 3.5 years

10. 3 years ago, average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years . A baby having been born ;
average remains the same today. Find the present age of the baby.
a.1-year b.2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years

11. Average of 21 results is 18. Average of first 10 results is 17 and last 10 results is 14. Find the 11th
result.
a.65 b. 68 c. 72 d. 78

12. Average age of a class of 20 students is 11 years. When the teacher was added, average became
13 years. Find the age of the teacher.
a.53 years b.54 years c.55years d.56 years

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13. Average age of a class of 20 students is 10 years. When the teacher was added, average became
13 years. Find the age of the teacher.
a.73years b.75years c.76years d.71years

14. Average age of a class of 20 students is 12 years. When the teachers age was added, the average
became 14 years. Find the age of the teacher.
a.40 years b. 46 years c. 52 years d. 54 years

15. Average age of a class of 30 students and a teacher reduces by 0.5 years when the teachers age
was excluded. If the initial average was 14 years, find the age of the teacher
a. 25years b. 29years c. 31years d. 33years

16. Average weight of 30 students is 50 kgs. 9 students whose average was 35 kgs were replaced by
9 students of average weight 45 kgs. Find the new average of the class
a. 47years b. 53years c. 55years d . None of these

17. Average weight of 30 students is 50 kgs. 10 students whose average was 35 kgs were replaced by
10 students of average weight 41 kgs. Find the new average of the class
a.52years b.48 years c.51years d.53years

18. Average weight of a class of 50 students was 50 kgs. When one student left, average of the
remaining members reduced by 100 grams. Find the weight of the student who left
a. 54.9 b. 53.8 c. 52.4 d. 52.8

19. There is a cricket team of 11 members. The captain was 26 years old and the wicket keeper 3
years older. When they both were removed, average of the remaining members reduced by 1 year.
Find the initial average of the team
a. 23 years b. 24 years c. 25 years d. 24.5 years

20. A batsman scored 135 runs in his 20th innings and increased his average by 5 runs. Find his
average after 20th innings.
A. 35 B. 40 C. 45 D. 50

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PERCENTAGE
1. A man bought an article at Rs 6600 and got 10% rebate. He later paid 10% as G.S.T . Find the
final amount he paid.
A. Rs 6534 B. Rs 6564 C. Rs 6600 D. Rs 6500

2. Price of a machine increased by 30% during 1st year and then decreased by 30% in next year.
Find the net effect on its value at the end of two years.
A. Increased by 9% B. Decreased by 9% C. No change D. None of these

3. Length of a rectangle increases by 20% and breadth decreases by 10%. Find the change in area.
A. Decreased by 10% B. Increased by 8% C. Increased by 10% D. No change

4. Length of a rectangle increases by 110% and breadth decreases by 80%. Find the change in area.
A. Decreased by 38% B. Increased by 38% C. Increased by 58% D. Decreased by 58%

5. A’s salary is 25% more than B. By what % is B's salary is less than A.
A. 20% B. 10% C. 15% D. 12%

6. A’s salary is 25% less than B. By what % is B's salary is more than A.
A. 16.67% B. 11.11% C. 33.33% D. 14.28%

7. A’s salary is 50% more than B. By what % is B's salary is less than A.
A. 50% B. 55% C. 45% D. 33.33%

8. Due to 25% hike in the price of rice, a man is able to buy 80 kgs of less rice at Rs 400. Find initial
price of rice per kg.
A. Re 1 B. Rs 5 C. Rs 10 D. Rs 8

9. Ramesh scored 40% and failed by 40 marks. If the passing percent 50%. Find the max marks set
by the paper.
A. 100 B. 400 C. 450 D. 600

10. Price of sugar increased by 10% by what percent should the consumption decrease to keep the
overall cost same.
A. 18 % B. 11.11 % C.16.67 % D. 9.09 %

11. Price of wheat decreased by 16% by what percent should the consumption increase to keep the
overall cost same.
A. 19 % B. 14 % C.18 % D. 15 %

12. A man spends 80% of his income. If his income and expenditure increase by 40% and 20%
respectively. Find percentage change in savings
A. Increase by 100% B. Increase by 80% C. Increase by 60% D. Increase by 120%

13. A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total
score did he make by running between the wickets?
A. 45 B. 45 5/11 C. 54 6/11 D. 55

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14. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and
his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are
A. 39,30 B. 41,32 C. 42,33 D. 43,34

15. Ramesh has 20% savings with him from his monthly salary. If expenditure on clothing is 25% of
overall expenditure and his total expenditure except clothing is 7200 then find his saving.
A. 2000 B. 2500 C. 2600 D. 2400

16. A man spends 28% of his salary on food. From the remaining he spent 1/6 th on rent and sends
3/8 th to his mother. If he left with Rs 5280, what amount he sends to his mother .
A. Rs 8230 B. Rs 8640 C. Rs 9580 D. Rs 4320

17. In a school the number of boys and girls are in the ratio of 4:7 . If the number of boys are
increased by 25% and the number of girls are increased by 15%. What will be the new ratio of
number of boys to that of girls?
A. 100:131 B. 100:151 C. 100:161 D. 100:181

18. When the price of rice is increased by 25 percent , a family reduces its consumption such that the
expenditure is only 10 percent more than before. If 40 kg of rice is consumed by family before,
then find the new consumption of family.
A. 35.2 B. 36.2 C. 37.2 D. None of these

19. Number of students in 4th and 5th class is in the ratio 6:11. 40% in class 4 are girls and 48% in
class 5 are girls. What percentage of students in both the classes are boys ?
A. 62.5% B. 54.8% C. 52.6% D. 55.8%

20. Fresh grapes contain 80% water, while dry grapes contain 10% water. If the weight of dry grapes
is 500 kg, then what is its total weight when it is fresh?
A. 2350 kg B. 2085 kg C. 2255 kg D. 2250 kg

21. In an examination out of 480 students, 85% of the girls and 70% of the boys have passed. How
many boys appeared in the examination, if total pass percentage was 75%?
A. 370 B. 340 C. 320 D. 360

22. It is required to get 40% marks to pass an exam. A candidate scored 200 marks and failed by 8
marks. What were the maximum marks of that exam?
A. 530 B. 540 C. 502 D. None of these

23. What is the value of three fourth of sixty percent of 480 ?


A. 216 B. 218 C. 212 D. 214

24. If 50% of a certain number is equal to 3/4th of another number, what is the ratio between the
number?
A. 3:2 B. 2:5 C.5:2 D. 3:4

25. The sum of 15% of a positive number and 10% of the same number is 70. What is twice of that
number?
A. 440 B. 280 C. 560 D. 140

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PROFIT AND LOSS

1. A man bought an article at 300 Rs and sold it at 330 Rs. Find his profit percent.
a.10% b.20% c.30% d.40%

2. A man purchased 70 kgs of mangoes at 420 Rs and sold the entire lot at 9 Rs per kg. Find his
profit percent.
a.10% b.20% c.40% d.50%
3. A shopkeeper purchased 9 pens at 10 Rs and sold 6 pens at 7 Rs. Find his profit or loss percent.
a.5% b.10% c.15% d.20%

4. A shopkeeper purchased 54 books at 100 Rs and sold 18 book at 60 Rs. Find his profit or loss
percent.
a.60% b.70% c.80% d.90%

5. By selling 33 meters of cloth, a man gained the selling price of 11 meters of cloth. Find his profit
percent .
a.30% b.40% c.50% d.60%

6. By selling 9 dozen Bananas, a man incurred a loss of selling price of 1 dozen Banana. Find his
Loss percent.
a.20% b.10% c.5% d.15%

7. By selling 18 toys at 16,800 Rs, a man gained the cost price of 3 toys. Find the cost price of 1
toy.
a.700 b.800 c.900 d.1000

8. By selling 15 mangoes, a man recovers the cost of 20 mangoes. Find his profit or loss percent.
a.50% b.33.33% c.20% d.40%

9. The selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 15 articles. Find his profit or loss
percent.
a.50% b.33.33% c.20% d.40%

10. The selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 19 articles. Find his profit or loss
percent.
a.50% b.33.33% c.90% d.40%

11. The selling price of 20 articles is equal to the cost price of 15 articles. Find his profit or loss
percent
a.50% b.33.33% c.90% d.40%

12. By selling an article at 1140 Rs a man incurs a loss of 5%. At what amount must he sell the article
to get 5% profit?
a.1260Rs b.1280Rs c.1480Rs d.1520Rs

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13. By selling an article at 12 Rs a man gained 20%. Find his profit percent if he sells the article at
15Rs
a.50% b.33.33% c.90% d.40%

14. A man sold an article at 50 Rs and gained 25%. Find his profit percent, if he sells the article at 60
Rs.
a.50% b.33.33% c.90% d.40%

15. A man sold at article at 36 Rs and gained 20% profit. Find his profit or loss percent if he sells the
article at 42 Rs.
a.50% b.33.33% c.40% d.20%

16. There would be 10% loss if an article is sold at 90 Rs . If a profit of 25% is to be earned, at what
price should the article be sold?
a.120Rs b.125Rs c.195Rs d.130Rs

17. The sale of a wholesaler increases by 10% every week. If the difference between the sales of 4th
week and 2nd week is Rs 115.50 Rs, what was the sales on the second week?
a.440 b.190 c.550 d.660

18. The sale of a trader increases by 20% every week. If the difference between the sales of 1st week
and
3rd week is Rs 880 Rs, what was the sales on the second week?
a.2000 b.2400 c.3456 d.880
19. A merchant gains one fifth of the cost price by selling an article for 12 Rs. What would be his
profit percent if he sells it at 11 Rs?
a.10% b.5% c.15% d.20%

20. A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. Had he increased the selling price by 100 Rs, he would
have gained 5%.Find the cost price of the article.
a.400 b.570 c.600 d.500

21. A man bought a horse and a carriage at 3000 Rs. He sold the horse at 20% profit and the carriage
at a loss of 10% thereby gaining 2% overall. Find the cost price of the horse
a.1000 b.1200 c.1440 d.1550

22. A man buys a certain number of articles at 50 per 10 Rs, and the same number at 40 per 10 Rs.
He sells the articles at 90 per 20 Rs. Do he gain or lose and by what percentage?
a.20%loss b.1.33%loss c.1.33%profit d.20%profit

23. A dealer sold 3/4th of his articles at a profit of 20%and the remaining at a loss of 20%. Find his
overall profit percent.
a.10% b.5% c.15% d.20%

24. A person spend 80% of his income. If his income and expenditure increase by 40% and 20% resp.
find percentage increase in saving.
a.120% b.115% c.125% d.80%

25. A man sold an article and incurred a loss of 20%. If the selling price was increased by 150Rs he
would gain 5%. Find cost price.
a.120 b.360 c.500 d.600

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TIME AND WORK

1. A takes 16 days to finish a job alone, while B takes 8 days to finish the same job. What is the ratio of
efficiency of A and B?
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4 D. 2:3

2. A is thrice as efficient as B and takes 20 days to complete a piece of work. B completes the same
work in how many days
A. 40 days B. 45 days C. 60 days D. 50 days

3. If 20 persons are needed to complete the piece of work in 7 days, then how many people are required
to complete the same work in 28 days.
A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

4. A completes (1/10) of the work in one day. How many days will he take to complete 5 units of the
entire work if he works 100% more efficiently.
A. 25 days B. 30 days C. 27 days D. 24 days

5. A completes (1/10) of the work in 5 days . How many days will he take to complete 3 units of the
same work, if he works 50% more efficiently.
A. 120 days B. 70 days C. 60 days D. 100 days

6. 20 men complete the work in 30 days. How many men are needed to complete the same work in 15
days
A. 35 B. 30 C. 45 D. 40

7. 20 men complete the work in 30 days. How many days will 15 men take to complete the same work?
A. 50 days B. 45 days C. 90 days D. 40 days

8. 25 women complete a work in 15 days. How many more women are needed to complete the same
work in 5 days?
A. 75 B. 80 C. 50 D. 50

9. 42 men take 25 days to dig a pond. If the pond would have to be dug in 14 days, then what is the
number of men to be employed?
A. 100 B. 40 C. 80 D. 75

10. 18 men take 20 days to complete a job working 12 hours a day. Find the number of days that 15 men
will take to complete it if they work 9 hours a day?
A. 48 days B. 35 days C. 41 days D. 32 days

11. 5 men can prepare 10 toys in 6 days working 6 hours a day, then in how many days 12 men prepare
16 toys working 8 hours a day
A. 6 days B. 4 days C. 2 days D. 3 days

12. A can finish a work in 12 days while B can do it in 15 days. If both work together, they will complete
the work in
A. 6 2/3 days B. 10 days C. 6 1/5 days D. 4 2/3 days

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13. If ram completes a work in 30 days and sham does it in 45 days, then what is the time taken by them
to complete the same work if they work together?
A. 15 days B. 18 days C. 21 days D. 12 days

14. If A completes a work in 50 days and B does it in 12.5 days, then what is the time taken by them to
complete the same work if they work together?
A. 12 days B. 14 days C. 24 days D. 10 days

