Class-X Science Question Bank (2020-2021) : by Motivation

n
io
at
Class-X
iv
Science
ot
Question Bank
M
(2020-2021)
y
B
es
cc
Su
1
INDEX
Serial Topic Page Weightage
Number Number
Syllabus 3
n
CHEMISTRY
io
Chemical Reaction and Equations 4
1
2 Acids, Bases and salts 7
at
3 Metals and Non-Metals 9
25 Marks
4 Carbon and its Compounds 11
iv
5 Periodic Classification of Elements 13
6 Life Processes
ot BIOLOGY
31
M
7 Control and coordination 33
8 How do Organisms Reproduce? 35

y
27 marks
9 Heredity and Evolution 37
B
10 Our Environment 39
11 Sustainable Management of Natural 41

es
Resources
PHYSICS
12 Light-Reflection and Refraction 50

cc
13 Human Eye and Colourful World 53
14 Electricity 56
Su
28 Marks
15 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 59
16 Sources of Energy 61
Sample paper-I 73
Sample paper-Il 78
2
SYLLABUS DISTRIBUTION
PERIODIC TEST-I Chapter 1- Chemical Reactions And Equations
Chapter 6- Life Processes
Chapter 12- Electricity
PERIODIC TEST-II Chapter 1- Chemical Reactions And Equations
Chapter 2- Acids, Bases And Salts
Chapter 7- Control And Coordination
n
Chapter 13- Magnetic Effects Of Electric Current
io
PRE-BOARD I Chapter 1- Chemical Reactions And Equations
EXAMINATIONS Chapter2-
Chapter 13- Magnetic
Acids, BasesEffects Of Electric Current
And Salts
Chapter 3- Metals And Non-Metals
at
Chapter 4- Carbon And Its Compounds
Chapter 6-
Chapter 6- Life
Life Processes
Processes
Chapter7-
Control And Coordination
iv
Chapter 8- How Do Organisms Reproduce?
Chapter 10- Light - Reflection And Refraction
ot
Chapter 14- Sources Of Energy
Chapter 15- Our Environment
M
Chapter 16- Sustainable management Of Natural Resources
PRE-BOARD II Chapter 1- Chemical Reactions And Equations
EXAMINATIONS Chapter 2- Acids, Bases And Salts
Chapter 3- Metals And Non-Metals
y
Chapter 4- Carbon And Its Compounds

Chapter 5- Periodic Classification Of Elements
B

Chapter 7- Control And Coordination
Chapter 8- How Do Organisms Reproduce?
es
Chapter 9- Heredity And Evolution

Chapter 10- Light - Reflection And Refraction
Chapter 11- Human Eye And Colourful World
cc

Chapter 14- Sources Of Energy
Chapter 15- Our Environment
Chapter 16- Sustainable management Of Natural Resources
Su
PRE-BOARD III Complete syllabus

EXAMINATIONS
3
CHAPTER-1
CHEMICAL EQUATIONS AND REACTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium chloride. Which
of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?
(i ) Displacement reaction
(ii) Decomposition reaction
n
(iii) Combination reaction
(iv) Double displacement reaction
io
2. Chemically, rust is
(i) ferric sulphate
(ii) ferric oxide
(ii)hydrated ferrous oxide
at
(iv) hydrated ferric oxide
3. When green colour ferrous sulphate crystals are heated, its colour changes as
(i) it is decomposed to ferric oxide
iv
(ii) it loses water of crystallisation
(iii) it forms SO2
(iv) it forms SO3
4.
FILL IN THE BLANKS ot
Precipitation reactions are type of ______________.
M
5. Decomposition of calcium carbonate forms _________ and _________.
6. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper to remove________.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the gas produced by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on zinc granule.
y
8. Which gas is used to prevent rancidity in potato chips packets?

B
9. Write one equation to represent thermal decomposition.

ASSERTIONS AND REASON
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
es
below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
cc
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Assertion: Colour of copper sulphate solution does not change when the iron nail is kept in it.
Reason: Iron is more reactive than copper and displaces it.
Su
11. Assertion: Combustion reaction is also called an exothermic oxidation reaction.

Reason: In this reaction oxygen is added and heat energy is released.
12. Assertion: Pungent smelling gas is produced when sulphur burns in air.
Reason: Sulphur dioxide is formed on the reaction of sulphur with oxygen.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS

4
13. Write the chemical equation of the reaction in which the following changes have taken place with an
example of each:
(i) Change in colour
(ii) Change in temperature
(iii) Change in state
14. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe it and answer the following questions:
n
io
at
(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction that will take place and define it.
(ii) How will the colour of salt change?
iv
(iii) Mention one commercial use of this salt.
15. (a) Zinc oxide reacts with carbon, on heating to form zinc metal and carbon monoxide.
ot
(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(ii) Name the oxidising agent and the reducing agent.
(b) Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction
4NH3 + 5H2O 4NO + 6H2O
M
16. Balance the following equation and Identify the type of reactions:
(i) CH4+O2 CO2 + H2O
(ii) Pb(NO3)2+ KI PbI2 + KNO3
y
(iii) Cu + AgNO3 Cu(NO)3+ Ag

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
B
17. (a) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and barium sulphate.
(i) State the type of reaction.
(ii) Translate the above statement into a balanced chemical equation.
es
(b) A metal ‘X’ acquires a green colour coating on its surface on exposure to air.
(i) Identify the metal ‘X’ and name the process responsible for this change.
(ii) Name and write the chemical formula of the green colour coating formed on the surface of the metal.
cc
18. 2g of Ferrous Sulphate crystals are heated in a boiling tube.

(i) State the colour of Ferrous Sulphate crystals both before heating and after heating.
(ii) Name the gases produced during heating.
(iii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Su
(b) Describe an activity to show a decomposition reaction in which light is used to decompose a reactant.
Write the chemical equation of the reaction and state one of its uses.
19. (a)Why is it essential to balance a chemical equation?
(b) With the help of a chemical reaction, explain the decomposition of lead nitrate.
(c)Can rusting of iron take place in distilled water? Give a reason.
(d)Give two methods to prevent rancidity.
(e) How will you test for the gas which is liberated when HCl reacts with an active metal?
5
20. CASE- STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph and
the related studied concepts.
A strip of metal X is immersed in the aqueous solution of salt YSO4. After some time a layer of metal Y
from the salt solution is deposited on the strip of X. Whereas the metal X is used for galvanisation and
metal Y is used in electrical cables.
(a) Identify the metal X.
(b)What could be the metal Y?
n
(c)Can you name the salt YSO4?
(d)Represent the above change in the form of a chemical equation.
io
at
iv
ot
M
y
B
es
cc
Su
6
CHAPTER 2
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
1. Which is a soluble base in the water?
(i) Cu (OH)2
(ii) Fe(OH)3
(iii) Zn(OH)2
(iv) KOH
n
2. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH paper
yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper greenish-blue?
io
(i) Lemon juice
(ii) vinegar
(iii) common salt
at
(iv) antacid
3. Which of the following salt does not contain water of crystallization?
(i) Blue vitriol
(ii) Baking soda
iv
(iii) Washing soda
(iv) Gypsum
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4.
5.
6.
ot
__________ is a natural indicator whereas ____________ is a synthetic indicator.
The acid and base present in sodium acetate are ____________ and _________ respectively.
_____________ is called king of chemicals.
M
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the substance obtained by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime.
8. In addition to sodium hydrogen carbonate baking powder contains a substance X. Name the substance X.
y
9. How many molecules of water of crystallization are present in washing soda and POP?
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
B
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and
(d) as given below:
es
10. Assertion: Baking powder is used in making cake instead of using baking soda.
cc
Reason: Baking powder contains tartaric acid which reacts with sodium carbonate and removes
bitter taste.
11. Assertion: Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
Reason: The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the concentration of hydrogen ions in it.
Su
12. Assertion: The aqueous solution of glucose and alcohol does not show acidic character.
Reason: Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not produce hydrogen ions.
13. How can you prepare sodium hydroxide? Name the products formed on cathode and anode.
Write one use of each by-product formed in the above reaction.
14. A substance X is used as a building material and is insoluble in water. When reacted with dilute HCl, it
produces a gas that turns lime-water milky. Predict the substance and write the chemical equations
involved
in this process.
7
15. Give a reason for the following :
(i) Ammonia is a base but does not contain a hydroxyl group.
(ii) Milk of Magnesia is used by a person suffering from acidity.
(iii) Sodium hydroxide cannot be kept in aluminium containers.
16. (a) Write an equation for the reaction of iron with steam. Name the compound of iron obtained.
(b)A small amount of copper oxide is taken in a beaker and dil. HCl is added slowly while stirring.
(i) What is the colour of the solution obtained?
(ii) What happens to copper oxide during the reaction?
n
FIVE MARK QUESTION
17. (a) A liquid has a pH less than 7 which represents an acidic solution.
io
(i) State the nature of the solution, if its pH increases from 7 to 14.
(ii) Mention the ion whose concentration increases with the increase in pH value.
(iii) Suggest a method that is generally used for measuring pH value.
(b)A student collected two samples of dil HCl and distilled water in a separate test tube. She forgot to label
at
the tubes. Both samples are colourless. The solution of litmus, phenolphthalein and lime water is available
to her.
(i) How will she distinguish between the two samples?
iv
18. (ii)How
(i) Whatisisthe
thestrength
chemicalofname
an acid affected
of the when
Plaster some water is added to it?
of Paris?
(ii) Write the chemical formula of plaster of Paris in two ways.
(iii) What happens when Plaster of Paris comes in contact with moisture? Also support your answer with the
19.
help of chemical equation.
(iv) Write the two uses of the Plaster of Paris. ot
Demonstrate with the help of an experiment how acidic solution conducts electricity.
M
(i) If acetic acid and hydrochloric acid of the same concentration are taken, which of the two is stronger acid
and why?
(ii) How the strength of alkali solution is will be affected if sodium hydroxide added to it?
20. CASE- STUDY
y
Answer question numbers 20(a) to 20(d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph and the
related studied concepts.
B
Sunita was learning to bake cakes. She added the ingredients according to the recipes and placed them in the
oven. When the cake was ready she took it out from the oven. She was surprised as the cake was hard instead
of soft and fluffy.
es
(a) What is the probable reason that the cake was not fluffy?
(b)What ingredient did she miss adding while preparing the cake?
(c) Write a chemical reaction to show how this ingredient makes the cake fluffy?
(d)What is the chemical constituent of this ingredient?
cc
Su
8
CHAPTER-3
METALS AND NON METALS
1. Which of the following is not a property of metals?
(i) Conduction
(ii) Sonorous
(iii) Dullness
(iv) Ductility
2.
n
Metals are refined by using different methods .Which of the following metal is refined by electrolytic
refining? (i) Au (ii) Cu (iii) Na (iv) K
(i) (i) and (ii)
io
(ii) (i) and (iii)
(iii) (ii) and (iii)
(iv) (iii) and (iv)
at
3. Which of the following contains mercury as one of its constituents?
(i) Stainless Steel
(ii) Alnico
iv
(c) Solder
(d) Zinc amalgam
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4.
5.
6.
________________ is a liquid non-metal.
__________ is an amphoteric oxide.
ot
Aqua regia consists of ______ parts of conc. HCl and _____ parts of conc HNO 3.
M
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name one metal which is a good conductor of electricity and one which is a poor conductor of
electricity.
8. Why are food cans coated with tin and not with zinc?
y
9. Give the role of anhydrous calcium chloride in the process of roasting.

B
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below:
es

10. Assertion: Iron is found in the free state in nature.
cc
Reason: Iron is a highly reactive element.

11. Assertion: The thermite welding process is based on reducing the property of iron.
Reason: The reduction of metal oxide to form metal by using aluminium powder is called thermite
reaction.
Su
12. Assertion: Magnesium chloride is covalent.

Reason: Metals and non-metals react by mutual transfer of electrons.
.THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. (a) A zinc rod was dipped in the CuSO4 solution. After a certain time, copper from the solution was
deposited on the zinc rod. State the reason why did it happen. Give the chemical equation of the
reaction involved.
(b)Why should the metal sulphides and carbonates be converted to metal oxides in the process of
extraction of metal from them?
9
14. An ore on heating in air produces sulphur dioxide.
(a)Which process would you suggest for its concentration?
(b)Describe briefly any two steps involved in the conversion of concentrated ore into related metal.
15. Give a reason for the following:
(a) Ionic compounds have a high melting point and boiling point.
(b) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in a molten state.
(c) Ionic compounds are solids at room temperature and are somewhat hard.
16. What happens when
(i) ZnCO3 is heated in the absence of oxygen?
n
(ii) A mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S is heated?
(iii) A copper coin is kept immersed in a solution of silver nitrate for some time.
io
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) In the formation of compounds between two atoms A and B, A loses two electrons and B gains
one electron.
at
(i) What is the nature of the bond formed between A and B?
(ii) Suggest the formula of the compound formed between A and B.
(b) Explain the formation of the MgCl2 molecule.
iv
(c) Write the electron dot structure of oxygen.
18. (a)What
(d) Showisthe
meant by theofrefining
formation of metals?
aluminium chloride by the transfer of an electron between the atoms.
(b)Generally, no hydrogen gas is evolved when metals react with dilute nitric acid. Why?
(d)How do the properties of iron change when:

(i)A small quantity of carbon is mixed with it?
(ii)Nickel and chromium are mixed with it?
ot
(c)Write the chemical name of the coating that is formed on silver and copper articles.
M
19. (a)You are provided with three metals Sodium, Magnesium, and copper. Using only water as the
reactant how will you identify them?
(b)Hydrogen is not a metal but it has been assigned a place in the reactivity series of metals.
Explain.
y
20. CASE STUDY

Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph
B
and the related studied concepts.

A customer approached a newly trained Goldsmith and asked him to make ornaments. For this, he
gave advance money. The Goldsmith bought a bar of 24-carat gold and tried to make ornaments from
it. He was not as successful as the gold was too soft to handle. He approached a trained goldsmith who
es
advised him to use 22-carat gold for this purpose and this time he was successful and could make the
ornaments.
(a) What is the difference between 24-carat gold and 22-carat gold?
(b)Does gold corrode in saltwater?
cc
(c) Name the chemical which can dissolve gold.

(d) Why is 22-carat gold used in making ornaments?
Su
10
CHAPTER- 4
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUND
1. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of
(i)carbon monoxide only
(ii)carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide
(iii)carbon dioxide
n
(d)coal
2. The name of the compound CH3 CH2 CHO is
io
(i)propanol
(ii)propanone
(iii)ethanol
(iv)ethanal
at
3. The soap molecule has a
(i)hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
(ii)hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
iv
(iii)hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail
(iv)hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4.
5.
6.
Soap reacts with hard water to form __________.
CnH2n is the general formula of _________.
ot
Hydrogenation of vegetable oil is _________ reaction.
M
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name an element which exhibits the property of catenation only up to seven or eight atoms.
8. Draw a structure of isomers of butane.
y
9. Name the dehydrating agent used in the preparation of ester.

B
es

10. Assertion: Carbon compounds can form branched, chain and ring structures.
cc
Reason: Carbon exhibits the property of catenation.

11. Assertion: Alkanes give an additional reaction.
Reason: Addition reactions are characteristics property of unsaturated compounds.
12. Assertion: Soaps are not suitable for washing purposes when water is hard.
Su
Reason: Soaps have relatively weaker cleansing action.

