Professional Documents
Culture Documents
EnP Mock Examination
EnP Mock Examination
University Hotel
University of the Philippines, Quezon City
May 5 – 9, 2014
MOCK EXAMINATION
Name: ________________________________________________________
Educational Background: _________________________________________
Profession/Occupation: ___________________________________________
Office/Agency: __________________________________________________
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
5. The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and
magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to
hazardous materials or situations.
1
a. Environment impact statement
b. Environment risk assessment
c. Scoping
d. None of the above
10. The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated costs and benefits is
known as
11. This represents the earning power of money invested in the project
2
a. Christaller
b. Perroux
c. Lennoix
d. Howard
14. One of the following consists of an area of land, which is generally developed
based on a comprehensive plan, allocated for factory buildings either sold or
leased for manufacturing purposes
a. Industrial estate
b. Integrated area development
c. Industrial subdivision
d. Commercial/industrial estate
15. An urban area which has the following characteristics: it has strong linkage with
the economy; it is the center of the labor market; it is a major wholesale and retail
trade area; it has a high level of tertiary functions; has a good urban system; and
has a population less that 250,000 is called
a. Growth center
b. Metropolitan area
c. Major urban center
d. Minor urban center
a. Labor intensity
b. Labor productivity
c. Efficiency
d. Labor enhancement
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a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be
registered environmental planners
b. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered
environmental planners
c. At least 70 of the entire membership of the Board is composed of EnP’s
and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them
d. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is
owned by registered environmental planners
19. The practice of environmental planning within the provisions of PD 1308 does not
involve one of the following:
20. Demography denotes the study of human population through statistical methods.
This involves primarily the measurement of the size and increase or decrease of
the numbers of people. The constituents of change in these numbers are:
21. Under the concept of urbanized areas as defined in the Philippine Census of
Population and Housing in 1990, central districts of municipalities and cities have
a population density of at least
a. Climate
b. Location of water, soil, energy and mineral resources
c. Transport relationships
d. All of the above
24. Thomas Robert Malthus was the one who first concluded that
25. When the age and sex compositions of most populations are plotted graphically,
the result is a “population pyramid”, the broad base represents the youngest
ages, and the sides gradually slope toward a point, representing the decrease
brought about by deaths in each successive age group. The pyramid represents
26. In many metropolitan centers in the developing world, the largest component of
urban population growth is
a. Births
b. In-migration
c. Increase in territorial jurisdiction
d. None of the above
29. The law that provides for the establishment and management of National
Integrated Protected Areas System is
a. RA 8371
b. RA 7586
c. RA 7279
d. None of the above
30. RA 8435 of the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997
strives to provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development of
5
highly modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines. Under
AFMA, one of the following has been de-prioritized
31. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial
Development (NPAAAD), it provides the Physical basis for the proper planning
of sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in identification of
sustainable crops, livestock and fishes that can be economically grown and
commercially developed for local and international markets without creating
irreversible environment and human health problems
34. Land use changes in large and developed cities is largely a function of
35. The best measure of the project’s economic worthiness and its adaptation as a
basis for project acceptability is
36. The standard distance of a commercial activity from an education center should
be
6
a. 15 minutes by public transportation
b. 15 minutes by private transportation
c. 30 minutes by minimum travel time by public transportation
d. 60 minutes travel by private transportation
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Linear programming
c. Shift-share analysis
d. Sensitivity analysis
38. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal
issuances, e.g., Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the
SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to
39. The first industrial estate in the country, which became operational in 1972, was
the
a. Bataan IE
b. Dasmariñas IE
c. Mactan IE
d. Sapang Palay IE
40. This is the first place where the first export processing zone in the world was
established
a. Puerto Rico
b. India
c. Taiwan
d. Korea
41. This strategy aims to promote greater complementary between agriculture and
industry and between urban and rural sectors
42. This strategy refers to a situation where an industry through the flow of goods
and income stimulates that development and growth of the industries, that are
technically related to it, and determine the prosperity of the tertiary sector or
stimulates an increase of the regional income
