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Model College TYBMS Operations Research CA Kunal S.

Chandika
Sem VI

Operations Research

Module 1: Introduction to Operations Research and Linear Programming


Unit 1 : Introduction to Operations Research (MCQ = 26)

1. Operations Research, which is a very powerful tool for _____


a. Research
b. Decision-Making
c. Operations
d. None of the above
2. Who coined the term Operations Research?
a. J.F. McCloskey
b. F.N. Trefethen
c. P.F. Adams
d. Both a & b
3. The Term Operations Research was coined in the year _____
a. 1950
b. 1940
c. 1978
d. 1960
4. This Innovative science of Operations Research was discovered during ________
a. Civil War
b. World War I
c. World War II
d. Industrial Revolution
5. Operations Research was known as an ability to win a war without really going into a _____
a. Battle Field
b. Fighting
c. War
d. Both a & b
6. Who defined Operations Research as scientific method of providing executive departments with a
quantitative basis for decisions regarding the operations under their control?
a. Morse and Kimball (1946)
b. P.M.S Blackett (1948)
c. E.L. Arnoff and M.J. Netzorg
d. None of the above
7. Who defined Operations Research as scientific approach to problem solving for executive management?
a. E.L. Arnoff
b. P.M.S. Blackett
c. H.M. Wagner
d. None of the above
8. Who defined Operations Research as an aid for the executive in marketing his decisions by providing him
with the quantitative information based on the scientific method of analysis?
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a. C. Kitte
b. H.M. Wagner
c. E.L. Arnoff
d. None of the above
9. Operations Research has the characteristics that it is done by a team of _____
a. Scientists
b. Mathematicians
c. Academics
d. All of the above
10. There is a great scope for ______ working as a team to solve problems of defence by using the Operations
Research approach
a. Economists
b. Administrators
c. Statisticians and Technicians
d. All of the Above
11. Operations Research emphasizes on the overall approach to the system. This characteristic of Operations
Research is often referred as
a. System Orientation
b. System Approach
c. Interdisciplinary Team Approach
d. None of the above
12. Operations Research involves various _______ to solve the problems
a. Decisions
b. Study
c. Technique
d. Applications
13. Operations Research cannot give perfect _____ to problems
a. Answers
b. Solutions
c. Both a & b
d. Decisions
14. OR techniques provide a solution only when all the elements related to a problem can be ____
Quantified
Qualified
Measure
Understand
15. Operations Research techniques helps to find an ________ by taking into account all the factors
a. Ultimate solution
b. Alternate solution
c. Optimum solution
d. Maximise solution
16. Operations Research simply helps in improving the ______ of the solution but does not result in a perfect
solution
a. Quality
b. Clarity
c. Look
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d. None of the above
17. Operations Research involves _________ attacks of complex problems to arrive at the optimum solution
a. Scientific
b. Systematic
c. Both a & b
d. Statistical
18. Mean, median and mode are measures of _______
a. Central tendency
b. Dispersion
c. Probability
d. maths
19. ______ are technique applied in project management
a. CPM
b. Assignment
c. Transportation
d. Decision theory
20. ________ technique is related to Quality control
a. Assignment
b. Transportation
c. CPM
d. SQC
21. _______ technique is related to Inventory management
a. EOQ
b. SQC
c. CPM
d. transportation
22. Operations Research techniques cannot be applied to _____
a. Managerial judgement
b. Business initiatives
c. Customer perceptions
d. All of the above
23. ___________ technique helps to make a choice from numerous available alternatives
a. PERT
b. CPM
c. Linear Programming
d. Transportation
24. Operations Research models in which values of all variables and all possible outcomes are known with
certainty are called _____
a. Physical
b. Symbolic
c. Deterministic
d. Probabilistic
25. Operations Research models in which some or all values of variables are random in nature are called _____
a. Physical
b. Symbolic
c. Deterministic
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d. Probabilistic
26. Operations Research is a _________
a. Science
b. Art
c. Mathematics
d. Both a & b

Module 1: Introduction to Operations Research and Linear Programming


Unit 2 : Linear Programming Problems: Introduction and Formulation (MCQ = 21)

27. The mathematical model of an LP problem is important because


a. It helps in converting the verbal description & numerical data into mathematical expression
b. Decision-makers prefer to work with formal models
c. It captures the relevant relationship among decision factors
d. It enables the use of algebraic technique
28. Linear programming is a
a. Constrained optimization technique
b. Technique for economic allocation of limited resources
c. Mathematical technique
d. All of the above
29. A constraint in an LP model restricts
a. Value of objective function
b. Value of a decision variable
c. Use of the available resources
d. All of the above
30. The distinguishing feature of an LP model is
a. Relationship among all variables is linear
b. It has single objective function & constraints
c. Value of decision variables is non-negative
d. All of the above
31. Constraints in an LP model represents
a. Limitations
b. Requirements
c. Balancing limitations & requirements
d. All of the above
32. Non-Negativity condition is an important component of L P model because
a. Variables value should remain under the control of the decision-maker
b. Value of variables make sense & correspond to real-world problems

