Gate Solved Paper - Me: General Aptitude

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME

2014-1
General Aptitude
Q. 1 - Q. 5 Carry one mark each.

Q. 1 Choose the most appropriate phrase from the options given below to complete
the following sentence.
The aircraft ______ take of as soon as its flight plan was filed.
(A) is allowed to (B) will be allowed to
(C) was allowed to
om (D) has been allowed to
Sol. 1
.c
Correct option is (C).
It is a passive sentence and second part of sentence shows past activity so in first
s
part we should also use past tense.
a
Q. 2
at
Read the statements:
All women are entrepreneurs. Some women are doctors.
ld
Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above
i
statements?
iv
(A) All women are doctors (B) All doctors are entrepreneurs
.C
(C) All entrepreneurs are women (D) Some entrepreneurs are doctors
Sol. 2 Correct option is (D).
w W = Women
w D = Doctors
w
Venn-diagram
E = Entrepreneurs
So it is clear from the venn-diagram that some entrepreneurs are doctors.

Q. 3 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the
following sentence.
Many ancient cultures attributed disease to supernatural causes. However, modern
science has largely helped ______ such notions.
(A) impel (B) Dispel
(C) propel (D) repel
Sol. 3 Correct option is (B).
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GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1
Q. 4 The statistics of runs scored in a series by four batsmen are provided in the
following table. Who is the most consistent batsman of these four?
Batsman Average Standard deviation
K 31.2 5.21
L 46.0 6.35
M 54.4 6.22
N 17.9 5.90
(A) K (B) L
(C) M (D) N
Sol. 4 Correct option is (A).
Consistency means minimum deviation so ‘K’ is the most consistent batsman.
scoring.
om
Average is used, When we want to select the best batsman in the manner of run
Q. 5
.c
What is the next number in the series?
12 35
as 81 173 357 ____

Sol. 5
at
Correct answer is 725.
Difference between two consecutive numbers is
ild 35 - 12 = 23
81 - 35 = 46
iv
173 - 81 = 92
357 - 173 = 184
.C
Difference is a multiple of 2 of previous difference so new difference will be
= 184 # 2 = 368
w
So new number will be = 368 + 357 = 725
w
Q. 6
w
Q. 6 - Q. 10 Carry two marks each.
Find the odd one from the following group:

W,E,K,O I,Q,W,A F,N,T,X N,V,B,D
(A) W,E,K,O (B) I,Q,W,A
(C) F,N,T,X (D) N,V,B,D
Q. 7 For submitting tax returns, all resident males with annual income below Rs. 10
lakh should fill up Form P and all resident females with income below Rs. 8 lakh
should fill up Form Q . All people with incomes above Rs. 10 lakh should fill up
Form R, except non residents with income above Rs. 15 lakhs, who should fill up
Form S . All others should fill Form T . An example of a person who should fill
For T is
(A) a resident make with annual income Rs. 9 lakh
(B) a resident female with annual income Rs. 9 lakh
(C) a non-resident male with annual income Rs. 16 lakh
(D) a non-resident female with annual income Rs. 16 lakh
Sol. 7 Correct option is (B)
Q. 8 A train that is 280 metres long, travelling at a uniform speed, crosses a platform
in 60 seconds and passes a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. What is
the length of the platform in metres ?
Sol. 8 Correct answer is 560 m.
Train takes 20 seconds to cross a person so it takes 20 seconds to cover a distance
of 280 m.
So in 60 seconds, it will cover 280 # 60 = 280 # 3 = 840 m
20
This 840 m includes train length also
So length of platform will be = 840 - 280 = 560 m
Q. 9 The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.) of a country from 2000 to 2007 are
given in the following bar chart. If the trade deficit is defined as excess of imports
over exports, in which year is the trade deficit 1/5th of the exports ?
om
.c
as
at
ild
(A) 2005iv (B) 2004
.C
(C) 2007 (D) 2006
Sol. 9
w
Correct option is (D).
Q. 10
w
You are given three coins: one has heads on both faces, the second has tails on
w
both faces, and the third has a head on one face and a tail on the other. You
choose a coin at random and toss it, and it comes up heads. The probability that
the other face is tails is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/3
(C) 1/2 (D) 2/3
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
Mechanical Engineering
Q. 1 - Q. 25 Carry one mark each.

R V
S 1 3 0W
Q. 1 Given that the determinant of the matrix S 2 6 4W is - 12 , the determinant of
R V SS W
S 2 6 0W - 1 0 2W
the matrix S 4 12 8W is T X
SS WW
-2 0 4
(A) - 96 T X (B) - 24
(C) 24 (D) 96
m
R V
S 1 3 0W
Let
co A = S 2 6 4W
SS W
- 1 0 2W
s.
Determinant A
T
=- 12
X
ta R
S 2 6 0W
V
New matrix
da B = S 4 12 8W
SS
- 2 0 4W
W
il T
2 6 0
X
1 6 0
iv
Determinant of B = 4 12 8 = 2 2 12 8
.C
-2 0 4 -1 0 4
1 3 0 1 3 0
w = 2.2 2 6 8 = 23 2 6 4
w -1 0 4 -1 0 2
= 23 A = 23 # ^- 12h =- 96
Q. 2
w
Lt x - sin x is
x"0 1 - cos x
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) not defined
Lt x - sin x
1 - cos x
x"0
By using expansion form of sin x and cos x

