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MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Subject: AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING - II

Branch: MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q.1.When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
A. Mechanical energy
B. Heat energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Potential energy
Ans.: B

Q. 2.The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on


A. The weight of vehicle
B. The deceleration rate
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q.3.The following is not a drum brake


A. External contracting brake
B. Internal expanding brake
C. Disc brake
D. All of the above
Ans.: C

Q.4.The hand brake of the automobile is usually


A. External contracting brake
B. Internal expanding brake
C. Disc brake
D. All of the above
Ans.: A
Q.5.In disc brake, the disc is attached to the
A. Wheel
B. Axle
C. Suspension system
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q.6. The mechanical brakes are operated by means of


A. Levers
B. Bell cranks
C. Cams
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q.7. In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of


A. Atmospheric valve
B. Vacuum valve
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q.8. Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of

A. Law of conservation of momentum


B. Law of conservation of energy
C. Pascal’s law
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q.9. The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to


A. Builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
B. Maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
C. Serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q.10. Tandem master cylinder consists of


A. One cylinder and one reservoir
B. Two cylinders and one reservoir
C. One cylinder and two reservoirs
D. Two cylinders and two reservoirs
Ans.: D

Q.11. Hand brake is applicable to


A. Only front wheels
B. Only rear wheels
C. Both front and rear wheels
D. All of the above
Ans.: B
Q.12. Brake is used to ____ the energy possessed by a moving system or mechanism by
means of friction.
A. Absorb
B. Release
C. Minimize
D. Maximize
Ans.: A

Q.13. The energy absorbed by the brake is


A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q.14. Internal and External expanding shoe brakes are


A. Radial brakes
B. Axial brakes
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q.15. Brake capacity depends upon


A. The coefficient of friction
B. The contacting area of braking surface
C. The unit pressure between braking surfaces
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.16. The process of removing air from the brake system is known as
A. Energization
B. Bleeding
C. Self energizing
D. Servo action
Ans.: B

Q.17. The power brake may be exerted by


A. Air pressure
B. Engine vacuum
C. Electrical energy
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.18. The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes
A. Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
B. Area of brake linings
C. Radius of car wheel
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.19. In brakes, the wear occurs on the
A. A Brake drum
B. B Friction lining
C. C Both (A) and (B)
D. D None of the above
Ans.: C

Q.20.The brake drum is made of


A. Cast iron
B. Steel
C. Aluminium
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q.21.In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
A. Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
B. Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
C. Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
D. Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
Ans.: A

Q.22.The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage
current upto about
A. 10,000 volts
B .17,000 volts
C. 25,000 volts
D.35,000 volts

Ans.: C

Q.23.In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary
windings is about
A. 1 to 50
B. 1 to 100
C. 1 to 200
D. 1 to 400

Ans.: B

Q.24. The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system
A. It operates break and make mechanism
B .It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q.25. The _____ provides a reservoir for the current induced in the primary circuit
at the time of break.
A.Induction coil
B. Distributor
C. Condenser
D. Governor

Ans.: C

Q.26.In Magneto Ignition system


A. No battery is required
B. Engine starting is rather difficult
C. used in high speed engines
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q.27. The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’


A. Battery coil ignition system
B. Magneto Ignition system
C. Electronic Ignition system
D. Capacitive discharge Ignition system

Ans.: C

Q.28. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following


A. Battery
B. Alternators
C. Lighting systems
D. All of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q.29. At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is _______


A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Same
D. Zero

Ans.: B

Q.30. What is the material of an alternator frame?


A. Cast iron
B. Brass
C. Copper
D Aluminum

Ans.: D

Q.31. If the lead-acid cell has a total of 17 cells, then what is the number of positive
plates?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6

Ans.: B

Q.32. Active materials of a lead acid cell are


A. Spongy lead
B. Lead peroxide
C. Dilute H2SO4
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q.33. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs due to


A. Heavy charging
B. Fast charging
C. Trickle charging
D. Incomplete charging

Ans.: D

Q.34. During the charging of a lead acid cell


A. It's voltage increases
B. It gives out energy
C. It's cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
D. Specific gravity of H2 SO4 decreases

Ans.: A

Q.35. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead acid battery
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. Becomes zero

Ans.: A
Q.36. When a lead acid battery is in fully charged condition the colour of its
positive plate is
A. Dark green
B. Brown
C. Dark brown
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q.37. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the specific gravity of
Electrolyte?
A. Barometer.
B. Hygroscope.
C. Hydroscope.
D. Lactometer.