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c. Variables are interrelated in terms of limited resources
d. None of the above
33. Before formulating a formal L P model it is better to
a. Express each constrain in words
b. Express the objective function in words
c. Verbally identify decision variables
d. All of the above
34. Maximization of objective function in an L P model means
a. Value occurs at allowable set of decisions
b. Highest value is chosen among allowable decisions
c. Neither of above
d. Both a & b
35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the L P model
a. Alternative courses of actions
b. An objective function of maximization type
c. Limited amount of resources
d. Non-negativity condition on the value of decision variable
36. The best use of linear programming technique is to find an optimal use of
a. Money
b. Manpower
c. Machine
d. All of the above
37. Which of the following is not a characteristics of the LP
a. Resources must be limited
b. Only one objective function
c. Parameters value remains constant during the planning period
d. The problem must be of minimization type
38. Non-negativity condition in an LP model implies
a. A positive coefficient of variables in objective function
b. A positive coefficient of variables in any constraint
c. Non-negative value of resources
d. None of the above
39. Which of the following is an assumption of an LP model
a. Divisibility
b. Proportionality
c. Additivity
d. All of the above
40. Which of the following is a limitation associated with an LP model
a. The relationship among decision variables is linear
b. No guarantee to get integer valued solutions
c. No considerations of effect of time & uncertainty on LP model
d. All of the above
41. Who developed Linear Programming for the purpose of scheduling the complicated procurement activities
of the United States Air Force?
a. George B. Dantzig

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b. James B. Dantzig
c. George B. Dante
d. George V. Dantzig
42. _____ assumption means the prior knowledge of all the coefficients in the objective function , the
coefficients of the constraints and the resource values
a. Proportionality
b. Certainty
c. Finite choices
d. Continuity
43. The word “Linear” means that the relationships are represented by _____
a. Diagonal lines
b. Curved lines
c. Straight lines
d. Slanting lines
44. The word “Programming” means taking decisions ______
a. Systematically
b. Rapidly
c. Slowly
d. Instantly
45. LP is a major innovations since _______ in the field of business decision-making, particularly under
conditions of certainty
a. Industrial Revolution
b. World War I
c. World War II
d. French Revolution
46. Linear programming has been successfully applied in __________
a. Agricultural
b. Industrial applications
c. Both a & b
d. manufacturing
47. The method of formal calculations often termed as Linear Programming was developed later in which year?
a. 1947
b. 1988
c. 1957
d. 1944

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Module 1: Introduction to Operations Research and Linear Programming
Unit 3 : Linear Programming Problems: Graphical Method (MCQ = 17)

48. The graphical method of LP problem uses


a. Objective function equation
b. Constraint equations
c. Linear equations
d. All of the above
49. A feasible solution to an LP problem
a. Must satisfy all of the problem’s constraints simultaneously
b. Need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them
c. Must be a corner point of the feasible solution
d. Must optimize the value of the objective function
50. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the optimal solution of an LP problem?
a. Every LP problem has an optimal solution
b. Optimal solution of an LP problem always occurs at an extreme point
c. At optimum solution all resources are completely used
d. If an optimal solution exists, there will always be at least one at a corner
51. An iso-profit line represents
a. An infinite number of solutions all of which yield the same profit
b. An infinite number of solutions all of which incurs the same cost
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c. An infinite number of optimal solutions
d. A boundary of the feasible region
52. If an iso-profit yielding the optimal solution coincides with a constraint line, then
a. The solution is unbounded
b. The solution is infeasible
c. The constraint which coincides is redundant
d. None of the above
53. While plotting constraints on a graph paper, terminal points on both the axes are connected by straight line
because
a. The resources are limited in supply
b. The objective function as a linear function
c. The constraints are linear equations or inequalities
d. All of the above
54. A constraint in an LP model becomes redundant because
a. Two iso-profits may be parallel to each other
b. The solution is unbounded
c. This constraint is not satisfied by the solution values
d. None of the above
55. If two constraints do not intersect in the positive quadrant of the graph, then
a. The problem is infeasible
b. The solution is unbounded
c. One of the constraints is redundant
d. None of the above
56. Constraints in LP problem are called active if they
a. Represent optimal solutions
b. At optimality do not consume all the available resources
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
57. The solution space(region) of an LP problem is unbounded due to
a. An incorrect formulation of the LP model
b. Objective function is unbounded
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a & b
58. While solving a LP model graphically, the area bounded by the constraints is called
a. Feasible region
b. Infeasible region
c. Unbounded solution
d. None of the above
59. Alternative solutions exist of an LP model when
a. One of the constraints is redundant
b. Objective function equation is parallel to one of the constraints
c. Two constraints are parallel
d. All of the above
60. While solving a LP problem, infeasibility may be removed by
a. Adding another constraint
b. Adding another variable
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c. Removing a constraint
d. Removing a variable
61. If a non-redundant constraint is removed from an LP problem then
a. Feasible region will become larger
b. Feasible region will become smaller
c. Solution will become infeasible
d. None of the above
62. If one of the constraint of an equation in an LP problem has an unbounded solution, then
a. Solution to such LP problem must be degenerate
b. Feasible region should have a line segment
c. Alternative solutions exists
d. None of the above
63. Graphic method can be applied to solve a LPP when there are only ____ variable
a. Four
b. More than one
c. Two
d. three
64. If the feasible region of a LPP is empty, the solution is _______
a. Infeasible
b. Unbounded
c. Alternative
d. None of the above