3 5
x - =x - x + x ...G
3 5
Lt 2 4
1 - =1 - x + x ...G
x"0
2 4
3 5
sin x = x - x + x ...
3 5
2 4
cos x = 1 - x + x ...
2 4
2 4
x =1 - 1 + x + x ...G
2 4
So Lt 2 4
=1 - 1 + x + x ...G
x"0
2 4
2 4
x =x - x ...G
2 4
So Lt 2 4
=x + x ...G
x"0
2 4
2
x.x2 = 1 - x ...G
2 4
Lt 4
=0
x2 = 1 + x ...G
x"0
2 4
Alternative way
Lt x - sin x b 0 l form
1 - cos x 0
m
x"0
using L. Hospital’s Rule
co Lt 1 - cos x b 0 l form
s. x"0 sin x 0
again using L. Hospital’s Rule (Differentiating numerator and denominators)
ta Lt sin x = tan x = 0
x " 0 cos x
Q. 3
da
The argument of the complex number 1 + i , where i = - 1 , is
1-i
(A) - p
il (B) - p
2
iv
(C) p (D) p
2
Sol. 3
.C
Correct option is (C).
z = 1+i
Let
w 1-i
Let
w z1 = 1 + i , z 2 = 1 - i
z = z1
w z2
using argument property
Arg z = Arg z1 - Arg z2
Arg z1 = tan-1 b 1 l = p
1 4
Arg z2 = tan-1 b - 1 l =- p
1 4
Arg z = p - d- p n = p + p
4 4 4 4
Arg z = p
2
dy
Q. 4 The matrix form of the linear system dx = 3x - 5y and = 4x + 8y is
dt dt
x 3 -5 x x 3 8 x
(A) d * 4 = > H (B) d * 4 = >
dt y 4 8 y * 4
dt y 4 - 5H*y 4
x 4 -5 x x 4 8 x
(C) d * 4 = >
3 8 H*y 4
(D) d * 4 = >
dt y dt y 3 - 5H*y 4

dx = 3x - 5y
dt
dy
= 4x + 8y
dt
writing the linear system of equations in matrix form
d *x 4 = 3 - 5 *x 4
dt y
>4 8 H y
Q. 5 Which one of the following describes the relationship among the three vectors,
it + tj + kt, 2it + 3tj + kt and 5it + 6tj + 4kt ?
(A) The vectors are mutually perpendicular
(B) The vectors are linearly dependent
(C) The vectors are linearly independent
m
(D) The vectors are unit vectors
o
Sol. 5
.c
Correct option is (B).
av it + tj + kt
s
Let’s
ta bv 2it + 3tj + kt
cv 5it + 6tj + 4kt
a
(i) Check for perpendicular condition
d
l
Condition av.bv = 0 , av.cv = 0 , bv.cv = 0
i
iv
av.bv = _it + tj + kti _2it + 3tj + kti
= 2+3+1 = 6 ! 0
.C
so they are not perpendicular.
(ii) Check for unit vectors
w av = 1, bv = 1, cv = 1
w av = 12 + 12 + 12 = 3 ! 1
bv = 22 + 32 + 12 = 14 ! 0
w
so they are not unit vectors.
(iii) Check for linear dependency
a x ay a z
b x by b z = 0
c x cy c z
1 1 1
2 3 1 = 1 ^12 - 6h - 1 ^8 - 5h + 1 ^12 - 15h
5 6 4
= 6-3-3 = 0
so they are linearly dependent vectors.
Q. 6 A circular rod of length ‘L’ and area of cross-section ‘A’ has a modulus of
elasticity ‘E ’ and coefficient of thermal expansion ‘a ’. One end of the rod is fixed
and other end is free. If the temperature of the rod is increased by TT , then
(A) stress developed in the rod is E a TT and strain developed in the rod is a TT
(B) both stress and strain developed in the rod are zero
(C) stress developed in the rod is zero and strain developed in the rod is a TT
(D) stress developed in the rod is E a TT and strain developed in the rod is zero

As there is no restriction on the expansion of rod so stress will be zero in the rod.
While strain is there
Thermal expansion Tl = L a TT
Strain e = Tl
L
= a TT = aTT
L
L
Q. 7 A metallic rod of 500 mm length and 50 mm diameter, when subjected to a
tensile force of 100 kN at the ends, experiences an increase in its length by 0.5
mm and a reduction in its diameter by 0.015 mm. The Poisson’s ratio of the rod
material is_____
Sol. 7 Correct answer is 0.3.
length l = 500 mm
diameter d = 50 mm
Change in length Tl = 0.5 mm
m
Change in diameter Td = 0.015 mm
o
c
Poisson’s ratio = lateral strain
s. =
longitudinal strain
Td/d
ta =
Tl/l
0.015/50
da 0.5/500
= .015 # 10 = 0.3
0
il 0. 5
iv
Q. 8 Critical damping is the
(A) largest amount of damping for which no oscillation occurs in free vibration
.C
(B) smallest amount of damping for which no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(C) largest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free
w
vibration
w
(D) smallest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free
w
vibration
Critical damping is defined as the smallest amount of damping for which no
oscillation occurs in free vibration.
Q. 9 A circular object of radius r rolls without slipping on a horizontal level floor with
the center having velocity V . The velocity at the point of contact between the
object and the floor is
(A) zero
(B) V in the direction of motion
(C) V opposite to the direction of motion
(D) V vertically upward from the floor
At point A, resultant velocity

Vre = V - wR
we know that V = wR
So Vre = V - V = 0
Alternative way
om
A is the instantaneous centre of two links i.e. circular object and horizontal floor.
.c
Two links have no linear velocity relative to each other at the instantaneous
centre.
as
Q. 10
at
For the given statements:
I Mating spur gear teeth is an example of higher pair
ild
II A revolute joint is an example of lower pair
Indicate the correct answer.
iv
(A) Both I and II are false
.C
(B) I is true and II is false
(C) I is false and II is true
w
(D) Both I and II are true
Sol. 10
w
Correct option is (A).
w
Higher pair has line or point contact and lower pair has surface contact. In spur
gear there is line contact so it is a higher pair while in revolute joint there is
surface contact so it is a lower pair.
Q. 11 A rigid link PQ is 2 m long and oriented at 20c to the horizontal as shown in the
figure. The magnitude and direction of velocity VQ , and the direction of velocity
VP are given. The magnitude of VP (in m/s) at this instant is
(A) 2.14 (B) 1.89