Ans.: C
Q.38. Which of the following is the advantage of alkaline battery?
A High energy density
B. Good discharge characteristics over a wide range of temperature
C.The specific gravity of electrolyte remains the same
D.Cheap raw materials are used

Ans.: C

Q.39. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of


A. Current rating
B. Voltage rating
C. Ampere hour rating
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q.40. On over charging a battery

A. It will bring about chemical change in active materials


B. It will increase the capacity of the battery
C. It will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
D. None of the above
Ans.: D

Q.41.In engine _____ period of a cycle is required for cooling the engine.
A. 1/10
B.3/10
C. ½
D.9/10

Ans.: D

Q.42. In engine about ______ % of the heat energy is actually converted into
mechanical work.
A. 25
B. 40
C. 55
D. 70
Ans.: A

Q.43. The greater the temperature difference

A. Higher is the heat transfer rate


B. Lower is the heat transfer rate
C. There is no difference in heat transfer rate
D. Any of the above

Ans.: A

Q.44. An antifreeze mixture is used to achieve

A. Freezing point depression


B. Boiling point elevation
C. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
D. None of the above

Ans.: C
Q.45. The following is (are) used as antifreeze is
A. Ethylene glycol
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Methyl Alcohol
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q.46. The following is (are) the advantage(s) of water cooling over air cooling system.
A. Mechanical noise is reduced
B. Temperature of engine parts is more uniform
C. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q.47. The purpose of radiator is ______ of heat to the atmosphere.


A. Dissipation
B. Radiation
C. Convection
D. Conduction

Ans.: A

Q.48. In radiator…….

A. Relatively small amount of water are brought into contact with large surface areas of
metal
B. Relatively large amount of water are brought into contact with small surface areas of metal
C. Equal amount of water are brought into contact with equal surface areas of metal
D. Any of the above

Ans.: A

Q.49. The following carries coolant between the engine water jackets and the radiator.
A. Heater hose
B. Radiator hose
C. Engine hose
D. None of the above

Ans.: B
Q.50. A typical cooling system circuit has the thermostat between
A. Engine outlet and radiator
B. Radiator outlet and engine inlet
C. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q.51. Radiators are


A. Heat exchangers
B. Economizers
C. Pre-heaters
D. None of the above

Ans.: A
Q.52. The following type of pump is used in car to circulate coolant in forced water
cooling system.
A. Vane type
B. Gear type
C. Screw type
D. Centrifugal type
Ans.: D

Q.53. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temperature of


A. Engine piston
B. Engine cylinder
C. Lubricating oil
D. Jacket cooling water
Ans.: D

Q.54. water circulation in thermosyphon cooling system is caused by


A. Conduction currents
B. A belt driven water impeller
C. A gear driven water pump
D. The change in density of water

Ans.: D

Q.55. The thermostat used in the majority of modern engine cooling system is a type
called
A.wax
B. Bellows
C. Bi-metal
D. Alcohol

Ans.: A

Q.56. The device in the cooling system that increases the boiling point of the water in the
system is called
A. Radiator
B. Drain plug
C. Water jacket
D. Pressure Cap
E. Vaccume valve

Ans.: D

Q.57. Exhaust Gas Leakage in to the Cooling system is most likely to be due to Defective
A. Cylinder head gasket
B. Manifold gasket
C. water pump
D. Radiator
E. Any of the above

Ans.: A

Q.58. Radiator tubes are generally made up of


A. Steel
B. Brass
C. Cast iron
D. Plastics
E. Rubber

Ans.: B

Q.59. which of the following method is used in engine cooling?