7
a. Growth pole
b. Industrial polarization
c. Industrial decentralization
d. Industrial location
43. Ebnezer Howard, the most influential among the Great Thinkers in odern urban
and regional planning, wrote this famous book, first published in 1898
a. Garden Cities
b. Garden Cities of Tomorrow
c. Tomorrow’s Cities
d. Tomorrow
44. Patrick Geddes, a Scot biologist who is acknowledged as the father of regional
planning set forth his ideas in his masterpiece entitled
47. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the
National Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative,
public order and safety operations
8
49. Because NSO age groupings do not coincide with school-going age population
for primary, intermediate, secondary and tertiary, this method is used to
disaggregate school age population within a bracket into a single year estimate:
a. Sprague multiplier
b. Sprengler multiplier
c. Extrapolition coefficient
d. Interpolation coefficient
50. Planning standards for school facilities include minimum standards for space
measured in terms of square meters per pupil (p.p.) for academic classrooms in
the elementary level, the minimum standard is
51. Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or
more population but below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining
municipalities, however, are allowed to share one fire truck provided that the
distance is within prescribed limits. In such cases, the maximum travel time
between municipalities.
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes
52. In the identification of needs and planning of social welfare programs and
services, the planner is expected to
53. The Law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of
Standards of economic and socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided
under the Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree and the
National Building Code is
a. BP 220
b. RA 7279
c. PD 957
d. PD 1216
54. What ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is
requires for projects developed under BP 220 standards?
a. No fixed ratio
b. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
c. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
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d. Minimum of 50% open space
a. Wholistic study
b. Phenomenological study
c. Survey
d. Census
58. This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g.,
development areas, conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest
areas.
a. Structure Plan
b. General Land Use Plan
c. Development Plan
d. Comprehensive Plan
59. Agricultural land in its generic sense is synonymous with that basic land
classification?
a. Timberland
b. Unclassified public forest
c. Alienable and disposable
d. Ancestral domain
e. Critical watershed
60. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an
industrial estate?
a. Load-bearing capacity
b. Soil fertility
c. Drainage
d. Slope
e. Location
10
61. The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four
categories. Name the one that is not among the four.
a. Agricultural land
b. Mineral land
c. National park
d. Ancestral domain
e. Forest land
a. Base map
b. Land use map
c. Slope map
d. Geologic map
e. Physical constraints map
a. Arterial
b. Collector
c. Distributor
d. Gravel surfaced
e. Local
a. Institutional
b. Residential
c. mining and quarrying
d. Industrial
e. Commercial
65. The main regulatory tool for implementing land use in the Philippines is
66. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies
of Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH
a. NHA
b. HUDCC
c. HLURB
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d. MMDA
a. 100 sq. m.
b. 72 sq. m.
c 150 sq. m.
d. 120 sq. m.
69. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning
groups for the purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations
is called
a. Public hearing
b. Consultation
c. Coordination
d. Scoping
70. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be
followed is called
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
d. Citizen participation
72. This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts
pr consequences of alternative schemes of development or specific
environmental conditions.
12
74. It is a process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of
implementing a project of undertaking and designing appropriate preventive,
mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Scoping
b. Initial environmental examination
c. Environmental impact assessment
d. Environmental risk assessment
75. In transporting planning, the collection of the data is undertaken through different
types of surveys. The manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and
direction of travel, recorder counts extending over longer periods is called
76. This is one of the methods of trips generation modeling, which is concerned with
finding the best functional relationship between a dependent variable and one or
more independent variables. This relationship is usually assumed to linear.
a. Analysis of variance
b. Multiple regression
c. Category analysis
d. Situational analysis
77. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the
transportation system. It is the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for
a known set of interzonal movements so/that the relationship between journey
time and flow on every link on the network should be in accordance with that
specified for the link
a. Diversion curves
b. All-or-nothing assignment
c. Capacity restraint
d. None of the above
78. These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of
crops/land use over time in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the
immediate and adjoining environment.