Write a chemical equation to represent the following:
13. (i)Hydrogenation of vegetable oil.
(ii)Combustion of alcohol.
(iii)Dehydration of alcohol.
11
14. (a)What happens when ethanol reacts with the Sodium and Potassium permanganate solution?
(b)How would you bring about the following conversions? Name the process and write the reaction
involved.
(i)Ethanol to ethane
15. An organic compound
(ii)Propanol burns
to propionic acid.with a sooty flame.
(i)Is it a saturated or an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(ii)Giving a balanced equation, state how you will convert methane to carbon dioxide.
(iii)What happens when sodium is dropped into ethanol?
n
16. (a) The black electrode of the dry cell on strong heating in the air gave a colourless gas which turns lime
water milky. Identify the material of the electrode and gas evolved.
io
(b)Draw the structure of saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons having the molecular formula
C6H12.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
at
17. (a)Name the following compounds:
(i)CH3CH2CH3
(ii)CH3COCH2CH3(iii)HCOOH
iv
(b)Draw the structure for Benzene.
(c)Ethanoic acid is also known as glacial acetic acid. Why?
18. (a)Identify the compounds ‘A’ ‘B ’and ‘ C’ in the following reactions:
(i)C2H5 OH + CH3CHCOOH→A+H2O
(ii)CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → B + C 2H5OH
(iii)CH3COONa + NaOH(CaO) → C + Na2CO3
ot
M
(b)Define the functional group.
(c)Identify the functional group present in the following compounds: HCOOH, HCHO.
19. (a) A cyclic compound ‘X’ has molecular formula C 6H6. It is unsaturated and burns with a sooty flame.
Identify ‘X’ and write its structural formula. Will it decolourise bromine water? Explain why or why
y
not.
(b)Why detergents are considered more useful than soaps these days? Give two reasons.
B
20. CASE- STUDY

The teacher asked Heena to perform the test for unsaturation in the laboratory for ethylene gas. She
es
took some Schiff’s reagent in a test tube and passed it to the gas. Nothing happened so the teacher
asked her to pass the vapours of gas into bromine water. The colour of the bromine water got
discharged.
(a)What mistake was committed by Heena?
cc
(b)Which type of a reaction takes place when bromine water reacts with ethylene gas?
(c)Give the chemical equation of the reaction.
(d)How is ethylene gas produced?
Su
12
CHAPTER-5
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
1. If two members of a Dobereiner triad are calcium and barium, then the third member of the triad is
(i)Magnesium
(ii)Strontium
(iii)Caesium
(iv)Sodium
n
2. An element which is an essential constituent of all organic compounds belong to:
(i)Group 1
io
(ii)Group 14
(iii)Group 15
(iv)Group 16
at
3. Arrange the following elements in the order of their increasing non-metallic character–Li, O , C ,Be ,F
(i)F<O<C<Be < Li
(ii)Li<Be< C<O<F
(iii)F <C<O<Be<Li
iv
(iv)F<O<Be<C<Li
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. Barium belongs to the same group as that of Magnesium so the formula of barium nitrate and
magnesium sulphate is _____________ and ___________.
ot
5. Property used by Mendeleev to classify elements in his periodic table was __________.
6. The Modern Periodic Table consists of ____periods and _____groups.
M
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the two elements that have two electrons in their outer most shells.
8.
7. Name the element having electronic configuration 2,8,2.
9. The law of octaves was applicable up to which element.
y

B
es

10. Assertion: Li, Na, K form Doberiners triads.
Reason: Atomic mass of Na is roughly the average of the atomic mass of Li and K.
cc
11. Assertion: Silicon is a metalloid.

Reason: Silicon shows properties of only non- metals.
12. Assertion: Magnesium belongs to the 3rd period of the modern periodic table.
Reason: The valence electrons of magnesium are two.
Su

13. (a)The atomic radius of hydrogen is 37pm. Express it in meters.
(b)How does atomic size vary in a group and a period?
(c)If an element has an atomic number 18, mention the group to which it belongs.
14. (a)An element has an electronic configuration 2, 8, 6. Explain its position in the periodic table.
(b)The size of the sodium atom is bigger than that of the hydrogen atom. Why?
(c)Which has a greater atomic size-Cl or Br?
13
15. Group 1 Group 16 X
A Y
B Z
- M
D
Giving a reason for the following:
(a) Element M has the largest atomic size as compared to the other elements, X, Y, Z shown in Group 1
of the section of the periodic table shown above.
(b) Element A has a valence of 2.
n
(c) Elements A, B, and Dare non-metals.
16. The position of three elements A, B and C in the modern periodic table is shown below :
io
at
Give reasons: (a) Element A is a metal.
iv
(b) An atom of element C has a larger size than an atom of element B.
(c) Element
FIVE MARKSB QUESTIONS
has a valency of 3.
17. (a)State the modern periodic law of classification of elements.
ot
(b) Explain why the number of elements in the third period is 8.
(c) Out of the three elements P, Q and R having atomic number 11, 17and 19 respectively, which
two elements will show similar properties and why?
M
(d) Flourine is more electronegative than Iodine. Give a reason in support to this.
18. (a)The atomic radii of three elements A, B and C of a periodic table are 186 pm, 104 pm and 143 pm
respectively. Giving a reason, arrange these elements in the increasing order of atomic numbers in the
period.
y
(b)An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 2.

(i)What is the atomic number of this element? (ii) What is its Valency?
B
(iii)To which of the following element would it be chemically similar and why?
(Atomic numbers are given in parentheses) Be (4), O (8). Justify your answer.
19. The positions of five elements in the periodic table are shown below :
es
GROUP 1 GROUP 2 GROUP 15 GROUP 16

PERIOD 2 A B
PERIOD 3 C D E
cc
Identify the element which :

(i) has the smallest atomic radius.
(ii) will be the most metallic.
(iii) will form basic oxide.
Su
(iv) will show valence three.

(iv) will show the greatest tendency to gain an electron
(v) .
14
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20(a) to 20(d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph
The periodic table has undergone extensive changes in the time since it was originally developed by
Mendeleev and Moseley. Many new elements have been discovered, while others have been
artificially synthesised. Each fits properly into a group of elements with similar properties. The
periodic table is an arrangement of the elements in order of their atomic numbers so that elements
with similar properties appear in the same vertical column or group. Based on the properties of
elements are given below. Where would you locate the following elements in the periodic table :
n
(a) A soft metal stored under kerosene. (b) An element with variable valence stored underwater.
(c) An element that is tetravalent and forms the basis of organic chemistry.
io
(d)An element that is a noble gas with atomic number 2.
at
iv
ot
M
y
B
es
cc
Su
15
CHEMISTRY PRACTICALS
S. NO. AIM OF THE EXPERIMENT

1. To find the pH of the various samples by using pH paper/universal indicator
n
2 (a) To study the properties of acids (dilute hydrochloric acid)
io
2 (b) To study the properties of bases (dilute sodium hydroxide)
at
3 (a) To perform and observe the reaction of the water on quicklime
3 (b) To perform and observe the reaction when ferrous sulphate is heated
iv
3 (c) To perform and observe the reaction between the iron nail and copper sulphate
Solution
3 (d) To perform and observe the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium
4
chloride solution
ot
To observe the action of Zn, Fe, Cu, and Al on various solutions and arrange Zn, Fe, Cu,
and Al metals in the decreasing order of reactivity.
M
5 To study the following properties of acetic acid and (Ethanoic acid).
6 To study the comparative cleaning capacity of a sample of soap in soft and hard water
y
B
es
cc
Su
16
EXPERIMENT-I
AIM: To find the pH of the following samples by using pH paper / universal indicator:
(a) Dilute hydrochloric acid solution (A)
(b) Dilute sodium hydroxide solution (B)
(c) Dilute ethanoic acid solution (C)
(d) Lemon juice (D)
(e) Water (E)
(f) Dilute sodium carbonate solution (F)
n
APPARATUS:
Test tubes, test tube stand, glass tube or glass rod, dropper, white tile, pH paper or universal indicator,
io
standard pH colour chart, distilled water, given samples.
BASIC PRINCIPLES INVOLVED:
pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration [H+] of a solution.
The pH of an acidic solution is less than 7 (eg. Hydrochloric acid, ethanoic acid, lemon juice).
at
The pH of a basic solution is more than 7 (eg. dilute sodium hydroxide).
The pH of a neutral solution is equal to 7 (eg. pure water).
The pH of a sample can be measured by the use of pH paper or by the use of the universal indicator.
iv
PROCEDURE:
1) 6 clean, dry test tubes are placed in a test tube stand. 10 ml of each sample (A, B, C, D, E, F) whose
pH is to be determined, is taken in each test tube.
ot
2) A strip of pH paper is taken and placed on a clean white tile.
3) A drop of each sample A, B, C, D, E & F is put on the pH paper with the help of a dropper, one by
one from the given samples.
4) The colour change is observed and matched with the colour of the standard pH colour chart.
M
5) The pH value corresponding to the colour is recorded in the given table.
DIAGRAM-
y
B
es
cc
Su
17
S.N. Name of Sample Colour pH value Nature of the
developed on pH (from the chart) sample
paper
A Dilute hydrochloric acid

Solution
B Dilute sodium
hydroxide solution
n
C Dilute ethanoic acid solution
io
D Lemon juice
at
E Water
F Dilute sodium carbonate
iv
solution
RESULT:
In the given samples we have observed that:
1) Acidic samples with a pH of less than 7 are:
2) Basic samples with a pH of more than 7 are:
3) A neutral sample with PH.
ot
PRACTICAL BASED QUESTIONS
M
1. Solid sodium bicarbonate was placed on a strip of pH paper. What was the change in colour?
2. A student adds a few drops of the universal indicator to a solution of dilute hydrochloric acid in the
way shown here. What change will he observe?
y
B
es
cc
3. A student dips pH papers in solutions A and B and observes that the pH paper turns blue and orange
respectively in them. What does he infer?
Su
4. How is the presence of an acid tested with the strip of red litmus paper?
18
EXPERIMENT-2
EXPERIMENT-2 (a)
AIM: To study the properties of acids (dilute hydrochloric acid) by their reaction with the following:
a) Litmus solution (red/blue)
b) Zinc metal
c) Solid sodium carbonate
APPARATUS:
Test tubes, test tube stand, spatula, dropper, test tube holder, litmus solution (red/blue), zinc metal, solid
n
sodium carbonate, dilute HCl.
io
An acid is a substance that ionizes in water and releases hydrogen ions [H+] in the solution.
HCl (aq) H+ (aq) + Cl- (aq)
An acid is a substance that changes blue litmus solution red.
An acid reacts with reactive metals and liberates hydrogen gas.
at
2HCl (aq) + Zn (s) H2 (g) + ZnCl2 (g)
An acid liberates carbon dioxide from carbonate and bicarbonates.
HCl + NaHCO3 CO2 + H2O + NaCl
iv
EXPERIMENTAL PROCEDURE TO STUDY THE PROPERTIES OF HCl:
1) 1ml of dilute hydrochloric acid is taken in 2 test tubes and 2-3 drops of red and blue litmus solution are
added to each of the test tubes. The colour of the 2 solutions is noted.
ot
2) About 2 ml of dilute hydrochloric acid is taken in a clean test tube. A small piece of granulated zinc is
added to it. The colour and odour of the gas evolved are noted.
3) Solid sodium carbonate is taken in a dry test tube and hydrochloric acid is added dropwise. The
colour and odour of the gas evolved is noted. The gas is passed through the lime water and the changes
M
produced observed.
DIAGRAM:
y
B
es
cc
Su
OBSERVATION TABLE:
Experiments Observations Inference

REACTION WITH LITMUS SOLUTION
i) 1ml of dilute hydrochloric acid is
taken in a test tube and 2-3 drops of
red litmus solution is added to it.
ii) 1ml of dilute hydrochloric acid is
taken in a test tube and 2-3 drops
19
of blue litmus, the solution is added to it.
REACTION WITH ZINC METAL
i) About 2 ml of dilute hydrochloric
acid is taken in a clean test tube &
a small piece of granulated zinc is
added to it.
ii) A burning splinter is brought
near the mouth of the test tube.
REACTION WITH SOLID SODIUM
n
CARBONATE
i) Solid sodium carbonate is taken
io
in a dry test tube and hydrochloric
acid is added dropwise.
ii) The gas evolved is passed through lime water.
RESULT:
at
1) HCl is------- in nature as it turns -------- litmus solution red.
2) It liberates -------------------- gas on reaction with zinc metal.
3) It liberates --------------------- gas from solid sodium carbonate.
iv
EXPERIMENT 2(b)
AIM: To study the properties of bases (dilute sodium hydroxide) by their reaction with the following:
a) Litmus solution (red/blue)
b) Zinc metal
c) Solid sodium carbonate
APPARATUS:
ot
M
Test tubes, test tube stand, spatula, dropper, test tube holder, litmus solution (red/blue), zinc metal,
solid sodium carbonate, dilute NaOH.
A base is a substance that produces hydroxyl ions [OH--] when it is dissolved in water.
y
NaOH (aq) → Na+ (aq) + OH- (aq)

A base is a substance that changes red litmus solution blue.
B
A base reacts with an acid to form salt and water.

NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O (g)
A base combines with CO2 to form a carbonate.
NaOH + CO2 →NaCO3 (aq) + H2O (l)
es
EXPERIMENTAL PROCEDURE TO STUDY THE PROPERTIES OF NaOH:

1) 1ml of dilute sodium hydroxide solution is taken in 2 test tubes and 2-3 drops of red and blue litmus
solution are added to each of the test tubes. The colour of the 2 solutions is noted.
2) About 2 ml of dilute sodium hydroxide solution is taken in a clean test tube. A small piece of
cc
granulated zinc is added to it. The test tube is heated gently. The colour and odour of the gas evolved
are noted.
3) Solid sodium carbonate is taken in a dry test tube and sodium hydroxide solution is added
dropwise.
OBSERVATION TABLE:
Su
Experiments Observations Inference

1.REACTION WITH LITMUS SOLUTION
i) 1ml of dilute sodium hydroxide
the solution is taken in a test tube and
2-3 drops of red litmus solution are
added to it.
ii) 1ml of dilute sodium hydroxide
the solution is taken in a test tube and
2-3 drops of blue litmus solution are
20
added to it.
2.REACTION WITH ZINC METAL
i) About 4-5 ml of dilute sodium
hydroxide solution is taken in a
clean test tube & a small piece of
granulated zinc is added to it.
The test tube is gently heated.
ii) A burning splinter is brought
near the mouth of the test tube.
n
3. REACTION WITH SOLID SODIUM CARBONATE
i) ) About 4-5 ml of dilute sodium
io
hydroxide solution is taken in a
clean test tube & a pinch of
solid sodium carbonate is added to it.
RESULT:
at
1) It liberates – gas from solid sodium carbonate, as it__________ react with it.
2) It liberates ----- gas on reaction with zinc metal.
3) It liberates--- gas from solid sodium carbonate, as it__________ react with it.
iv
1. Four students, I, II, III, and IV were asked to examine the changes for blue and red litmus paper strips
with dilute HCL(solution A) and dilute NaOH (solution B). The following observations were reported by the
ot
four students. The sign (-) indicating no colour change.
M
y
B
es
Which student gave the correct observation?