15. If A completes a work in 25 days and B does it in 20 days, then what is the time taken by them to
complete the same work if they work together?
A. 11.11 days B. 5 days C. 7.14 days D. 9.09 days

16. If A completes a work in 10 days and B does it in 12 days and C in 15 days, then what is the time
taken by them to complete the same work if they work together?
A. 3 days B. 4 days C. 8 days D. 5 days

17. If A completes a work in 60 days and B does it in 12 days and C in 15 days, then what is the time
taken by them to complete the same work if they work together?
A. 6 days B. 16 days C. 10 days D. 5 days

18. If A completes a work in 20 days and B in 30 days if B works at (1/2) his usual rate, how many days
will A and B together take to complete (1/3) of the work?
a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d.20 days

19. If Mohan completes a work in 40 days while Mohan and Ram together will do it in 2 days. What is
the time taken by ram to complete the same work if he works alone?
a. 2 2/19 days b. 4 days c. 2 1/19 days d. 2 days

20. A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works for 10 days and B alone finishes the remaining work
in 42 days. If they work together, in how many days will they complete the work?
a. 30 days b. 40 days c. 45 days d. None

21. A and B completes a work in 30 days, B and C in 24 days and A and C in 20 days. If they all work
together for 10 days and then B and C leave. How many more days will A take to finish the remaining
work?
a.60 days b. 70 days c.48 days d.30 days

22. A can do (3/4) of the work in 12 days. After working for 8 days, B joins him and both work together
for 3 days, After which A leaves. If B alone takes 12 more days to complete the remaining work, then
how many days will B take to complete the entire work alone.
a. 48 days b. 54 days c. 64 days d. None of these

23. A is twice as good as B and together they complete the work in 18 days. A alone will complete the
work in
a. 27 days b. 36 days c. 24 days d. 42 days

24. A is thrice as good as B and together they complete the work in 18 days. A alone will complete the
work in
a. 45 days b. 27 days c. 21 days d. 18 days

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25. A is 5 times as good as B and together they complete the work in 30 days. A alone will complete the
work in
a. 63 days b. 49 days c. 45 days d. 36 days

26. P is thrice as efficient as Q and therefore completes the work in 60 days less than Q. Find the time
taken in which P and Q can complete the work individually
a. 30,90 b. 90,30 c. 20,60 d. None of these

27. A is twice as good as B and therefore completes the work in 30 days less than B. Find the time taken
in which A and B can complete the work together
a. 20 days b. 22 days c.15 days d.14 days

28. A tube can be filled in 20 mins but there is a leakage which empties it in 60 minutes. In how many
minutes it can be filled?
a. 30 mins b. 20 mins c. 15 mins d. 45 mins

29. Ram completes a work in 10 days and sham in 20 days, now sham works alone for 8 days and later
ram joins him. Together they complete the remaining work in how many days.
a. 6 days b. 8 days c. 5 days d. 4 days

30. 45 men can complete the work in 16 days. They work for 6 days after which 30 more men joined.
How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
a. 3 days b.6 days c. 4 days d. 8 days

31. A and B undertake a piece of work for 600 rs. A alone can do it in 6 days, B alone in 8 days, and with
the help of C they complete the work in 3 days. Find A’s share
a. Rs 300 b. Rs 225 c. Rs 150 d. Rs 175

32. If 18 men can earn 1440 rs in 5 days, then how much will 10 men earn in 6 days?
a. Rs 890 b. Rs 960 c. Rs 1040 d. Rs 840

33. If 3 men or 4 woman can reap a field in 43 days, how long will 7 men and 5 woman take to reap it?
a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 12 days d. 8 days

34. 2 Boys and 3 Girls take 10 days to complete a work while 3 Boys and 2 Girls take 8 days so 2 Boys
and 1 Girls will take how many days to complete the work
a. 12.5 days b. 12 days c. 16 days d. 10.5 day

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TIME SPEED DISTANCE

1. Walking at (5/6) his original speed, a man reaches his destination 10 mins late. Find the original
time taken to reach the destination.
A. 50 mins B. 45 mins C. 60 mins D. 55 mins

2. Ratio of speeds of A and B is 7:8 respectively. If A takes 20 mins more than B to do the work,
find the total time taken by B to complete the work.
A. 2 hrs 20 min B. 2 hrs 40 min C. 3 hrs D. 2 hrs 50 min

3. A man covers a distance at V Kmph. He now covers half of the distance in double the time.
Compare his Initial and final speed.
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4 D. 4:1

4. A policeman spots a thief from a distance of 550 meters. When the policeman starts to chase, the
thief also starts running. In what time will the policeman catch the thief if they are running at
10mps and 5mps respectively.
A. 100 secs B. 120 secs C. 110 secs D. 90 secs

5. A burglar is spotted by a cop from a distance of 600 meters. When the cop starts to chase, the
burglar also starts running. In what time will the burglar be caught? Given speed of policeman 8
mps and burglar 5 mps.
A. 180 secs B. 270 secs C. 220 secs D. 200 secs

6. A dog covers 4 leaps for every 5 leaps of the rabbit, but 3 leaps of the dog is equal to 4 leaps of
the rabbit. Compare their speeds.
A. 16:15 B. 4:3 C. 15:16 D. 3:4

7. A man covers (2/3) of the distance at 4 kmph and remaining at 5 kmph. If he took 1 hour 24 mins
to complete the entire journey, find the total distance travelled by him.
A. 5 km B. 7.5 km C. 9 km D. 6 km

8. A man travels from A to B at 25kmph and returns back at 4 kmph. If he took 5 hours 48 minutes
to cover the entire journey, find the distance between A and B.
A. 18 km B. 20 km C.15 km D. 22 km

9. Walking from house towards railway station at 5 kmph, a man misses the train by 7 minutes. Had
he increased his speed to 6kmph, he would had reached the station 5 minutes before the arrival of
the train. Find the distance from his house to railway station.
A. 6 km B. 4 km C. 8 km D. 5 km

10. On an escalator, it took me 30 seconds and 26 steps to reach the bottom. However, if I am able to
step down 34 stairs, I would only require 18 seconds to reach the bottom. How many steps are
there when the escalator is idle?
A. 46 B. 45 C. 41 D. 55

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11. On an escalator, it took me 30 seconds and 36 steps to reach the bottom. However, if I am able to
step down 44 stairs I would only require 24 seconds to go to the bottom. How many steps are
there in the idle escalator?
A. 66 B. 78 C. 74 D. 76

12. A train of length 250 meters is running at a speed of 36 kmph. Find the time taken by it to pass a
man standing near the railway line
A. 20 secs B. 25 secs C. 30 secs D. 28 secs

13. Train speed = 126 kmph


Train length = 175 meters
Find the time taken by it to cross a man standing on the railway line
A. 4 secs B. 5 secs C. 6 secs D. 7 secs

14. A train 150 meters long is running at a speed of 98 kmph. In what time will it cross a man who is
running in the same direction of the train at 8 kmph
A. 6 secs B. 8 secs C. 5 secs D. 7 secs

15. Two trains, 163 meters and 137 meters, move towards each other in opposite directions at
48kmph and 42 kmph, respectively. In what time will they completely cross each other from the
moment they meet?
A. 10 secs B. 12 secs C. 15 secs D. Cannot be
determined

16. A man seated in a train travelling at 50 kmph observes a goods train 280 meters long travelling in
opposite direction, takes 9 seconds to pass him. Find its speed
A. 62 kmph B. 50 kmph C. 69 kmph D. 72 kmph

17. A train travelling at 48 kmph completely crosses another train in 12 seconds having half its length
which is travelling at 42 kmph in the opposite direction. It also passes a railway platform in 45
seconds. Find the length of the platform
A. 250 meters B. 350 meters C. 400 meters D. 450 meters

18. Two trains stationed 110 kms apart depart their respective stations at 7 am (at 20 kmph) and 8
am(25 kmph) respectively. At what time will they meet?
A. 10 am B. 12 pm C. 12:30 pm D. 10:30 am

19. A man standing on the railway bridge which is 180 meters long observes that the train crosses
the bridge in 20 seconds and himself in 8 seconds. Find the length and speed of the train
A. 120m, 15m/s B. 150m , 15m/s C. 90m, 12m/s D. 120m, 12m/s

20. Two trains travelling from Bangalore to Mysore depart at the same speed 30 kmph at an interval
of 10 mins. Another train coming from Mysore meets both the trains in 4 mins. Find its speed
A. 75 kmph B. 30 kmph C. 45 kmph D. 60 kmph

21. Two trains, B from Bangalore to Delhi and D from Delhi to Bangalore start Simultaneously after
they meet, the trains reach their respective destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours, respectively.
Find the ratio of their speeds

A. 3:4 B. 5:6 C. 4:3 D. 6:5

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22. Train M leaves Meerut at 5 am and reaches Delhi at 9 am. Train D leaves Delhi at 7 am and
reaches Meerut at 10:30 am . At what time will they meet?
A. 7:56 am B. 8:00 am C.7:24am D. 7:30 am

23. After travelling for 30 mins, a train met with an accident and halted for 45 mins. Due to the
accident its speed reduced to ( 2/3)rd. of its original speed and thus reached the destination 1h 30
mins late. Had the accident occurred 60 kms further, the train would have reached 30 mins
earlier. What is the length of the journey?
A. 140 kms B. 120 kms C. 150 kms D. 160 kms

24. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 60 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 40 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 15 mins B. 18 mins C. 21 mins D. 20 mins

25. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 90 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 75 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 15 mins B. 14 mins C. 12 mins D. 10 mins

26. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 120 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 90 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 14 mins B. 15 mins C. 16 mins D. 18 mins

27. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 80 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 60 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 15 mins B. 14 mins C. 18 mins D. 24 mins

28. Without stoppage, a train covers a certain distance at an average speed of 50 kmph and with
stoppage covers the same distance at an average speed of 40 kmph. For how many minutes per
hour did the train stop?
A. 10 mins B. 16 mins C. 13 mins D. 12 mins

29. Two trains stationed 100 kms apart depart towards each other(opposite direction) at the same
speed 25 kmph at the same time from their respective stations. It was observed that a bird flew
along one train at the same time at 100 kmph and upon meeting the other train flew back and so
on. Find the total distance covered by the bird when the trains collided
a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d.200

30. Two trains, each 2 km long, enter two 1 km long tunnel that are 2 km apart from each other on
the same track. The trains enter the tunnels at exactly the same time. The first train is going at 5
kmph, and the second at 10 kmph, respectively. What is the sum of the lengths of the two trains
that will protrude from the tunnels at the exact moment of their collision? The trains are on the
same track headed in opposite direction ( i.e. directly towards each other )
a. 2 km b.4 km c. 3.5 km d. 2.5 km

31. In one hour , a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5km/hr against the stream. The speed of
the boat in still water (in km/hr) is

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A. 3 km/hr B. 5 km/hr C. 8 km/hr D. 9 km/hr

32. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the
same distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?

A. 4 km/hr B. 6 km/hr C. 8 km/hr D. 5 km/hr


33. A boat covers a certain distance downstream in 1 hour, while it comes back in 1 hours If the
speed of the stream be 3 kmph, what is the speed of the boat in still water ?
A.14 km/hr B. 12 km/hr C. 13 km/hr D.15 km/hr

34. In one hour , A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km
along the current in 10 minutes . How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water ?
A. 40 mins B. 1 hour C. 1 hour 15 mins D. 1 hour 30 mins

35. A man takes twice as long to grow a distance against the stream as to row the same distance in
favor of the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still water) and the stream is:
A. 2:1 B. 3:1 C. 3:2 D. 4:3

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SIMPLE INTEREST AND COMPOUND INTEREST

1. Find simple interest on a principal of 7500rs at an interest of 11% per annum.


a. 735rs b. 825rs c. 850rs d.780rs

2. A man borrowed 15000 Rs at 24% per annum simple interest .To clear the debt after 5 years, find
the final amount he must return.
a. 18000rs b. 36000rs c. 33000rs d. 42000rs

3. A sum at SI of 4% per annum amounts to 3120rs in 5 years. Find sum.


a. 3600 rs b. 2800 rs c. 2600 rs d. None

4. A man borrowed 12000rs at 10% per annum and lent the same amount to another person at 15% per
annum. Find his profit after 5 years
a.1800rs b. 3000rs c. 2000rs d. 2400rs

5. A sum of money at SI amounts to 815rs in 3 years and 854rs in 4years. Find sum.
a. 698rs b. 458rs c. 678rs d. 360rs

6. A sum of money amounts to 4320rs in 4years at 5% simple interest. Find sum.


a.3200rs b.3600rs c. 4200rs d. 4800rs

7. How much time will it take for an amount of 450rs to yield 81rs at an interest of 4% per annum.
a.4.5yrs b. 5yrs c. 5.5yrs d. 6yrs

8. A sum of money doubles itself in 7 years. In how many years it becomes four-fold, if it is calculated
at SI?
a. 35 years b. 28 years c. 14 years d. 21 years