Module 1: Introduction to Operations Research and Linear


Programming Unit 3 : Linear Programming Problems: Simplex Method
(MCQ = 24)

65. Any feasible solution which optimizes (minimizes or maximizes) the objective function of the LPP is called as
_______
a. Optimal solution
b. Non-basic variables
c. Solution
d. Basic Feasible solution
66. Which method is an iterative procedure for solving LPP in a finite number of steps?
a. Simplex algorithm
b. Slack variable
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c. Big M method
d. Simplex method
67. In simplex algorithm, which method is used to deal with the situation where an infeasible starting basic
solution is given?
a. Slack variable
b. Simplex method
c. Big M Method
d. None of the above
68. How many methods are there to solve LPP?
a. Three
b. Two
c. Four
d. None of the above
69. _____ is another method to solve a given LPP involving some artificial variable?
a. Big M method
b. Method of penalties
c. Two-phase simplex method
d. None of the above
70. Which variables are fictitious and cannot have any physical meaning?
a. Optimal variable
b. Decision variable
c. Artificial variable
d. None of the above
71. An objective function which states the determinants of the quantity to be either maximized or minimized is
called_______
a. Feasible function
b. Optimal function
c. Criterion function
d. None of the above
72. An assumption that implies that finite numbers of choices are available to a decision-maker and the decision
variables do not assume negative values is known as _______
a. Certainty
b. Continuity
c. Finite choices
d. None of the above
73. A set of values X1,X2……..Xn which satisfies the constraints of the LPP is called_______
a. Solution
b. Variable
c. Linearity
d. None of the above
74. A basic solution which also satisfies the condition in which all basic variables are non-negative is called ___
a. Basic feasible solution
b. Feasible solution
c. Optimal solution
d. None of the above

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75. All the constraints are expressed as equations and the right hand side of each constraint and all variables
are non-negative is called_______
a. Canonical variable
b. Canonical form
c. Canonical solution
d. Both a & b
76. An objective function is maximized when it is a _______ function
a. Passive
b. Profit
c. Cost
d. None of the above
77. LPP is exactly used in solving what kind of resource allocation problems?
a. Production planning and scheduling
b. Transportation
c. Sales and advertising
d. All of the above
78. Currently, LPP is used in solving a wide range of practical ___________
a. Business problems
b. Agricultural problems
c. Manufacturing problems
d. None of the above
79. _____ refers to the combination of one or more inputs to produce a particular output
a. Solution
b. Variable
c. Process
d. None of the above
80. An optimum solution is considered the _____ among feasible solutions
a. Worst
b. Best
c. Ineffective
d. None of the above
81. BFS in LPP stands for:
a. Best Feasible solution
b. Better feasible solution
c. Basic feasible solution
d. None of the above
82. ________ which is a subclass of a linear programming problem(LPP)
a. Programming problem
b. Transportation problem
c. Computer problem
d. All of the above
83. If in a LPP, the solution of a variable can be infinity large without violating the constraints, the solution is
___
a. Infeasible
b. Unbounded
c. Alternative
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d. None of the above
84. In simplex method, we add _______ variables in the case of “=”
a. Slack variable
b. Surplus variable
c. Artificial variable
d. None of the above
85. In simplex method, if there is tie between a decision variable and a slack (or surplus) variable, ______
should be selected
a. Slack variable
b. Surplus variable
c. Decision variable
d. None of the above
86. A BFS of a LPP is said to be ______ if at least one of the basic variable is zero
a. Degenerate
b. Non-degenerate
c. Infeasible
d. unbounded
87. Every LPP is associated with another LPP is called_____
a. Primal
b. Dual
c. Non-linear programming
d. None of the above
88. Dual of the dual is _______
a. Primal
b. Dual
c. Alternative
d. None of the above

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Module 2: Assignment and Transportation Models
Unit 1 : Assignment Problem: Hungarian Method (MCQ = 26)