2. When a student added zinc granules to dilute HCL, a colourless and odourless gas was evolved, which
was then tested with a burning match stick; what would be observed?
3. When a few drops of phenolphthalein are added to a dilute solution of sodium hydroxide, pink colour
cc
is produced. What will be the colour of the final mixture when an excess of HCL is added to it?
4. What are the products obtained when zinc metal is allowed to react with a dilute solution of sodium
hydroxide?
Su
21
EXPERIMENT-3
AIM: To perform the following reactions:
a) The action of water on quicklime
b) The action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals
c) Iron nails kept in copper sulphate solution
d) The reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride solutions and classify them into:
e) Combination reaction
f) Decomposition reaction
n
g) Displacement reaction
h) Double displacement reaction
io
APPARATUS:
Test tubes, test tube stand, glass tube or glass rod, dropper, quicklime, ferrous sulphate crystals, Iron
nails, copper sulphate solution, sodium sulphate, and barium chloride solutions
at
Water and calcium oxide (2 reactants) react to form calcium hydroxide (a single product).
The reaction is a combination reaction.
A lot of heat is liberated in the reaction; the reaction is highly exothermic.
iv
CaO (s) + H2O (l) -------------- Ca(OH)2 + heat
EXPERIMENT-3(a)
AIM: To perform and observe the action of water on quicklime.
ot
APPARATUS: Beakers, distilled water, quicklime, test tubes, filtration set, red litmus paper.
M
y
B
OBSERVATION TABLE:
S.N. EXPERIMENT OBSERVATION INFERENCE
1. About 40 ml of distilled water
es
is taken in a beaker and 5g of

calcium oxide is added to it.
The mixture is stirred with a glass rod.
2. The outer surface of the beaker
cc
is touched by hand.
3.2 drops of the liquid are taken
from the beaker and placed on a
red litmus paper.
4. The mixture is filtered and
Su
about 10 ml of the filtrate is

taken in a clean test tube.
CO2 is passed through it by
blowing air from the mouth.
RESULT:
1) Water and calcium oxide directly combine to form ------. This reaction is an example of ------------.
2) The reaction is ----- as the test tube becomes hot.
3) The reaction that takes place is-------------------------.
22
EXPERIMENT-3(b)
AIM: To perform and observe the reaction when ferrous sulphate is heated.
APPARATUS:
Solid ferrous sulphate, test tubes, test tube holder, blue litmus paper, acidified solution of potassium
dichromate
When ferrous sulphate is heated the following reaction is observed to take place:
2FeSO4 (s) ------------ Fe2O3 (s) + SO2 (g) + SO3 (g)
A single substance gives 3 new substances. So, it is a decomposition reaction.
n
io
at
OBSERVATION TABLE:
iv
S.No. EXPERIMENT Observations Inference
1)About 2 g of solid ferrous sulphate
is taken in a clean, dry test tube and
the colour is noted. It is then heated
over the flame of a Bunsen burner.
2)The odour of the gas liberated is noted.
ot
M
3)A moist blue litmus paper is brought in contact with the gas.
4)A strip of filter paper soaked with an acidified solution of potassium dichromate is brought above the
mouth of the test tube.
RESULT:
y

1) When ferrous sulphate is heated it decomposes into ----------and-----------.
B
2) The reaction for heating ferrous sulphate crystals is: -----------------.

3) The reaction is called-------------------of ferrous sulphate.
EXPERIMENT-3(c)
es
AIM: To perform and observe the reaction between the iron nail and copper sulphate solution
APPARATUS:
Iron nails, test tubes, test tube stand, copper sulphate solution
cc
Iron + Copper sulphate ------------------- Iron sulphate + c

Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) ------------------------------ FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
In this reaction iron has replaced copper from the copper sulphate solution; so it is a displacement
reaction
Su
23
n
io
OBSERVATION TABLE:
S.No Experiment Observations Inference
at
2 iron nails are taken and
cleaned by rubbing with sand
paper. 10 ml of copper sulphate
solution is taken in 2 test tubes.
iv
The colour of the iron nail and
the solution is noted.
One clean iron nail is tied with
a thread and immersed in one test
tube of CuSO4 solution.
After about 30 minutes the nail is removed
and kept aside for observation.
ot
M
The colour of the solution is also noted.
RESULT:
1) A brown coating on the iron nail after the experiment shows that-------from copper sulphate solution.
2) The light green colour in the test tube indicates the presence of-------------.
y
3) The reaction is called---------.

4) The reaction is-------.
B
EXPERIMENT-3(d)
AIM: To perform and observe the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium chloride
solution
es
APPARATUS:
Sodium sulphate solution, barium chloride solution, test tubes, conical flask.
On mixing sodium sulphate solution and barium chloride solution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate
cc
is formed.
Na2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq)
This is an example of a double displacement reaction.
Su
24
n
io
at
iv
OBSERVATION TABLE:
S.No. EXPERIMENT Observations Inference
1.10 ml of sodium sulphate
the solution is taken in a test tube A.
10 ml of barium chloride solution
is taken in another
ot
M
test tube B.
The 2 solutions are
mixed in a conical flask and the
observations are recorded.
y
RESULT:
1) In this reaction a-------- of barium sulphate is formed and sodium chloride appears in----------.
B
2) The reaction is called -------------------.

3) The reaction is-------------------------.

es
1. What happens when ferrous sulphate crystals are heated?

2. When an iron rod is dipped into a solution of copper sulphate, copper is displaced. Why is it so?
3. When we add water to quick lime we observe some changes. Based on those changes what can be
concluded about the reaction between quick lime and water?
cc
4. Rahul adds aqueous solution of barium chloride to an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate.
What would he observe?
Su
25
EXPERIMENT-4
AIM: a) To observe the action of Zn, Fe, Cu and Al on
1) ZnSO4 (aq)
2) FeSO4 (aq)
3) CuSO4 (aq)
4) Al2(SO4)3 (aq)
n
b) Arrange Zn, Fe, Cu and Al metals in the decreasing order of reactivity based on the above results.
CHEMICALS REQUIRED:
io
Granulated Zinc, iron filings, copper turnings, aluminium metal, an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate,
ferrous sulphate, copper sulphate and aluminium sulphate
APPARATUS:
Test tubes, test tube stand, test tube holder
at
The arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivities is called reactivity series or activity
series. The decreasing order of the series is potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium, aluminium, zinc, iron,
iv
tin, lead, hydrogen, copper, mercury, and silver, gold.
PROCEDURE:
1) 4 test tubes are taken and marked A, B, C and D
ot
2) About 5ml of aqueous zinc sulphate, aqueous ferrous sulphate, aqueous copper sulphate and aqueous
aluminium sulphate are taken in test tubes A, B, C and D respectively.
3) A piece of zinc metal is added to each of the above test tubes A, B, C and D.
4) The observations are recorded.
M
5) The above steps are repeated by adding Fe, Cu and Al to each salt solution taken in the test tubes, B, C
and D.
6) The observations are recorded in tabular form.
y
B
es
cc
Su
26
OBSERVATION TABLE:
REACTION OF ZINC METAL WITH SALT SOLUTIONS:
1 Zn + CuSO4
2 Zn + FeSO4
3 Zn + Al2(SO4)3
4 Zn + ZnSO4
n
REACTION OF COPPER METAL WITH SALT SOLUTIONS:
1 Cu + ZnSO4
io
2 Cu + FeSO4
3 Cu + Al2(SO4)3
4 Cu + CuSO4
REACTION OF IRON METAL WITH SALT SOLUTIONS:
at
1 Fe + ZnSO4
2 Fe + CuSO4
3 Fe + Al2(SO4)3
iv
4 Fe + FeSO4
REACTION OF ALUMINIUM METAL WITH SALT SOLUTIONS:
1.Al + ZnSO4
2.Al + CuSO4
3.Al + FeSO4
4.Al + Al2(SO4)3
REACTION OF IRON METAL WITH SALT SOLUTIONS:
ot
M
1 Fe + ZnSO4
2 Fe + CuSO4
3 Fe + Al2(SO4)3
4 Fe + FeSO4
y
REACTION OF ALUMINIUM METAL WITH SALT SOLUTIONS:

1.Al + ZnSO4
B
2.Al + CuSO4
3.Al + FeSO4
4.Al + Al2(SO4)3
RESULT:
es
A]Based on the above observations, we conclude that:

1) Zinc is more reactive than----but less reactive than----.
2) Copper is less reactive than --------.
3) Iron is ---- reactive than but less reactive than-----.
cc
4) -------is more reactive than copper, iron and zinc.

B] The arrangement according to decreasing order of reactivity:
1) --------is the most reactive metal.
2) -----is the least reactive metal.
3) The decreasing order of reactivity for the given metals is-------.
Su

1. A student took four test tubes I, II, III and IV containing aluminium sulphate, copper sulphate, ferrous
sulphate and zinc sulphate solutions respectively. He placed an iron strip in each of them. In which test tube
is a brown deposit formed?
2. Iron filings were added to a solution of copper sulphate. After 10 minutes, it was observed that the blue
colour of the solution changes and a layer gets deposited on iron filings. What is the colour of the solution
and the layer deposited
27
3. A strip of copper was placed in a beaker containing zinc sulphate solution. On observing the strip next
day, was there any colour change in the strip?
4. On adding zinc granules to freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution, what is observed?
EXPERIMENT-5
AIM: To study the following properties of acetic acid (ethanoic acid).
1) Odour
2) Solubility in water
3) Effect on litmus paper
n
4) Reaction with sodium bicarbonate
CHEMICALS REQUIRED:
io
Sample of acetic acid, sodium bicarbonate, blue litmus paper, lime water.
APPARATUS:
Test tubes, test tube stand, test tube holder, dropper, Bunsen burner, thermometer.
at
Acetic acid has a vinegar-like smell. It is highly soluble in water. It turns blue litmus red.
It reacts with sodium carbonate to liberate carbon dioxide gas with brisk effervescence
iv
OBSERVATION TABLE:
STEPS OF EXPERIMENTAL PROCEDURE TO STUDY THE PROPERTIES OF ACETIC ACID:
S.No Experiment
1. The given sample is taken
in a test tube and the odour
ot
Observations Inference
M
is smelled carefully.
2. 2 ml of water is taken in a test
tube and 2-3 ml of acetic acid
are added and shaken.
3. The given sample of acetic acid is
y
tested with blue/red litmus paper.

4. 2-3 ml of acetic acid is taken in a
B
test tube and a pinch of sodium carbonate

are added to it. The gas evolved is passed
through lime water.
es
RESULT:
Based on the above observations, we conclude that:
1) Acetic acid has --- like smell.
2) Acetic acid is ----- soluble in water.
cc
3) Acetic acid changes ------ litmus.

4) Acetic acid liberates------ from sodium carbonate.

Su
1. What happens when 2 ml of acetic acid was added in drops to 5 mL of water?

2. Ram adds an acetic acid solution to solid sodium hydrogen carbonate. What would he observe?
3. Divansh was asked to identify the test tube containing acetic acid out of the four test tubes A, B, C and D
filled with different liquids. He smelled each of them and found:
(i) A gave a very sweet smell.
(ii) B gave a lightly pungent smell.
(iii) C was odourless.
(iv) D gave a bad odour.
Which test tube contains acetic acid?
28
4. List two observations that you make when you add a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic acid
in a test tube. Write the chemical equation for the reaction that occurs.
5. When you add sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic acid in a test tube, a gas liberates immediately with
brisk effervescence. Name this gas. Describe the method of testing this gas.
6. A student is studying the properties of acetic acid. List two physical properties of acetic acid he observes.
that happens when he adds a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate to this acid? Write any two observations.
n
EXPERIMENT-6
io
AIM: To study the comparative cleaning capacity of a sample of soap in soft and hard water.
THEORY:
at
iv
The hardness of water is caused by the presence of the salts of calcium and magnesium (hydrogen carbonates,
ot
chlorides and sulphates) in water. These salts are soluble in water. When soap is added to hard water, it reacts
with the salts to form a scum, which is insoluble and floats on top of the water surface. The scum is formed
due to the formation of insoluble calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acid used in the soap formation. The
M
soap in solution then becomes ineffective.
Ca(HCO3)2 (aq) + 2Na+-stearate(aq) ------> Ca(stearate)2 (s) + 2NaHCO3(aq)
CaSO4(aq) + 2Na +-stearate(aq)-------> Ca(stearate)2(s) + Na2SO4(aq)
The salts of calcium and magnesium show similar reactions. Therefore, the presence of calcium and
y
magnesium salts in water precipitates the soap thereby reducing its cleansing power and foaming capacity.
MATERIAL REQUIRED:
B
Underground water (well water), distilled water, calcium hydrogen carbonate or calcium sulphate, soap
sample, a physical balance and weight box, three test tubes and a test tube stand, three beakers (100 mL),
three glass rods, a measuring cylinder (50 mL), and a measuring scale.
Step 1: Three beakers are taken and labelled as A, B and C. Step 2: 20 ml of distilled water is taken in a
es
beaker A. In beaker B, 20 mL of underground water is put, and 2 g of calcium hydrogen carbonate (or
calcium sulphate) is added in beaker C to 20 ml of distilled water.
Step 3: The contents of beaker C is stirred so that calcium hydrogen carbonate (or calcium sulphate)
dissolves in water.
cc
Step 4: 1 g of soap is put in each beaker A, B and C (after weighing it using a physical balance).
Step 5: The contents of these beakers are stirred with separate glass rods.
Step 6: These test tubes are placed in a test tube stand and labelled as tube A, B and C.
Step 7: 3 ml of the above-prepared soap solution is poured in the corresponding test tubes.
Step 8: Test tube A is taken and shaken ten times by placing the thumb on its mouth.
Su
Step 9: Foam or lather is formed by shaking the test tube. The length of foam produced is measured
immediately with the help of measuring scale.
Step 10: Similarly, steps 8 and 9 are repeated with the remaining two samples.
Observations
(i) Mass of the soap sample taken in each beaker = g
(ii) The volume of the distilled water and underground water = ml
(iii) The volume of the soap sample taken in each test tube =_ ml
(iv) Number of times each test tube shaken =_
RESULTS
29
Infer from the observations that which solution of the soap sample produces the maximum length of foam
(lather). For the cleansing purpose, the foam needs to be produced which depends on the free availability
of a hydrophobic portion of soaps (or alkyl groups). In hard water it is trapped due to scum or precipitation,
this makes the hard water unsuitable for washing.
PRECAUTIONS:
1. Use the same sample of soap for soft water and hard water.
2. Stir the mixture carefully by dissolving soap in water to avoid spilling of soap solutions.
3. The number of soap samples in all solutions must be the same. The amount of distilled water added in
every soap sample must be the same. That is the concentration of all test solution must be same.
n
4. The mass of the soap samples must be determined very carefully using a physical balance. In case of any
need, take help from your teacher.
io
5. Shake every tube for an equal number of times and in a similar manner.
6. Measure the length of the foam produced immediately after its production.
1. When soap is added to hard water, it reacts with the salts to form a scum. Why does this scum form?
at
2. A student was asked to take 10 ml of rainwater in test tube A and 1 gm of calcium sulphate added to 10 ml
of distilled water in test tube B. He added a couple of drops of soap solution to both A and B. After shaking
both the test tubes equal number of times, what did the student observe?
iv
3. Mohan takes 5 ml of distilled water in four test tubes A, B, C and D. He dissolves sodium chloride in test
tube A, calcium chloride in test tube B, magnesium chloride in test tube C and potassium chloride in test tube
D. In which test tube(s) will scum be formed with soap?
ot
4. Kanchi takes 5 mL of distilled water in four test tubes marked as A, B, C and D. She dissolves sodium chloride
in test tube A, potassium chloride in test tube B, calcium chloride in the test tube C and magnesium chloride
in test tube D. In which test tubes will soap give good lather?
M
y
B
es
cc
Su
30
BIOLOGY
Chapter-6
Life-Processes
1. Which element is used in the synthesis of proteins?
(i) Hydrogen
n
(ii) Oxygen
(iii) Nitrogen
io
(iv) Carbon dioxide
2. Temporary finger-like extensions on amoeba are called as
(i) Cell membrane
(ii) Cell wall
at
(iii) Pseudopodia
(iv)Cilia
3. Bile juice is secreted by
iv
(i) Stomach
(ii)Pancreas
(iii)Small intestine
(iv)Liver
FILL IN THE BLANKS ot
4. The sum of all the biochemical reactions is known as-----.
5. Haemoglobin is known as -------pigment.
M
6. Palisade and spongy parenchyma together called---.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Which mechanism plays an important role in the transportation of Water in plants? (a) During day time
(b) at night.
y
8. What is the purpose of sending blood to the kidney for filtration?