A. Air cooling
B. Water cooling
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q.60. which of the following is much better Heat Conductor


A. Cast iron
B. Steel
C. Aluminium
D. None of the above

Ans.: C
Model Question Paper
Subject: Automobile Engg - II

Branch:Mechanical

Class-B.E

Semester-VIII

1.The radiator tubes are manufactured byusing


a. Cast irontubes
b. Aluminumtubes
c. Brass tubes

d. Steel tubes
Ans:c

2. Ifweknowtheenginespeed,,stroke,numberofcylindersandm.e.pinthecylinders,wecancalculate
a. FHP
b. IHP
c. BHP

Ansb

3. Knowing the IHP and FHP of an engine, we cancalculate


a. Compressionratio
b. rpm
c. SAF
d. BHP

Ans:d

4. Which one of the following is not a trade name of tractor inIndia


a. Kirloskar
b. Escort
c. Standard
d. HMT

Ans:c

5. Theratiobetweenthepoweroutputofanengineandtheenergyinthefuelburnedtoproducethatpoweriscalled
a. Volumetricefficiency
b. Thermalefficiency
c. Mechanicalefficiency

Ans:b
6. TheairvolumeinthecylinderwiththepistonatB.D.Cdividedbytheclearancevolumeiscalled
a. Compressionratio
b. Pistondisplacement
c. Cylinder ratio

Ans:a

7.The power used in overcoming friction in the engine iscalled


a. BHP
b. IHP
c. FHP

Ans:c

8. The
averagepressureduringthepowerstrokeminustheaveragepressureduringtheintake,compres
sion and exhaust strokes iscalled
a. IHP
b. Compressionratio

c. BHP

d. m.e.p.

Ans:d

9. IHP minus FHPequals


a. BHP
b. SAF
c. HP
d.m.e.p
Ans:a

10. Engine torque is highestat


a. Highspeed

b. Lowspeed

c. Intermediate speed
Ans:c

11. BHP divided by IHPis


a. Thermalefficiency
b. Mechanicalefficiency
c. Volumetricefficiency

Ans:b

12. Thepercentageoftheenergyinthepetrolburntintheenginewhichisactuallyutilizedinp
ropellingthe car is as littleas
a.25%
b.60%
b.35%
d.15%
Ans:a

13. Inthedieselengine,thecompressionratioisashighas
a.10:1
b.15:1
c.5:1
Ans: b

14. The device for smoothing out the power impulses from the engine is calledthe
a. Flywheel

b. Camshaft

c. Crankshaft

d.Clutch
Ans:a

15. Theamountofairfuelmixturetakeninbytheengineonthesuctionstrokeisameasureoftheengine’s
a. Compressionratio
b. Volumetricefficiency
c. Clearance

d. volume

Ans:b

16. The size of an engine cylinder is referred to in terms ofits


a. Diameter andbore
b. Bore andlength
c. Bore and stroke
Ans:c

17. In an operating engine, the hottest part of the piston isthe


a. Head
b. Ringgrooves
c. Skirt
d. Pin bosses

Ans:a

18. In normal operation the part of the exhaust valve that gets the hottestis
a. Face

b. Middle ofStem
c. Centre ofhead

d. Edge of
margin
Ans:c

19. The power developed inside the engine cylinder iscalled


a. IHP

b. FHP

c. BHP

Ans:a

20. The ratio of the cylinder volume at BDC and the clearance volume iscalled
a. Clearanceratio

b. Volumetricratio
c. Compression ratio
Ans:c

21. Asarulewhencomparingthefrontandrearwheelcylinderpistons,itwillbefoundthatthep
istonsinthe front wheel cylindersare
a. The samesize
b. Larger indiameter

c. Smaller indiameter
Ans:b

22. Twisting and untwisting of the crankshaft iscalled


a. Torsionalvibration

b. Powerimpulsion

c. Torsional

balance Ans:a

23. The rotating effect of the connecting rod on the connecting rod bearingproduces
a. Pressureload
b. Inertiaload

c. Centrifugal load
Ans:c

24. Important bearing characteristicsinclude


a. Embeddability, compression andfatigue

b. Exbeddability,conformabilityandfatiguere

sistance
Ans:b

25. In the engine there must be relative motion between the piston and the connectingrod
a. Atmospheric pressure, inertia and torsionalvibration
b. Centrifugal force, inertia and combustionpressure
c. Inertia,enginespeedandcentrifugalforce

Ans:b

26. Two of the three connecting rod bearing loads that increase as engine speeds increaseare
a. Centrifugal and inertialoads
b. Torsional and pressureloads
c. Pressure and inertialoads
d. Pressure and
centrifugalloads
Ans:a