89. If the number of jobs is equal to the number of resources, then the problem is term as _____ assignment
problem
a. Balanced
b. Unbalanced
c. Equal
d. Unequal
90. If the number of jobs is not equal to the number of resources, then the problem is term as _____
assignment problem
a. Balanced
b. Unbalanced
c. Equal
d. Unequal
91. Maximization problem, then convert into minimization table through _________
a. Row minimization
b. Column minimization
c. Regret matrix
d. Profit matrix
92. If cost, time, etc is given, then it is ________
a. Balanced problem
b. Unbalanced problem
c. Maximization problem
d. Minimization problem
93. If profit, sales, production, etc is given then it is _________
a. Balanced problem
b. Unbalanced problem
c. Maximization problem
d. Minimization problem
94. For __________ minimization, we take least value from each row and subtract it from all values of that
row.
a. Column
b. Row
c. Profit
d. Cost
95. For __________ minimization, we take least value from each column and subtract it from all values of
that column.
a. Column
b. Row
c. Profit
d. Cost
96. The method of solution of assignment problems is called
a. NWCR
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b. VAM
c. LCM
d. Hungarian
97. The extra row or column which is added to balance an assignment problem is called _____
a. Regret
b. Epsilon
c. Dummy
d. extra
98. When a particular assignment in the given problem is not possible or restricted as a condition, it is called
a __ problem
a. Infeasible
b. Degenerate
c. Unbalanced
d. Prohibited
99. If in an assignment problem, number of rows is not equal to number of columns then
a. Maximization problem
b. Problem is unbalanced
c. Problem is degenerate
d. Optimum solution is not possible
100. An assignment problem is considered as a particular case of a transportation problem because
a. The number of rows equals columns
b. All xij = 0 or 1
c. All rim conditions are 1
d. All of the above
101. An optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines that can be drawn through squares
with zero opportunity cost be equal to the number of
a. Rows or columns
b. Rows & columns
c. Rows + columns -1
d. None of the above
102. While solving an assignment problem, an activity is assigned to a resource through a square with zero
opportunity cost because the objective is to
a. Minimize total cost of assignment
b. Reduce the cost of assignment to zero
c. Reduce the cost of that particular assignment to zero
d. All of the above
103. The method used for solving an assignment problem is called
a. Reduced matrix method
b. MODI method
c. Hungarian method
d. None of the above
104. The purpose of a dummy row or column in an assignment problem is to
a. Obtain balance between total activities and total resources
b. Prevent a solution from becoming degenerate
c. Provide a means of representing a dummy problem
d. None of the above
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105. Maximization assignment problem is transformed into a minimization problem by
a. Adding each entry in a column from the maximization value in that column
b. Subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column
c. Subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that table
d. Any one of the above.
106. If there were n workers & n jobs there would be
a. N! solutions
b. (n-1)! Solutions
c. (n!)n solutions
d. N Solutions
107. The assignment problem
a. Requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource
b. Is a special case of transportation problem
c. Can be used to maximize resources
d. All of the above
108. An assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem, where
a. Number of rows equals number of columns
b. All rim conditions are 1
c. Values of each decision variable is either 0 or 1
d. All of the above
109. An optimal solution of an assignment problem can be obtained only if
a. Each row & column has only one zero element
b. Each row & columns has at least one zero element
c. The data is arrangement in a square matrix
d. None of the above
110. For maximization in assignment problem, the objective is to maximize the
a. Profit
b. Optimization
c. Cost
d. None of the above
111. For solving an assignment problem, which method is used?
a. British
b. American
c. German
d. None of the above
112. ___ is one of the fundamental combinatorial optimization problems
a. Assignment problem
b. Transportation problem
c. Optimization problem
d. None of the above
113. If no. of rows are equal to number of columns and the matrix elements are Time elements then the
problem is:
a. Balanced and Minimization Transportation problem
b. Unbalanced and Minimization Transportation problem
c. Balanced and Minimization Assignment problem
d. Unbalanced and Minimization Assignment problem
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114. If no. of rows are not equal to number of columns and the matrix elements are profit elements then the
problem is:
a. Balanced and Maximization Transportation problem
b. Unbalanced and Maximization Transportation problem
c. Balanced and Maximization Assignment problem
d. Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment problem

Module 2: Assignment and Transportation Models


Unit 2 :Transportation Problems (MCQ = 34)