9. Why intestinal villi are highly vascular?
B

other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below:
es

cc
10. Assertion: Saliva contains pepsin enzyme.

Reason: Pepsin digests lipids.
11. Assertion: Pyruvate is six carbon-containing compounds.
Reason: It is formed during anaerobic respiration.
12. Assertion: The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous fingers like projections called villi.
Su
Reason: The villi increase the surface area of absorption.

13. (a) Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell
(i) In the presence of oxygen.
(ii) In the absence of oxygen.
(b)Define the term muscle fatigue.
14. Mention the role of following in digestion: (a) pepsin (b) amylase (c) lipase.
15. The pH of the mouth of a person is lower than 5.5. What changes will occur in his mouth?
31
How can these changes be controlled? Write any two measures.
16. Describe an experiment to show that ‘sunlight is essential for photosynthesis.’
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) Draw a well-labelled diagram of the human alimentary canal. Also, name the longest part of the
alimentary canal.
(b)Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?
18. (a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of stomata. Also, mention its function.
(b) How do guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata pore?
19. (a) What are the basic materials used during photosynthesis?
n
(b) List the three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis.
20. CASE STUDY
io
The oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the upper-left chamber of the heart, the left atrium.
at
The left atrium relaxes when it is collecting this blood and then contracts, while the next chamber, the
left ventricle, expands so that the blood is transferred to it. When the muscular left ventricle contracts
in its turn, the blood is pumped out to the body. De-oxygenated blood comes from the body to the
upper – right chamber, the right atrium, as it expands. As the right atrium contracts, the corresponding
iv
lower chamber, the right ventricle, dilates. This transfers blood to the right ventricle, which in turn
pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation. Note that not all organisms have a 4-chambered heart.
Amphibians or many reptiles have three-chambered hearts, while fish, on the other hand, have only
ot
two-chambered hearts. This pumping of heart around the body takes place through blood vessels called
veins and arteries.
M
y
B
es
cc
(a) Which part of the heart contains oxygenated and deoxygenated blood?
(b) Why the wall of the ventricle is thick in comparison with the atrium?
(c) Differentiate between arteries and veins.
(d) What is the significance of the four-chambered heart?
Su
32
Chapter-7
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1. The growth of tendrils in pea plants is due to the:
(i) Effect of sunlight on the tendril cells facing the sun.
(ii) Effect of gravity on the part of tendril hanging down towards the earth.
n
(iii) Rapid cell division and elongation in tendril cells that are away from the support.
(iv) Rapid cell division and elongation in tendril cells in contact with the support.
io
2. The plant hormone which triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from the plant body is:
(i) Auxin
(ii) Gibberellin
(iii) Abscisic acid
at
(iv) Cytokinin
3. The stimulus in the process of thigmotropism is:
(i) Touch
iv
(ii) Gravity
(iii) Light
(iv) Chemical
FILL IN THE BLANKS

4. The----- gland is present just below the brain.
ot
M
5. ----is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
6. The----nerve connects all the parts in the body directly by the brain.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS

y
7. Name two tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular animals.
8. Name the hormones that help in regulating the level of sugar in our blood.
B
9. Mention the part of the body where gustatory and olfactory receptors are located.
es
as given below:
cc

10. Assertion: The brain is the anterior-most part of the central nervous system.
Reason: The brain controls all the voluntary and involuntary activities of the body.
11. Assertion: Endocrine glands secrete hormones.
Su
Reason: Hormones are also known as chemical messengers.

12. Assertion: A receptor is a specialised group of cells in a sense organ that perceive a particular type of
stimulus.
Reason: Different sense organs have different receptors for detecting stimuli.
13. What is a reflex action? Draw the diagram of a reflex arc. Describe the steps involved in a reflex action.
14. Name the system which facilitates communication between the central nervous system and other parts
of the body.
(a) Mention the two types of nerves it consists of along with their organs of origin.
33
(b) How does our nervous system detect stimuli or changes in the external or internal environment of the
body?
15. (a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label a cell body and the axon.
(b) Name the parts of a neuron-
(i) which acquires information?
(ii) through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
16. What is phototropism? Describe an activity with the help of a diagram to demonstrate phototropism.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
n
17. (a) Draw a neat and well-labelled diagram of a human brain.
(b) How is the brain protected from injury and shock?
io
(c) Name two main parts of the hindbrain and state their functions.
18. Explain with the help of a diagram how auxin helps in the bending of the plant stems towards the light.
19. Hormones are needed by our body in an appropriate amount; slightly more or less secretion causes
disorders in our body. Illustrate this process by using three examples.
at
(b)What will happen, if the pancreas of a person stops functioning?
20. CASE STUDY
iv
Movement of a shoot towards light is called phototropism. This movement is caused due to more growth
of cells towards the shaded side of the shoot as compared to the side of the shoot towards the light.
(i) Positive geotropism?

ot
More growth of cells is due to secretion of auxin towards the shaded side.
(a) A potted plant is made to lie horizontally on the ground. Which part of the plant will show
(ii) Negative geotropism?
(b) Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes its growth. Where is it synthesized?
M
(c) Define chemotropism in plants.
(d) Define nastic and tropic movement in the plant.
y
B
es
cc
Su
34
Chapter-8
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
1. When an animal is cut into pieces and each piece grows into a complex organism. This process is called:
(i) Budding
(ii) Fragmentation
(iii)Spore formation
n
(iv)Regeneration
2. The portion on which grafting is done and it provides the roots is called:
(i)Stock
io
(ii)Scion
(iii)Both a and b
(iv)None of these
at
3. Where does fertilisation occur in human females?
(i)Uterus
(ii)Cervix
iv
(iii)Oviduct
(iv)Ovary
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4.
5.
6.
ot
The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction is called----.
The number of chromosomes in parent and offspring of a particular species remains constant due to-----.
Vegetative propagation refers to the formation of new plants from------.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
M
7. When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA?
8. What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length?
9. What happens when Planaria gets cut into pieces?
y

B
For the question numbers 10,11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the
as given below:
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
es
(b) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

cc
10. Assertion: Thin branched filaments of fungi are called hyphae.

Reason: Fungi are also known as decomposers.
11. Assertion: Flowers are the organs of sexual reproduction in plants.
Reason: Flowers are always bisexual.
Su
12. Assertion: Genes are the stretch of DNA and determine genetic characters.
Reason: Functional unit of DNA is called genes.
13. Reproduction is linked to the stability of population of a species. Justify the statement.
14. Correlate the number of chromosomes with the size of the organism and answer the following
questions:
(i)Do larger organisms have the more number of chromosomes?
(ii)Can an organism with fewer chromosomes reproduce more easily than an organism with more
number of chromosomes?
35
15. What is meant by pollination? Name and differentiate between the two modes of pollination in a
flowering plant?
16. Give reasons for the following:
(i)Leaves of bryophyllum fallen on the ground produce new plants whereas the leaves of roses do not?
(ii)Why can’t more complex organisms give rise to new individuals through regeneration?
(iii)Why are the testes located in scrotum?
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) Write the function of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system.
n
(i) Ovary (ii) Uterus (iii) Fallopian tube
(b) Write the structure and function of the placenta in the human female.
io
18. (a) Write the name of the human male reproductive organ that produces sperm and secretes a hormone.
Name the hormone secreted and state its function.
(b)Write the site of fertilisation and the part where the zygote gets implanted in the human female.
(c) State in brief, how an embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother’s body.
at
19. (a) Differentiate between germination and fertilisation.
(b)Differentiate between pollen and ovule.
(c) What happens to the following parts after fertilisation?
iv
(i)) Ovary (ii) Ovule (iii) Sepals and petals?
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20(a) to 20(d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph and
ot
A scientist removed some cells from the growing point of a plant and placed it in a suitable medium to
the formation of a shapeless lump of mass X. X is then transformed to another medium which stimulates
M
it to develop roots. When X with developed roots is placed in a yet another medium, then it develops
shoots to form tiny plantlets. These plantlets can then be transplanted in pots or soil where they can
grow to form mature plants. Answers these questions with the help of a given figure.
(a)What is the shapeless lump of mass X known as?
(b)What name is given to this method of producing new plants?
y
(c)Name any two plants which are produced by this method.

(d)State any two advantages of this method of producing plant.
B
es
cc
Su
36
Chapter-9
HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
1. Which of the following is the impossible outcome of Mendel's Experiment?

(i) 3 tall 1 short plant
(ii) 24 tall and 8 short plants
(iii) 8 tall and 0 short plants
n
(iv) 4 tall plants and 1 medium height plant
2. Analogous organs have
io
(i) Same structure, same function
(ii)A different structure, different function
(iii)Same structure, different function
at
(iv) A different structure, same function
3. Which of the following is not controlled by genes?
(i)Weight of a person
(ii)Height of a person
iv
(iii)Both 1 and 2
(iv)Sometimes 1 and sometimes 2
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4.
5.
The nature of the cross will be-----.
ot
Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny.
A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a------.
M
6. A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato, radish and tomato. ------of them represent the correct
homologous structures.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
y
7. Variation is an important aspect of reproduction. Which type of organism shows maximum variation?
8. Write one word for the formation of a new species due to gradual change over a long period
B
of time.
9. Inheritance is possible because of a certain factor present in organisms. What is this factor?
es
as given below:
cc

10. Assertion: Mutation is a sudden change in the genetic material.
Su
Reason: Variation is useful for the survival of species.

11. Assertion: The cross between RR yy and rr YY seeds will obtain RrYy offspring which will exhibit round
and
yellow phenotype as these traits are dominant one.
Reason: When two characters are crossed then it is called dihybrid cross.
12. Assertion: Sexual reproduction involves meiosis in gamete mother cells to form gametes.
Reason: Meiosis is also known as a reduction division.
37
13. Give one example of each of the characters that are inherited and the ones that are acquired by humans.
Mention the difference between acquired and inherited characters.
14. Write the full form of DNA. Name the part of the cell where it is located. Explain its role in the process of
reproduction of the cell.
15. 'It is a matter of chance whether a couple will give birth to a boy or a girl'. Justify the statement and
n
support your answer with a neat illustration.
16. A child questioned his teacher that why do organism resemble their parents more as compared to
io
grandparents. In which way will the teacher explain this answer to the child?
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
at
17. Explain with suitable examples of how artificial selection has helped in the formation of new varieties of
cauliflower.
18. Bacteria have a simpler body plan when compared to human beings. Does it mean that human beings are
more evolved than bacteria? Explain with a suitable example.
iv
19. In pea plants, the round seed is dominant over the wrinkled. If a cross is carried out between these two
plants, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the genes for the trait of a parent.
(b) State the trait of the F1 hybrid.
ot
(c) Write the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of F2 progeny obtained from this cross? What is the name
of the cross?
M
CASE STUDY
Homologous organs are the organs evolved from the same ancestors but they have different functions.
For example, forelimb of horse and wings of the bat. Flipper of the whale, human hand are other
y
examples of homologous organs.

B
es
cc
Su
(a)State with reasons whether the following are homologous or analogous organs:
(i) Wings of butterflies and wings of bats
(ii) Forelimbs of frog and human.
(b)Which vestigial organ in man suggests that he is descendant of herbivorous mammals?
(c)Identify the method which uses carbon for studying fossils.
(d)Why archaeopteryx is known as connecting link of reptiles and birds?
38
CHAPTER-15
OUR ENVIRONMENT
n
1. The constituents who do not form eco-system are
(i) Biotic constituents
io
(ii)Plastic bags
(iii)Abiotic constituents
(iv)All of these
at
2. The functional unit of the environment is
(i)Ecosystem
(ii)Nitrogen
(iii)Carbon
iv
(iv)Oxygen
3. Which of the following is an example of producers?
(i)Plastic pens
(ii)Plastic cans
(iii)Polythene
(iv)Green plants
ot
M
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. The various level or stages in a food chain at which the transfer of food takes place is called---.
5. --------is used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
6. Two abiotic components of an environment are----and ----.
y
ONE MARK QUESTIONS

B
7. Give one example of aquatic food chain.

8. Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste be discarded in two separate dustbins?
9. State a way to prevent the accumulation of harmful chemicals in our bodies.
es
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below:
cc
10. Assertion: All green plants and blue-green algae can produce their food using abiotic and biotic
Su
components.
Reason: Green plants capture 1% of sunlight and convert it into food energy.
11. Assertion: Ozone (O3) layer is present at higher levels of the atmosphere.
Reason: It is a deadly poison at ground level.
12. Assertion: Only 10% of energy is transferred to the next trophic level. The remaining 90% of energy is
Used in the life processes.
Reason: Human activities lead to environmental problems such as the production of a huge amount of
garbage.
39
13. (a) ‘Energy flow in the food chain is unidirectional’. Justify this statement.
(b) Explain how pesticides enter the food chain and subsequently enter in our body.
14. (a) What is an ecosystem? List two main components of the ecosystem.
(b) We don’t clean ponds and lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why?
15. Describe how decomposers facilitate recycling of matter to maintain balance in an ecosystem.
16. (a) In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to
the producer?
n
Plants--------- Deer ---------Lion
(b) List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem.
io
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. Categorise any two activities performed by you as an eco-friendly person. Suggest any three eco-friendly
activities which we should adopt in our day to day life.
at
18. (i)How do food chains get shortened?
(ii) How does the shortening of the food chain affect the biosphere?
(iii)How will you justify that vegetarian food habits give us more calories?
iv
(b) Carnivores cannot be self-dependent and have to depend on herbivores. Explain.
19. (a) Explain the phenomena of ‘biological magnification’. How does it affect organisms belonging to different
trophic levels, particularly to the tertiary consumers?
20. CASE STUDY ot

(b)Mention the ecologically amplified elements that lead to a decline in the population of predator birds.
M
High UV radiation breaks down oxygen into oxygen atoms. These oxygen atoms when combining with
oxygen, they form ozone. The thickness of the ozone layer over Antarctica was found to be decreased in
the year 1985. This is defined as ozone depletion. This is due to excessive use of chlorofluorocarbons in
refrigerators, ACs, aerosols, etc. Thinning of ozone would allow penetration of Ultraviolet rays into the
y
earth's atmosphere causing blindness, skin cancers, and mutations.

B
es
cc
(a)What is the function of ozone in the upper stratosphere?

(b)Name the group of chemical compounds which adversely affect the ozone layer.
Su
(C)Write one negative effect of the affluent lifestyle of a few people of a society on the environment.
(d)Write one effect of ozone on the ecosystem.
40
CHAPTER-16
MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
1. Floods can be prevented by

(i)Afforestation
n
(ii)Removing topsoil
(iii)Deforestation
(iv)Agriculture
io
2. Narmada Bachao Andolan was to
(i)Clean Narmada
(ii) Expand Narmada
at
(iii)Save Narmada
(iv)None of above
3. Which of the following is the best method from an environmental point of view?
(i)Reduce
iv
(ii)Recycle
(iii)Reuse
(iv)All of the above
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. The full form of UV rays is------.

ot
M
5. Synthetic material/chemical which depleted the Ozone layer is-----.
6. Replenishment of forest is called—.
y
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the bacteria present in the human intestine which indicates contamination of water.
B
8. Give one example each from your daily life where the household waste can be effectively reused and
recycled respectively
9. Mention one negative effect of our affluent lifestyle on the environment.
es
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and
(d) as given below:
cc

Su
10 Assertion: Water is one of the abundant natural resources which cover around 70.9% of our planet.
But, only 3% of water is tagged as freshwater.
Reason: The treatment of water gathered from domestic and industrial regions is necessary in order to
fulfil the daily demands of the population.
11 Assertion: Reusing and recycling are seen as sensible alternatives to disposing of several items.
Reason: Some examples of renewable resources are water, trees, etc. Non-renewable resources
include coal, oil, natural gas etc.
12 Assertion: The implementation of proper laws and regulations for stopping the wasting of resources is
a crucial part of resource management.
41
Reason: Careless dumping of substances like plastics glassware, oil, ceramic, porcelain as well as
metals
has harmful effects on both soil and water.
13 (a)Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. Justify this statement.