9. A sum of money doubles every 8 years. Find rate of interest.


a. 15% b. 12% c. 12.5% d.20%

10. At what rate of interest will a sum of money triple itself in 8 years.
a. 10% b. 25% c. 14% d. 15%

11. Find compound interest for a sum of 2,00,000rs at a rate of 5% per annum for 2years.
a. 20000rs b.10500rs c. 20500rs d. 12800rs

12. Find compound interest for a sum of 800rs at a rate of 10% per annum for 3years.
a. 265.8rs b.264.8rs c. 205.8rs d. 278.6rs

13. Find compound interest on 1 lakh at 10% per annum for 3 years.
a.33000rs b.33100rs c.33300rs d.30000rs

14. Sum of 6000rs is deposited for 3 years at 5% per annum compounded annually. Find difference
of interest for 2nd and 3rd year.
a.330.75rs b. 330.25rs c.330rs d. 335.75rs

15. Find compound interest for a sum of 1000rs at a rate of 10% per annum for 1year compounded
biannually.

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a. 105rs b. 103rs c. 102.5rs d. 110.5rs

16. Find compound interest for a sum of 1 lakh rs at a rate of 20% per annum for 2years compounded
biannually.
a.45410rs b.46410rs c.46510rs d.46420rs

17. Find compound interest on 12000rs for 9 months at 20% per annum compounded quarterly
a. 1720rs b. 1610rs c. 1881.5rs d. 1891.5rs

18. The difference between the simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2
years at 15% p. a. is Rs. 45. Find the sum.
a. Rs. 2700 b. Rs. 2500 c. Rs. 2000 d. None

19. Find compound interest if a man borrowed 9 lakhs at 36% per annum for 2 months compounded
monthly.
a.57800rs b. 57900rs c.54810rs d. 58810rs

20. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of
money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:
a.625rs b.620rs c.630rs d.640rs

21. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest
of
Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
a.2160rs b.3120rs c.3972rs d.6240rs

22. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is:
a.2yrs b.2.5yrs c.3yrs d.4yrs

23. At what rate of compound interest per annum will a sum of Rs. 1200 become Rs. 1348.32 in 2 years?
a. 6% b. 6.5% c. 7% d. 7.5%

24. Albert invested an amount of Rs. 8000 in a fixed deposit scheme for 2 years at compound interest
rate 5 % p.a.
How much amount will Albert get on maturity of the fixed deposit?
a. 8600rs b. 8620rs c. 8820rs d. none

25. Simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 8% per annum is half the compound interest
on Rs. 4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum placed on simple interest is
a. 1550rs b. 1650rs c. 1750rs d.2000rs

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PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATIONS
1. Factorial Notation:
Let n be a positive integer. Then, factorial n, denoted n! is defined as:
n! = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... 3.2.1.
Examples:
i. We define 0! = 1.

ii. 4! = (4 x 3 x 2 x 1) = 24.

iii. 5! = (5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1) = 120.

2. Permutations:

The different arrangements of a given number of things by taking some or all at a time, are called
permutations.
Examples:
i. All permutations (or arrangements) made with the letters a, b, c by taking two at a time are
(ab, ba, ac, ca, bc, cb).
ii. All permutations made with the letters a, b, c taking all at a time are:
( abc, acb, bac, bca, cab, cba)

3. Number of Permutations:
Number of all permutations of n things, taken r at a time, is given by:

Pr = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... (n - r + 1) =


n n!
(n - r)!
Examples:
i. 6
P2 = (6 x 5) = 30.
ii. 7
P3 = (7 x 6 x 5) = 210.

4. An Important Result:
If there are n subjects of which p1 are alike of one kind; p2 are alike of another kind; p3 are alike of third
kind and so on and pr are alike of rth kind,
such that (p1 + p2 + ... pr) = n.
n!
Then, number of permutations of these n objects is =
(p1!).(p2)!.....(pr!)
5. Combinations:
Each of the different groups or selections which can be formed by taking some or all of a number of
objects is called a combination.
Examples:

a. Suppose we want to select two out of three boys A, B, C. Then, possible selections are
AB, BC and CA.

Note: AB and BA represent the same selection.


b. All the combinations formed by a, b, c taking ab, bc, ca.
c. The only combination that can be formed of three letters a, b, c taken all at a time is abc.

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d. Various groups of 2 out of four persons A, B, C, D are:
b) AB, AC, AD, BC, BD, CD.
a. Note that ab ba are two different permutations but they represent the same combination.

Number of Combinations:
The number of all combinations of n things, taken r at a time is:
n! n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... to r factors
n
Cr = = .
(r!)(n - r)! r!
Note:
. n
Cn = 1 and nC0 = 1.
i. n
Cr = nC(n - r)
Examples:
(11 x 10 x 9 x 8)
i. 11C4 = = 330.
(4 x 3 x 2 x 1)
16 x 15 x 14 16 x 15 x 14
ii. 16C13 = 16C(16 - 13) = 16C3 = = = 560.
3! 3x2x1

1. EDUCATION
How many 9 lettered words can be formed
I. Words starting with E
a.9! b.8! c.9P8 d.9C8
II. Letters E and N at extreme positions
a.9! b.7! c.7! *2 d.9C7
III. Letters ‘A’ and ‘T’ always together
a.8! b.8! *2! c.9! *2! d.7!
IV. Letters ‘C’, ’A’, ’T’ always together
a.7! *2! b.7! *3! c.6! *3! d.7!
V. Word CAT visible in the 9 lettered word
a.7! b.7! *3! c.8! *2! d.8! *3!
VI. All vowels together
a.4! *4! b.5! *4! c.5! *5! d.5!
VII. Letters ‘A’ and ‘T’ never together
a.8! *2! b.9! -8! *2! c.9P7 d.7! *2!

2. How many 4 letter words with or without meaning, can be formed out of the letters of the word,
LOGARITHMS if repetition is not allowed?
a.40 b.400 c.5040 d.2520

3. In how many ways can the letters of the word LEADING be arranged so that the vowels always
come together?
a.360 b.480 c.720 d.5040

4. How many 4 digits numbers can be formed using 1,2,3,4,5,6,7


I. With repetition
a.840 b.2401 c.1020 d.720
II. Without repetition
a.840 b.2401 c.1020 d.720

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5. How many 3 digit numbers can be formed greater than 400 using digits 2, 3, 4, 0, 5, 6 without
repetition.
a.120 b.150 c.160 d.60

6. How many 4 digits numbers can be formed using 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 divisible by 5 without repetition .
a.60 b.120 c.30 d.180

7. How many 4 digit numbers can be formed from 1,2,3,4,5 divisible by 3 (without repetition) .
a.60 b.24 c.48 d.120

8. In how many ways can a class representative be selected from a class of 10 boys and 8 girls .
a.18 b.10 c.8 d.80

9. In how many ways can a boy representative and a girl representative be selected from a class of
10 boys and 8 girls.
a.18 b.10 c.8 d.80

10. There are 6 MCQ’s in an exam. How many sequence of answers are possible if first 3 questions
have 4 choices and next 3 questions have 5 choices.
a.43*53 b.34*35 c.45*54 d.65

11. 5 people entered a lift on ground floor of a 7 floor house and each of them can leave the lift
independently at any floor beginning with the first. Find the total number of ways each of the 5
people can leave
I. at any one of the floors
a.57 b.75 c.49 d.81

II. at different floors


a.57 b.75 c.2520 d.5250

12. In how many ways can 5 prizes be given away to 4 boys when each boy is eligible for all the
prizes .
a.54 b.45 c.5! d.4!

13. In how many ways can 5 letters be posted in 3 post boxes, if any number of letters can be posted
in all 3 post boxes.
a.35 b.53 c.5! d.3!

14. In how many ways can a committee of 5 members be selected out of 7 men and 6 women having
at least 3 men.
a.564 b.645 c.735 d.756

15. In a party there are 12 people. How many handshakes are possible if every person handshakes
with every other person (no handshake with the same person and no handshake with yourself.
a.72 b.60 c.66 d.48

16. 8 teams participated in IPL 2018 where each team played against each other twice. Find the total
number of matches played.
a.56 b.66 c.88 d.78

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17. If there are 6 friends who gave each other a gift, find the total number of exchanges.
a.15 b.30 c.60 d.90

18. How many triangles can be formed by joining vertices of a hexagon.


a.20 b.15 c.9 d.30

19. How many diagonals can be formed by joining vertices of a hexagon.


a.20 b.15 c.9 d.30

20. Out of 8 consonants and 5 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels be formed (
No repetition).
a.560 b.560*5! c.5! d.720

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PROBABILITY

1. Experiment:
An operation which can produce some well-defined outcomes is called an experiment.

2. Random Experiment:
An experiment in which all possible outcomes are know and the exact output cannot be predicted in
advance, is called a random experiment.
Examples:

a. Rolling an unbiased dice.


b. Tossing a fair coin.
c. Drawing a card from a pack of well-shuffled cards.
d. Picking up a ball of certain colour from a bag containing balls of different colours.

DETAILS
a. When we throw a coin, then either a Head (H) or a Tail (T) appears.
b. A dice is a solid cube, having 6 faces, marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 respectively. When we throw a die,
the outcome is the number that appears on its upper face.
c. A pack of cards has 52 cards.
i. It has 13 cards of each suit, name Spades, Clubs, Hearts and Diamonds.
ii. Cards of spades and clubs are black cards.
iii. Cards of hearts and diamonds are red cards.
iv. There are 4 honours of each unit.
v. There are Kings, Queens and Jacks. These are all called face cards.

3. Sample Space:
When we perform an experiment, then the set S of all possible outcomes is called the sample space.
Examples:

a. In tossing a coin, S = {H, T}


b. If two coins are tossed, the S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}.
c. In rolling a dice, we have, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.
4. Event:
Any subset of a sample space is called an event.

5. Probability of Occurrence of an Event:

Let S be the sample and let E be an event.

Then, E S.
n(E)
P(E) = .
n(S)

6. Results on Probability:

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a. P(S) = 1
b. 0 P (E) 1
c. P( ) = 0
d. For any events A and B we have : P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A B)
e. If A denotes (not-A), then P(A) = 1 - P(A).

1. A bag has 5 green balls and 3 blue balls ,If 3 balls are picked at random, what is the probability of
having 2 green and 1 blue ball?
a.16/29 b.15/28 c.12/29 d.17/33

2. A bag has 2 red,3 green balls and 2 blue balls. If 2 balls are picked at random, what is the
probability that none of the balls drawn are blue?
a.10/21 b.11/21 c.2/7 d.5/7

3. In a box, there are 8 red,7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked at random. What is the
probability that it is neither red nor green?
a.1/3 b.3/4 c.7/19 d.8/21

4. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting Sum more than 7?
a.17/36 b.15/36 c.16/36 d.18/36

5. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting both the throws having
the same values?
a.1/3 b.1/2 c.1/6 d.1/8

6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting First throw prime number
and second throw composite number?
a.1/2 b.1/4 c.1/6 d.1/8

7. Find the probability of drawing a ‘ Red Ace ‘ from a pack of 52 cards.


a.1/26 b.1/52 c.1/13 d.1/11

8. 2 cards are drawn at random. Find the probability that both the cards are kings.
a.1/221 b.1/169 c.1/13 d.none

9. 1 cards is drawn at random. Find the probability that it is king or diamond card.
a.1/8 b.4/13 c.17/52 d.15/52

10. Find the probability that a leap year chosen at random will have 53 Sundays.
a.2/7 b.1/7 c.2/49 d.1/49

11. Find the probability that a leap year chosen at random will have 53 Sundays and 53 Saturdays.
a.2/7 b.1/7 c.3/7 d.1/49

12. Find the probability that a leap year chosen at random will have 53 Mondays or 53 Tuesdays .
a.2/7 b.1/7 c.4/7 d.3/7

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13. The letters of the word LUCKNOW are arranged among themselves. Find the probability of
always having NOW in the word.
a.1/44 b.1/42 c.1/56 d.1/48

14. When the coin is tossed 4 times, what is the probability that head appears exactly twice?
a.1/2 b.3/8 c.5/8 d.7/8

15. Out of 13 applicants for a job, there are 5 women and 8 men. Two people are to be selected for
the job. The probability that at least one of the selected person will be a woman is
a.20/39 b.25/39 c.9/37 d.30/47

16. The probability that A can solve the problem is 2/3 and B is 3/4 . If both of them attempt, then
what is the probability that the problem gets solved
a.1/4 b.1/3 c.2/3 d.1/2

17. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads?
a.3/4 b.1/4 c.3/8 d.7/8

18. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
a.1/2 b.2/5 c.8/15 d.9/20

19. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability
that the ball drawn is white??
a.3/4 b.4/7 c.1/8 d.3/7

20. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose
product is even?
a.1/2 b.3/4 c.3/8 d.5/16