115. To find initial feasible solution of a transportation problem the method which starts allocation from the
lowest cost is called ________
a. North west corner
b. Least cost
c. South east corner
d. Vogel’s approximation
116. In a transportation problem, the method of penalties is called
a. North west corner
b. Least cost
c. South east corner
d. Vogel’s approximation
117. Which of the following considers difference between two least costs for each row and column while
fining initial basic feasible solution
a. North west corner
b. Least cost
c. South east corner
d. Vogel’s approximation
118. When the total of allocations of a transportation problem match with supply and demand values, the
solution is called _________ solution
a. Non-degenerate
b. Degenerate
c. Feasible
d. Infeasible
119. When the allocations of a transportation problem satisfy the rim condition (m+n-1) the solution is called
as ___ solution
a. Degenerate
b. Infeasible
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c. Unbounded
d. Non-degenerate
120. When there is a degeneracy in the transportation problem, we add an imaginary allocation called
______ in the solution
a. Dummy
b. Penalty
c. Epsilon
d. Regret
121. If m+n-1 = number of allocations in transportation, it means ______
a. There is no degeneracy
b. Problem is unbalanced
c. Problem is degenerate
d. Solution is optimal
122. There are ______ types of techniques available to find the Initial basic feasible solution a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. one
123. When demand is not equal to supply, we need to add _____
a. Variable
b. Resources
c. Dummy
d. Events
124. When demand is equal to supply it is ____ problems
a. Maximization
b. Minimization
c. Unbalance
d. Balance
125. When demand is not equal to supply it is ______ problems
a. Maximization
b. Minimization
c. Unbalance
d. Balance
126. A dummy variable is simply a _______ variable
a. Slack
b. Reluctant
c. Compress
d. Fictional
127. If the number of occupied cells is equal to m+n-1 i.e. number of independent constraint equations,
then it is
a. Basic feasible solution
b. Degenerate
c. Non-degenerate
d. Initial Basic feasible solution
128. If the number of occupied cells is less than m+n-1 then the solution is known as ______ solution a. Basic
feasible solution
b. Degenerate
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c. Non-degenerate
d. Initial Basic feasible solution
129. The initial solution of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any known method.
However, the only condition is that
a. The solution be optimal
b. The rim conditions are satisfied
c. The solution not be degenerate
d. All of the above
130. The dummy source or destination in a transportation problem is added to a. Satisfy rim conditions
b. Prevent solution from becoming degenerate
c. Ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit
d. None of the above
131. The occurrence of degeneracy while solving a transportation problem means that
a. Total supply equals total demand
b. The solution so obtained is not feasible
c. The few allocations become negative
d. None of the above
132. An alternative optimal solution to a minimization transportation problem exists whenever opportunity
cost corresponding to unused route of transportation is
a. Positive & greater than zero
b. Positive with at least one equal to zero
c. Negative with at least one equal to zero
d. None of the above
133. One disadvantage of using North-West Corner rule to find initial solution to the transportation problem
is that
a. It is complicated to use
b. It does not take into account cost of transportation
c. It leads to a degenerate initial solution
d. All of the above
134. The solution to a transportation problem with ‘m’ rows(supplies) & ‘n’ columns(destination) is feasible if
number of positive allocations are
a. M+n
b. M*n
c. M+n-1
d. M+n+1
135. If an opportunity cost value is used for an unused cell to test optimality, it should be a. Equal to zero
b. Most negative number
c. Most positive number
d. Any value
136. During an iteration while moving from one solution to the next, degeneracy may occurs when
a. The closed path indicates a diagonal move
b. Two or more occupied cells are on the closed path but neither of them represents a corner of the
path
c. Two or more occupied cells on the closed path with minus sign are tied for lowest circled value d.
Either of the above

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137. The large negative opportunity cost value in an unused cell in a transportation table is chosen to improve
the current solution because
a. It represents per unit cost reduction
b. It represents per unit cost improvement
c. It ensures no rim requirement violation
d. None of the above
138. In a transportation problem, the smallest quantity is chosen at the corners of the closed path with
negative sign to be assigned an unused cell because
a. It improves the total cost
b. It does not disturb rim conditions
c. It ensures feasible solution
d. All of the above
139. When total supply is equal to total demand in a transportation problem, the problem is said to be a.
Balanced
b. Unbalanced
c. Degenerate
d. None of the above
140. Which of the following methods is used to verify the optimality of the current solution of the
transportation problem
a. Least cost method
b. Vogel’s approximation method
c. Modified distribution method
d. All of the above
141. If total supply is equal to total demand and the matrix elements are time elements then the problem is
a. Balanced and Minimization Transportation problem
b. Unbalanced and Minimization Transportation problem
c. Balanced and Minimization Assignment problem
d. Unbalanced and Minimization Assignment problem
142. The solution of any transportation problem is obtained in how many stages? a. Five
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two
143. An optimal solution is the ______ stage of a solution obtained by improving the initial solution a. Third
b. First
c. Second
d. Final
144. MODI method is used to obtain____
a. Optimal solutions
b. Optimality test
c. Both a & b
d. optimization
145. Any feasible solution to a transportation problem containing m origins and n destinations is said to be _
a. Independent
b. Degenerate
c. Non-degenerate
d. Both a & b
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146. A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner cells of which are occupied
is called as _______
a. Occupied path
b. Open path
c. Closed path
d. None of the above
147. Transportation algorithm can be used for minimizing the transportation cost of _____ from O origins and
D destinations
a. Goods
b. Products
c. Items
d. None of the above
148. If demand is lesser than supply then dummy demand node is added to make it a ____ a. Simple problem
b. Balanced problem
c. Transportation problem
d. None of the above

Module 3: Network Analysis


CPM, Project Crashing, PERT (MCQ = 55)

149. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor and control large and complex
projects by using only one time factor per activity
a. Forecasting
b. Program evaluation review technique
c. Critical path method
d. simulation
150. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor and control large and complex
projects by employing three time estimates per activity
a. Forecasting
b. Program evaluation review technique
c. Critical path method
d. simulation
151. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned
activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques
is commonly known as CPM, what does CPM stands for?
a. Critical plan method
b. Coordinated plan method
c. Critical project method