(b)What will be the consequences of the loss of biodiversity? Write any two points.
14 What is meant by sustainable management? Is the environment insisting upon ‘sustainable natural
n
resource management’? State its four advantages.
15 What is meant by fossil fuel? Although coal and petroleum are produced by the degradation of biomass,
yet we need to conserve them. Why?
io
16 Local people around forests are referred to as 'stakeholders' for the conservation of forests. Give
reasons.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
at
17 (a) Name a greenhouse gas. What happens when its amount increases in the atmosphere?
(b)Suggest three measures for controlling the level of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
18 (a) Suggest any three precautionary measures which should be taken while harvesting rainwater.
iv
(b)What are the two advantages of water stored in the ground?
19. (a)To test the level of water quality, study of which parameters can be done?
(b) List four advantages of properly managed water-shed management.
20 CASE STUDY ot
(c)Why has the government established the Amrita Devi Bishnoi award?
M
and related studied concepts.
The river Ganga is not only sacred; it also supplies water to more than 90million people. It flows for 2500km
from Gangotri in the Himalayas to Ganga sager in the way of Bengal. Ganga along with its tributaries is the
largest river basin of the country. On the way, it passes through over 100 towns and cities of Uttarakhand,
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal. It is being turned into a dirty water drain. The coliform is itself
y
harmless, but its presence indicates that other harmful, intestinal bacteria might be also present. The
increased pollution load and the resultant toxicity fishes in many parts of the river.
B
es
cc
Su
(a)
Wh(a) Which environmental pollution does the graph given below of total coliform count level indicate?
(b) (b)Ganga is being turned into a dirty water drain in this passage, why is this happening? Give one point.
fat(c) Name the significant step taken by the Government in concern with the problem stated in the
passage.
(d) Give any one method to reduce this problem stated in this passage.
42
BIOLOGY PRACTICAL
S.No
AIM OF THE EXPERIMENT
1 To prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show s stomata.
n
2 To experimentally show that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration.
io
3 To study (a) binary fission in amoeba and (b) budding in yeast with the help of prepared slides.
4 To identify the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed.

(pea, gram or kidney bean)
at
iv
ot
M
y
B
es
cc
Su
43
EXPERIMENT NO. 1
AIM: To prepare a stained temporary mount of a leaf peel to observe stomata.
REQUIREMENTS: A thick spongy leaf (Rheo, Lily, Tradescantia or Bryophyllum), Plain glass slides, coverslip,
watch glass, forceps, needles, brush, blade, safranin, filter paper, glycerine, and microscope.
PROCEDURE:
n
1) Take the leaf provided.
2) Hold it between the thumb and forefinger.
io
3) Break off the leaf from front to back by putting pressure so that the epidermis comes out from the
the lower surface or ventral side of the leaf.
4) The epidermal peeling should be taken from the laminar region and not from the midrib region.
5) Cut small pieces of the peels and immediately, transfer them to a watch glass containing water.
at
6) Transfer one of the pieces into a Petri dish containing safranin solution and leave it for about a
minute. Both over staining and under-staining should be avoided.
7) Now transfer the peel on a clean slide with the help of a brush and needle.
iv
8) Cut the portion of the peel to a proper rectangular or square shape of appropriate size (2 to 3 mm)
with the help of a blade and a needle.
9) Add a drop of glycerine on the slide over the peel and put the coverslip gently. Care must be
ot
taken to avoid the entry of air bubbles and the mounting should be done in the centre of the slide.
10) After putting the coverslip, press it a bit with a needle to spread the glycerine over peel
properly.
11) Remove the excess of water or stain, if any, from the slide surrounding the peel with the help of a
M
blotting paper.
12) Examine the slide under the microscope.
OBSERVATION:
1. Under Low power of the microscope
y
a) A single-layer of cells with a distinct and irregular outline is observed. b) Cells are closely packed with
no intercellular spaces. c) Large numbers of minute openings called stomata are present2. Under the high
B
power of the Microscope. a) Each aperture or pore represents the stomata.

b) Each stoma is surrounded by kidney-shaped or bean-shaped guard cells. c) The cells surrounding guard
cells are known as subsidiary cells.
d) The inner walls of these guard cells are thick and the outer walls are thin and more elastic. e) The
es
special wall structure facilitates the opening and closing of stomata.

f) When the guard cells are fully turgid they open the stoma and when they are flaccid they close the
stoma. g) Stomata help in the exchange of gases and transpiration.
cc
Su
Open stomata
44
n
io
Closed stomata
at
INFERENCE:-As seen under low and high power of the microscope, the epidermal cells with minute pores
called stomata are observed.
PRECAUTIONS
iv
1) Take the peel from a freshly plucked leaf.
2) Always hold the slide by its edges to avoid making the slide dirty.
ot
3) Put the coverslip gently to avoid the entry of air bubbles.
4) Mounting should be done in the centre of the slide.
5) Both over-staining and under-staining of the cells should be avoided.
6) A clean slide must be used for making the temporary mount.
M
1. Why do you think that stomata are present only on the aerial parts of plants?
2. What is the shape of the guard cell in the grass leaf?
3. What is the role of cuticle over epidermis?
y
4. How are guard cells different from rest epidermal cells?

B
es
cc
Su
45
EXPERIMENT NO. 2
AIM: To show that CO2 is produced during respiration.
REQUIREMENTS: A Conical flask, Delivery tube bent twice at right angles, Rubber cork with a hole,
Beaker, Specimen tube, Germinating seeds, Caustic potash (KOH), thread, coloured water.
PROCEDURE:
n
1. Keep some germinating seeds in a conical flask.
2. Put some KOH pellets in a specimen tube and hang it inside the conical flask with the help of a
io
thread.
3. Close the mouth of the flask with a cork having a hole in it.
4. Insert one end of the twice-bent delivery tube into the hole of the cork and dip the other end of
at
the delivery tube in coloured water contained in the beaker.
5. Make the connections airtight with the help of wax.
6. Keep the apparatus undisturbed for 6-8 hours.
7. Mark the initial and final position of the water level in the delivery tube.
iv
OBSERVATION
1. The level of water in the bent tube rises up.
ot
2. Germinating seeds consume oxygen during respiration and give out carbon dioxide.
3. Carbon dioxide is absorbed by KOH pellets and a partial vacuum is created in the flask.
4. To fill up this vacuum air from the bent tube is pulled up and the water level rises in the bent tube.
5. This rise in water level is proportional to the amount of CO2 produced by the germinating seeds.
M
y
B
es
INFERENCE
cc
CO2 is produced during respiration.

PRECAUTIONS:
1. The apparatus should be airtight.
2. Seed used for the experiment should be germinating.
Su
3. The initial level in the delivery tube should be taken after some time so that whatever CO2 is present in
the flask is absorbed by KOH.
1. List any two major differences between respiration and combustion.
2. Justify the statement that cellular respiration is just opposite to the process of respiration.
3. Why is more amount of energy released during aerobic respiration in comparison to anaerobic
respiration?
4. Give chemical equations of aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
5. What is the role of KOH in this experiment? Why do we use germinated seeds in the experiment?
46
EXPERIMENT NO. 3
AIM To study binary fission and budding with the help of prepared slides.
REQUIREMENTS Compound microscope prepared slides of Amoeba showing binary fission and yeast
n
showing budding.
PROCEDURE
io
1. Place the slides under the low power of the microscope.
2. Focus the slide and observe carefully. Now focus the slide under high power and observe.
3. Observe their characteristics; draw a neat labelled diagram in the space provided and note down your
at
observations.
Binary Fission in Amoeba
Observations
iv
1. You will observe Amoeba showing constriction in the cell membrane.
2. The nucleus appears to be stretched and is seen as a dumbbell shaped structure.
3. In the next stage, the stretched nucleus is seen dividing into two nuclei.
4. The constriction in the cell deepens dividing Amoeba into two parts, each carrying a nucleus. Each
ot
part grows into an Amoeba.
5. Amoeba mainly multiplies by binary fission.
6. This type of division is an asexual type of reproduction.
M
7. The nucleus divides by amitotic division,
y
B
es
cc
Budding in Yeast
1. The nucleus divides into two nuclei and one of the daughter nuclei passes into the bud.
2. The bud may get separated from the parent cell and form a new individual.
Su
3. The bud may remain attached to the parent body and give rise to the new bud.
4. The process may be repeated 3-4 times resulting in a chain of yeast cells.
5. The buds, upon maturity, get separated from the parent cell, which grows in size and becomes a new
individual
47
n
io
INFERENCE
Slide A shows the elongated body of the Amoeba with a constriction in the middle. The nucleus is under
at
the process of division; hence the given slide shows binary fission in Amoeba.
Slide B shows yeast cells with a chain of buds. Some of the yeast cells show
Protuberance, hence we can conclude the given slide shows budding in yeast.
iv
PRECAUTIONS
1. Clip the slide so that it is not disturbed.
2. First, focus the slide under low power; then observe it under high power.
3. Do not lower the objective lens of the microscope without looking into the eyepiece.
ot
Bring it to lower very slowly and gradually
1. Why are binary fission and budding process comes under the category of asexual reproduction?
M
2. Are binary and budding faster processes of reproduction as compared to sexual reproduction? Justify.
3. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission in Amoeba.
4. Offspring formed by asexual reproduction are called clones. Why they are called so?
5. Name a few organisms which show the process of fragmentation.
y
B
es
cc
Su
48
EXPERIMENT NO. 4
AIM To identify different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed (Pea, gram or red kidney bean).
REQUIREMENTS Dicot seeds (Pea, gram or red kidney bean), needle Petri plate, blotting paper, dissecting
microscope.
n
PROCEDURE
1. Keep the bean seed on wet cotton on the Petri plate for one day.
io
2. With the help of a needle, remove the seed coat and observe it on wet blotting paper.
3. On removing the seed coat embryo of the seed is seen. Gently open the cotyledons and observe
attachment of the embryo axis to the cotyledons.
at
4. Remove the embryo axis from the cotyledons.
5. Display the cotyledons and embryo axis on the blotting paper.
Observation
iv
1. Concave side red kidney bean seed is darker with a whitish sear called hilum. It is the point where the stalk
of the funicle of the seed was attached. Hilum may be called a belly button of the seed.
2. Micropile is a pore on one end of hilum; water enters the seed through this pore using seed germination.
ot
This pore can be seen on pressing a soaked seed when a drop of water or air is found ooze out of it.
3. The seed is covered by a thick outer seed coat called testa and a thin inner transparent tegmen.
4. An embryo has two large cotyledons and one embryo axis or tigellum. Cotyledons are curved and have
become large due to the storage of food. These become the first leave of the plant.
M
5. The upper end of the embryo axis is plumule (future shoot). It has two small folded leaves.
6. The lower end of the embryo axis which project beyond the cotyledons is the radical (future root).
7. The part of the embryo axis between plumule and the point of attachment is called epicotyls.
y
8. The part of the embryo axis between radical and point of attachment is called the hypocotyl.
PRECAUTIONS
B
1. Seeds must be soaked in water before observing in parts.

2. The seed coat should be removed gently.
1. What is the role of cotyledons?
es
2. (i) Name the single cell formed by the fusion of male and female gametes in angiosperm.
(ii)Where does an embryo develop from a zygote?
3. What are the conditions required for the germination of seed?
4. What are the components of an embryo?
cc
5. What are albuminous and non-albuminous seeds? Give an example.

Su
49
n
io
at
iv
ot
CHAPTER- 10
LIGHT-REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
1. The focal length of the plane mirror is
M
(i)Infinity
(ii) Zero
(iii)Negative
(iv)None of these
y
2. An image formed by a plane mirror is

(i) Real and erect
B
(ii) Real and inverted

(iii) Virtual and erect
(iv)Virtual and inverted
3 A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed
es
(i)At F
(ii)At infinity
(iii)At C
(iv)Beyond C
cc
FILL IN THE BLANKS

4. Image formed by a plane mirror is always ______ and ________.
5. A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is curved inwards, that is faces towards the centre of the
sphere, is called a ______.
Su
6. The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to _________of its radius of curvature.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Differentiate between a converging and diverging lens.
8. Differentiate between a real image and a virtual image.
9. The angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is 600. What is the angle of incidence?
as given below:
50
10. Assertion: The refractive index of a prism depends only on the kind of glass of which it is made of and the
colour of light.
Reason: The refractive index of a prism depends on the refracting angle of the prism and the angle of
n
the minimum deviation.
11. Assertion: A red object appears dark in the yellow light.
Reason: A red colour is scattered less.
io
12. Assertion: Incident ray is directed towards the centre of curvature of spherical mirror. After reflection
it retraces its path.
Reason: Angle of incidence i = Angle of reflection r = 0o.
at
13. Draw the image formation by a concave mirror of focal length 15cm for the following positions of the
object. Also, indicate the nature and relative size of the image:
iv
(i)The object is placed at 30cm from the mirror.
(ii) The object is placed at 10cm from the mirror.
ot
14. The size of the image of an object by a mirror having a focal length of 20 cm is observed to be reduced to
half of its size.
(a) At what distance has the object been placed from the mirror?
(b) What is the nature of the image and the mirror?
M
(c) The power of a lens is - 1.5D. What is the nature of this lens?
15. How does the velocity of light vary with change in the optical density of the media?
Absolute refractive indices of medium 'A' and medium 'B' are 'na' and 'nb' respectively. What is the
refractive index of medium 'B' concerning medium 'A'?
y
A concave lens made up of a material of refractive index n1 is kept in a medium of refractive index n2. A
parallel beam of light is incident on the lens. Trace the path of rays of light parallel to principal axis incident
B
on the concave lens after refraction when:

(i)n1>n2 (ii)n1=n2
16. (a) A ray of light falls normally on a face of a glass slab. What are the values of angle of incidence and angle
of refraction of this ray?
es
(b) Light enters from air to a medium ‘X’. Its speed in medium‘X’becomes1.5× 108m/s. The speed of light in
air is 3x108m/s. Find the refractive index of medium ‘X’.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) A concave mirror produces a three times enlarged image of an object placed at 10cm in front of it.
cc
Calculate the focal length of the mirror.

(b)Show the formation of the image with the help of a ray diagram when an object is placed 6cm away
from the pole of a convex mirror.
18. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 80cm in front of a mirror by keeping
the candle flame at a distance of 20cm from its pole.
Su
(i)Which type of mirror should the student use?