27. Whendifferentforcesactatanglesonconnectingrodbearing,thecombiningoftheseforcesproducesa
a. Remainingforce
b. Cancelingforce
c. Resultant force
Ans:c

28.The active material in a charged negative plateis


a. Leadsulphate

b. Leadperoxide

c. Leadmetal

d. Lead perchloride
Ans:c

29. The tree general types of friction bearingsare


a. Journal, ball androller
b. Journal, guide andthrust

c. Journal, shaft
andthrust
Ans:b

30. Petrol and Gasoline is called a hydrocarbon because it consists essentiallyof


a. Carbon andHydrogen
b. Oxygen andHydrogen
c. Carbon andOxygen
Ans:a

31. Almost all bearing used in automotive enginesare


a. Guidebearings

b. Frictionbearings
c. Antifriction bearings

Ans:b

32. The brake shoes are curved to conform to the inner diameter ofthe
a. Tyre

b. Wheel

c. Pedal

d. Brake drum
Ans:d

33. It is cheaper if we use gasketsof


a. Rubber asbestostype

b. Copper asbestostype
c. Steel asbestostype

Ans:a

34. With an increase in temperature the resistance of carbonis


a. Unchanged

b. Decreased

c. Increased

Ans: c

35. When petrol burns completely, two of the compounds that are formedare
a. Carbon dioxide andwater
b. Water andoxygen
c. Hydrocarbon andoxygen
Ans:a

36. Due to heat of combustion, with increase in temperature themolecules


a. Moveslower

b. Vaporize

c. Move faster
Ans:c

37. When air is heated,it


a. Contractsand becomesheavier
b. Expands and becomesheavier

c. Expands and becomeslighter


Ans:c

38.Changing position of an object against an opposing force iscalled


a. Power

b. Torque
c. Energy

d. Work

Ans:d

39. A liquid that boils at a relatively high temperature is said tohave


a. A lowviscosity
b. A highviscosity
c. A highvolatility
d. A lowvolatility
Ans:d

40. The ease with which a liquid changes to a vapour is calledits


a. Vapourability

b. Boilingpoint
c. Viscosity

d. Volatility

Ans:d

41. Thepumppartthatrotatesandcauseswatercirculationbetweentheradiatorandengineiscalled
a. Impeller

b. Fan

c. Bypass

Ans:a

42. The bearing having the least friction isthe


a. Sleevebearing

b. Antifrictionbearing

c. Friction

bearing
Ans:b

43. Conformability of an engine bearingis


a. Ability of a bearing to withstand the wear andtear
b. Resistivity tocorrosion
c. Ability of the bearing to adjust itself to variations in shaft alignment and journalshape
d. Abilityofabearingtopermitforeignparticlestoembedinit

Ans:c

44. The most commonly used material for tyre tubesis


a. Butyl

b. Naturalrubber
c. Butane

Ans:a

45. When the plates of battery cell are made larger in size, we get increased…………
a. Current
b. Voltage

c. Cellresistance

Ans:a

46. When preparing electrolyte, it is important to rememberthat


a. Acidand water should be pouredtogether
b. Water should be poured intoacid

c. Acid should be poured intowater


Ans:c

47. Aluminum alloy pistons are preferredbecause


a. They are good absorbers ofshock
b. They are having lessweight
c. Theyhave good waterresistance
d. Theyareverystrongintension

Ans:b

48. The material used for the piston of modern passenger carsare
a. Brasspistons

b. Cast ironpistons
c. Aluminiun alloypistons
d. Steel pistons
Ans:c

49. Piston compression rings are manufacturedby


a. Aluminium

b. Castiron

c. Steel

d. Bronze

Ans:b

50.Gudgeon pins or piston pins are madeby


a. Piston materialitself
b. Cork

c. Castiron
d. Hardened and groundsteel
Ans:d
51 The radiator tubes are manufactured byusing
a. Cast irontubes
b. Aluminumtubes
c. Brass tubes
d. Steel tubes
Ans:c

52 Ifweknowtheenginespeed,bore,stroke,numberofcylindersandm.e.pinthecylinders,wecancalculate
a. FHP

b. IHP
c. BH
Ans :b

53 Knowing the IHP and FHP of an engine, we cancalculate


a. rpm

b. SAF

c. BHP
d. Compression ratio
Ans:c

54 Which one of the following is not a trade name of tractor inIndia


a. Kirloskar
b. Escort
cStandard

Ans:c

55. The ratio between the power output of an engine and the energy in the fuel burned to produce that
power is called
a. Volumetric efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency
c. Mechanical efficiency