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d. Critical path method
152. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned
activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques
is commonly known as PERT, what does PERT stands for?
a. Project evaluation review technique
b. Program evaluation review technique
c. Path evaluation review technique
d. Project execution review technique
153. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management?
a. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project b.
They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks
c. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dates as well as the probability that
the project will be completed by a specific date
d. All of the above
2 The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in which year?
a. 1957
b. 1958
c. 1959
d. 1960
154. In what year was PERT developed?
a. 1957
b. 1959
c. 1960
d. 1958
155. In a PERT/CPM network, computing the critical path requires
a. Determining the total project duration
b. Assigning the earliest finish time for an activity as the earliest start time for the next
c. That the latest finishing time for an activity not delay the overall project beyond initial expectation
d. A sophisticated and complex computer program
156. At the completion of the forward and backward passes, the slack for an activity is given by the
a. Difference between early start and early finish
b. Difference between early start and latest finish
c. Difference between latest start and early finish
d. Difference between latest start and latest finish
157. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
a. PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
b. Critical Path is determined in PERT only
c. Costs are considered on CPM only
d. Guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM.
158. In a PERT network, the earliest(activity) start time is the
a. Earliest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project
b. Latest time that an activity can be started without delaying the entire project
c. Earliest time that an activity can be started without violation of precedence requirements
d. Latest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project
a. Interfering float
b. Total float
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c. Duration
d. Free float
159. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
a. The activity which consumes maximum time, is called a node
b. The activity is the time consuming part of a project
c. The beginning and end of a job, are called events
d. Logically and sequentially connected activities and events form a network
160. The second longest path in the network diagram is called
a. Alternate
b. Feasible
c. Sub-critical
d. Critical
161. Forward pass calculations are done to find _____ occurrence times of events
a. Exact
b. Earliest
c. Latest
d. Approximate
162. Backward pass calculations are done to find ________ occurrence times of events a. Tentative
b. Definite
c. Latest
d. Earliest
163. An activity whose start or end cannot be delay without affecting total project completion time is called
______ activity
a. Dummy
b. Non-critical
c. Critical
d. Important
164. Floats for critical activities will be always _____
a. One
b. Zero
c. Highest
d. Same as duration of the activity
165. The artificial activity which indicates that an activity following it, cannot be started unless the preceding
activity is complete, is known as
a. Free float
b. Event
c. Dummy
d. Constant
166. An important assumption in PERT calculations is
a. Activity times are normally distributed
b. Activity times are independent
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
167. In PERT, slack time equals
a. EST + t
b. LST-EST
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c. Zero
d. EFT-EST
168. A dummy activity is required when
a. Two or more activities have the same starting events
b. Two or more activities have different ending events
c. Two or more activities have the same ending events
d. The network contains Two or more activities have the identical starting and ending events
169. PERT analysis computes the variance of the total project completion time as
a. The sum of the variances of all activities in the project
b. The sum of the variances of all activities not on the critical path of the project
c. The variance of the final activity of the project
d. The sum of the variances of all activities on the critical path
170. _________ an activity that must be completed prior to the start of another activity a. Sequential activity
b. Preceding activity
c. Succeeding activity
d. Concurrent activity
171. Two or more activities are _________ in nature if the end of one activity is the start of another a.
Sequential activity
b. Preceding activity
c. Succeeding activity
d. Concurrent activity
172. _______ is an activity that cannot be started till one or more preceding activities are complete a.
Sequential activity
b. Preceding activity
c. Succeeding activity
d. Concurrent activity
173. Activities that can be performed simultaneously are called ____--
a. Sequential activity
b. Preceding activity
c. Succeeding activity
d. Concurrent activity
174. If an activity has zero activity slack it
a. Means that the project is expected to be delayed
b. Must be a dummy activity
c. Is on the critical path
d. All of the above
175. Pick the wrong relationship
a. Interfering float = total float – free float
b. Total float = free float + independent float
c. Total float > free float > independent float
d. Free float = total float – head event slack
176. Chose the correct condition of the following
a. Crash Direct Cost > Normal Direct Cost, Crash time > Normal time
b. Crash Direct Cost < Normal Direct Cost, Crash time > Normal time
c. Crash Direct Cost < Normal Direct Cost, Crash time < Normal time
d. Crash Direct Cost > Normal Direct Cost, Crash time < Normal time
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177. The project cost in general involves _________ types of costs
a. Three
b. One
c. Two
d. Four
178. The rate at which the cost increases is called as the _______
a. Crash slope
b. Crash time
c. Crash cost
d. Total crash
179. It is assumed that less is the project duration more is the _______ associated with a. Profit
b. Cost
c. Sales
d. Revenue
180. The total completion time is referred as the
a. Crash slope
b. Crash time
c. Crashing cost
d. Total crash
181. The two types of costs involved in project crashing are
a. Direct and indirect
b. Total and partial
c. Visible and invisible
d. Measurable and non-measurable
182. In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as
a. Significant
b. Insignificant
c. Direct
d. Indirect
183. In project crashing, the costs associated with actual activities (e.g. material, machinery,etc) are called
___ costs
a. Visible
b. Measurable
c. Direct
d. Indirect
184. In project crashing, as we systematically, crash the project, direct cost of project ______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None of the above
185. In project crashing, as we systematically, crash the project, indirect cost of project________ a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None of the above
186. In project crashing, as we systematically, crash the project, total project cost before reaching optimal
point a. Increases
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b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None of the above
187. In project crashing, as we systematically, crash the project, total project cost after reaching optimal point
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None of the above
188. When the normal period is reduced to some extent to the period called _______ a. Crash slope
b. Crash time
c. Crash cost
d. Total crash
189. Indirect cost ______ when the project is crashed
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Becomes zero
d. None of the above
190. The longest of all paths through the network is the ______
a. Crucial path
b. Time taking path
c. Dummy path
d. Critical path
191. Activity to be crashed is selected based on
a. Critical activity with minimum crash cost
b. Non- Critical activity with minimum crash cost
c. Critical activity with maximum crash cost
d. Non-Critical activity with maximum crash cost
192. In PERT, the time estimate calculated by using formula (a+4m+b)/6 is called _____ time a. Optimistic
b. Pessimistic
c. Most likely
d. Expected
193. In PERT, the expected project completion time is also called as ______ project completion time a.
Average
b. Normal
c. Mean
d. Critical
194. The maximum time in which an activity will be completed assuming all possible delays and
postponements is termed as
a. Optimistic time
b. Most likely time
c. Pessimistic time
d. Expected time
195. The probability of normal curve is ______
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 45%
25
d. 55%
196. Optimistic time is the ________ possible time required for the completion of the activity a. Longest
b. Shortest
c. Unequal
d. Normal
197. Pessimistic time is the ___________ time period expected to complete the activity a. Longest
b. Shortest
c. Unequal
d. Normal
198. _________ is the time estimate within which the activity is completed more often a. Optimal time
b. Optimistic time
c. Pessimistic time
d. Most likely time
199. When we combine the value of optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time in a statistical
manner, we can arrive at the _________ time of an activity
a. Optimal
b. Expected
c. Normal
d. Equal
200. The ________ analysis completion time of the activity is a random variable characterized by some
probability distribution
a. CPM
b. Graphical
c. LPP
d. PERT
201. Which of the following is not a concept associated with CPM
a. Normal time
b. Probability
c. Normal cost
d. Crash cost