(ii)Find the magnification of the image produced.
(iii)Find the distance between the object and its image.
(iv)Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case and mark the distance between the object
and its image.
19. Name the spherical mirror used as (a) 1. Shaving mirror 2. Rear view mirror in vehicles.
(a)A man is holding a lighted candle in front of a thick glass mirror and on viewing it obliquely he noticed
several images of the candle. Why?
51
20. Case study
A stick immersed in water appears to be bent. A stick immersed in water reflects light rays. These rays
when traveling in water travel in a straight line path but when they go from water to air, they deviate from
their path and get deflected away from the normal. When these refracted rays are produced, they appear
to meet at point "I" which is higher than the actual point that is 'O'. Therefore, a stick immersed in water
n
appears to be bent due to refraction.
io
at
iv
ot
M
y
(a)Define lateral displacement.
(b) What is the cause of the refraction of light?
(c) Explain Snell’s law.
B
(d) Which quantity remains constant in case of refraction?

es
cc
Su
52
n
io
CHAPTER -11
at
The Human Eye and the Colourful World
1. The image formed by the retina of the human eye is
iv
(i)Virtual and erect
(ii)Real and inverted
(iii)Virtual and inverted
ot
(iv)Real and erect
2. The change in the focal length of the human eye is caused due to
(i)Ciliary muscles
(ii)Pupil
M
(iii)Cornea
(iv)Iris
3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is
(i)25m
y
(ii)20m
(iii)25cm
B
(iv)20cm
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. Most of the refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the----.
5. The part of eye sensitive to light is-----.
es
6. The part of the eye which alters the size of the pupil is----.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the part of an eye which is equivalent to
(i)Diaphragm
cc
(ii)Camera
8. A person is advised to wear spectacles with concave lenses. What type of defect of vision is he suffering
from?
9. Why does it take some time to see in a dim room when you enter the room from the bright sunlight?
Su

as given below:
10. Assertion: The Blue colour of the sky appears due to the scattering of light.
53
Reason: Blue colour has the shortest wavelength among all the colours of the white light.
11. Assertion: A normal human eye can see all the objects beyond a certain minimum distance.
Reason: The human eye can suitably adjust the focal length of its lens to a certain extent.
12. Assertion: Owls can move freely during the night.
Reason: They have a large number of rods on their retina.
13. A person is unable to read a book clearly when kept at a distance of 25cm from his eye. Name the defect.
n
How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagrams for
(i) Defective eyes
(ii) Corrected eyes.
io
14. (a)Mention the names of two phenomena due to which a rainbow is formed.
(b)Explain with the help of a diagram of how a rainbow is formed.
15. Draw a labelled diagram of the human eye. What is the significance of the blind spot and yellow spot?
at
16. (i)Demonstrate an activity with a labelled diagram to prove that white light is made up of seven colours.
(ii)Why do different colours get separated when white light passes through a prism?
(iii)How can we recombine the components of white light after a prism has separated them?
iv
Explain with the help of a diagram.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a)A child reads words of a book with the help of a convex lens keeping it close at the book. He finds words
ot
enlarged and erect then he gradually withdraws the lens away from the book. At one position the words
again become distinctly visible but this time these are enlarged and inverted. Explain this difference with
the help of a ray diagram for both the cases.
(b)A concave lens has a focal length of 15cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so
M
that it forms an image at 10cm from the lens? Also, find the magnification.
18. (a)Ravi is given lenses with powers+5D,-5D, +10D,-10D and -20D.Considering a pair of lenses at a time,
which two lenses will he select to have a combination of total focal length when two lenses are kept in
contact in each case. (i)-10cm (ii)20cm (iii)-20cm
y
(b) A person having presbyopia uses a bifocal lens to restore proper vision. Which part of the lens is convex
and which part is concave?
B
19. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram.
es
cc
Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam as observed on the screen DE.
Su
(i)Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed. (ii)Where else in nature is this phenomenon
observed?
(iii)Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituent of white
light.
20. CASE STUDY-
When light falls on the prism it splits the incident light into a band of colours. The sequence of colours
observed is VIBGYOR (Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red). This band of colour is known as
54
Spectrum. So, this splitting of incident light into different colours is known as Dispersion. This splitting is
due to the bending of light rays at different angles.
n
io
(a)Which colour has the highest wavelength?
(b)Which colour has the highest velocity?
at
(c)Which colour has the highest refractive index?
(d)Why the dispersion of light takes place.
iv
ot
M
y
B
es
cc
Su
55
n
io
CHAPTER–12
at
Electricity
1. What is the rate of flow of electric charges called
iv
(i)Electric potential
(ii)Electric conductance
(iii)Electric current
ot
(iv)None of these
2. Which of the following is the SI Unit of Electric Current?
(i)Ohm
(ii)Ampere
M
(iii)Volt
(iv)Faraday
3. Which instrument is used for measuring the electric potential difference between two points of the circuit?
(i)Ammeter
y
(ii)Galvanometer
(iii)Voltmeter
B
(iv)All of these
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. ---- -and------are the two types of electric charges.
5. Two resistances of 4 Ω and 8 Ω are connected in parallel. ------- is the combined resistance of the system.
es
6. -----------is an instrument that measures electric current in a circuit.

ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is doubled. By what factor does the
current change in the circuit?
cc
8. A charge of 2C moves between two plates maintained at a Potential difference of 1V. What is the energy
acquired by the charge?
9. Consider the units volt, ohm, and ampere. One of them is the same as the product of the other two. Which
one is this?
Su

as given below:
10. Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
56
Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperatures thereby
increasing its resistivity.
11. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest potential is the positive terminal of the battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the higher potential as it flows in such a circuit from the
negative to the positive terminal.
12. Assertion: There is no current in the metals in the absence of an electric field.
Reason: The motion of the free electron is random.
n
13. Give reason-
(a)The resistance of a metallic conductor increases with an increase in temperature.
io
(b) Copper and aluminium are generally used for electricity transmission.
(c) Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices such as electric iron and toaster.
14. In the given circuit resistors A and B made of the same metal are of the same length but A is thicker than B.
at
Which of the two ammeters will show a higher reading? Justify your answer.
iv
ot
M
15. Find the total resistance between the points A and B in the circuit diagram shown.
y
B
16. Five resistors are connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. Find the ammeter reading when the circuit
is closed.
es
cc
Su
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. State Ohm’s law. Write the mathematical representation of Ohm’s law. Use this relationship to define
1ohm. List two disadvantages of connecting different electrical appliances in series.
18. In an experiment, the current flowing through a resistor and the potential difference across it is measured.
The values are given below.
I (ampere) 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5
57
V(Volt) 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.00
(i)Plot a V-I graph from the given values.
(ii)State one conclusion drawn from the graph.
(iii)State the law which is confirmed by this graph.
(iv)Calculate the resistance of the resistor using the graph.
20. CASE STUDY
n
A continuous conducting path between the terminals of a source of electric energy and other electrical
components along which the electric current flows is called an electric circuit. Types of electric circuits -
io
1.Closed electric circuit 2. Open circuit
at
iv
ot
Open electric circuit: It is the circuit in which electric contact is broken at some point such that no current
flows through the components of the circuit.
Closed electric circuit: The circuit in which all the components of a circuit are joined to one another such
M
that a continuous current flows through them is a closed electric circuit.
Some electronic devices with symbols used are:
Rheostat - It is defined as the variable resistance. It is connected to change the current in the circuit
without changing the voltage source like cell etc.
Galvanometer- It is a device used to measure a very small amount of current as it has very low resistance.
y
(a) What is the SI unit of electric charge?

(b) What is the difference between open and closed circuit?
B
(c) Can a galvanometer be converted into ammeter?

(d) Define Ohm’s law.
es
cc
Su
58
n
io
CHAPTER–13
MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
at
1. What is electromagnetic induction?
(i)the process of charging a body
iv
(ii)the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor
(iii)producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil
(iv)the process of generating a magnetic field due to current passing through a coil
ot
2. What happens to the current in the short circuit?
(i)reduces substantially
(ii)does not change
(iii)increases heavily
M
(iv)vary continuously
3. An alpha particle is diverted towards the west is deflected towards the north by a field. The field is
magnetic. What will be the direction of the field?
(i)towards south
y
(ii)towards east
(iii)downward
B
(iv)upward
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. ---------is the strength of the magnetic field at a point near a current-carrying wire related to the current.
5. The frequency of A.C. used in India is-------------.
es
6. -------- Is the purpose of a soft iron core in making electromagnet?

ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Why magnetic field lines are form closed curve?
8. State the direction of the magnetic field inside the bar magnet?
cc
9. What will you do if you see a person coming in contact with a live wire?
For the question numbers 10,11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
Su
below:
10. Assertion: The magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge.
Reason: A moving charge produces a magnetic field.
11. Assertion: If an electron is not deflected while passing through a certain region of space, then only
the possibility is that there is no magnetic region.
59
Reason: Force is directly proportional to the magnetic field applied.
12. Assertion: Free electron always keeps on moving in a conductor even then no magnetic force act on
them in the magnetic field unless the current is passed through it.
Reason: The average velocity of a free electron is zero.
13. What happens to the force acting on current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field when:
(i)The current in conductor increases.
n
(ii)The length of the conductor increase.
(iii)The direction of the current and magnetic field both are reversed.
14. Consider a circular wire lying in a plane of the table and the direction of current in its anticlockwise.
io
(i)Draw the magnetic field lines produced around it.
(ii)Why does the magnetic field at the centre of the current-carrying a circular loop appear straight?
15. If we place a compass needle straight conductor carrying current:
at
(a) What happens to the deflection of the compass needle if the direction of the current is reversed?
(b)What change will you notice in the compass needle if it is moved away from the conductor but the
current through the conductor remains the same?
iv
16. State one main difference between A.C. and D.C. Why A.C. is preferred over D.C. for long-range
transmission of electric power? Name one source each of D.C and A.C.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
ot
17. (a) What is a solenoid?
(b)Draw the pattern of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid.
(c)How is the magnetic field inside a current-carrying solenoid used to make an electromagnet?
Explain with the help of a diagram.
M
(d)List two factors on which the strength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid
depends.
18. (a) Draw a schematic diagram of a common domestic circuit showing provision of:
(i) Earth wire, (ii) Main fuse (iii) Electricity meter and (iv) distribution box
y
(b) Distinguish between Short Circuiting and Overloading.
19. In the arrangement shown in the figure, there are two coils A and B wound on non–conducting cylindrical
B
es
Initially, the key is not inserted.

cc
Then the Key is inserted and later removed.

(i)State your observation in each case.
(ii)State the conclusion based on your observations.
20. CASE STUDY
Su
When the current flows through a conductor from South to North then the magnetic needle placed
beneath it, gets averted to the west, thereby proving that the flow of electric current produces a magnetic
field. This is because the compass needles work as a small bar magnet, so when this magnetic needle is
brought near another magnetic property surrounding then the like poles will repel, thereby the needle gets
deflected.
60
n
(a) Define the magnetic field.
(b) Write any two properties of a magnet.
io
(c) Write the properties of magnetic field lines.
(d) How can we get the polarity of magnets?
CHAPTER-14
at
SOURCES OF ENERGY
1. Which of the following is normally used in solar cookers for trapping solar energy?
iv
(i)Solar panels
(ii)Silicon cells
(iii)Mirrors
(iv)All of the above
ot
2. In which of the following kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy?
(i)Tidal energy
(ii)Hydro energy
M
(iii)Wind energy
(iv)All of these
3. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy for us?
(i)LPG
y
(ii)Solar
(iii)CNG
B
(iv)Nuclear
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. The----------method is used to produce electricity in a thermal power plant.
5. --------- -method is used to produce electricity in the hydroelectric power plant.
es
6. ----------- is the most popular kitchen fuel in India.

ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the components of biogas.
8. Write the process by which the sun produces its energy.
cc
9. Define ignition temperature?

ASSERTION AND REASON
as given below:
Su

10. Assertion: Hydro energy is a renewable source of energy.
Reason: Hydro energy is inexhaustible.
11. Assertion: Coal is the most abundant fuel on earth.
Reason: It is essentially carbon and is mainly used as a combustion fuel.
12. Assertion: The energy obtained from the sea or ocean is called thermal energy.
61
Reason: Water due to the difference in temperature at the surface and in deeper sections of
these water bodies are the source of thermal energy.
13. (a) Why is a concave mirror used in some solar cookers in place of a plane mirror?
(b) Mention any two factors which affect the cooking time of a solar cooker?
(c) State a limitation of using a solar cooker.
14. What is a wind energy farm? State its importance with two limitations.
n
15. What is a solar panel? List any three technological applications of a solar panel.
16. (a) Name the process through which nuclear energy is generated.
(b)State two examples of elements that are used for nuclear energy generation.
io
(c)List any two reasons which make large scale use of nuclear energy prohibitive.
at
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a)State the main difference between thermal power and hydropower plants based on electricity
generation.
iv
(b)Name two dams/projects which were opposed due to the problems of rehabilitation of displaced
people, damage to the ecosystem, etc.
18. Describe how the difference in temperatures at different depths of the ocean can be utilised for generating
ot
electricity.
19. Why hydro-energy is considered an indirect source of solar energy? Explain how hydro energy can be
converted into electrical energy. State two advantages of hydro-energy.
20. CASE STUDY
M
LPG is stored in cylinders. It is mainly used for cooking and hence it is also called cooking gas and the
cylinders containing it are called cooking gas cylinders. When a valve provided in the cylinder is opened
y
with the help of a regulator; due to a decrease in pressure, LPG changes into vapour. This vapour flows to
the burners through a rubber tubing attached to the regulator.
B
(a)What is the full form of LPG?

(b)What is the main constituent of petroleum gas?
(c)What is gasohol?
(d)Which gas is used in transport vehicles?
es
cc
Su
62
n
io
at
PHYSICS PRACTICAL
iv
S.No AIM OF EXPERIMENT
ot
1. To determine the focal length of a concave mirror by obtaining the image of a distant object.
2. To determine the focal length of the convex lens by obtaining the image of a distant object.
M
3. To trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of
incidence, and to measure the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction and the angle of emergence.
Interpret the result.
4. To study the dependence of current (i) on the potential difference (v) across a resistor and determine its
y
resistance. Also, plot a graph between v and i.
5. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series.
B
6. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in parallel.

es
cc
Su
63
n
io
at
EXPERIMENT NO-1
AIM: To determine the focal length of a concave mirror by obtaining the image of a distant object.
APPARATUS-Concave mirror, metre scale, white paper screen.
iv
THEORY
Parallel rays coming from a far off object after reflection from a concave mirror and meet at its focus (F).
The distance between the pole of the mirror and the focus is equal to the focal length of the mirror. This
ot
property of a concave mirror is used to determine its focal length.
PROCEDURE
The concave mirror was held facing a distant object (tree).
A screen made of thick white paper was placed in front of the mirror.
M
The image of the object on the screen was focused to obtain the sharpest image of the object.
The distance between the screen and the pole of the mirror was measured. That distance was equal to
the focal length of the concave mirror.
Five readings were taken.
y
PRECAUTIONS
Do not choose the sun as the far off object in your experiment because the concentrated sunrays might
B
burn the paper screen.

The distant object should be seen with naked eyes.
es
cc
Su
Observations and Calculations
S.No. Position of Mirror(P) Position of Screen(F) Focal Length of Mirror(FP)
1.
2.
3.
64
4.
5.
Result: Mean Focal Length= cm
1. If a pencil beam is allowed to fall along the principal axis of a concave mirror, what will be the direction
n
of ray?
2. The bulb used in torchlight is placed at a distance x from the mirror used. What is the value of x?
io
3. If the cardboard is placed close to the mirror to cover half the size of the concave mirror, what will be
effect of the image formed?
4. When the object is placed in front of the convex mirror, what will be the nature of the image formed?
at
EXPERIMENT NO-2
AIM: To determine the focal length of the convex lens by obtaining the image of a distant object.
iv
APPARATUS
Convex lens, white paper screen, meter scale.
THEORY
ot
Parallel rays coming from an object at infinity after passing through a convex lens coverage at its focus (F).
This property is used for determining the focal length of the convex lens
PROCEDURE
A convex lens was held in front of a far off object.
M
A white cardboard screen was placed just behind the lens.
The screen was moved away from the lens gradually until a clear, inverted image of the object was
obtained on the screen.
The distance between the optical centre of lens and focus was measured. This distance is equal
y
to the focal length of the lens.