a. Agricultural lands
b. Prime agricultural lands
c. Environmentally critical areas
d. Agro-industrial zones
79. Areas generally belonging to ICCS/IPs subject to property rights within ancestral
domain
a. Indigenous areas
b. Cultural minority areas
c. Ancestral areas
13
80. This refers to a tithe formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership
of ICC/IPs over their ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law
a. Torrens Title
b. Indigenous People Title
c. Land Title
d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
81. The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People’s
Right Act, except
a. Biodiversity
b. Career Development of IPs
c. Protection of the Environment
d. Cultural diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and
human Dignity
83. The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is
a. Cultural practices
b. Cultural way of life
c. Indigenous culture
d. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
85. Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their
respective customary laws and practices, free from any external manipulation
and coercion
a. Indigenous consensus
b. Rights of Indigenous people
c. Free and informed consent
d. All of the above
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86. RA No.8371 is also known as the
a. NIPAS Law
b. Conservation and Biodiversity
c. Agenda 21
d. Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA)
87. The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of
Indigenous peoples, except those of
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Nine
d. Eleven
e. Four
a. World bank
b. Official Development Assistance
c. Internal Revenue Allotment
d. Development fund
90. This Law provides a liberalization environment more conductive to private sector
investment.
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b. Build own and operate
c. Build transfer and operate
Develop, operate and transfer
92. A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of
an infrastructure facility to a private entity such that the contractor builds the
facility on a turn-key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified
performance risks.
93. The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and
magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to
hazardous materials or situations
94. Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking
are called
a. Indigenous people
b. Stakeholders
c. Squatters
d. Proponent
96. Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the
manner or within the range considered normal for a human being as a result of
mental, physical or sensory impairment.
a. Physically challenged
b. Impaired
c. Disabled
d. Disadvantaged
97. Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers
in modern urban and regional planning. His famous book, first published in 1898,
was titled:
a. Garden Cities
b. Garden Cities of Tomorrow
c. Tomorrow’s Cities
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d. Tomorrow
98. Ebenezer Howard’s ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the
enactment of the New Towns Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to
historians, has been illustrated by Howard on a paper napkin. This famous
diagram consists of:
a. One Magnet
b. Two Magnets
c. Three Magnets
d. Four Magnets
e. Five magnets
99. Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter
range of the old city. It would fairly small. Its population size shall be:
a. Ten thousand
b. Twenty thousand
c. Twenty-two thousand
d. Thirty thousand
100. The first new town built following Ebenezer Howard’s idea is known as:
a. Letchworth
b. Soltaire
c. Strenage
d. Welwyn
101. The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis Mumford. Hiss
treatise is entitled:
102. The advocates of the systems view planning does not include one of the
following:
a. G. Wilson
b. George Chadwick
c. J.B. McLoughlin
d. Stuart Chapin
e. Andreas faludi
103. What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of component
cities and municipalities?
17
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
106. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
108. A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria:
a. Technical feasibility
b. Socio-economical and financial possibility
c. Political viability
d. Administrative operability
e. All of the above
a. Sustainability
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b. Feasibility
c. Desirability
d. Critical and urgent
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
a. Sieve Mapping
b. Area Ecological Profiling
c. Land Use Accounting
d. Critical and urgent
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
111. What technique is useful for determining strategies?
a. Situational analysis
b. SWOT analysis
c. Land use survey
d. Critical and urgent
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
112. What are the legal basis for the state’s regulation of land use?
a. Police power
b. laws against nuisance and pollution
c. The policy that property has social function
d. The rule that a person must not do wrong to another person.
114. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental
protection?
a. Constitution
b. PD 1151
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116. What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land Use
Regulatory Board?
a. EO 949
b. EO 90
c. PD 933
d. PD 957
117. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is:
118. A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from certain
provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical
surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with
height, area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in particular hardship
upon the owner is called:
a. Certified of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
d. None of the above
119. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a
Zoning ordinance where, because of the specific use would result n a particular
hardship to the owner.