Module 4: Job Sequencing and Theory of Games


Unit1 : Job Sequencing Problem (MCQ = 24)

202. S.M. Johnson’s algorithm derives the minimum completion times for all “no passing” cases. “no passing”
means
a. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must preserved at the last facility
b. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must preserved for next facility

26
c. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must preserved for all subsequent facility
d. None of the above
203. An approach that minimizes the total time for sequencing a group of jobs through two week centres
while minimizing total idle time in the work centres
a. Gross materials requirement plan
b. Load report
c. Lot-for-lot
d. Johnson’s rule
204. When a set of jobs must pass through two workstations whose sequence is fixed, _______ is the rule
most commonly applied
a. Johnson’s rule
b. Earliest due date rule
c. First come, first serve rule
d. Slack time remaining
205. __________ is the process of determining which job to start first and in what order other jobs should be
processed on the machine or in work centre
a. Job sequencing
b. Priority rules
c. Batch production
d. None of these
206. Five jobs (A,B,C,D & E) are waiting to be processed on Machine P first and then on Machine Q. their
processing times are given below. Using the Johnson’s rule fine the optimal job sequence
Machines A B C D E
P 1 5 5 9 1
Q 3 2 2 4 3
a. A-B-C-D-E
b. A-E-D-B-C
c. A-C-B-D-E
d. E-A-B-C-D
207. In sequencing if smallest time for a job belongs to machine-1 then the job has to placed a. In the middle
b. In the starting
c. At end
d. None of them
208. In sequencing the time involved in moving jobs from one machine to another is a. Negligible
b. Positive number
c. Significant
d. None of them
209. ____ operation is carried out on a machine at a time
a. Two
b. At least one
c. Only one
d. None of them
210. Processing time Mij’s are _______ of order of processing the jobs
a. Dependent
b. Negligible
c. Independent
27
d. None of them
211. If there are n jobs to be performed, one at a time, on each of m machines, the possible sequences would
be a. (n!)m
b. (n)m
c. (m!)n
d. (m)n
212. Five jobs (A,B,C,D & E) are waiting to be processed on Machine P first and then on Machine Q. their
processing times are given below. Using the Johnson’s rule fine the optimal job sequence
Machines A B C D E
P 25 40 15 20 75
Q 15 25 45 30 35
a. A-B-C-D-E
b. A-E-D-B-C
c. C-D-E-B-A
d. E-A-B-C-D
213. Five jobs (A,B,C,D & E) are waiting to be processed on Machine P first and then on Machine Q. their
processing times are given below. Using the Johnson’s rule fine the optimal job sequence
Machines A B C D E
P 1 5 5 9 1
Q 3 2 2 4 3
a. A-B-C-D-E
b. A-E-D-B-C
c. A-C-B-D-E
d. E-A-B-C-D
214. ____________ to be used are of different types
a. Variable
b. Resources
c. Machine
d. Articles
215. Each _______ started on a machine is to be performed up to the completion on that machine a. Time
b. Job
c. Sequence
d. Slot
216. The time taken by the jobs in moving from one machine to another is very negligible and is taken as
equal to a. One
b. Three
c. Two
d. Zero
217. ______ on machine refers to the time a machine remain idle during the total elapsed time a. Optimal
time
b. Minimum time
c. Idle time
d. Maximum time
218. _______ time is the time interval between starting the first job and completing the last job
a. Total elapsed
b. Total slack
28
c. Total time
d. Total cost
219. The time required by each job on each machine is called _____
a. Elapsed
b. Idle
c. Processing
d. Average
220. The order in which machines are required for completing jobs is called _____
a. Machines order
b. Working order
c. Processing order
d. Job order
221. The time between the starting of the first job and completion of the last job in sequencing problems is
called a. Total time
b. Assignment time
c. Elapsed time
d. Idle time
222. The time during which a machine remains waiting or vacant in sequencing problem is called _____ time
a. Processing
b. Waiting
c. Idle
d. Free
223. In sequencing problem, the order of completion of jobs is called ______
a. Completion sequence
b. Job sequence
c. Processing order
d. Job order
224. The total time required to complete all the jobs in a job sequencing problems is known as _____ a. Idle
time
b. Processing time
c. Elapsed time
d. Processing order
225. In sequencing if smallest time for a job belongs to machine-2 then the job has to placed a. In the middle
b. In the starting
c. At end
d. None of them