(C) 1.21 (D) 0.96
Sol. 11 Correct option is (C).
Q. 12 Biot number signifies the ratio of

(A) convective resistance in the fluid to conductive resistance in the solid
(B) conductive resistance in the solid to convective resistance in the fluid
(C) inertia force to viscous force in the fluid
(D) buoyancy force to viscous force in the fluid
Biot number Bi = hr
k
h = convective heat transfer coefficient
r = radius
k = thermal conductivity
It is the ratio of conductive resistance in the solid to convective resistance in the
fluid.
Q. 13 The maximum theoretical work obtainable, when a system interacts to equilibrium
with a reference environment, is called
(A) Entropy
(C) Exergy om (B) Enthalpy
(D) Rothalpy
.c
s
a
Entropy: Degree of randomness in the system.
at
Enthalpy (H ) = U + PV
U = Internal energy
ild PV = Displacement work

So enthalpy is the sum of internal energy and displacement work.
iv
Exergy or Available Energy: The maximum portion of energy which could be
converted into useful work by ideal process and it reduces the system to dead
state.
.C
Dead state: It is a state in equilibrium with the earth and its atmosphere.
Q. 14 w
Consider a two-dimensional laminar flow over a long cylinder as shown in the
w
figure below.
The free stream velocity is U3 and the free stream temperature T3 is lower
than the cylinder surface temperature Ts . The local heat transfer coefficient is
minimum at point
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
In laminar flow, the heat transfer coefficient is minimum where the thickness of
boundry layer is maximum. The heat transfer coefficient is maximum where the
thickness is minimum.
For turbulent-region thickness of boundry layer is maximum at 3. For laminar
region thickness of boundry layer is maximum at 2 so it will have minimum local
heat transfer coefficient.
Q. 15 For a completely submerged body with centre of gravity ‘G ’ and centre of
buoyancy ‘B ’, the condition of stability will be
(A) G is located below B
(B) G is located above B
(C) G and B are coincident
(D) independent of the locations of G and B
In order that a fully immersed body be in equilibrium the centre of gravity ‘G ’
m
should be lower than the centre of buoyancy ‘B ’.
o
.c
as
at
ild
iv
Q. 16
.C
In a power plant, water (density = 1000 kg/m3 ) is pumped from 80 kPa to 3 MPa.
w
The pump has an isentropic efficiency of 0.85. Assuming that the temperature of
the water remains the same, the specific work (in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
w
(A) 0.34 (B) 2.48
Sol. 16
w
(C) 2.92
(D) 3.43
Isentropic efficiency h = 0.85

Specific work supplied to pump = vTP
v = specific volume
v =1 = 1 = 1
r density 1000
v = 10-3 m3 /kg
So w = vTP
= 10-3 ^3000 - 80h
= 2.92 kJ
Isentropic efficiency,
Isentropic compressor work
h =
Actual compressor work
0.85 = 92 kJ
2.
wa
wa = 3.43 kJ/kg
Q. 17 Which one of the following is a CFC refrigerant ?
(A) R744 (B) R290
(C) R502 (D) R718

R744 " Carbon dioxide ^CO 2h
R290 " Propane
R718 " Water ^H 2 Oh
R717 " Ammonia ^NH 3h
R502 " It is a azeotropic mixture of R-22 and R-115
So it is a CFC refrigerant because R-22 and R-115 are CFC refrigerants.
Q. 18 The jobs arrive at a facility, for service, in a random manner. The probability
distribution of number of arrivals of jobs in a fixed time interval is
(A) Normal (B) Poisson
(C) Erlang (D) Beta
When jobs are coming in random manner then number of arrivals of jobs in a
fixed time interval will follow poisson probability distribution. Service time will
m
follow exponential distribution.
o
c
Q. 19 In exponential smoothening method, which one of the following is true ?
s.
(A) 0 # a # 1 and high value of a is used for stable demand
(B) 0 # a # 1 and high value of a is used for unstable demand
ta
(C) a $ 1 and high value of a is used for stable demand
a
(D) a # 0 and high value of a is used for unstable demand
d
Sol. 19
il
iv
High value of ‘a ’ shows more weightage is given to immediate forecast. Less
value of ‘a ’ shows less weightage is given to immediate forecast or almost equal
.C
weightage is given. So high value of ‘a ’ is chosen when nature of demand is not
reliable or unstable.
Q. 20
w
For machining a rectangular island represented by coordinates P(0,0), Q(100,0),
w
R(100,50) and S(0,50) on a casting using CNC milling machine, an end mill with
a diameter of 16 mm is used. The trajectory of the cutter centre to machine the
w
island PQRS is
(A) ^- 8, - 8h, ^108, - 8h, ^108, 58h, ^- 8, 58h, ^- 8, - 8h
(B) (8, 8), (94, 8), (94, 44), (8, 44), (8, 8)
(C) ^- 8, 8h, (94, 8), (94, 44), (8, 44), ^- 8, 8h
(D) (0, 0), (100, 0), (100, 50), (50, 0), (0, 0)
Q. 21 Which one of the following instruments is widely used to check and calibrate
geometric features of machine tools during their assembly ?
(A) Ultrasonic probe
(B) Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM)
(C) Laser interferometer
(D) Vernier calipers
To check and calibrate geometric features of machine tools, we use laser
interferometer.
Q. 22 The major difficulty during welding of aluminium is due to its