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BLOOD RELATIONS

 Mother’s (or) father’s son – Brother  Husband’s (or) Wife’s father – Father in
 Mother’s (or) Father’s Daughter – Sister law
 Mother’s brother – Maternal Uncle  Husband’s (or) Wife’s mother – Mother in
 Father’s Brother – Paternal uncle law
 Mother’s (or) Father’s sister – Aunt  Husband’s (or) Wife’s brother – Brother in
 Mother’s (or) Father’s father – Grand father law
 Mother’s (or) Father’s mother – Grand  Husband’s (or) Wife’s sister – Sister in law
mother  Sister’s husband – Brother in law
 Son’s wife – Daughter in law  Brother’s (or) Sister’s son – Nephew
 Daughter’s husband – Son in law  Brother’s (or) Sister’s daughter – Niece

1. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “ I have no brother or sister, but that man’s father is my father’s
son”. Whose photograph was it?
a. His own b. His son’s c. His father’s d. His nephew’s

2. Anil introduces Rohit as a son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Rohit related to Anil?
a. Cousin b. Son c. Uncle d. Son in law

3. Pointing to a man on the stage , Rita said “ he is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my
husband”. How is the man on the stage related to Rita?
a. Cousin b. Son c. Husband d. Brother in law

4. Showing the man receiving the prize Saroj said “ he is the brother of my uncle’s daughter”. Who is
the man to Saroj?
a. Cousin b. Son c. Uncle d. Brother in law

5. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “ his mother is the only daughter of my mother”. How is woman
related to the man?
a. Mother b. Daughter c. Sister d. Grandmother

6. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his friend, “She is the granddaughter of the elder brother of
my father.” How is the girl in the photograph related to his man?
a. Niece b. Daughter c. Sister d. Sister in law

7. A man said to a lady “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is the lady related to the
man?
a. Mother b. Daughter c. Sister d. Aunt

8. Rita told Mani, “ The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest daughter of the brother-in-
law of my friend’s mother”. How is the girl related to Rita’s friend?
a. Niece b. Daughter c. Cousin d. Aunt

9. A man pointing to a photograph says, “The lady in the photograph is my nephew’s maternal
grandmother”. How is the lady in the photograph related to the man’s sister who has no other sister?

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a. Sister in law b. Mother c. Mother in law d. Cannot be determined

10. Pointing to a lady, a man said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. How is the
lady related to the man?
a. Mother’s sister b. Sister of father-in-law c. Mother in law d. Grandmother

11. A’s father’s mother-in-law’s only daughter’s son is B. How is A related to B?


a. Brother b. Sister c. Niece d. Cannot be
determined

12. Pointing to an old man, Kailash said, “ His son is my son’s uncle. "How is the old man related to
Kailash?
a. Brother b. Uncle c. Father d. Grand father

13. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C?
a. Grandfather b. Father c. Brother in law d. Uncle

14. A is the mother of B.C is the son of A.D is the brother of E.E is the daughter of B. The grandmother
of D is?
a. A b. B c. E d. Cannot be determined

15. If A’s father is B, C is the father of B and D is A’s mother, then How is C related to D?
a. Father b. Grandfather c. Father in law d. Uncle

16. A+B means A is the son of B.


A-B means A is the daughter of B.
A*B means A is the father of B.
A/B means A is the mother of B.
If M * N + O - P / Q, then how is M related to Q?
a. Husband b. Uncle c. Cousin d. Brother in law

 There is a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. They are Lawyer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman,
Engineer and Accountant. There are two married couples in the family. D, the salesman is married to
the lady teacher. The doctor is married to the lawyer. F, the Accountant is the son of B and brother of
E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of A. E is the unmarried Engineer. A is the grandmother of F.

17. How is E related to F?


a. Brother b. Sister c. Cousin d. Cannot be
determined

18. What is the profession of B?


a. Teacher b. Doctor c. Lawyer d. Cannot be
determined

19. Which of the following are married couples?


a. F, D b. D, B c. E, A d. None

20. How is D related to F?


a. Grandfather b. Father c. Brother d. Uncle

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CODING AND DECODING

1. WOULD IS WRITTEN AS VNTKC. MARGIN IS WRITTEN AS LZQFHM.HOLD IS


WRITTEN AS?
a.GNKC b.IMKC c.GNKE d.GMKC

2. ROBUST IS CODED AS QNATRS. ZXCMP IS CODED AS ?


a.YVBLO b.YWBLO c.YWDNQ d.XWBLO

3. LATE IS CODED AS 38. MAKE IS CODED AS?


a.33 b.32 c.31 d.30

4. NSO PTR KLI CHN  Sharma gets marriage gift.


PTR LNM WOP CHN Wife gives marriage gift
TTI WOP NHI  He gives nothing.
GIVES??
a.WOP b.KLI c.CHN d.LNM

5. POSE  OQNPRTDF. TYPE 


a. SUXZOQFD b. SUXZQOFD c. SUXZOQDF d. SUXZQODE

6. SCIENCE UFMJTJM. GENE


a. HGQI b. IHRJ c. IHRI d. IHSJ

7. If OLYMPICS  PMZNOHBR. COMPUTER 


a. DPNQVUFS b. DPNQTSFQ c. DPNQTSDQ d. BNLOTSDQ

8. SUGAR RPKLU. GURUS 


a. KPUPR b. RPVPR c. LKRKP d. PKVKR

9. BRASS  63516. SIR 


a.631 b. 315 c. 536 d. 617

10. HINDU  61257. MAN  924. INDIRA 


a. 454626 b. 594921 c. 452787 d. 884572

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VERBAL ABILITY

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Root Words

•Arch – rule (Monarch, Demography, Democracy,


A/An – not, without Anarchy, Patriarchy, Pandemic, Epidemic,
Amoral, Asymmetrical, Matriarchy) Endemic
Anarchy, Anonymity, Bene/Bon – good, well •Eu- good,well
Anhydrous Benefit, Benevolent, Euphoria, Euphony (x
•Ami – love, friend Beneficial, Benign, Cacophony),
Amiable, Amicable, Amity, Benediction, Beneficiary, Euthanasia, Eulogy
Amigo, Amateur Benefactor, Bonus, Bon Fid- faith, trust
Ali/Altr/Alter – other, voyage, Bona fide, Bonanza Confident, Diffident, Fidelity,
another Cogn – know Infidelity
Alien, Alias, Alteration, Recognition, Cognizant, Gen- birth, class, kin
Alternate, Alternative Incognizant Generation, Congenital,
•Ambi/Amphi - both Carn - flesh Homogeneous,
Ambiguous, Ambivalence, Incarnation, Reincarnation, Heterogeneous, Progeny,
Ambidextrous, Ambivert, Carnivore, Carnage Genocide, Genetics,
Amphibian, •Crac/Crat- rule, •Grad/Gress – go, yield
Anti – opposite, against Democracy, Autocrat, Graduate, Gradual, Gradient,
Antidote, Antipathy Theocracy Degrade, Upgrade,
Anthrop - mankind •Cred – belief, trust Retrograde, Progress,
Anthropology, Misanthrope, Credible, Incredible, Creed, Regress, Digress, Retrogress,
Philanthropic Credit, Discredit, Credentials Congress, Transgress, Egress,
•Auto - self Cide – kill Ingress
•Aud - hear Genocide, Homicide
•Aqua – water Demos - people

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Graph/Gram - write Neo/Nov-new
Biography, Autobiography, Bibliography, Novice, Innovate, Renovate, Novel
Diagram Omni – all
Homo – same, human Omnipotent, Omnivore, Omniscient,
•Hetero- different Omnipresent
•Hyper – over Pre - before
•Hypo – under Predict, Precede, Presage, Prefer
•Hydro – water Pan – all
Inter/ It – between, among Panacea, Panaroma, Pandemic, Pantheistic
Interfere, Intervene, Intern, Interim Scrib, Scrip, Scriv – write
•Intra - within Scribe, Scribble, Ascribe, Prescribe,
Introspect Proscribe, Describe, Inscribe, Transcribe,
Jud - judge Circumscribe, Manuscript
Judgmental, Judiciary, Judicious, Sens/Sent- feel, think
Prejudice Assent, Dissent, Consent, Resent,
•Jur/Jus – law, right Consensus
Jury, Jurisdiction Spect/Spic – see, look
Mal - bad Spectacles, Spectacle, Spectacular,
Malady, Malice, Malevolent, Maleficent, Inspect, Aspect, Respect, Circumspect,
Malicious, Malign Prospect, Perspective, Spectator
Path – feelings, emotions Tempor – time Temporary,
Sympathy, Empathy, Apathy, Antipathy, Contemporary, Temporal, Extempore
Pathos, Pathetic

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VERBAL ABILITY 1 – SYNONYMS, ANTONYMS ( RPS METHOD)

SYNONYMS

Directions for questions 1 to 10: For each word given below, choose from among the choices, the word which
means the same (synonym), as your answer.

1. ACUMEN 8. DOCTRINE

(1) Insight (2) Ignorance (3) Apathy (1) Credo (2) Incredible (3) Learned

(4) Assurance (5) Amalgamation (4) Savant (5) Speculate

2. PRESCIENT 9. EUPHORIA

(1) Announce (2) Confirm (3) Contradict (1) Doleful (2) Joyous (3) Slothful

(4) Foretell (5) Terrify (4) Circumspect (5) Congenital

3. AMIABLE 10.PROGENY

(1) Hostile (2) Amicable (3) Critic (1) Offspring (2) Ancestor (3) Acme

(4) Benevolent (5) Malevolent (4)Precede (5) Antecede

4. BENIGN ANTONYMS

(1) Noxious (2) Toxic (3) Malicious Directions for questions 11 to 20 : Each question has
a word followed by five choices. From the choices,
(4) Harmless (5) Timid identify the one which is opposite in meaning
5. SENILE (antonym) to the main word and mark its number as
your answer.
(1) Senescent (2) Mature (3) Juvenile
11. EXCULPATE
(4) Octogenarian (5) Adolescent
(1) Acquit (2) Convict (3) Pardon
6. REINCARNATION
(4) Absolve (5) Culprit
(1) Carnage (2) Rebirth (3) Carnivore
12. HOMOGENEOUS
(4) Regress (5) Retrogress
(1) Disparate (2)Discard (3) Heterodox
7. GENOCIDE
(4) Indistinguishable (5) Generic
(1) Suicide (2) Homicide (3) Massacre
13. AUTOCRACY
(4) Antigen (5) Senicide
(1) Dictatorship (2) Tyranny (3) Monarch

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(4) Democracy (5) Theocracy (4) Defame

14. PATRIARCHY

(1) Patricide (2) Matron (3) Patron 22. PATRON

(4) Matriarchy (5) Hierarchy (1) Sponsor (2)Pacifist (3) Customer

15. NOVICE (4) Libertarian

(1) Neophyte (2) Amateur (3) Veteran 23. MEMOIR

(4) Newbie (5) Greenhorn (1) Autobiography (2) Chronicle (3) Annals

16. OMNISCIENT (4) Record

(1) Ignorant (2)Sagacious (3) Oracle 24.ACUTE

(4) Omnipresent (5) Rare (1) Dolt (2)Severe (3) Obtuse

17. RETROSPECTION (4) Astute

(1) Hindsight (2) Nostalgic (3) Prescience 25. BENIGN

(4) Infallible (5) Introspection (1) Harmless (2) Innocent (3) Kind

18.PHILANTHROPY (4) Malign

(1) Misanthropy (2)Bibliophile (3) Philology Directions for questions 25 to 30: In each question,
four words are given. Two of the words may be either
(4) Philosophy (5) Misogyny synonyms or antonyms. Identify the correct synonym
or antonym pair.
19. PACIFY

(1) Embargo (2) Enrage (3) Soothe 26. (1) Urbane (2) Insomnia

(4) Pact (5) Salvage (3) Rustic (4) Ridicule

27. (1) Seasoned (2) Garnish


20. CONSENSUS

(1) Unanimity (2)Discord (3) Assent (3) Grateful (4) Expert

28. (1) Analogy (2) Monologue


(4) Ascent (5) Transcend

CONTEXTUAL USAGE (3) Dialogue (4) Prologue

29. (1) Dissent (2) Ascent


Directions for questions 21 to 25: Select all the
options which are synonyms (could be in different (3) Appropriate (4) Discord
contexts) of the question word.
30. (1) Paucity (2) Confluence
21. SANCTION
(3) Stipend (4) Dearth
(1) Penalty (2) Degrade (3) Approve

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COLLOCATION

Directions for question 31 and 32: Four capitalized words and four choices are given. From among the choices
identify the word that can be associated with all the four capitalized words.

31. BOLT, STRUCK, STORM, FLASH

(1) thunder (2) head (3) strong (4) bright

32. TEA, FINGERS, HOUSE, JADE

(1) pink (2) black (3) light (4) green

CONTEXTUAL USAGE

Directions for question 33: In the question, the word at the top is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4.
Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

33. LINE

(1) There is a fine line between the actual situation and the apparent situation.

(2) This movie is the latest in a long line of action movies he has directed.

(3) The rail track was blocked because a tree had fallen across the line.

(4) Are you on the line for a promotion?