PRECAUTIONS
B
Do not choose the sun as the far off object in your experiment because the concentrated sunrays might
burn the paper screen.
The distant object should be seen with naked eyes.
Distance between O and F should be measured along or parallel to the principal axis of the lens.
es
cc
Observation sand Calculations:

Su
S.No Position of Lense(cm) Position of Screen(cm) Focal Length(cm)

1.
2.
3.
4.
65
5.
1. A convex lens forms an image, what is its nature?

2. When red, blue and green light coming parallel to principal axis falls on a convex lens,
where will these (how many points) converge on the axis?
3. A lens of focal length 'f' is cut into two equal parts without affecting its curvature. What will be
the focal length of the two pieces?
n
4. A convex lens of focal length f is cut into two equal parts with one plane surface.
What will be the new focal length of one part?
io
at
EXPERIMENT NO-3
AIM: To trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different
angles of incidence, and to measure the angle of incidence, angle of refraction, angle of emergence.
iv
Interpret the result.
APPARATUS
Glass slab, Drawing board, sheets of white paper, drawing pins, and protractor.
ot
THEORY
Glass is optically denser than air. So when a ray of light enters a glass slab, it bends towards normal and
when it emerges s out of the glass lab into the air, it bends away from the normal. The path of a ray of light
passing through a rectangular glass slab is shown in the figure. Ray AB is incident ray, BC is refracted ray
M
and CD is emergent ray.
PROCEDURE
A plain sheet was fixed on a drawing board with the help of drawing pins.
A rectangular glass slab was placed in the middle of the paper and its boundary was drawn with a sharp
y
pencil.
Two pins were fixed along straight line AB.
B
It was looked through the other side of the glass slab and two more pins P3 and P4were fixed.
All the pins were in a straight line when looked through the glass slab.
After removing glass slab positions of pins were marked.
Points P1and P2 were joined and the line was extended to meet one face of the slab.
es
Similarly, the line was extended by joining the points P3 and P4 to meet the other face of the slab
(Point C).
Points B and C were also joined.
Perpendicular to the two faces of the slab at point B and point C was drawn.
cc
The angle of incidence, angle of refraction and angle of emergence were recorded in tabular form.
An experiment was repeated for different angles of incidence and corresponding angles of refraction and
emergence were determined.
PRECAUTIONS
Su
The pins should be fixed vertically with their feet in a straight line.
The angles of incidence should lie between 300 to 600.
The location of the pins should be marked correctly.
S.No. The angle of incidence i Angle of refraction r Angle of emergence e r=e
1.
2.
3.
4.
66
5.
1. What is the nature of the image formed by a convex lens of an object placed at very far off distance?
2. A convex lens has a focal length of 30 cm; the image is formed 60 cm on the other side by the lens.
What is the object distance?
3. Which colour has a minimum wavelength in the white light spectrum?
4. How the rainbow is formed?
n
5. What is the angle of prism for equilateral glass prism?
io
at
iv
EXPERIMENT NO-4
AIM: To study the dependence of the current (I) on the potential difference (V) across a resistor and
determine its resistance. Also, plot a graph between V and I.
ot
APPARATUS
A resistor, a dc voltmeter (0-3V), a dc ammeter (0-1.5A), Rheostat, Key, a cell, connecting copper wires,
sandpaper.
M
y
B
es
THEORY
cc
According to Ohm’s Law:-the resistance R of a resistor is defined as the ratio of the potential difference V
across the end of the resistor to the electric current I flowing through it.
R=V/I
Su
If the ammeter reading is in amperes and voltmeter reading is in volts, then the resistance will be in
ohms.
67
PROCEDURE
Circuit diagram as drawn by the students.
The various electrical components were arranged on the laboratory table by students.
These components were connected with small pieces of copper wires as shown in the circuit diagram.
The plug was inserted in the hole of the key and the rheostat was adjusted so that the small current was
flowing through the circuit.
The readings of the ammeter and voltmeter r were noted down in the tabular form.
n
PRECAUTIONS
The ends of the copper wire should be cleaned with sandpaper.
All connections should be tight.
io
Remove the plug as soon as you have taken the reading current in the circuit should be changed smoothly
with the help of rheostat.
Observation and Calculation
at
Range of ammeter-------
Range of voltameter------
Least count of ammeter---
iv
Least count of voltameter------
S.No. Ammeter reading (I)(in ampere) Voltmeter reading (V)(in volts) Resistance (R)R V Ohms) (I
1.
ot
2.
3.
4.
5.
M
Mean Value of R= Plot a graph between V and R
y

1. An ammeter can measure current up to 500mA. There are 20 equal divisions between 0 and 100mA
B
marks on its scale. During an experiment to determine the equivalent resistance of the two resistors joined
in parallel a student observes ammeters pointer at 3rd graduation mark after zero when the key is off and
the pointer at the 17th graduation mark after 200m. A when the key is inserted into the plug. Find the value
es
of the current flowing in the circuit.

2. Draw a labeled circuit diagram that you are likely to use for verifying Ohm's law.
3. State the SI unit of current and define it.
An electric circuit consisting of a nichrome wire XY, an ammeter, a voltmeter, four cells of 1.5V each and a
plug key is to be set up for studying the relationship between the potential difference maintained between
cc
the point X and Y and the current flowing through the wire XY. Draw its circuit.
4. A student has taken ammeter reading and voltmeter while verifying ohms law. Draw the graph he is likely
to obtain between the ammeter readings and voltmeter readings. Why should this straight line graph pass
through the origin?
Su
5. In a milliammeter, there are 20 divisions between 400mA and 500mA mark. What is the least count of
milliammeter?
6. An ammeter has a range of (0-3) ampere and there are 30 divisions on its scale. What is its least count?
68
n
io
at
EXPERIMENT NO-5
iv
AIM: To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series.
APPARATUS
Resistors (2), Ammeter dc (0-1.5A), Voltmeter(dc,0-1.5V), Rheostat, plug key, cell, connecting wires,
ot
sandpaper.
M
y
B
THEORY
es
Series combination: When two or more resistances are joined end to end so that the same current flows
through each of them, they are said to be connected in a series. Thus, if R1, R2, R3……are combined in
series, then the equivalent resistance is given by R R =R1+R2+R3+……
PROCEDURE
The circuit diagram was drawn by the students.
cc
R =R1+R2+R3+……
These components were connected with small pieces of copper wires as shown in the circuit diagram.
The plug was inserted in the hole of the key and the rheostat was adjusted so that the small current was
Su
flowing through the circuit.

The readings of the ammeter and voltmeter were noted down in the tabular form.
PRECAUTIONS
The ends of the copper wire should be cleaned with sandpaper.
Remove the plug as soon as you have taken the reading current in the circuit should be changed smoothly
with the help of rheostat
69
S.No. Voltmeter reading (v) Ammeter reading (I) Resistance (R)
n
1.
io
2.
3.
at
4.
5.
iv
Mean Value of R=. According to the formula: R=R1+R2= Experimental value of R=
Result:
ot
According to formula: R=R1+R2=
The experimental value of R=

M
The law of combination of resistance is verified.

1. A student has to connect 4cellsof 1.5Veach to form a battery of voltage6V. Draw the diagram of this
arrangement.
y
2. If ‘n’ resistors each equal to R are connected in series then what is their resultant resistance.
3. If four 2Ω resistances are connected in parallel, what is the effective resistance of the combination?
B
4. List four precautions that a student must observe while experimenting to determine the equivalent
resistance of two resistors when connected in series?
5. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series, a student arranged
the circuit components. But he did not succeed to achieve the objective which of the following mistake
es
has been committed by him in setting up the circuit. Which component is connected in the wrong
manner?
cc
Su
70
n
io
at
EXPERIMENT NO-6
iv
AIM: To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in parallel.
APPARATUS
Resistors (2), Ammeter dc (0-1.5A), Voltmeter(dc,0-1.5V), Rheostat, plug key, cell, connecting wires,
ot
sandpaper.
THEORY
Parallel Combination: When two or more resistances are connected between two common
M
points so that the same potential difference is applied across each of them, they are said to be
connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance(R)can be calculated by using the formula: R=1/
R1 +1/R2 + 1/ R3, In this case, the total current flowing through the circuit is equal to the sum of
currents flowing through each resistor, that is: I =I1+I2.
PROCEDURE
y
Circuit diagram was drawn by the students.

B
These components were connected with small pieces of copper wires as shown in the circuit
diagram.
The plug was inserted in the hole of the key and the rheostat was adjusted so that the small
es
current was flowing through the circuit.

The readings of the ammeter and voltmeter were noted down in the tabular form.
Remove the plug as soon as you have taken the reading current in the circuit should be changed
smoothly with the help of rheostat.
cc

Su

S.No. Ammeter reading (I)(in ampere) Voltmeter reading (V)(in volts) Resistance (R)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1. How are household connections done?
71
n
Refer to the following circuit for Q. 2 to Q. 5
2 What is the reading of voltmeter?
io
3. What is the reading of ammeter A1?
at
6. In a parallel combination of resistors which quantity is always the same across all resistors?
7. The current flowing through a conductor and the potential difference across its two ends
areas per the readings of the ammeter and the voltmeter shown below. What is the resistance
iv
of the conductor?
ot
M
y
B
es
cc
Su
72
SAMPLE PAPER I
Time:
General Instructions:
The question paper comprises three sections- A, B, and C. Attempt all the sections.
All questions are compulsory.
Internal choices are given in each section.
All questions in Section A are one-mark questions comprising MCQ, VSA type and assertion-reason type
questions. They are to be answered in one word or one sentence.
n
All questions in Section B are three-marks, short-answer type questions. These are to be answered in about
50-60 words each.
io
All questions in Section C are five-marks, long-answer type questions. These are to be answered in about 80-90
words each.
This question paper consists of a total of 30 questions.
at
SECTION-A
1. Why have detergents replaced soaps as a washing agent? 1
iv
2. The three elements X, Y, and Z constitute the Dobereinier triad. If the atomic mass of X and Z 1
are
32 and 128 respectively, predict the atomic mass of Y.
3.
ot
Read the paragraph and answer the question no. 3(a), 3(b), 3(c) and 3(d).
LPG is stored in cylinders. It is mainly used for cooking and hence it is also called cooking gas
and the cylinders containing it are called cooking gas cylinders. When a valve provided in the
cylinder is opened with the help of a regulator; due to a decrease in pressure, LPG changes into
M
a vapour. This vapour flows to the burners through a rubber tubing attached to the regulator.
3(a) What is the full form of LPG? 1
3(b) What is the main constituent of petroleum gas? 1

y
3(c) What is gasohol? 1

B
3(d) Which gas is used in transport vehicles? 1
4. Read the paragraph and study the table given. Answer the question no. 4(a), 4(b), 4(c) and 4(d).
An 11-year-old female with no significant past medical history presented with symptoms
es
suggestive of Graves's disease (weight loss, heat intolerance). She has also experienced a
decline in grades at school. Family history is significant for Graves's disease in both
grandmothers. The physician ordered endocrine gland function tests including Free T4, T3, anti-
TSH receptor antibodies, antithyroglobulin, and antithyroid peroxidase antibodies. The results
cc
for the tests follow:

Free thyroxine (FT4) 2.87 ng/dL (Prepubertal 0.73-1.77 Pubertal/Adult 0.73-1.84)
Total triiodothyronine pediatric (T3) 374.00 ng/dL (123-211)
Thyroxine (T4) 18.2 ug/dL (5.0-12.0)
Su
Antithyroglobulin antibodies >3000 IU/ml (Negative <60 IU/mL Equivocal 60-100IU/mL

Positive >100 IU/mL)Antithyroid peroxidase antibodies 2667 IU/mL (<60) Anti-TSH receptor
antibodies 69.6 % Inhibit. (<=16.0 Unit: %)
The laboratory findings confirmed the clinical impression and a diagnosis of Graves's disease
were made.
4(a) Name the endocrine gland released the concerned hormone. 1
4(b) Where this gland is located? 1

73
4(c) Which mineral is essential for the proper functioning of this gland? 1
4(d) For the girl who is 11 years old what would be a high Thyroxin (T 4) level? 1
5. The human eye forms the image of an object at its: 1
(a) cornea (b) pupil (c) iris (d) retina
OR
The far point of the myopic eye is 50cm. Calculate the power of the lens to correct his vision.
(a) -2D (b) -2.5D (c) 2D (d) 2.5D
6. A cell, a resistor, a key, and an ammeter are arranged as shown in circuit diagrams. The current 1
recorded in the ammeter will be:
n
io
at
(a) maximum in (i) (b) maximum in (ii)
iv
(c) maximum in (iii) (d) the same in all the cases.
7. Unit of power may also be expressed in 1

(a) Volt-ampere (b) Kilowatt-hour (c) Watt-second (d) Joule-second
8.
(i) hold water for irrigation.
ot
It is important to make small check dams across the flood gullies because they
(ii) hold water and prevent soil erosion.
1
M
(iii) recharge groundwater. (iv) hold water permanently.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
OR
The pH of water samples collected from a river was found to be acidic in the range of 3.5 - 4.5,
y
on the banks of the river were several factories that were discharging effluents into the river.
The effluent of which one of the following factories is a most likely cause for lowering the pH of
B
river water?
(a) Soap and detergent factory.
(b) Lead battery manufacturing factory.
(c) Plastic cup manufacturing factory.
es
(d) Alcohol distillery.

9. Fuel used in thermal power plants is: 1
(a) water (b) uranium (c) biomass (d) fossil fuels
cc
10. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases 1
produced during electrolysis of water is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
11. Which among the following is not a base? 1
Su
(a) NaOH (b) KOH (c) NH4 OH (d) C2 H5 OH

12. The elements A, B, C, D, and E have atomic numbers 9, 11, 17, 12 and 13 respectively. Which 1
pair of elements belongs to the same group?
(a) A and B (b) B and D (c) A and C (d) D and E
OR
74
The element with atomic number 14 is hard and forms acidic oxide and a covalent halide. To
which of the following categories does the element belong?
(a) Metal (b) Metalloid (c) Non-metal (d) Actinoids
For the question numbers 13 and 14, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below:
n
13. ASSERTION (A): Alkanes give additional reactions. 1
io
REASON (R): Addition reactions are characteristics properties of unsaturated hydrocarbons.
14. Assertion (A): A fuse is always connected at the beginning of the circuit. 1
Reason (R): This is done to protect the appliance from getting damaged.
SECTION-B
at
15. (a) What is a redox reaction? 3
(b) Give an example where corrosion is an advantage rather than a disadvantage.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of aluminium with hydrochloric acid.
iv
16. (a) What is baking powder and how does it make the cake soft and spongy? ( Give equation) 3
(b) Name one salt whose pH is (i) more than 7 and (ii) less than 7.
OR
ot
(a) State the effect of hydrogen ion concentration on the nature of the solution.
(b) Give an example of a synthetic indicator.
(c) What happens when marble is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid? ( Give equation )
M
17. Na, Mg, and Al are the elements of the 3rd period of the modern periodic table having group 3
numbers 1, 2 and 13 respectively. Which one of these elements have:
(a) Highest valency, (b) largest atomic radius and
(c) forms divalent halide? (Give a reason for your choice in every part)
18. (a) Suggest one word for each of the following statements/definitions:
y
3
(i) The physical and biological world where we live in.
(ii) Each level of the food chain where the transfer of energy takes place.
B
(iii) The physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind and soil of an ecosystem.
(iv) Organisms depend on the producers either directly or indirectly for food.
(b) State 2nd and 3rd trophic levels of the food chain.
es
OR
(a) What is the difference between the food habits of organisms belonging to the first and
fourth trophic levels? Give an example of your answer.
(b) Why does a food chain have a limited number of trophic levels? Explain.
19. (a) What happens to glucose, amino acids, salts and water that enter nephron along with 3
cc
filtrate?
(b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of stomata in open and closed form. Write two functions of
stomata.
(c) What are the basic materials used during photosynthesis? Write the chemical equation for
Su
photosynthesis.
20. 'Sex of a new-born is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered 3
responsible for it.' Justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing the
determination of sex of the new-born.
21. Label parts 1 to 4 in the given figure and write the functions of the parts labelled 3 and 4. 3
75
n
22. An object is held at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 80 cm. What is the 3
position, nature, and size of the image if the object is 2 cm high?
23. Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the following network: 3
io
at
iv
24. A person is unable to read a book clearly when kept at a distance of 25cm from his eye. 3
Name the defect. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagrams for:
(i) defective eye
Also, explain to them. ot
OR
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of the human eye.
(ii) corrected eye.
M
(b) What is the least distance of distant vision for the normal eye?
(c) Does the above distance increase or decrease for a long-sighted eye? Give a reason for your
answer with a diagram.
SECTION-C
y
(a) Distinguish between roasting and calcination (Give equation also). Which of these is used for
25. sulphide ore? 5
B
(b) Why do gallium and cesium melt in our palm?