(A) high tendency of oxidation (B) high thermal conductivity
(C) low melting point (D) low density
Aluminium has high tendency of oxidation so during welding it is converted into
aluminium oxide ^Al 2 O 3h and Al 2 O 3 has very high melting point ^2702cCh so
now it will not melt and welding can not be performed easily.
Q. 23 The main cutting force acting on a tool during the turning (orthogonal cutting)
operation of a metal is 400 N. The turning was performed using 2 mm depth of
cut and 0.1 mm/rev feed rate. The specific cutting pressure (in N/mm2 ) is
(A) 1000 (B) 2000
(C) 3000 (D) 4000
Sol. 23
om
c
Cutting force FC = 400 N
s.
depth d = 2 mm
feed rate f = 0.1 mm/rev.
ta
It means per revolution it moves 0.1 mm (t )
Specific cutting pressure = FC
da d#t
il = 400 = 2000 N/mm2

2 # 0. 1
iv
Q. 24 The process of reheating the martensitic steel to reduce its brittleness without
any significant loss in its hardness is
.C
(A) normalising (B) annealing
w
(C) quenching (D) tempering
w
Correct option is (A).
Sol. 24
w
In solid-state welding, the contamination layers between the surfaces to be welded
Q. 25
are removed by
(A) alcohol (B) plastic deformation
(C) water jet (D) sand blasting
Plastic deformation is used to remove contamination layers between the surfaces
to be welded, in solid-state welding.
Q. 26 - Q. 55 Carry two marks each.
Q. 26 The integral # ^ydx - xdy h is evaluated along the circle x2 + y2 = 1

4 traversed in
C
counter clockwise direction. The integral is equal to
(A) 0 (B) - p
4
(C) - p (D) p
2 4
# ^ydx - xdy h
C
C is x + y = 1
2 2
4
Applying Green’s theorem

# ^Mdx + Ndy h = # # c2
C 2x 2y
m
N - 2M dxdy
A
A is the region included in C
M = y, N =- x
2M = 1, 2N =- 1
2y 2x
=# # ]- 1 - 1gdxdy
A
=- 2 # # dxdy
A
# # dxdy = area of circle with radius 12

A
=- 2 <p b 1 l F =- p
2
2 2
If y = f ^x h is the solution of ddxy = 0 with the boundary conditions y = 5 at x = 0

2
Q. 27 2
dy
, and dx = 2 at x = 10 , f ^15h = _____.
Sol. 27
om
Correct answer is 35.
c
d2 y
Differential equation 2 = 0
s. dx
solution y = Complementary function + Particular Integral
ta = C.F. + P.I.
da P.I. = 0 for the given differential equation
l
y = C.F.
i
Auxiliary equation-
iv m2
m
=0
= 0, 0
So
.C y
y
= ^c1 + c2 x h emx
= ^c1 + c2 x h
am = 0
w y = C.F. + 0 = ^c1 + c2 x h
w
at x = 0 , y = 5
5 = c1
w dy
dx
= c2 & c2 = 2
So y = 5 + 2x
y ^15h = 5 + 2 ^15h = 35
Q. 28 In the following table, x is a discrete random variable and p ^x h is the probability
density. The standard deviation of x is
x 1 2 3
p ^x h 0.3 0.6 0.1
(A) 0.18 (B) 0.36
(C) 0.54 (D) 0.6
n
mean ^x h = / Pi Xi
i=1
3
= / Pi Xi
i=1
= ^0.3 # 1h + ^0.6 # 2h + ^0.1 # 3h
= 0.3 + 1.2 + 0.3 = 1.8

n
variance ^s2h = / Pi X i2 - ^x h2
i=1
3
= / Pi X i2 - ^x h2
i=1
= ^0.3 # 12h + ^0.6 # 22h + ^0.1 # 32h - ^1.8h2
= 0.3 + 2.4 + 0.9 - 3.24 = 0.36
Standard deviation s = s2
= 0.36 = 0.6
Q. 29 Using the trapezoidal rule, and dividing the interval of integration into three
+1
equal subintervals, the definite integral #
-1
x dx is _____
Sol. 29 Correct answer is 1.111
+1
om # -1
x dx
n = no. of intervals = 3
.c h = xn - x 0
as n
1 - ^- 1h 2
at
So value of x are
=
3
=
3
- 1,
ild -1 + 2 ,
3
- 1 + 2 b 2 l,
3
- 1 + 3 b 2 l,
3
iv
- 1, -1, 1, 1
.C
3 3
- - - -
w x0 x1 x2 x3
w x -1 -1 1 1
w y= x 1 1
3
3 3
1
3
1
Applying trapezoidal rule

#x f^x hdx = h2 7^y0 + yn h + 2^y1 + y2 + ... + yn - 1hA
x n
= h 7^y 0 + y 3h + 2 ^y1 + y2hA

2
2/3
2 ;^
= 1 + 1h + 2 b 1 + 1 lE
3 3
= 1 ;2 + 4 E
3 3
1
= ; 6 + 4
3 3 E
= 10 = 1.111
9
Q. 30 The state of stress at a point is given by s x =- 6 MPa , s y = 4 MPa and
t xy =- 8 MPa . The maximum tensile stress (in MPa) at the point is ______.
s x =- 6 MPa
s y = 4 MPa
t xy =- 8 MPa
s + sy s - sy 2
Principle stress s 1, 2 = c x m ! d x
2 n
2
+ t xy
2
s 1, 2 = b - 6 + 4 l ! b - 6 + 4 l + ^- 8h2
2
2 2
=- 1 ! 25 + 64
=- 1 ! 9.43
s 1 =- 1 + 9.43 , s 2 =- 1 - 9.43
s 1 = 8.43 MPa , s 2 =- 10.43 MPa
Stress can’t be negative so answer is 8.43 MPa
Q. 31 A block R of mass 100 kg is placed on a block S of mass 150 kg as shown in the
figure. Block R is tied to the wall by a massless and inextensible string PQ . If the
coefficient of static friction for all surfaces is 0.4, the minimum force F (in kN)
needed to move the block S is
om
.c
as
at
(A) 0.69
ild (B) 0.88
iv
(C) 0.98 (D) 1.37
.C
mR = mass of block R = 100 kg
w mS = mass of block S = 250 kg
w
Drawing free body diagram
fS - friction force between block S and surface