ODD MAN OUT

Directions for questions 34 and 35: From the four words given below identify the one which does not belong to
the category of the other three. Mark the letter corresponding with the odd one as your answer.

34. (A) Equine (B) Vulpine (C) Supine (D) Leonine

34. (A) Ode (B) Elegy (C) Sonnet (D) Essay

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VERBAL ABILITY II

Directions for questions 1 to 10: For each word given below, choose from among the choices, the word
which means the same (synonym), as your answer.

1. FAD 6. ANTIPATHY
- Quick - Malice
- Vague - affinity
- Vogue - pseudonym
- Slow - antithesis

2. PANACEA 7. GENOCIDE
- Wonder - massacre
- Elixir - cheerfulness
- Placebo - technique
- Honey - abstraction

3. FAMISHED 8. ORTHODOX
- Agricultural - conventional
- Hungry - heterodox
- Prestigious - splenic
- Feasible - ugly

4. ZEST 9. PROCLIVITY
- Humour - senicide
- Keen Interest - cognizance
- Attitude - predilection
- Liking - tyranny

5. NEOPHYTE 10. ADJUDICATE


- beginner - ascent
- experienced - affirm
- veteran - attach
- learned - judge

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Directions for questions 11 to 20 : Each question has a word followed by five choices. From the
choices, identify the one which is opposite in meaning (antonym) to the main word and mark its number
as your answer.

11. CORPOREAL 16. ATHEIST


- choleric - believer
- spiritual - agnostic
- autocratic - anarchist
- bona fide - unbeliever

12. MALADROIT 17. GREGARIOUS


- skilled - unsociable
- dramatic - extrovert
- inexpert - ambivert
- indecent - ambidextrous

13. MOLLIFY 18. PROTRACT


- aggravate - elongate
- soothe - extend
- calm - contract
- composed - contrive

14. ZENITH 19. CIRCUMSPECT


- summit - cautious
- pinnacle - reckless
- apex - wary
- nadir - patient

15. EGRESS 20. PACIFIC


- attack - peaceful
- exit - turbulent
- conduct - soothing
- enter - tranquil

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Directions for questions 21 to 25: Each question has a word followed by five choices. One of the
choices, when properly arranged, gives the meaning of the word. Identify the correct choice and mark
its number as your answer.

21. DISPEL
a) UPSPLY
b) SHABIN
c) LEGPURS
d) RESQUAND

22. PROXY
a) PUDETY
b) MENEY
c) REALDE
d) YALL

23. MALIGN
a) BOEY
b) CROPTET
c) FAMEDE
d) DEMONNC

24. AUGMENT
a) ZISEE
b) SIERA
c) LADEY
d) TINH

25. BECKON
a) CASEH
b) GISLAN
c) PUDE
d) HECAT

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Directions for questions 26 to 30: Each question has four jumbled words. Pick the word that does not belong to the
group.

26. mgale, sgols, glint, kard

27. xogyen, roin, percop, evsilr

28. nabana, hrcery, ipartoc, illych

29. mcuin, preepp, iemturrc, toac

30. olgomy, ynnsu, oymstr, cdouly

IDIOMS

31. In a tight spot c) Suffered due to his foolishness

a) A difficult situation d) Grudged his fate

b) A state of terror
35. Putting the cart before the horse
c) A profitable position
a) Getting excited
d) A political bias
b) Doing things in the wrong order

32. Like chalk and cheese c) Hoping for something

a) Filled with hatred d) Travelling in bad weather

b) Ready to help each other


36. When push comes to shove
c) Acting arrogantly
a) When somebody pushes one
d) Completely different
b) When all options are open

33. Lead up the garden path c) When worst is yet to come

a) Take someone for a walk d) When there is no other option

b) Impress someone 37. Be at odds with


c) Ignore someone a) Be similar to
d) Deceive somebody b) Be at variance with
c) Be unfair to
34. Got his fingers badly burnt
d) Be unreasonable with
a) Made more money

b) Injured himself

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38. Being a white elephant

a) useful but difficult to maintain 43. Break a leg

b) useless and costly to maintain a) take a break


c) useful and cheap to maintain b) good luck
d) useful and costly to maintain c) fail in a task
d) cause harm to someone
39. In the long run

a) in the final analysis 44. To have something up one’s sleeve

b) in near future a) to feel worried about a problem


c) over the distant past b) to have a secret plan leading to success
d) over a period of time c) get ready to work hard
d) to spend more money
40. Keep the ball rolling

a) start arguments 45. To dig one’s heels in

b) keep the momentum of an activity going a) to threaten someone


c) make a big mess of things b) to refuse to change one’s opinion
d) solve the problem with ease c) to end a relationship
d) to run
41. Turned the tables on
a) achieved a target
46. To lower one’s guard
b) reversed a situation
a) to deal with a problem successfully
c) controlled a situation
b) to feel confident about something
d) caused a feeling of anxiety
c) to discover something new
42. Set the cat among the pigeons d) to relax when you should be careful and
al
a) create excitement
b) introduce something likely to cause
trouble
c) end a quarrel
d) insist on following the rules

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ANALOGY

Directions for question 6: In the following question a capitalized pair of words is given
followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair of words that best expresses a relationship
similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.

1. Ornithologist : Birds :: Anthropologist : ?


A. Environment
B. Mankind
C. Animals
D. Plants

2. Nurture: Neglect then Denigrate : ?


A. Praise
B. Recognise
C. Reveal
D. Confuse

3. Comprehend: Unintelligible
A. Swallow: Edible
B. Avoid: Risky
C. Accumulate: Insignificant
D. Control: Ungovernable

4. Cloud: Silver Lining then Rose: ?


A. Flower
B. Leaf
C. Petal
D. Thorn

5. Scribble: Write :: Stammer : ?

A. walk
B. play
C. dance

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D. speak

6. Shed: Hair ::

A. shear : wool
B. molt :skin
C. stimulate : nerve
D. fracture : bone

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VERBAL ABILITY III

Directions for questions 1 to 5: The following questions consists of a single sentence with one blank. You have to
select two words from the options, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.
1. The government and the opposition in Venezuela agreed to hold talks to __________ weeks of violence in the
country.
a) Justify d) Clarity
b) Resolve e) Achieve
c) Explain f) Fix

2. Bio-metric security doesn’t _________ on what you can remember, but who you are.
a) Rely d) Depend
b) Count e) Track
c) Revolve f) Emphasize

3. The more a person knows about financial instruments and opportunities, the better his ability to
______ his hard-earned money.
a) Supervise d) Support
b) Guide e) Safeguard
c) Protect f) Revere

4. The first step towards planning finances for a family is __________ out the actual income of the
family.
a) Counting d) Figuring
b) Sorting e) Estimating
c) Summing f) Calculating

5. The vast ocean of Bharatiya Sangeetham is a/an __________ of the two great streams of music,
Hindustani and Carnatic
a) Confluence d) Congress
b) Garnering e) Gathering
c) Assembly f) Unison

Directions for questions 6 to 8: The following questions consists of a single sentence with two
blanks. You have to select the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.

6. Doctors must ________ heartburn and acidity pills in the lowest possible doses and for the
shortest time to ______ potential side effects.
a) Prescribe ……… ward off
b) Render ……… exalt
c) Transcribe ….. prevent
d) Encourage ……. Rule out
e) Impede ……… avert

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7. Ajay’s film Parched _______ the story of four women in a village who throw off the traditions
that hold them in __________.
a) Deals with ….. esteem
b) Narrates ….. servitude
c) Recounts …… honour
d) Disbands ….. fetters
e) Debunks ….. shackles

8. Unlike modern works, The Gita isn’t __________ , some ideas are scattered over several
chapters, and many ideas are constantly _________.
a) Linear …. repeated
b) Sequential ….. cuddled
c) Vague ….. dislocated
d) Orderly … enumerated
e) Resilient …. Distinguished

Directions for questions 9 and 10: The following questions consists of two sentences with one blank
each. You have to select an option which best fits both the blanks.

9. I . He is a jovial, relaxed man, but always puts on a serious __________ for strangers.
II. The general sent fresh troops to the _________.
a) Battlefield
b) Front
c) Border
d) Attitude
e) Demeanor

10. I. He was a _______ student in the whole class.


II. There has been a _______ increase in crimes against properties.
a) instructed
b) marked
c) mischievous
d) directed
e) addressed

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VERBAL ABILITY 4

ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION: Match the word with its meaning

MEANING WORD
1. One who can use either hand with ease a) Egotist
2. A critical judge of any art and craft b) Utopia
3. One who often talks of his achievements c) Anarchy
4. One who studies the evolution of mankind d) Euphemism
5. A state of disorder due to absence of authority e) Connoisseur
6. Fear or hatred of books f) Bibliophobia
7. Incapable of making mistakes or being wrong g) Twitter
8. Misuse of what is regarded sacred h) Autocracy
9. An imaginary ideal society free of poverty and suffering i) Ambidextrous
10.In exactly the same words as were used originally j) Agnostic
11.The sound of birds k) Sacrilege
12.One who is unable to pay his debts l) Anthropologist
13.Having excessive enthusiasm in religious matters m) Verbatim
14.One who is not sure about God’s existence n) Infallible
15.One person rule with absolute power o) Fanatic
16.A polite word for something shocking p) Insolvent

Alumni Frugal Protégé


Compatriot Lectern Scholar
Confidant Mentor Spendthrift
Counsellor Monologue Stingy
Dialogue Novice Versatile
Escort Orthodox
Expatriate Podium

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1. A person who is able to adapt to different functions or activities

2. A learned/ knowledgeable person

3. A beginner/ inexperienced person

4. A person who is unwilling to spend money

5. A person who spends money carefully / endeavors to save money

6. A person who wastes money/ resources

7. An advocate/ adviser

8. A person with whom one shares one's problems or secrets

9. A dias/ stage/ raised platform

10. A tall stand with a sloping top to hold a book/ laptop

11. A person who follows established traditions or practices

12. A two- way conversation

13. A one - way conversation

14. A person who accompanies you or shows you the way around a place

15. A fellow citizen

16. A person who lives outside one's home country

17. An experienced and trusted adviser/ guide

18. The student of a mentor

19. A graduate or former student

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Sentence Correction 1

Fill the table with the singular/ plural forms of these words

Singular Plural Singular Plural Singular Plural


Information Trousers Wife
Furniture Spectacles Potato
Luggage Socks Aircraft
Machinery Phenomenon
Advice Fish Crisis
Public Deer Sister-In-
Person Child Law
Pants Half Managing
Scissors Life Director

Sentence Correction

1. The jury were divided in its verdict.

2. Mr James Smith is from Republic of Ireland.

3. I requested her to add three spoonsful of sugar to my tea.

4. She has invited all her brother-in-laws to her parent-in-laws wedding anniversary.

5. There’s a 10-feet pole in front of the building.

6. There are 10 gold fishes in my aquarium.

7. Each of the 4000 workers were given a bonus.

8. Everyone among the 100 boys has received their gift.

9. I ate two breads yesterday.

10. There are so many waste papers on your table.

11. He is _____ M.L.A. (a/an)

12. He has _____ M.A from the University of Mysore. (a/an)

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13. He gave me _____ one-rupee coin. (a/an)

14. This is _____ unique idea. (a/an)

15. The postman delivered many letters this morning but neither of them was for me.

16. My garden yields more fruits than he.

17. I, you and he are to be applauded on his achievement.

18. He, you and I committed a mistake and we must apologize.

19. She earns more than her husband.

20. I went to the office early enough but could not meet either of my three friends.

21. He is taller than me.

22. She is smarter than him.

23. They earn more than us.

24. Someone left their luggage at the airport.

25. It was me who called you yesterday.

26. Either Usha or Shravanthi have forgotten their hall ticket at home.

27. Each of these boys play cricket well.

28. We all did not go to the meeting.

29. Have you got a pen? I haven’t got.

30. Your problem is bigger than me.

31. Who is this letter addressed to?

32. The three students are competing with each other to win the competition.

Choose the correct option from the brackets to fill in the blanks.

1. If this dog were _______, I would teach it to fetch the morning newspaper. (my/mine)

2. __________ should I address this letter to? (Who/Whom)

3. The union voiced __________ opposition to the management’s proposal. (their/its)

4. ______ your responsibility to report such matters to the concerned authority. (It’s / Its)

5. If we want to function together as a team, we must learn to respect ________

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In each sentence, mark the part with any grammatical error as your answer. If there is no error, mark

‘No error’ as your answer.

1. Anil’s and Sunil’s / bakery that is four blocks / away, makes / delicious cakes. / No error

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

2. Lesser tourists have / been visiting Syria in the recent past / due to the civil war that / has been raging

(1) (2) (3) (4)

there relentlessly. / No error.

(5)

3. He is so good at / playing violin that he has been / selected to play / in the school orchestra. / No error

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

4. Only men with / five years teaching experience / are eligible / for this post. / No error

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

5. Academic ability is / not the only criteria on / which a person is selected by / a quality business school.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

/ No error

(5)

Select the correct alternative from the given choices to fill/replace the underlined part.