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non- Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development
120. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and
other built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas
and whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural
activities:
121. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or
planning groups for the purpose of systemizing, harmonizing and facilitating
operations is called:
a. Public hearing
b. Consultation
c. Coordination
d. Scooping
20
122. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be followed
is called.
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
d. Citizen participation
124. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies
of Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is:
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH
127. What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparing
their own comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?
21
d. All of the above
c. None of the above
a. NEDA
b. The Regional Development Council
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
a. PD 399
b. Executive Order No.72
c. RA 7160
c. PD 1517
130. The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is:
a. RA 10587
b. PD 1517
c. PD 957
d. None of the above
131. The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as environmentally
critical and within the scope of the EIS system:
a. PD 1586
b. Proclamation No. 2146
c. PD 1152
d. DAO 96-37
132. Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting public
hearings for the purpose, shall be limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
22
134. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of
educational institutions offering courses in environment planning is the
responsibility of the :
a. RA 8371
b. RA 7586
c. RA 7279
d. None of the above
138. RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997
strives to provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development of a
highlt modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines. Under
AFMA, one of the following has been d-prioritized
139. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial
Development (NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper planning
of sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the identification of
23
suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets without creating
irreversible environmental and human health problems.
140. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various legal
issuances, e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the
SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to:
141. The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain onti four
categories. Name pf the one that is not among four
a. Agricultural land
b. Mineral land
c. National park
d. Ancestral domain
e. Forest land
142. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the
National Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative,
public order and safety operations
143. As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines, the
required easement in urban areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas and
lakes is:
a. 3 meters
b. 20 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 100 meters
144. Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured from
the:
a. Zoning Administrator/Officer
b. Municipal Mayor
c. Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC)
d. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)
24
145. A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the
approved zone of the area for certain reason is called:
a. Spot zoning
b. Flexible zoning
c. Euclidean zoning
d. large lot zoning
146. Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component cities
and municipalities can only take effect approval and authentication by the:
a. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
b. HLURB
c. Local Zoning Review Committee
d. local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals (LZBAA)
147. Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to Thomas Malthus’
theory that states
148. Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be
25
c. the cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished
goods to the market
d. The costs of transporting consumers to market centers
a. Birth
b. In-migration
c. Increased territorial jurisdiction
d. None of the above
157. In central business districts, the highest land values are usually the areas where
26
a. Zoning is for commercial land use
b. Density is highest
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
161. An urban area becomes a central business district because this is an area
where
a. Christaller
b. Perroux
c. Lennoix
d. Howard
163. What is the main foundation of the theory of growth pole of regions?
164. What does the concept of leading industries mean in the growth pole theory?
27
a. Manufacturing sector
b. Propulsive industries
c. Comparative sector
d. Agricultural sector
165. What is the LQ ratio that would indicate an export or basic activity in a region?
a. LQ>1
b. LQ=1
c LQ<1
d. LQ=0
166. In economic base studies, economic activities are generally classified into three
(3) activities, namely
167. The most frequently used unit of measure for computing the LQ of an economy
is
168. The most frequently used unit of measure for computing the LQ of an economy
is
a. Employment
b. Income
c. Sales
d. Production
169. ______ is a set of accounts, usually in monetary from, prepared for an economy
and widely used in the analysis of inter-industry relationships.