fR - friction force between block S and block R
fS = m S ^mS + mRh g
= 0.4 ^150 + 100h g
= 0.4 ^250h g = 100 g
fR = m S mR g
= 0.4 # 100 # g = 40g
Force balancing
F - fR - fS = 0
F = fR + fS
= 100g + 40g = 140g ^g = 9.81 m/ sec2h
= 1373.4 N
= 1.37 kN
Q. 32 A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and a center distance of 450 mm is used
for a speed reduction of 5 : 1. The number of teeth on pinion is ______.
Sol. 32 Correct answer is 30.
module m = 5 mm
center distance = 450 mm
Speed reduction or speed ratio = 5 : 1
om
.c
as
at
ild
iv
r1 + r2 = 450 D1, D2 = Diameters
D1 + D2 = 450
.C
2
D1 + D2 = 900
w
Speed ratio 5= D2
w 1
5D1
D1
= D2
So
w D1 + 5D1
D1
= 900
= 150 mm
So D2= 900 - D1
D2= 900 - 150
D2= 750 mm
module m = D1
T
So T = 1 D
m
= 150 = 30 teeths
5
Q. 33 Consider a cantilever beam, having negligible mass and uniform flexural rigidity,
with length 0.01 m. The frequency of vibration of the beam, with a 0.5 kg mass
attached at the free tip, is 100 Hz. The flexural rigidity (in N.m2 ) of the beam is
______.
Q. 34 An ideal waterjet with volume flow rate of 0.05 m3 /s strikes a flat plate placed
normal to its path and exerts a force of 1000 N. Considering the density of water
as 1000 kg/m3 , the diameter (in mm) of the water jet is ______.
Fx = Exerted force by the jet on the plate

Fx = Rate of change of momentum
Fx = mo _Vv1 - Vv2i
mo = mass flow rate
V2 = 0
m
because finally jet will have velocity in y -direction so its x -direction component
o
is zero.
o = rQ = density # flow rate
c
m
So
s. mo = 1000 # 0.05 = 50 kg/ sec
Fx = m o ^V1h
ta 1000 = 50 ^V1h
V1 = 20 m/ sec
a
Flow rate Q = Area # velocity
d
il 0.05 = p d 2 # V1
4
iv
p
0.05 = d 2 # 20
4
.C
d = 0.0564 m
= 56.4 mm
Q. 35
w
A block weighing 200 N is in contact with a level plane whose coefficients of static
w
and kinetic friction are 0.4 and 0.2, respectively. The block is acted upon by a
w
horizontal force (in newton) P = 10t , where t denotes the time in seconds. The
velocity (in m/s) of the block attained after 10 seconds is _____
R = mg = 200
Static friction force = m S mg
= 0.4 # 200 = 80 N
so block will not move until the force is more than 80 N.
P = 10t
then P = 80 N at = 8
so block will move after 8 seconds.

Then kinetic friction will come in picture.
Kinetic friction force = m k .mg
= 0.2 # 200 = 40 N
Newton’s 2nd law-
P - 40 = m.a , a = acceleration
10t - 40 = m dv , a = dv
dt dt
m^ h dt
1 10t - 40 = dv
m #8 ^ h
1 1010t - 40 dt = vdv
#0
m6 @8
1 5t2 - 40t 10 = v
om 1
m#
100 = v
Reaction force
.c R = mg
as 200 = m # 9.81
at m = 200 = 20.39 kg
9.81
l
So,Velocity
i d v = 100 # 9.81
200
iv
= 4.905 m/ sec
.C
Q. 36 A slider crank mechanism has slider mass of 10 kg, stroke of 0.2 m and rotates
with a uniform angular velocity of 10 rad/s. The primary inertia forces of the
w
slider are partially balanced by a revolving mass of 6 kg at the crank, placed at
a distance equal to crank radius. Neglect the mass of connecting rod and crank.
w
When the crank angle (with respect to slider axis) is 30c, the unbalanced force
w
(in newton) normal to the slider axis is _____
Sol. 36 Correct answer is 30 N.
mass of slider mS = 10 kg
stroke = 0.2 m
angular velocity w = 10 rad/ sec
balancing mass m = 6 kg
crank angle q = 30c
unbalance force P = mr w2 sin q

r = 0.2 = 0.1
2
P = 6 # 0.1 # 102 # sin 30c
= 6 # 0.1 # 100 # 1
2
= 6 # 5 = 30 N
Q. 37 An offset slider-crank mechanism is shown in the figure at an instant. Conventionally,

the Quick Return Ratio (QRR) is considered to be greater than one. The value
of QRR is _____

Q. 38 A rigid uniform rod AB of length L and mass m is hinged at C such that
AC = L/3 , CB = 2L/3 . Ends A and B are supported by springs of spring constant
k . The natural frequency of the system is given by
om
.c
k
as k
(A)
2m
2k at (B)
m
5k
Sol. 38
(C)
m
ild
(D)
m
iv
.C
w
w
w
Kinetic energy of the system
T = 1 Iqo2 ...(i)
2
I = mass moment of inertia of rod about point C
Point D is in the mid of rod i.e. it is the mid point
I = ID + MLl2
Ll = L - L = L
2 3 6
2 2 2
= ML + ML = ML ...(ii)
12 36 9
Potential energy of the system
k = 1 kx 12 + 1 kx 22
2 2
x1 = L q , x 2 = 2L q
3 3
2
k = 1 k b L q l + 1 k b 2L l q2
2 3 2 3
Total energy of the system will remain constant