Ans:b

56. The air volume in the cylinder with the piston at B.D.C divided by the clearance volume is called
a. Compression ratio
b. Piston displacement
c. Cylinder ratio
Ans:a

57. The power used in overcoming friction in the engine is called


a. BHP
b. IHP
c. FHP
Ans:c

58. The average pressure during the power stroke minus the average pressure during
the intake, compression and exhaust strokes is called
a. IHP
b. Compression ratio
c. BHP
d. m.e.p.
Ans:d

59. IHP minus FHP equals


a. BHP
b. SAF
c. HP
d. m.e.p
Ans:a

60. Engine torque is highest at


a. High speed
b. Lows peed
c. Intermediate speed
Ans:c
Model Question Paper

Subject – Automobile Engineering – II

UNIT – I

1-When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy

(Ans: B)

2-The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on


(A) the weight of vehicle
(B) the deceleration rate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

(Ans: C)

3-The following is not a drum brake


(A) External contracting brake
(B) Internal expanding brake
(C) Disc brake
(D) All of the above

(Ans: C)

4-The hand brake of the automobile is usually


(A) External contracting brake
(B) Internal expanding brake
(C) Disc brake
(D) All of the above

(Ans: A)

5-In disc brake, the disc is attached to the


(A) wheel
(B) axle
(C) suspension system
(D) none of the above

(Ans: B)

6-The mechanical brakes are operated by means of


(A) levers
(B) bell cranks
(C) cams
(D) all of the above
(Ans: D)

7-In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of


(A) Atmospheric valve
(B) Vacuum valve
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

(Ans: C)

8-Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of


(A) Law of conservation of momentum
(B) Law of conservation of energy
(C) Pascal’s law
(D) None of the above

(Ans: C)

9-The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to


(A) Builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
(B) Maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
(C) Serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
(D) All of the above

(Ans: D)

10-Tandem master cylinder consists of


(A) One cylinder and one reservoir
(B) Two cylinders and one reservoir
(C) One cylinder and two reservoirs
(D) Two cylinders and two reservoirs

(Ans: D)

11-Hand brake is applicable to


(A) Only front wheels
(B) Only rear wheels
(C) Both front and rear wheels
(D) all of the above

(Ans: B)

12-The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes


(A) Area of brake linings
(B) Radius of car wheel
(C) Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
(D) All of the above

(Ans: D)

13-Servo action is to
(A) The amplification of braking forces
(B) Increase force of friction between shoe and wheel
(C) Transfer of weight during stop
(D) All of the above

(Ans: A)

14-The power brake may be exerted by


(A) Electrical energy
(B) Engine vacuum
(C) Air pressure
(D) all of the above

(Ans: A)

15-The process of removing air from the brake system is known as


(A) Bleeding
(B) self-energizing
(C) Servo action
(D) Energization

(Ans: A)

16-Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?


a) Drum brake
b) Disk brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe
(Ans: B)
17- The metering valve is used to proportion the braking effect between the front
and the rear axle.
(A) True
(B) False
(Ans B)
18- On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
(A) Frictional force
(B) Gravitational force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) Electric force
(Ans A)
19- In a disc brake, which component provides the pad-to-disc adjustment?
(A) Bleed screw
(B) Piston
(C) Caliper
(D) Piston seal
(Ans D)
20- -The brake drum is made of
(A)Cast iron
(B)Steel
(C)Aluminium
(D)All of the above
(Ans D)