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Linear programming
c. Shift-share analysis
d. Sensitivity analysis
28
171. The portion of the feasibility study (FS) that determines the project’s net
contribution to the national economy and social welfare is
a. Economic study
b. Demand analysis
c. Financial analysis
d. Technical evaluation
172. The standard distance of a commercial activity from an education center should
be
173. This represents the earning power of money invested in the project
174. The process of finding the present value of future amount is called
a. Discounting
b. Acid test
c. Payback
d. Return of investment
175. The best measure of the project’s economic worthiness and its adaptation as a
basis for project acceptability is
a. 15%
b. 18%
c. 12%
d. 20%
a. Mindanao/Sulawesi/Sabah-Sarawak
b. Mindanao/Sarawak/Borneo
c. Zaboanga/Sulawesi/Sabah
d. Zamboanga/Sabah/Sarawak
29
178. This concept refers to the necessary combination of agricultural, industrial and
institutional activities in ways that are mutually reinforcing- fostering of small
regional towns which are attractive enough with regards to services, housing
and cultural/social amenities to stabilized the population and industries closely
tied to agricultural production
179. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the
National Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative,
public order and safety operations
180. An urban area which has the following characteristics: It has a strong linkage
with economy; it is the center of the labor market; it is a major wholesale and retail
trade area; it has a high level of tertiary functions; has a good urban system; and has
a population less that 250,000 is called
a. Growth center
b. Metropolitan area
c. Major urban area
d. Minor urban area
181. A ratio that measures output per worker is called
a. Labor intensity
b. Labor productivity
c. Efficiency
d. Minor urban area
182. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as
a. Capital-labor ratio
b. Return of investment
c. Net cash flow
d. Capital efficiency
183. This concept refers to a situation where an industry through the flow of goods
and incomes stimulates the development and growth of the industries, that are
technically related to it, and determines the prosperity of the tertiary sector or
stimulates an increase of the regional income
a. Growth pole
b. Industrial polarization
c. Industrial decentralization
d. Industrial location
30
184. Complementing industrial estates, these area are being established in order to
accelerate industrialization in the regions through small ad medium enterprises
and people’s industrial enterprises
187. These are free ports where export trade is the exclusive activity
188. The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated costs and benefits is
known as
189. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation routes because
190. Land use changes in large and development cities is largely a function of
193. The larger the population of a city, the more likely its economy allows for
a. More specialization
b. Increased self-sufficiency
c. Environmental protection
d. Higher demand for indigenous products
194. As a region urbanizes and expand economically, the dominant economic
activities become those from the
a. Industrial estate
b. Integrated area development
c. Industrial subdivision
d. Commercial/industrial estate
196. This type of industrial estate intends to advance, improve or increase the level
of industrial activity in the area, particularly lagging regions
a. Developmental
b. Promotional
c. Relocational
d. Private
197. This type of industrial estate refers to those established for developing new
industries
a. Promotional
b. Developmental
c. Relocational
d. Private
32
198. This type of industrial estate is one where the functions of one type of industry
are subdivided into smaller specialized units to provide parts or components to
the main industrial manufacturing unit
a. Ancillary
b. Composite
c. Specialized
d. Promotional
199. This type of industrial estate is usually large and built for heavy industry
a. Coastal
b. Rural
c. Specialized
d. Inland
200. This type of industrial estate is generally built for assembly and processing
types of industries
a. Inland
b. Coastal
c. Specialized
d. Rural
201. The first estate in the country which became operational in 1972, was the
a. Bataan IE
b. Dasmariñas IE
c. Mactan IE
d. Sapang Palay IE
a. 0-18%
b. Above 50%
c. 16-50%
d. 0-8%
a. Above 500
b. Above 100
c. Above 2,000
d. Above 1,000 mtrs.