T + k = Constant
dt ^ h
d T+k = 0
d c 1 Iqo2 + 1 k L2 q2 + 1 k 4L2 q2 m = 0
dt 2 2 9 2 9
2 2
op + kL qqo + 4kL qqo = 0
Iqq
9 9
2
Iqp + 5kL q = 0
9
2
Iqp =- 5kL q
9
Comparing with qp =- w2 q
m
2
So w = 5kL
9I
co= 5kL2
#9 ca I = mL
2
9 m
s. 9mL2
5k
a
w =
m
Q. 39
at
A hydrodynamic journal bearing is subject to 2000 N load at a rotational speed of
2000 rpm. Both bearing bore diameter and length are 40 mm. If radial clearance
ld
is 20 mm and bearing is lubricated with an oil having viscosity 0.03 Pa.s, the
i
Sommerfeld number of the bearing is _____
Sol. 39
iv
Correct answer is 0.8.
.C
Load W = 2000 N
Rotational speed NS = 2000 rpm = 2000 rps
w
60
Dia. of bearing = 40 mm
w
Radius of bearing = 20 mm
w
Length of bearing = 40 mm
Radial clearance C = 20 mm
Viscosity of oil = 0.03 Pa.s
2
mN S
Sommerfeld Number S = d r n
C P
P = W = 2000 = 1.25 MPa
l#d 40 # 40
-3 2
S = d 20 # 10-6 n # 0.03 # 2000 6
20 # 10 60 # 1.25 # 10
6
= 10 # 0.03 # 2000 = 0.8
60 # 1.25 # 106
Q. 40 A 200 mm long, stress free rod at room temperature is held between two
immovable rigid walls. The temperature of the rod is uniformly raised by 250cC
. If the Young’s modulus and coefficient of thermal expansion are 200 GPa and
1 # 10-5 /cC , respectively, the magnitude of the longitudinal stress (in MPs)
developed in the rod is _____
Sol. 40 Correct answer is 500
Length l = 200 mm
Temp. difference ]Tt g = 250cC
Young modulus E = 200 GPa
Coefficient of thermal expansion a = 1 # 10-5 /cC

Longitudinal stress = E aTt
= 200 # 109 # 10-5 # 250
= 500 MPa
Q. 41 1.5 kg of water is in saturated liquid state at 2 bar (v f = 0.001061 m3 /kg ,
u f = 504.0 kJ/kg , h f = 505 kJ/kg ). Heat is added in a constant pressure process
till the temperature of water reaches 400cC (v = 1.5493 m3 /kg , u = 2967.0 kJ/kg
, h = 3277.0 kJ/kg ). The heat added (in kJ) in the process is _____
Sol. 41 Correct answer is 4158 kJ.
Drawing T - S diagram
om
.c
as
at o ^h - h f h
ild
Head added = m
= 1.5 ^3277 - 505h
iv
= 4158 kJ
.C
Q. 42 Consider one dimensional steady state heat conduction across a wall (as shown
in figure below) of thickness 30 mm and thermal conductivity 15 W/m.K. At
w
x = 0 , a constant heat flux, q m = 1 # 105 W/m2 is applied. On the other side of
the wall, heat is removed from the wall by convection with a fluid at 25cC and
w
heat transfer coefficient of 250 W/m2 .K . The temperature (in cC ), at x = 0 is
w
_____
Sol. 42 Correct answer is 625

Temp. difference
Heat flow Q =
Thermal resistance
Q = T1 - T3
L + 1
Conductive resistance " kA hA ! Convective resistance
Q
= T1 - T3
A L+1
k h
Q
heat flux, q m = qm = T1 - T3 = T1 - 298
A L+1 30 # 10-3 + 1
k h 15 250
10 b 2 # 10 +
250 l
5 -3 1 = T1 - 298
6 # 10-3 # 105 = T1 - 298