29
Module 4: Job Sequencing and Theory of Games
Unit2 : Theory of Games (MCQ = 23)

226. Who developed the Game Theory


a. J.R. Hicks
b. William J. Baumol
c. Neumann Morgenstern
d. Samuelson P.T.
227. What is a saddle point?
a. Equilibrium point
b. Balanced growth point
c. Imbalanced growth point
d. Unstable equilibrium point
228. In a constant sum game, what is true?
a. Both players get equal gains
b. Both players adopt the same strategy
c. Mixed strategies are adopted by players
d. What one player gains, the other loses
229. When the minimax and maximin in a pay-off matrix are equal
a. It is a indeterminate solution
b. It is a strictly determined game
c. It can not be solved by a two-person constant sum game
d. It cannot be solved by a zero-sum game
230. In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is referred to as a.
The dominant strategy
b. The game-winning choice
c. Super optimal
d. A gonzo selection
231. Which of the following circumstances in an industry will result in a Nash equilibrium?
a. All firms have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its dominant strategy
b. All firms have a dominant strategy but only some choose to follow it
c. All firms have a dominant strategy and none choose it
d. None of the above is correct.
232. Which of the following describes a Nash equilibrium?
a. A firm chooses its dominant strategy, if one exists
b. Every competing firm in an industry chooses a strategy that is optimal given the choices of every firm
c. Market price results in neither a surplus nor a shortage
d. All firms in an industry are earning zero economic profits
233. Game theory is concerned with
a. Predicting the results of bets placed on games like roulette
b. The choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations
c. Utility maximization by firms in perfectly competitive markets
d. The migration patterns of caribou in Alaska

30
234. In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the
a. Payoff
b. Penalty
c. Reward
d. End-game strategy
235. A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called
a. First-mover advantage
b. A Nash equilibrium strategy
c. Tit-for-tat
d. A dominant strategy
236. A common assumption about the players in a game is that
a. Neither player knows the payoff matrix
b. The players have different information about the payoff matrix
c. Only one of the players pursues a rational strategy
d. The specific identify of the players is irrelevant to the play of the game
237. In a zero-sum game,
a. What one player wins, the other loses
b. The sum of each player’s winnings if the game is played many times must be zero
c. The game is fair-each person has an equal chance of winning
d. Long-run profits must be zero
238. The participants in a game are called ______
a. Clients
b. Members
c. Customers
d. Players
239. A game having more than two players is called ______ game
a. Multi-person
b. Many person
c. N-person
d. Unknown person
240. The outcome of the interaction of selected strategies of opponents in a games is called ______
a. Income
b. Profit
c. Payoff
d. gains
241. In a game, the alternatives or courses of action available to each player are called _____
a. Options
b. Choices
c. Actions
d. strategies
242. A situation in a game where, in the payoff matrix, maximin of row is equal to minimax of column is
called___
a. Centre point
b. Main point
c. Saddle point
d. Equal point
31
243. The various alternatives or courses of actions available to each player in a game are called as ____ a.
Saddle points
b. Strategies
c. Pay-off
d. Gains
244. A _______ provides a complete definition of how a player will play a game
a. Mixed strategy
b. Pure strategy
c. Complete strategy
d. Impure strategy
245. A ______ is the one in which the player selects more than one strategy with fixed probabilities before
playing the game.
a. Mixed strategy
b. Pure strategy
c. Complete strategy
d. Impure strategy
246. A ______ occurs when each player selects one of his strategies
a. Profit
b. Decision
c. Play
d. Game
247. The choice of the strategy is made by both the _________ simultaneously
a. Decision maker
b. Manager
c. Competitor
d. Player
248. Every combination of strategies determines an outcome known as _____
a. Regret
b. Payoff
c. Saddle point
d. Profit matrix

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