33
205. Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification level
depicted in the Bureau of Soils and Water Management is the
a. Soil order
b. Soil type
c. Soil great group
d. Soil series
a. Type III
b. Type II
c. Type IV
d. Type I
207. The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and in
places with a distinct wet and dry season is the
a. Pine/saleng
b. Diptrocarp
c. Molave/molawin
d. Mangrove
a. PD 399
b. Executive Order No. 72
c. RA 7160
d. PD 1517
a. PD 1308
b. PD 1517
c. PD 957
d. None of the above
210. The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects as
environmentally critical and within the scope of the EIS system
a. PD 1586
b. Proclamation No. 2146
c. PD 1152
c. DAO 96-37
211. Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting public
hearing for the purpose, shall be limited to
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
34
212. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is
213. A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certain
provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical
surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with
height, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular hardship to the
owner
a. Certificate of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
d. None of the above
214. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a
Zoning ordinance where, because of the specific use would result in a particular
hardship to the owner
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non-Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development
215. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and
other built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas
and whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural
activities:
217. Urbanized began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as the
a. Fertile Crescent
b. Mediterranean
c. Babylon
d. Asia
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218. The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along the
Indus Valley is/are:
a. Transport
b. Agriculture
c. Defense
d. None of the three
e. All of the above
a. Hippodamus
b. Nicodemus
c. Nostradamus
d. Aristotle
220. They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the first
regional planners of the world.
a. Greeks
b. Romans
c. Sumerians
d. Egyptians
221. It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established
a. Renaissance
b. Bronze Age
c. Medieval Period
d. Atomic Age
222. The garden City as a solution to urban planning problems
a. Malthus
b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Nicodemus
d. Adam Smith
223. He theorized that physical planning could not improved urban living conditions
unless it was integrated with social and economic planning in a context od
environmental concerns.
a. William penn
b. Patrick Geddes
c. Peirre L’ Enfant
d. None of the three
224. The architect planner who designed Luneta, Tgatay and Baguio
a. Burnham
b. Concio
c. Faithful
d. None of the above
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a. Grid iron pattern
b. Axial
c. Radial
d. Ribbon-type
226. What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during the
Spanish Period in the Philippines?
a. Plaza
b. Economy
c. Transportation
d. Religion
227. Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analyst
should consider in analyzing tourist arrivals?
a. Eco-tourism
b. Historical
c. Location specific natural and cultural
d. None of the above
229. Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These are
direct, indirect and ____ jobs.
a. Multiplier
b. Induced
c. Locational
d. Service
230. The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom.
a. Slump
b. Deflation
c. Inflation
d. Sustainable growth
231. In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity,
technical efficiency and ______
a. Allocative efficiency
b. Comparative advantages
c. Resource collection
d. Availability of skilled labor
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232. Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid Waste
Management Program seeks to:
233. Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastes
from existing disposal facilities within a period of:
a. 10 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 1 year
234. At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid Waste
Management Commission under the office of:
a. President
b. DENR
c. DILG
d. NEDA
235. The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated and
shall include the following:
236. It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage,
collection, transfer and transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in a
manner that is in accord with the best principles of public health, economies,
engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations and
which is also responsive to public attitudes
237. The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited to
the following components:
238. Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solid
wastes. Specifically, the LGUs shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owner
or person in charge of premises containing:
239. The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills
a. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan
of the LGU
b. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares
c. the site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that
is easily handled and compacted
d. The site must be large enough to accommodate the community’s
wastes for a period of ten (10) years during which the people must
internalize the value of environmentally sound and sustainable solid
waste disposal
e. All of the above
f. All except D
240. Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems and
are appropriate for clustered solid waste management services shall be based on
the following:
241. The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing,
Adopting, and implementing a solid waste management plan. Such fees shall be
based on the following minimum factors:
242. Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activity
except for scientific studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenous
communities
a. Restoration Zone
b. Habitat Management Zone
c. Bypass Zone
d. Strict Protection Zone
a. Planning
b. Project Identification
c. Resource Generation
d. Evaluation
245. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completion
when full project benefits and impact are expected to have been realized.
a. Terminal Evaluation
b. On-going Evaluation
c. Ex-post Evaluation
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d. Pre-Evaluation
248. When projecting market demand for a project, which of the following
combination of techniques is not advisable:
a. Survey/planning standards
b. Market testing/time series analysis
c. Experts’ opinion/census
d. Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis
e. None of the above
249. This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in he
project
a. payback period
b. retention period
c. return on investment
d. profit margin
e. none of the above
a. uncertainty of risk
b. income opportunities now
c. better prospects in the future
d. present consumption
e. none of the above
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