600 + 298 = T1
T1 = 898 k or 625cC
Q. 43 Water flows through a pipe having an inner radius of 10 mm at the rate of
om
36 kg/hr at 25cC . The viscosity of water at 25cC is 0.001 kg/m.s. The Reynolds
number of the flow is _____
Sol. 43
.c
Correct answer is 636.64
as m
r = 10 mm
o = 36 kg/hr
at T = 25cC = 298 K
m = 0.001 kg/m sec
ild
We know that mass flow rate m
m
o
o = r AC = density # Area # velocity
iv 36 = r
.C
AC
3600
rC = 36
w 3600 # A
rC = 36 # 4 2 = 36 # 4
w 3600 # pD 3600 # p # 400 # 10-6
w
Reynolds number Re =
^rC h D
m
6 -3
= c 36 # 4 # 10 m # 20 # 10 ^D = 2r = 20 mmh
3600 # p # 400 0.001
2 -3 3
= 36 # 4 # 10 # 10 # 10 # 20
36 # p # 4
= 636.94
Q. 44 For a fully developed flow of water in a pipe having diameter 10 cm, velocity
0.1 m/s and kinematic viscosity 10-5 m2 /s , the value of Darcy friction factor is
______
diameter D = 10 cm
velocity V = 0.1 m/ sec
m
Kinematic viscosity b l = 10-5 m2 / sec
r
r
Reynolds number Re = VD
m
Re = VD
^m/rh
-2
= 0.1 # .10-5# 10 = 1000
10
Re 1 2300 so it is laminar flow, for laminar flow Darcy friction factor is
f = 64 = 64 = 0.064
Re 1000
Q. 45 In a simple concentric shaft-bearing arrangement, the lubricant flows in the 2
mm gap between the shaft and the bearing. The flow may be assumed to be a
plane Couette flow with zero pressure gradient. The diameter of the shaft is 100
mm and its tangential speed is 10 m/s. The dynamic viscosity of the lubricant is
0.1 kg/m.s. The frictional resisting force (in newton) per 100 mm length of the
bearing is _____
Q. 46 The non-dimensional fluid temperature profile near the surface of a convectively
cooled flat plate is given by TT --TT = a + b Ly + c ` Ly j , where y is measured
W
2
W 3
perpendicular to the plate, L is the plate length, and a , b and c are arbitrary
om
constants. TW and T3 are wall and ambient temperatures, respectively. If the
thermal conductivity of the fluid is k and the wall heat flux is qm, the Nusselt
(A) a
W
c
number Nu = T q-mT Lk is equal to
. 3
(B) b
(C) 2c
as (D) ^b + 2c h
Sol. 46
at
Non-dimensional fluid profile
ild TW - T = a + b y + c y
TW - T3 d L n d L n
2
...(i)
iv
Nusselt number Nu =
q m L
.C
TW - T3 k
From equation (i)
w y y 2
TW - T = ^TW - T3h=a + b d n + c d n G
L L
w y y 2
T - TW = ^T3 - TW h=a + b d n + c d n G
w L
y
L
y 2
T = TW + ^T3 - TW h=a + b d n + c d n G ...(ii)
L L
Fourier’s law of conduction
q =- kA dT
dy
q
=- k dT
A dy
q
Heat flux, q m = qm =- k dT ...(iii)
A dy
dT = ^T - T h< b + 2cy F
W
dy 3
L L2
so from equation (iii)
2cy
qm =- k ^T3 - TW h< b + 2 F
L L
2cy
qm = k ^TW - T3h< b + 2 F
L L
at y = 0
qm = k ^TW - T3h: b D
L
qm L = b = Nu
^TW - T3h k
So Nu = b
Q. 47 In an air-standard Otto cycle, air is supplied at 0.1 MPa and 308 K. The ratio of
the specific heats ^r h and the specific gas constant ^Rh of air are 1.4 and 288.8 J/
kg.K, respectively. If the compression ratio is 8 and the maximum temperature in
the cycle is 2660 K, the heat (in kJ/kg) supplied to the engine is _____
Sol. 47 Correct answer is 1416.27 kJ/kg.
P -V and T - S diagram for otto cycle
om
.c
as
at
ild
iv Q supplied = CV ^T3 - T2h kJ/kg
.C
P1 = 0.1 MPa
T1 = 308 K
w 8=r
r = 1.4
w
Gas constant R = 288.8 J/kg.K
w Tmax . of cycle = T3 = 2660 K

1 - 2 isentropic process
r-1
T2 = c P2 m
r
T1 P1
r-1
T2 = cV1 m
T1 V2
T2 = ^8 h1.4 - 1
T1
T2 = 80.4 # 308 = 698.40 K
CP - CV =R
CV c CP - 1m =R
CV
CV ^1.4 - 1h = 288.8
CV = 722 J/kg
Q supplied = CV ^T3 - T2h
= 722 ^2660 - 698.40h
= 1416275.2 J/kg
= 1416.27 kJ/kg
Q. 48 A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of heat from a reservoir at 1000 K and
a certain amount of heat from a reservoir at 800 K. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a
reservoir at 400 K. The net work output (in kJ) of the cycle is
(A) 0.8 (B) 1.0

(C) 1.4 (D) 2.0
Reversible heat engine (H.E.)
as it is a reversible engine so change in entropy of universe is zero.
om
Ts = 0 ds =
dQ
T
.c 2 + Q - 1 =0
1000 800 400
as Q
= 1 - 1 = 800 = 8
t
800 400 500 2000 20
a
Q = 0.4 kJ
d
Now balancing the energy
il 2 + Q - 1 = Work ^W h
iv
W = 2 + 0. 4 - 1
W = 1.4 kJ
Q. 49
.C
An ideal reheat Rankine cycle operates between the pressure limits of 10 kPa and
8 MPa, with reheat being done at 4 MPa. The temperature of steam at the inlets
w
of both turbines is 500cC and the enthalpy of steam is 3185 kJ/kg at the exit of
w
the high pressure turbine and 2247 kJ/kg at the exit of low pressure turbine. The
enthalpy of water at the exit from the pump is 191 kJ/kg. Use the following table
w
for relevant data.
Superheated steam Pressure v ^m3 /kgh h (kJ/kg) s (kJ/kg.K)
temperature ^cCh (MPa)
500 4 0.08644 3446 7.0922
500 8 0.04177 3399 6.7266
Disregarding the pump work, the cycle efficiency (in percentage) is _____
Q. 50 Jobs arrive at a facility at an average rate of 5 in an 8 hour shift. The arrival of
the jobs follows Poisson distribution. The average service time of a job on the
facility is 40 minutes. The service time follows exponential distribution. Idle time
(in hours) at the facility per shift will be
(A) 5 (B) 14
7 3
(C) 7 (D) 10
5 3