1. Despite the high esteem in which I hold Mr. Coles, I believe that Mr. Smith as well as his

team members ______________________________.

a) is more familiar with the company's cash disbursements than him 


b) are more familiar with the company's cash disbursements than him 


c) is more familiar with the company's cash disbursements than he 


d) are more familiar with the company's cash disbursements than he

2. The CEO and MD of the Company ___________________________.

a) are present in the meeting 


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b) is present in the meeting 


c) were present in the meeting 


3. Designed for users, project managers, and data processing professionals, the book

_______________________ a unique strategy for any system-building project.

a) has provided 


b) provided 


c) provides 


d) will provide 


7. ___________________________, yoga helps develop various functions of the brain.

a) Beside it being a stress buster 


b) Apart from it being a stress buster 


c) Besides being a stress buster 


d) Besides it being a stress buster 


8. Research requires not only motivation but resources too.

a) Research requires not only motivation but resources too. 


b) Research requires not only motivation but resources also. 


c) Research requires not just motivation but resources as well. 


d) Research requires not only motivation but resources as well. 


Which of the phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase in bold to make it
grammatically correct?

1. Tea is more preferable to coffee.


(1) Tea is preferable to coffee.
(2) Tea is preferable than coffee.

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(3) Tea is more preferable than coffee.
(4) No correction required

2. The movie’s last part is full of suspense and succeeds in keeping the viewers on the edges of their
seats.
(1) The movies last part is full of suspense and succeeds
(2) The movie’s last part is full with suspense and succeeds
(3) The last part of the movie is full of suspense and succeeds
(4) No correction required

3. My boss told me that either of these two procedure is good enough to crack the problem.
(1) either of these two procedures are good enough to crack the problem.
(2) either of these procedures is good enough to crack the problem.
(3) either of these two procedures is good enough to crack the problem.
(4) No correction required

4. Social service gives one an opportunity to make a difference to others while also adding meaning to
his own life.
(1) while also add meaning to one’s own life.
(2) while also adding meaning to their own lives.
(3) while also adding meaning to one’s own life.
(4) No correction required

5. Sheela ___________ her mother.


(1) Takes up
(2) Takes after
(3) Takes in
(4) No correction required

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ADJECTIVES
POSITIVE COMPARATIVE SUPERLATIVE
Tall Taller Tallest
Short Shorter Shortest
Smart Smarter Smartest
Intelligent More intelligent Most intelligent
Complete the table
Few
Little
Much
Many
Far
Old
Top
Bottom
Northern
Senior
Junior
Superior
Inferior
Prefer
Unique
Perfect
Ideal
Good
Bad
Tasty
Hard-working
Polite
Well-known
Costly
Expensive
Large
1. This room is more larger than that room. Wrong

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Correct:

2. He is the most busiest person I know. Wrong

Correct:

3. This product is much expensive. Wrong

Correct:

4. This is a two months program. Wrong

Correct:

5. You earn more, you spend more. Wrong

Correct:

ADVERBS

Exercise: Match the Following Verbs With Appropriate Adverbs And Frame Sentences.

VERBS ADVERBS
Sing Carefully
Listen Diligently
Walk Melodiously
Write Neatly
Work Fast

1. Sing:

_________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

2. Listen:

_________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

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3. Walk:

_________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

4. Write:

_________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

5. Work:
_________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________

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Sentence Correction 2

PREPOSITIONS

1. What is the time _____________ your watch?


2. I am aware ______ the details.
3. He is afraid ________ the dark.
4. I will meet you _________ the airport/ railway station/ bus stop.
5. I am standing ______the corner of the street.
6. In am standing ____the corner of the room
7. He walked __________ the room.
8. He entered ________ the room.
9. We entered ____ the agreement.
10. The car is parked _________ the shade of the tree.
11. I have been working here __________ the last six months.
12. I have been living in Bangalore __________ 2006.
13. I moved to Bangalore _______ 2006.
14. The meeting is _________ Monday.
15. Gandhi Jayanti falls ________ the 2nd of October.
16. I am impressed ___________ your work.
17. I agree ________ you.
18. I agree ________ your suggestion.
19. We agree_____ this issue.
20. I am proud ______ my children.
21. I take pride _______ my children’s achievements.
22. Please translate this ________ English.
23. Company X has entered into a partnership _______ Company Y.
24. A leader is responsible ________ the actions of his team.
25. I am accountable/answerable _______ my Manager.
26. I want to talk _______ you.
27. I want to speak _______ you.
28. I live _________. ( near/ nearby)
29. I live __________ the airport. ( near/ nearby)
30. A stranger was sitting _________ me in the bus. ( beside/ besides)
31. _________ dancing, I am also fond of singing. ( Beside / Besides ).
32. A bridge has been built _________ the river. ( along/ across)

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33. The boat is sailing __________ the river. ( along/ across)
34. Divide the chocolate ________ the two children. ( between / among )
35. Divide the chocolate ___________ the three children. ( between / among )
36. He is good _____ tennis.
37. Please fill the form _________ pen/pencil/ink.
38. I came ______ bus/ car/ train.
39. My daughter goes to school ________ foot.
40. Please inform/ notify me _______ the change in timings.
41. You cannot stop me _______________ succeeding in life.
42. With reference ________ your previous mail, please find attached herewith the required documents.
43. Please refer ______ your notes.
44. Please accept this in lieu ______ the services provided.
45. I apologize _______ the delay.
46. He apologized _______ me.
47. I am facing difficulties ________solving the problem.
48. I am facing difficulties _______ the problem.
49. Your request _________ a product replacement has been accepted.
50. I request you to comply _________ the instructions.
51. Please adhere ______ the rules.
52. He reached office _____ time.
53. Please provide me the details ______ this special offer.
54. I insist ________ paying the bill.
55. I am interested _____ your proposal.
56. Sir, you haven’t paid _____ the meal.
57. I need some time to think ______ the proposal.
58. What is wrong ________ the proposal?
59. I am dependent / rely_____ my parents for money.
60. I am independent ______ my parents.
61. India got its independence ________ the Britishers.
62. Please refrain ______ drinking and driving.
63. He died ____ flu.
64. He died _____his injuries.
65. He is suffering _____ flu.
66. _____ the end, I got a visa for Russia.
67. The movie is a bit weak _____ the end.

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68. There is a mistake ____ page 120 ___ the book.
69. Open the book ____ page no. 10
70. The book is divided ____ 3 parts.
71. I dream ____ becoming an actor.
72. He takes ______ his mother.
73. They took _____ the building.
74. I have decided to take _____ this course.
75. He has taken ______gambling.
76. He took ____ the challenge.
77. There is too much information to take ____.
78. I am sorry. I take _____ my words.
79. He took ____ without saying goodbye.
80. Be polite ____everyone
81. Nobody knows the reason _____the accident.
82. I am not very clever _____cooking.
83. I want proof ____your love.
84. Sherry is an example ____a fortified wine.
85. While I was at the airport, I availed myself ___ the Wi-Fi.
86. A British airways plane bound ___ London caught fire.
87. Students must have adequate command __ the English language.
88. You have a good command ___ people.
89. Scientists are bent ____eliminating the concept of God

CONJUNCTIONS

Each question contains two sentences. Join the two sentences (using a conjunction) to frame one coherent sentence.

1. I was late to office. I was stuck in traffic.

Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.

2. Shyam went to the party. His friends decided to accompany him.

Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.

3. I was very nervous at the beginning. I spoke confidently in the meeting.

Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.

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4. The coffee is very cold. I will drink it as I do not have time to order another one.

Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.

5. She is a beautiful girl. She is an intelligent girl.

Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________.

6. You cannot go down and play. You must finish your homework first.

Answer: ______________________________________________________________________________

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SUBJECT VERB AGREEMENT

1. AND

• Ram and Shyam _________ present in the meeting.

• Bread and butter __________ my favourite breakfast.

• Both Ram and Shyam ________ finished _______ projects.

2. OR

• A sandwich or a pastry _________ included in the price.

• Either Ram or Shyam _________ present in the meeting.

3. UNCOUNTABLE NOUNS

• Water________ precious. Don’t waste it.

• Money _________ not important. Happiness is.

• Honesty _________ the best policy.

• Two bottles of water _________ kept on the table.

4. COLLECTIVE NOUNS

• The union ___________ to go on a strike.

• The committee ___________ discussing the proposal.

• The team ____________ won the match.

5. MANY

• Many people have gathered to watch the fireworks.

• Many doctors are attending the conference.

6. Each, Every, Everyone, Everybody, Someone, Somebody, Anyone, Anybody, None..

• Everyone _______ entitled to _________Fundamental Rights.

• Someone __________ calling you.

7. As well as, along with, accompanied by, in addition to

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• Raju as well as his friends ___________ been nominated to represent their college at the fest.

• The Captain along with his team members _______ present in the conference room.

DIRECT AND INDIRECT SPEECH

DIRECT SPEECH: Meena said, ‘I don’t want to play now’.

INDIRECT SPEECH: Meena said that she didn’t want to play then.

• Raju said, ‘I am happy’

Raju said that he was happy

• Madhav said, ‘My father is sleeping’.

_______________________________________________________________.

• Ramesh said, ‘ I have failed in my duty’

_______________________________________________________________.

• He said, ’I will meet you tomorrow’

_______________________________________________________________.

• The teacher said, ‘ Honesty is the best policy’

_______________________________________________________________.

• Mother said , ‘ Mahesh drinks tea before going to bed every night’.

_______________________________________________________________.

• The student said, ‘ I wrote a letter yesterday’.

_______________________________________________________________.

• He said, ‘ I don’t understand you’.

_______________________________________________________________.

• He said, ‘Where is the letter’?

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_______________________________________________________________.

DIRECT INDIRECT

This/these That/those

Here There

Now Then

Today That day

Tomorrow The next day

Yesterday The day before /

the previous day

Last night The night before/

the previous night

Next week The following week

QUESTION TAGS

• You are going to the cinema this evening, aren’t you?

• Rajani is a music teacher, isn’t she?

• Mahesh did not accept the job, did he?

• You are learning Grammar, aren’t you?

• There are only twenty boys in this class, aren’t there?

− Use the same supporting verb

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− If the given sentence is positive, the tag is negative.

− If the given sentence is negative, the tag is positive.

− If the sentence has no supporting verb use do, did or does.

E.g. John sings very well, doesn’t he?

Add Question tags to the following:

1. Dr. Rao is a professor of English, ________________?

2. My cousin cannot run fast, ____________________?

3. She must not see the film, _____________________?

4. We used to live in Nigeria, _____________________?

5. You couldn’t swim a mile, _____________________?

6. Mr.Brown will be our new principal, _____________?

7. I am not a good player, ________________________?

8. I am a good player, ___________________________?

PARALLELISM

1. Wrong: He likes swimming, dancing and sing.

Correct:

2. Wrong: Her husband had bought a car, found a job, and chose a school for the children before she

arrived.

Correct:

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PARAGRAPH FORMING QUESTIONS

Directions: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. From among the four choices given below each question, choose the most logical order
of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph.

Question 1

1. Now under liberated economy they are learning to compete domestically and globally.

2. In India corporations until recently achieved success by avoiding competition,

using protected and regulated domestic markets.

3. The trend is irreversible.

4. Business leaders are preparing themselves to meet competitive challenges and to

avoid being swept away.

1) 2413 2) 2143 3) 4123 4) 3214

Question 2

1. However, different rulers and governments dealt with the different groups in a compartmentalised manner.

2. Various situational and political changes have taken place over the past three and half centuries.

3. This tendency resulted in deeply embedded fragmented South African society which became even more prominent
in the period 1948 until the new commencement of the new Constitution on May 10 1994.

4. South Africa is a racially divided society since the first European settlers arrived in 1652.

1) 2413 2) 4213 3) 3124 4) 4123

Question 3

1. In his literacy work he spoke of that province of human life which mere intellect does not speak.

2. He has also given innocent joy to many children by his stories like 'Kabuliwalah'

3. These songs are sung not only in Bengal but all over the country.

4. Rabindranath's great works sprang from intensity of vision and feelings.

5. He sang of beauty and heroism, nobility and charm.

1) 41253 2) 32154 3) 41235 4) 42153

Question 4

1. Would you steal a software programme out of retail shop?

2. The industry on its part has formed an organisation to specially gather information, educate and drag and software
pirates to courts.

3. But more than the legality, there is always a different way of looking at piracy and that is in terms of morality.

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4. The Government on the other hand has initiated National Enforcements Committees.

5. As far as the issue of tackling piracy is concerned, both the industry and government have already started initiating
action.

1) 54312 2) 41235 3)52431 4) 21435

Question 5

1. A Study to this effect suggests that the average white-collar worker demonstrates only about 25% listening
efficiency.

2. However, for trained and good listeners it is not unusual to use all the three approaches during a setting, thus
improving listening efficiency.

3. There are three approaches to listening: Listening for comprehension, listening for empathy and listening for
evaluation.