(c) Define galvanization.
OR
(a) Name two metals that react violently with water. Write any observation you would make
es
when such a metal is dropped in water. How would you identify the gas evolved during the
reactions?
(b) Write your observation and equation when the copper wire is placed in a silver nitrate
solution.
cc
26. (a) What happens when hydrogen is added to vegetable oil in the presence of nickel? 5
(b) A compound A (C2 H4 O2) reacts with Na metal to form a compound B and evolves a gas
that burns with a pop sound. Compound A on treatment with an alcohol C in the presence
of an acid forms a sweet-smelling compound D (C2 H8 O2). On addition of NaOH to D gives
Su
back B and C. Identify A, B, C, and D.

(c) Draw the diagram of a soap molecule and a micelle.
27. (a) Define excretion. 5
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw a diagram of the excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of
the excretory system which perform the following functions:
(i) Form urine.
76
(ii) Is a long tube that collects urine from the kidney?
(iii) Store urine until it is passed out.
(iv) Released the urine out of the body.
28. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secrete the 5
hormone. Write the functions of the secreted hormone.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where:
(i) fertilisation takes place and
(ii) implantation of the fertilized egg occurs.
(c) Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s body.
n
OR
Give one example of each of the unisexual and bisexual flowers. Differentiate between the two
io
types of pollination that occur in flowers. What happens when a pollen grain lands on a suitable
stigma? Write about the events until the seed formation in the ovary.
29. State Ohm’s law. Write the mathematical representation of Ohm’s law. Use this relationship to 5
define 1 ohm. List two disadvantages of connecting different electrical appliances in series.
at
In an experiment, the current flowing through a resistor and the potential difference across it is
measured. The values are given below.
iv
I (ampere) 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5
V (Volt) 4.0
ot
6.0 8.0 10.00
M
(i) Plot a V-I graph from the given values.
(ii) Calculate the resistance of the resistor using the graph.
30. (a) Explain the parts and working of an electric motor by drawing a labelled diagram. 5
(b) State the law by which we can find the direction of a force in an electric motor.
y
OR
(a) What is the difference between A.C. and D.C.?
B
(b) What is the frequency of A.C. in India?

(c) What is the advantage of A.C. over D. C.?
(d) Name any two safety devices used in the domestic circuit.
(e) What is the frequency of D.C.?
es
cc
Su
77
SAMPLE PAPER-II
General Instructions:
The question paper comprises three sections- A, B, and C. Attempt all the sections.
All questions are compulsory.
Internal choices are given in each section.
All questions in Section A are one-mark questions comprising MCQ, VSA type and assertion-reason type
n
questions. They are to be answered in one word or one sentence.
All questions in Section B are three-marks, short-answer type questions. These are to be answered in about 50-60
io
words each.
All questions in Section C are five-marks, long-answer type questions. These are to be answered in about 80-90
words each.
This question paper consists of a total of 30 questions.
at
1. Name and draw the structure of the simplest ketone. 1
2. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of their atomic radii - Li, Be, F, N. 1
iv
3. The sun contains mainly light elements like Hydrogen and Helium. When the nuclei of these
elements fuse at extremely high temperatures in the interior of the Sun, a large amount of
ot
energy is radiated in the form of heat and light continuously by the Sun. This process is known
as Nuclear fusion. Answer the following questions based on the given diagram.
M
y
B
es
cc
3(a) (a) Define Solar panel. 1

3(b) (b) Name two activities in our daily life in which solar energy is used. 1
3(c) (c) State the energy conversion taking place in solar panels. 1
3(d) (d) Name chief component of a solar cell. 1
Su
4. Answer question numbers 4 (a) to 4 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and related studies concepts.
The river Ganga is not only held sacred, but it also supplies water to more than 50 million
people. It flows for 2500 km from Gangotri in the Himalayan to Ganga Sagar in the Bay of
78
Bengal. Ganga along with its tributaries is the largest river basin of the country. On the way, it
passes through over 100 towns and cities of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West
Bengal. It is turning into a dirty water drain.
n
io
at
iv
ot
M
Total coliform count levels in the Ganga (1993-1994). It was 1600 MPN/100 ml during 2005-
2008 even at Haridwar.
The coliform itself is harmless, but its presence in river water indicates that other harmful,
intestinal bacteria might also be present. The increased pollution load and the resultant toxicity
y
kill fishes in parts of the river.

4(a) Which environmental pollution does the graph given above of total coliform count levels 1
B
indicate?
4(b) Ganga is turning into a dirty drain in the passage, why is this happening? Write any two factors. 1
4(c) Name the significant step taken by the government in concern with the problem stated in the 1
es
passage.
4(d) Which of the following steps/methods cannot be considered helpful in reducing the problem 1
stated in passage?
(i) Diversion of sewers away from the river.
cc
(ii) Wallowing of cattle.

(iii)Construction of community toilets.
(iv)Setting up of effluent treatment plants by industry.
5. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the 1
Su
(a) crystalline lens. (b) the outer surface of the cornea. (c) iris. (d) pupil.
OR
A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected using a
lens of power.
(a) +0.5 D (b) -0.5 D (c) +0.2 D (d) -0.2 D
6. Least count of a voltmeter and an ammeter in given figures would respectively be: 1
79
(a) 0.2V, 0.2mA (b) 0.2V, 0.2A (c) 0.1V, 0.2mA (d) 1V, 2mA.
7. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. The number of an electron passing 1
n
through
a cross-section of the filament in 16 sec would be rough.
(a) 1020 (b) 1016 (c) 1018 (d) 1023
io
8. Involuntary action in the body is controlled by 1
(a) medulla in forebrain (b) medulla in midbrain
(c) medulla in hindbrain (d) medulla in the spinal brain
at
OR
The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to
(a) effect of light
iv
(b)effect of gravity
(c )rapid cell division in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.
(d)rapid cell division in tendrillar cells that are in contact with the support.
9. The main constituent of biogas is 1
10.
(a)Methane (b)carbon dioxide
ot (c) hydrogen (d) hydrogen sulphide
Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium 1
M
chloride. Which of the following represents correctly the type of reaction involved?
(i) Displacement reaction (ii) Precipitation reaction
(iii) Combination reaction (iv) Double displacement reaction.
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (iv) only (d) (ii) and (iv)
y
11. Which of the following is used for the dissolution of gold? 1

(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Aqua regia
B
12. What type of oxide would Eka aluminium form? 1

(a) EO3 (b) E3O2 (c) E2O3 (d) EO
OR
Which of the following elements would lose electrons easily?
es
(a) Mg (b) Na (c) K (d) Ca

For the question numbers 13 and 14, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below:
cc

Su
13. ASSERTION (A): In a reaction of copper with oxygen, copper serves as a reducing agent. 1
REASON (R): The substance which gains oxygen in a chemical reaction is reducing agents.
14. ASSERTION (A): A normal human eye can clearly see all the objects beyond a certain minimum 1
distance.
REASON (R): The human eye has the capacity to suitable adjust the focal length of its lens to a
certain extent.
80
SECTION-B
15. (a) Two reactions are given below : 3

(i) KI + Cl 2 KCl + I2
(ii)2K + Cl2 2KCl
Identify the type of reaction and give justification in each case.
(b) Write the essential condition and application of the reaction given below
2AgBr 2Ag + Br2
16. (a) A metal M forms an oxide having the formula M2 O3. It dissolved in both dilute hydrochloric 3
n
acid and dilute sodium hydroxide solution. Identify the metal and write equations involved in
the reaction.
(b) Name the chemicals used in fire extinguisher and the gas evolved by their reaction.
io
OR
Write the chemical name of Na2CO3.10H2O.Write the significance of 10H2O. How is
Na2CO3.10H2O prepared?
at
17. An element X which is yellow solid at room temperature shows catenation and allotropy. X 3
forms two oxides which are also formed during the thermal decomposition of ferrous sulphate
crystals and are the major air pollutants.
(a) Identify the element and write its electronic configuration.
iv
(b) Locate the position of the element in the modern periodic table.
(c) What would be the nature of oxides of X? Give reason
18. What is the feedback mechanism of harmonic regulation? Take the example of insulin to 3
explain this phenomenon.
ot OR
(a) Plants do not have any nervous system but yet, if we touch-sensitive plant, some observable
M
changes take place in its leaves. Explain how this plant could respond to the external stimuli
and how it is communicated.
(b) Why nervous system is not sufficient in control and coordination in multi-cellular
organisms? (two points)
19. (a)Do guard cells have rigid or elastic cell walls? Justify your answer.
y
3
(b)How are guard cells different from the rest of the epidermal cells?
(c )Why is it preferred to take an epidermal peel from the lower surface of the leaf?
B
20. Write the main difference between the asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which 3
species is likely to have comparatively better chances of survival-the one reproducing asexually
or the one reproducing sexually? Justify your answer.
es
21. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of 3
chromosomes in the progeny is maintained.
22. If an object of 7 cm height is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of a focal length 8 3
cm, draw the ray diagram and find the position, nature and height of the image formed.
23. Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the following network. Also, find 3
cc
ammeter
reading.
Su
81
24. A person wears spectacles of power – 2.5 D name the defect of vision he’s suffering from. Draw 3
the ray diagram for defective eyes and corrections of its suitable lens.
OR
Write the power of accommodation of the human eye. Use mirror formula show that convex
mirror always forms virtual image?
SECTION – C
25. A metal P, when exposed to moist air, loses its shining brown surface and gains green coating: 5
n
what has happened? Identify the metal; write the name and chemical formula of green coating
and two ways to prevent this process.
io
OR
State the property utilized in the following
(i) Graphite is used in making electrodes.
(ii) Electric wires are coated with poly vinyl chloride or rubber-like material.
at
(iii) Ornaments are made of gold and silver.
(iv) School bells are made of metals.
(v) Solder is used for welding electric wires.
iv
26. (a) River water, tap water, distilled water – Out of these three which will form the 5
maximum length of foam/lather after shaking these samples in a test tube and why?
(b)What happened when 2 ml of acetic acid was added in drops to 5 ml of water?
27.
ot
(b) Explain the given reactions with equations:
(i) Substitution (ii) esterification
(i)In the given representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in
human heart label and the parts marked as a, b, c, d, e and f.
5
M
(ii) Write two points of difference between the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein.
y
B
es
cc
28. (a) Draw a longitudinal section of a flower and label the following parts: 5
(i) Part that produces pollen grain.
(ii)The part that transfers the male gametes to the female gametes.
(iii )The part that is sticky to trap pollen grain.
(iv) The part that develops into a fruit.
Su
(b) How does the fusion of male and female gametes in plants take place, by explaining double
fertilisation and triple fusion?
OR
(a) Draw a neat diagram of the human male reproductive system and label the parts
performing the following function:
(i) Production of sperm.
(ii)The gland which provides fluid.
82
(iii) What provides low temperature for the formation of sperms.
(iv)Common passage for sperms and urine.
(b)Name a sexually transmitted disease with a pathogen category and method to avoid it.
(c)State any two changes seen in boys at the time of puberty.
29. (a)What do you understand by the term fuse in an electric circuit? 5

(b)State two properties of a material, which make it suitable for making fuse wire.
n
(c )Why fuse wire is always placed in the live wire of an electric circuit?
(d )How does fuse wire protect an electric circuit?
io
(e)Which has more resistance: 100w bulb or 60w bulb? Why.
30. (a)What is the role of two conducting stationary brushes in a simple electric motor? 5
(b) How does the strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a wire depend
on (i) radius of the coil (ii) number of turns of the wire of the coil?
at
OR
A current of one ampere flows in a series circuit containing an electric lamp and a conductor of
5Ω when connected to a 10V battery. Calculate the resistance of the electric lamp. Now if the
iv
resistance of 10Ω is connected in parallel with this series combination. What change (if any) in
current flowing through 5Ω conductor and potential difference across the lamp will take place?
Give reason. Draw circuit diagram.
ot
M
y
B
es
cc
Su
83

Class-X Science Question Bank (2020-2021) : by Motivation

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Class-X Science Question Bank (2020-2021) : by Motivation

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

n

8 How do Organisms Reproduce? 35

11 Sustainable Management of Natural 41

12 Light-Reflection and Refraction 50

13 Human Eye and Colourful World 53

Chapter 4- Carbon And Its Compounds

Chapter 6- Life Processes

Chapter 9- Heredity And Evolution

Chapter 13- Magnetic Effects Of Electric Current

PRE-BOARD III Complete syllabus

8. Which gas is used to prevent rancidity in potato chips packets?

9. Write one equation to represent thermal decomposition.

(d) A is false but R is true.

11. Assertion: Combustion reaction is also called an exothermic oxidation reaction.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

(iii) Cu + AgNO3 Cu(NO)3+ Ag

18. 2g of Ferrous Sulphate crystals are heated in a boiling tube.

9. Give the role of anhydrous calcium chloride in the process of roasting.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Reason: Iron is a highly reactive element.

12. Assertion: Magnesium chloride is covalent.

(d)How do the properties of iron change when:

20. CASE STUDY

and the related studied concepts.

(c) Name the chemical which can dissolve gold.

9. Name the dehydrating agent used in the preparation of ester.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Reason: Carbon exhibits the property of catenation.

Reason: Soaps have relatively weaker cleansing action.

20. CASE- STUDY

ASSERTIONS AND REASONS

(c) A is true but R is false.

11. Assertion: Silicon is a metalloid.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

(b)An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 2.

GROUP 1 GROUP 2 GROUP 15 GROUP 16

Identify the element which :

(iv) will show valence three.

S. NO. AIM OF THE EXPERIMENT

A Dilute hydrochloric acid

F Dilute sodium carbonate

Experiments Observations Inference

NaOH (aq) → Na+ (aq) + OH- (aq)

A base reacts with an acid to form salt and water.

EXPERIMENTAL PROCEDURE TO STUDY THE PROPERTIES OF NaOH:

Experiments Observations Inference

Which student gave the correct observation?

is taken in a beaker and 5g of

about 10 ml of the filtrate is

In the given samples we have observed that:

2) The reaction for heating ferrous sulphate crystals is: -----------------.

Iron + Copper sulphate ------------------- Iron sulphate + c

3) The reaction is called---------.

2) The reaction is called -------------------.

PRACTICAL BASED QUESTIONS

1. What happens when ferrous sulphate crystals are heated?

REACTION OF ALUMINIUM METAL WITH SALT SOLUTIONS:

A]Based on the above observations, we conclude that:

4) -------is more reactive than copper, iron and zinc.

PRACTICAL BASED QUESTIONS

tested with blue/red litmus paper.

test tube and a pinch of sodium carbonate

3) Acetic acid changes ------ litmus.