Arrival rate ^lh = 5 jobs in 8 hours
Average service time = 40 min /job
So total service time = 40 # 5 (because 5 jobs are there) = 200 min
= 200 = 10 hours
60 3
So Idle time per shift at the facility
= 8 - 10
3
= 24 - 10 = 14 hours
3 3
Q. 51 A metal rod of initial length L 0 is subjected to a drawing process. The length of
the rod at any instant is given by the expression, L ^ t h = L 0 ^1 + t2h, where t is
the time in minutes. The true strain rate (in min-1 ) at the end of one minute is
Sol. 51
_____
om
Correct answer is 1 min-1 .
.c
Initial length = L 0
Instantaneous length Li = L 0 ^1 + t2h
s
True strain e = ln Li
a
t
L0
L 0 ^1 + t2h
da e = ln
L0
il e = ln ^1 + t2h
iv
True strain rate,
de = 1 2t
^1 + t2h
.C
dt
at t = 1,
2 ^1 h
w b de
dt
l=
1 + 12
w = 2 = 1 min-1
2
Q. 52
w
During pure orthogonal turning operation of a hollow cylindrical pipe, it is found
that the thickness of the chip produced is 0.5 mm. The feed given to the zero
degree rake angle tool is 0.2 mm/rev. The shear strain produced during the
operation is _____
Q. 53 For the given assembly: 25 H7/g8, match Group A with Group B
Group A Group B
P. H I. Shaft type
Q. IT8 II. Hole type
R. IT7 III. Hole tolerance grade
S. g IV. Shaft tolerance grade
(A) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II (B) P-I, Q-IV, R-III, S-II
(C) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I (D) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
H " Hole type
g " Shaft type
H7 " A hole and 7 indicates its tolerance grade

g8 " A shaft and 8 indicates its tolerance grade
Q. 54 If the Taylor’s tool life exponent n is 0.2, and the tool changing time is 1.5 min,
then the tool life (in min) for maximum production rate is _____
Sol. 54 Correct answer is 6 min.
n = 0.2
Tool changing time Tc = 1.5 min
Tool life for maximum production rate
Topt = 1 - n # Tc
n
= 1 - 0.2 1.5
0. 2 #
= 6 min
Q. 55 An aluminium alloy (density 2600 kg/m3 ) casting is to be produced. A cylindrical
hole of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm length is made in the casting using sand
is _____
om
core (density 1600 kg/m3 ). The net buoyancy force (in newton) acting on the core
Sol. 55
.c
Correct answer is 7.7.
as
Density of Al alloy r = 2600 kg/m3
Density of sand core d = 1600 kg/m3
at
Hole dia D = 100 mm = 0.1 m
Net buoyancy force = Weight of liquid displaced - weight of solid body
ild = Vrg - Vdg = Vg ^r - d h

p
da V = volume = A # L = D2 # L n
iv
4
= d p D2 L n g ^2600 - 1600h
.C
4
p
= d # ^0.1h2 # 0.1n # 9.81 # 1000
w 4
= 7.7 N
w
w
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
**********
ANSWER KEY
General Aptitude
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(C) (D) (B) (A) (725) (D) (B) (560) (D) (B)
Mechanical Engineering
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(A) (A) (C) (A) (B) (C) (0.29- (B) (A) (D)
0.31)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
m
(D) (B) (C) (B) (A) (D) (C) (B) (B) (A)
21
(C)
22
(A)
23
(B)
24
c
(A)o 25
(B)
26
(C)
27
(34-36)
28
(D)
29
(1.10-
30
(8.4-
s. 1.12) 8.5)
31
(D)
32
(29-31)
33
(0.064-
ta 34
(56-57)
35
(4.8-
36
(29-31)
37
(1.2-
38
(D)
39
(0.75-
40
(499-
0.067)
da 5.0) 1.3) 0.85) 501)

41 42 43
il 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
iv
(4155- (620- (635- (0.06- (15-16) (B) (1400- (C) (40-42) (B)
4160) 630) 638) 0.07) 1420)
51
(0.9-
52
(2.8- .C
53
(D)
54
(5.9-
55
(7-8)
1.1) 3.0)
w 6.1)
w
w

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Q. 1 - Q. 5 Carry one mark each.

So it is clear from the venn-diagram that some entrepreneurs are doctors.

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as 81 173 357 ____

Find the odd one from the following group:

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END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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Q. 1 - Q. 25 Carry one mark each.

By using expansion form of sin x and cos x

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using L. Hospital’s Rule

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Sol. 4 Correct option is (A).

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Sol. 6 Correct option is (D).

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At point A, resultant velocity

(A) 2.14 (B) 1.89

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Q. 12 Biot number signifies the ratio of

ild PV = Displacement work

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Isentropic efficiency h = 0.85

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Sol. 17 Correct option is (C).

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Q. 22 The major difficulty during welding of aluminium is due to its

il = 400 = 2000 N/mm2

Q. 26 - Q. 55 Carry two marks each.

Q. 26 The integral # ^ydx - xdy h is evaluated along the circle x2 + y2 = 1

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

Applying Green’s theorem

# # dxdy = area of circle with radius 12

If y = f ^x h is the solution of ddxy = 0 with the boundary conditions y = 5 at x = 0

da P.I. = 0 for the given differential equation

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

= 0.3 + 1.2 + 0.3 = 1.8

Applying trapezoidal rule

= h 7^y 0 + y 3h + 2 ^y1 + y2hA

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

w mS = mass of block S = 250 kg

fS - friction force between block S and surface

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

Sol. 34 Correct answer is 56.4

Fx = Exerted force by the jet on the plate

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

so block will move after 8 seconds.

unbalance force P = mr w2 sin q

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

Q. 37 An offset slider-crank mechanism is shown in the figure at an instant. Conventionally,

Sol. 37 Correct answer is 1.2.

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Total energy of the system will remain constant

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

Coefficient of thermal expansion a = 1 # 10-5 /cC

Sol. 42 Correct answer is 625

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1

6 # 10-3 # 105 = T1 - 298

GATE SOLVED PAPER - ME 2014-1