4. Although we spend nearly half of each communication interaction listening, we do not listen well.

5. Each approach has a particular emphasis that may help us to receive and process information in different settings.

1) 31425 2) 41253 3) 41352 4) 35241

Question 6

A. But whereas the secret agent's wage seemed to have been tied to his productivity, that of the minister also
included a premium to prevent him crossing over to the enemy.
B. It is interesting to know that some kind of productivity-based wage setting seems to have been used
even in ancient India.
C. The wage differentials give a pointer to the kind of income distribution that existed in India during
Kautilya's time, almost 2000 years ago.
D. Kautilya, in his treatise on statecraft and economics, recommended a wage level for a minister or a
palace guru which was 200 times that for a secret agent - with a still higher difference relative to the
wage of an ordinary palace worker.

( 1 ) C ADB (2) BDCA ( 3 ) B D AC ( 4 ) ACDB

Question 7
A. Incidents have also been reported of locals poisoning waterholes in protected areas to kill peacocks for their
meat.
B. Primarily due to poaching, peacock populations are plummeting across India.
C. Peacock feathers are sold openly in Udhagarnandalam and other tourist destinations.
D. Peacocks are coveted for their beautiful feathers and even for their fat, which is erroneously believed to be
useful in the treatment of arthritis.
(1) ACBD (2) BDCA (3) DCAB (4) CABD

Question 8

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A. Most people take sleep for granted and fail to observe some simple and healthy habits that help get a restful
sleep.
B. There can be a wide variation in the amount of sleep required for individuals.
C. Our health and ability to succeed depend on how we meet our body's need for rest and quality sleep.
D. But most of us require an average of 6-8 hours.
(1) ACBD (2) ADBC (3) CABD (4) DBCA

Question 9

A. Michelangelo lived in Florence for many years producing splendid works before moving to Rome.
B. All roads lead to Florence this year as the great artist Michelangelo's creation David celebrates his 500°
birthday.
C. After his death, his remains were brought here and people turned out by the hundreds to pay homage to him.
D. This sculpture depicts the young Biblical hero who slew the giant Goliath armed with just a sling and
pebbles.
(1) DCAB (2) BCAD (3) BDAC (4) ACDB

Question 10

1. The French wrote, thought: and spoke 'exclusively in French; the English in English.
2. Between 1920 and 1930, or thereabouts, Bengali and Marathi were the only bilingual intellectual cultures
in the world.
3. The historians and social scientists can make best use of this bilingualism - they can operate simultaneously in
more than one tongue.
4. In Pune and Calcutta, however, original works of scholarship were written and discussed both in English
and in the language of the bazaar.
(1 ) B ACD (2) B ADC (3) ADB C (4) CDB A

Quest io n 11

A. In the past year blogs have shared information on various issues like giving money, finding missing family
members etc.
B. Software tools developed in recent years have made blogs easier to create and maintain.
C. Despite the attention to blogging, a large number of Americans remain clueless- only 38% of internet users
know what a blog is.
D. Readership of online journals known as blogs grew significantly in 2008.
1) AB CD 2) CDAB 3) DAB C 4) BDAC

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READING COMPREHENSION

Directions: Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content, answer all questions following a passage based on
what is stated or implied in that passage.

Questions 1 to 5
The best Eskimo carvings of all ages seem to possess a powerful ability to reach across the great barriers of language and time and
communicate directly with us. The more we look at these carvings, the more life we perceive hidden within them. We discover subtle
living forms of the animal, human, and mystical world. These arctic carvings are not the cold sculptures of a frozen world. Instead,
they reveal to us the passionate feelings of a vital people well aware of all the joys, terrors, tranquility, and wildness of life around
them.
Eskimo carvers are people moved by dreams. In spite of all their new contacts with outsiders, they are still concerned with their own
kind of mystical imagery. The most skillful carvers possess a bold confidence, a direct approach to their art that has special freedom
unsullied by any kind of formalized training.
Eskimo carvers have strong skilled hands, used to forcing hard materials with their simple tools. Their hunting life and the northern
environment invigorates them. Bad weather often imposes a special kind leisure, giving them time in which to perfect their carvings.
They are among the last of the hunting societies that have retained some part of the keen sense of observation that we have so long
forgotten. The carvers are also butchers of meat, and therefore masters in the understanding of animal anatomy. Flesh and bones and
sheaths of muscle seem to move in their works. They show us how to drive the caribou, how to hold a child, how to walk cautiously
on thin ice. Through their eyes we understand the dangerous power of a polar bear. In the very best of Eskimo art we see vibrant
animal and human forms that stand quietly or tensely, strongly radiating a sense of life. We can see, and even feel with our hands, the
cold sleekness of seals, the hulking weight of walrus, the icy swiftness of trout, the flowing rhythm in a flight of geese. In their art we
catch brief glimpses of a people who have long possessed a very different approach to the whole question of life and death.
In Eskimo art there is much evidence of humor which the carvers have in abundance. Some of the carvings are caricatures of
themselves, of ourselves, and of situations, or records of ancient legends. Their laughter may be subtle, or broad and Chaucerian.
Perhaps no one can accurately define the right way of wrong way to create a carving. Each carver must follow his own way. In his
own time. Technique in itself is meaningless unless it serves to express content. According to the Eskimo, the best possesses a sense
of movement that seems to come from within the material itself, a feeling of tension, a living excitement.
1. The author is primarily concerned with
a) Showing how Eskimo carvings achieve their effects
b) Describing how Eskimo artists resist the influence of outsiders
c) Discussing the significant characteristics of Eskimo art
d) Explaining how Eskimo carvers use their strength to manipulate hard materials
e) Interpreting the symbolism of Eskimo art

2. The author’s attitude toward Eskimo art is one of


a. Condescension b. awe c. admiration d. Regret e. bewilderment

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3. With which of the following statements would the author most likely agree?
a. Training may often destroy an artist’s originality.
b. artists should learn their craft by studying the works of experts.
c. the content of a work of art is insignificant.
d. caricatures have no place in serious art.
e. Eskimo art is interesting more as an expression of a life view than as a serious art form.

4. The author gives examples of the subjects of Eskimo carvings primarily to


a. show that they have no relevance to modern life
b. indicates the artist’s lack of imagination.
c. imply that other artists have imitated them
d. prove that the artists limited experience of life has been a handicap
e. suggests the quality and variety of the work

5. According to the passage, Eskimo carvings have all the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. wit b. subtlety c Passion d. Formality e. terror

Questions 6 and 7
The whole atmosphere of the world in which we live is tinged by science, as is shown most immediately and strikingly by our modern
conveniences and material resources. A little deeper thinking shows that the influence of science goes much farther and colors the
entire mental outlook of modern civilized man on the world about him. Perhaps one of the most telling evidences of this is his growing
freedom from superstition. Freedom from superstition is the result of the conviction that the world is not governed by caprice, but that
it is a world of order and can be understood by man if he will only try hard enough and be clever enough. This conviction that the
world is understandable is, doubtless, the most important single gift of science to civilization. The widespread acceptance of this view
can be dated to the discovery by Newton of the universal sway of the law of gravitation; and for this reason, Newton may be justly
regarded as the most important single contributor to modern life.

6. Which of the following best expresses the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
a. To give an opinion of the chief benefit of science
b. To enumerate the modem conveniences produced by science
c. To inform readers about important scientific principles to describe Newtons’ discoveries
E. To persuade readers that science leads to civilization

7. According to the author, Newton’s chief contribution was his


a. encouragement of intelligent inquiry
b. great book on the laws of gravity
c. understanding of a world based on order
d. early development of scientific methodology
e. many practical inventions that have given rise to modern conveniences

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Questions 8 to 12

In the worm enclosed waters of farm ponds, conditions are very likely to be lethal for fish when insecticides are applied in the vicinity.
As many examples show, the poison is carried in by rains and runoff from surrounding lands, Sometimes the ponds receive not only
contaminated runoff but also a direct dose as crop-dusting pilots neglect to shut off the duster in passing over a pond. Even without
such complications normal agricultural use subjects fish to heavier concentrations of chemicals than would be required to kill them.
In other works, a marked reduction in the poundage’s used would hardly after the lethal situation, for applications of over o.1 pound
per acre to the pond itself are generally considered hazardous. And the poison, once introduced is hard to get rid of. One pond that
had been treated with DDT to remove unwanted shiners remained so poisonous through repeated drainages and flushing that it killed
94 percent of the sunfish with which it was later stocked. Apparently, the chemical remained in the mud of the pond bottom.
In some parts of the world the cultivation of fish in ponds provides on indispensable source of food. In such places the use of
insecticides without regard for the effects on fish creates immediate problems. In Rhodesia, for example, the young of an important
food fish, the Kafue bream, are killed by exposure to only 0.04 parts per million of DDT in shallow pools. Even smaller doses of
many other insecticides would be lethal. The shallow waters in which these fish live are favorable mosquito-breeding places. The
problem of controlling mosquitoes and at the same time conserving a fish important in the Central African diet has obviously not been
solved satisfactorily.

8. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The water of Farm Ponds
(B) The Effects of Insecticides on fish
(C) The uses of DDT
(D) The cultivation of Fish as Food
(E) Saving African Food Supplies.

9. The author’s tone I this passage can best be described as


(A) Reportorial (B) Sarcastic (C) angry
(D) condemnatory (E) mournful

10. According to the passage, which of the following are responsible for the presence of insecticides in ponds?
I. The weather II. Human error III. Common farming methods

(A) I only (B) III Only (c) I and II only (D) I and III only (E) I, II and III

11. The author uses the case of the Rhodesian fish primarily in order to
(A) the harmful effects of killing fish
(B) prove that problems are the same everywhere
(C) evaluate African farming practices
(D) Consider the problem of controlling mosquitoes
(E) contrast African and American insecticide use.

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12. In this passage, the author does all the following EXEPT
(A) state a problem (B) propose a solution
(C) give examples (d) relate causes
(E) State effects

Directions 13 to 17
Specifically, India’s female labour participation rate is very low. Official statistics have always shown that India’s female labour
participation rate is low and falling. Researchers have shown that this fall is because of rising household incomes that reduce the need
for women to join the labour force; increased enrolment in higher education by women which delays their entry into the labour force,
and cultural and security factors that keep women away from the labour market in India. Further, it is evident that employers are also
biased against hiring women.
The CPHS shows that the situation with respect to women’s participation in the labour force is extremely poor —(A)
………………………………………... The entire brunt of demonetisation was borne by women. Their labour participation fell
sharply while that of men did not.
After the demonetisation jolt came the Goods and Services Tax shock of July 2017 that drove away small enterprises which could not
compete in a tax-compliant environment out of business. This caused a substantial loss of jobs. Preliminary estimates suggest that
employment shrunk by 11 million in 2018. The brunt of this was again borne largely by women. But men too were also impacted.
Male labour participation rate was 74.5% in 2016. This dropped to 72.4% in 2017 and then to 71.7% in 2018. In contrast, female
labour participation was as low as 15.5% in 2016 which dropped to 11.9% in 2017 and then 11% in 2018. Urban female labour
participation rates fell faster than rural female participation. In urban India it dropped from 15.2% in 2016 to 10.5% in 2018. The
corresponding values for rural women were 15.6% and 11.3%, respectively.

13. Which of the following statements is/are correct as per the passage above?
a) Male labour participation rate was 78.5% in 2016.
b) India’s female labour participation rate is very low
c) Urban female labour participation rates fell faster than rural female participation.
d) Both (b) and (c)
e) All are correct

14. In the passage above, two lines are given in bold. In the lines a phrase is used, i.e., 'bear the brunt of' in context of the passage.
What is the meaning of this phrase?
a) To enjoy the best part of an unpleasant or problematic situation.
b) To suffer the worst part of an unpleasant or problematic situation.
c) To support someone in an unpleasant or problematic situation.
d) To get good results for your hard work.
e) Both (b) and (c)

15. What are the reasons for the fall in India’s female labour participation rate in context of the passage?

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a) Rising household incomes
b) Increased enrolment in higher education by women
c) Cultural and Security factors
d) Employers are also biased against hiring women.
e) All are correct

16. Which of the following phrases can suitably fit in the blank given in (A) to make it grammatically and contextually correct?
a) much poorer then what the official agencies tell us
b) much poorer than who the official agencies tell us
c) much poorer than what the official agencies telling us
d) much poorer than what the official agencies tell us
e) None of the Above

17. Which of the following can replace the word 'jolt' given in bold in the passage?
a) shock
b) surprise
c) impacted
d) disadvantage
e) Both (a) and (b)

Directions for questions 18 to 20: Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows it.

18. The childhood story of the world’s fifth most powerful woman may pan out on the Indian advertising landscape. Pepsi Co India’s
campaign talks of how even at the age of five, the now global CEO, had to wake up at dawn to fill buckets of water. Pepsi Co India
believes that Nooyi’s saga will add fizz to its ad blitz.

Which of the following statements is an assumption that underlines the above conclusion?

(A) Nooyi wants every child to catch up on studies instead of wasting time filling buckets of water.
(B) Ambitious young girls aspiring to become CEO’s of big companies will have Nooyi as their role model.
(C) The typically middle class situation depicted in the story will draw in more middle class customers.
(D) Emotional response among the buyers of cool drinks will influence their choice.

19. Whether her family is poor or wealthy, whatever her caste, class or religion, a woman knows that motherhood confers upon her a
purpose and an identity that nothing else in her culture can. Each infant born and nurtured by her is both a certification and a
redemption. The vivid ideals of womanhood and motherhood that are the common themes in a traditional society pervade and
circumscribe the identities of individual women. Where and when tradition governs, a woman never stands alone. Her identity is
always wholly defined by her relationship to others. This loss of her individual identity equips her to experience autonomy and to
exercise power once she attains motherhood.

Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(1) Motherhood is of no special significance in a progressive society.

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(2) Childless women have no place in traditional society hierarchy.
(3) For women in traditional society, the family is very important.
(4) Not attaining motherhood is considered a stigma in society.

20. Outwardly the western countries that adhere to ethics and democracy and the tyrannical monarchies are poles apart. However,
there is an imperceptible similarity. The tyrannical regimes restrict interaction between peoples.

Which of the following statements would strengthen the argument that western governments are no better?

(1) Western governments impose draconian taxes that do not augur well for the citizen’s economic growth.
(2) Western governments practice erroneous policies that earn them an equally bad reputation.
(3) Western governments do not think it necessary to open u their borders.
(4) Western governments do nothing to bridge the gap between the elite and those living below the poverty line.

CRITICAL REASONING

COURSES OF ACTION

Directions for question 21: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.

Give answer (A) if only I follows

Give answer (B) if only II follows

Give answer (C) if both I and II follow

Give answer (D) if neither I nor II follows

21. Statement: The proposed strike by employees of a financial organization will affect the businesses in the country.

Courses of action:

I. The demands of the employees, whatever they may be, should be met by the management.
II. The employees who go on strike should be suspended.

STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTIONS

Directions for question 22: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.

Give answer (A) if only I follows

Give answer (B) if only II follows

Give answer (C) if both I and II follow

Give answer (D) if neither I nor II follows

22. Statement: “We offer Hotel Management Course” – An advertisement by a university.

Assumptions:

I. Some people want to do Hotel Management course.


II. Some people who want to do Hotel Management course would join the university.

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STATEMENT AND CONCLUSIONS

Directions for question 23: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.

Give answer (A) if only I follows

Give answer (B) if only II follows

Give answer (C) if both I and II follow

Give answer (D) if neither I nor II follows

23. Statement: With the onslaught of tourism, the ethnic culture of Goa, has gone out of public life.

Conclusions:

I. The ethnic culture of the places, where no tourist visits, remains unaffected.
II. Tourism is the only thing that leads to erosion of ethnic culture.

STRONG AND WEAK ARGUMENTS

Directions for question 24: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two arguments numbered I and II.

Give answer (A) if only I is strong

Give answer (B) if only II is strong

Give answer (C) if both I and II are strong

Give answer (D) if neither I nor II is strong

24. Statement: Should dictionaries give meanings of the words which are treated to be unparliamentary.

Arguments:

I. Yes, it helps to identify the words that are unparliamentary.


II. No, children, who refer to the dictionary learn these words.

CAUSE AND EFFECT

Directions for question 25: In the question given below there are two events numbered I and II. Read both the events and decide
which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two events.

Give answer (A) if event I is the cause and event II is its effect.

Give answer (B) if event II is the cause and event I is its effect.

Give answer (C) if both events I and II are effects of independent causes.

Give answer (D) if both events I and II are effects of some common cause.

25. Event I: Water of river Ganga is becoming unfit for use.

Event II: The aquatic life in river Ganga is becoming extinct.

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E-MAILS AND LETTERS

A. E-mail writing

Opening salutation

Dear First name,


Dear Mr. /Ms. Last name,
Dear Mr. /Ms. First name Last name,
Dear Sir/ Ma’am,
Hello First Name,
Good morning First name,
Greetings!
Hi all,
Hi everyone,
Hello (Team name),
Dear colleagues,

Opening sentence

I am writing to you in reference to/regarding…


I am contacting you as…
This is with reference to
Thank you for your reply
Thank you for your message/e-mail/phone call
Thanks for the quick response
Thank you for your inputs/ suggestions/ notes/advice
Thanks for your help with
This e-mail is with reference to our telephonic conversation/ previous correspondence
I am happy to provide the information/ details you requested

Less formal

I hope you are doing well


I hope you had a great weekend
I hope this finds you well
Just wanted to send you a quick note on..
Just wanted to remind you of
Just checking in to make sure that

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Getting to the business end of the e-mail

PFA the documents you requested


PFA in PDF format the drawings you requested
Embedded below is a screenshot of my screen
I am facing some issues/problems/ trouble w.r.t the following points:
Would appreciate your help on these points:
Request for more clarity on the following points:
I am finding it difficult/challenging to (issue)
I have made changes to the drawings in accordance with our discussion. PFA the updated drawings

Ending on a positive note

Let me know your thoughts on the same.


Please let me know if any changes are required.
Hope this helps.
Have a great day.
Thank you so much.
Thanks in advance.
Look forward to hearing from you.
Let me know if you have any questions.
Hope to hear from you soon.

Sign off

Regards Thank you,


Best regards, Thanks,
Warm Regards With appreciation,
Best wishes, With gratitude,
Sincerely, Cheers,
Sincerely yours, Faithfully,
Yours sincerely, Many thanks,
Yours truly, Warmly,

Digital Signature (if required)

Full name [typed]


Title and company

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Phone number
Email address

Example:
William Williamson
Assistant Director, XYZ Marketing
+91 999999999
wwilliamson@email.com

B. Letter Writing Format (A sample format)

From Address

Name,

Designation,

Department,

Company name,

City – pin code.

15th February 2018.

To Address

Name,

Designation,

Department,

Company name,

City – pin code.

Dear Sir/Ma’am,

Subject:

************************************************************************************************************
*************************************. (Opening Remark + Purpose of writing the letter)

************************************************************************************************************
****************************************. (Explain the matter/ give reasons/ justification etc.)

***********************************************************************. (End on a positive note)

Regards,

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Full name [typed]

Title and company

Phone number

Email address

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WORKSHEET – Sentence and Para Formation

Write your responses to these questions in the space provided below:

a) Tell me a bit about yourself: your educational qualifications, your family background etc.

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Describe yourself in 5 words.

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

c) What motivates you?

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

d) What are your strengths and weaknesses?

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

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e) If you were presented with an opportunity to learn or study further, what subject (technical, artistic or otherwise)
would you like to pursue and why?

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

f) Describe a regular day in your life

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

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COMMONLY CONFUSED WORDS
Frame sentences to understand the difference between each pair of confusing words.

1. Its , It’s 22. Intimate, Intimidate

2. Whether , If 23. Partly, Partially

3. Practice , Practise 24. Pursue, Perusal

4. Advice , Advise 25. Assent, Ascent

5. Dependent, Dependant 26. Aural, Oral, Verbal

6. Near, Nearby 27. Common friend, Mutual Friend

7. Between , Among 28. Desert , Dessert

8. Beside , Besides 29. Ensure , Insure

9. Until, Unless 30. Envelop , Envelope

10. Along, across 31. Enquiry, Inquiry

11. In time, On time 32. Principal , Principle

12. In the end, At the end 33. Sight , Site , Cite

13. Too, very, so 34. Vain, Vane, Vein, Wane

14. Since, for, from 35. Stationary , Stationery

15. Later, latter 36. Storey, Story

16. Elder, older 37. Bear, Bare

17. Further , Farther 38. Affect , Effect

18. Each Other , One Another 39. Rob , Steal

19. Few, a few ; Little, a little 40. Specially, Especially

20. Rather , Fairly

21. Repeat, Reiterate

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Non Verbal Reasoning

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Venn Diagrams

Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some
inter-linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at (a), (b), (c) or (d). You must
indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.

Q1. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Biology, Zoology and
Physics?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q2. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Stamp, Pen and Chalk?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q3. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Singers, Athletes and Girls?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q4. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Teachers, Women and
Doctors?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q5. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Clothes, Flowers and White?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

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5

Q6. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Doctors, Human Beings and
Married People?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q7. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Children, Naughty, and
Studious?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q8. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Thief, Criminal and Police?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q9. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Man, Worker and Garden?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q10. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Males,
Cousins and Nephews?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

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ANSWER KEYS

1. B
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. A

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SERIES

1-5. In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which
when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

Q1.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q2.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q3.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q4.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q5.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Q6-15. Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 called the Problem
Figures followed by four other figures marked a, b, c and d called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from
amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Q6. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q7. Problem Figures: Answer


Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q8. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q9. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q10. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q11. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q12. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Q13. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q14 Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q15. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q16-20. In each problem, out of the four figures marked (a) (b) (c) and (d) three are similar in a certain
manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

Q16.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q17.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q18.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q19.

(a) (b) (c) (d)


Q20.

((a) (b) (c) (d)


a
)

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Q21-30. Each of the following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 constitute the Problem Set
while figures a, b, c and d constitute the Answer Set. There is a definite relationship between figures (1) and (2).
Establish a similar relationship between figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the Answer set that would
replace the question mark (?) in fig.(4).

Q21.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q22.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q23.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q24.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q25.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q26.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q27.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q28.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)


Q29.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (d)

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ANSWER KEYS
RATIO AND PROPORTION
1. c 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. d
7. c 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. d 12. a
13.b 14.d 15.c 16.b 17. b 18. c
19. c 20. c 21.b 22.b 23.c 24.c

AVERAGES
1. c 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. b
7.c 8.b 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. a
13. a 14. a 14. d 15. b 16.b 17. a
18. a 19. a 20. b

PERCENTAGES
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c
7. d 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. d
13. c 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. c 18.a
19. b 20.d 21.c 22. d 23. a 24. a
25. c

PROFIT AND LOSS


1. a 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. b
7. b 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. a
13. a 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. d
19. b 20. a 21. b 22. b 23.d 24. a
25. d

TIME AND WORK


1. b 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. d
7. d 8. d 9. d 10. d 11. d 12. a
13. b 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. a
19. a 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. d
25. d 26. c 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. b
31. b 32. b 33. c 34. a

TIME SPEED DISTANCE


1. a 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. d 6. a
7. d 8. b 9. a 10. a 11. d 13. b
13. b 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. a
19. a 20.c 21. d 22. a 23. b 24. d
25. d 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. a
31. c 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. b

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SIMPLE INTEREST AND COMPOUND INTEREST
1. b 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. b
7. a 8. d 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. b
13. b 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. c
19. c 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. c
25. c

PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATIONS


1.i b 1.ii c 1.iii b 1.iv b 1.v a 1.vi c
1.vii b 2. c 3. c 4. b a 5. d 6. a
7. b 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. b,c 12. a
13. a 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. a
19. c 20. b

PROBABILTY
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. b
7. b 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. b
13. b 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. c 18. d
19. b 20. b

BLOOD RELATIONS
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. a
7. c 8. c 9. d 10. b 11. d 12. c
13. d 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. b
19. d 20. a

CODING AND DECODING


1. a 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. b
7. c 8. a 9. d 10. c

Verbal Ability I
1. 1 2. 4 3. 2 4. 4 5. 1 6. 2
7. 3 8. 1 9. 2 10. 1 11. 2 12. 1
13. 4 14. 4 15. 3 16. 1 17. 3 18. 1
19. 2 20. 2 21. 1,3 22. 1,3 23. 1,2,3,4 24. 2,4
25. 1,2,3 26. 1-3 27. 1-4 28. 2-3 29. 1-4 30. 1-4
31. 1 32. 4 33. 4 34. C 35. D

Verbal Ability II
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. A
7. A 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. A
13. A 14. D 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C

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19. B 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B
25. B 26. Dark 27. Oxygen 28. Chilly 29. Coat 30. Sunny
31. A 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. B 36. D
37. B 38. B 39. D 40. B 41. B 42. B
43. B 44. B 45. B 46. D

Analogy
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B

Verbal Ability III


1. b,f 2. a,d 3. e,c 4. b,d 5. a,f 6. a
7. b 8. a 9. b 10. b

One Word Substitution


1-I 2-E 3-A 4-L 5-C 6- F
7-N 8-K 9-B 10-M 11-G 12-P
13-O 14-J 15-H 16-D

Sentence Correction I
1. 1 2. 1 3. 2 4. 2 5. 2
1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b
1. 1 2. 3 3. 2 4. 3 5. 2

Para-formation questions
1. 2 2. 2 3. 1 4. 3 5. 3 6. 3
7. 3 8. 3 9. 3 10. 2 11. 3

Reading Comprehension
1. c 2. c 3. a 4. e 5. d 6. a
7. c 8. b 9. a 10. ii, iii 11. a 12. b
13. d 14. b 15. e 16. d 17. a 18. c
19. 3 20. 4 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. d

Series
1. b 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. d
7. c 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. c
13. b 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. a
19. b 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. c
25. c 26. b 27. d 28. d 29. a

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