UNIT – II

1- Automotive Battery is also known as___________


(A) Lithium iron battery
(B) Lead-Acid storage battery
(C) Zinc carbon battery
(D) Weston cell battery
(Ans:B )
2- What is present inside the battery?
(A) Electrolyte
(B) Fluid
(C) Acid
(D) Steam
(Ans: A)
3- How many key switch position are there in general in ignition switch
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(Ans: D)
4- The magneto ignition system
(A) No battery is required
(B) Engine starting is rather difficult
(C) Used in high speed engine
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)
5- In four cylinder in-line engine , the probable firing order is
(A) 1-3-4-2
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-4-1-3
(D) 2-1-3-2
(Ans:A )
6- The following is known as “Breakless ignition system”
(A) Battery coil ignition system
(B) Magneto ignition system
(C) Electronic ignition system
(D) Capacitive discharge ignition system
(Ans: C)
7- When insulating material is commonly used in spark plug?
(A) Polystyrene
(B) Polyisocyaurate
(C) Porcelain
(D) Polyurethane
(Ans: C)
8- A starting system include,
(A) A battery, a starter and an ignition switch
(B) A battery, a distributor and an ignition switch
(C) A battery, a starter and a distributor
(D) A distributor, a starter and an ignition switch
(Ans: A)
9- At zero in an induction motor
(A) Motor runs as a generator
(B) Motor does not run
(C) The motor runs an at synchronous speed
(D) Slip produced is zero
(Ans: B)
10- The cheapest starter for induction motor is
(A) Starter resistance starter
(B) Autotransformer starter
(C) Star-delta starter
(D) Rotor resistance starter
(Ans: C)
11- instrument is used for adjusting the ignition timing
(A) Accurate clock
(B) Tachometer
(C) Stopwatch
(D) Stroboscopic light
(Ans: D)

12- Which of the following firing order is commonly used for the four-cylinder
vertical engine?
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 3-4-1-2
(C) 4-3-2-1
(D) 1-3-4-2
(Ans: D)

13- What is the dwell time?


(A) It is the time for which the contact breaker points remain closed
(B) It is the time for which the contact breaker points remain open
(C) The time during which inlet and exhaust valves open
(D) The time during which inlet and exhaust valves close
(Ans: A)

14- Which of the following is not considered while deciding the optimum firing
order of the engine?
(A) Engine vibration
(B) Engine cooling
(C) Development of the backpressure
(D) Engine configuration
(Ans: D)

15- Why is the Dwell meter used?


(A) To set the spark plug gap
(B) To set the ignition advance
(C) To set the contact breaker gap
(D) To set ignition timing
(Ans: C)
16- Which of the following is the disadvantage of the magneto ignition system?
(A) Magneto ignition system has a poor quality of spark during starting
(B) Magneto ignition system occupies more space
(C) Magneto ignition system has more maintenance problems
(D) Magneto ignition system is used largely in four wheels
(Ans: A)

17- For how many times the contact breaker must make and break the circuit for
a four-cylinder engine operating at N rpm?
(A) N times
(B) 1.5N times
(C) N/2 times
(D) 2N times
(Ans: D)

18- Which of the following is the wrong statement?


(A) In the exhaust, retarded timing causes burning of the hydrocarbons
(B) The retarded timing improves fuel economy
(C) The retarded timing requires the small opening for correct burning of
the fuel
(D) The exhaust gas temperature becomes higher due to retarded time
(Ans: B)

19- On which condition does the vacuum advance mechanism shift the ignition
point?
(A) Under part-load operation
(B) Under full load operation
(C) Under no-load operation
(D) Under sudden acceleration
(Ans: A)

20- The optimum spark timing must be retarded for the engine operating with a
rich mixture.
(A) True
(B) False
(Ans: B)
UNIT – III

1- Select the wrong characteristics of refrigerant


(A) Low latent heat
(B) Low boiling point
(C) High thermal conductivity
(D) None of the above
(Ans: A)
2- Freon group of refrigerant are
(A) Inflammable
(B) Toxic
(C) Non-inflammable and toxic
(D) Non-Toxic and non-inflammable
(Ans: D)
3- A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism
of human body is equal to the
(A) Heat dissipated to the surrounding
(B) Heat stored in the human body
(C) Sum of A and B
(D) Difference of A and B
(Ans: C)
4- The process of supplying the intake air to the engine cylinder at a pressure
greater than the pressure of the surrounding atmosphere is known as
(A) Supercharging
(B) Auto ignition
(C) Scavenging
(D) Detonation
(Ans: A)
5- The Commonly used antifreeze solution in automobile is
(A) Carbon disulphide
(B) Ethelyn glycol
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) From 12
(Ans: B)
6- The process of removing the burnt Gases from the engine cylinder by the
fresh charge coming into the engine cylinder from the crankcase known as
(A) Cleaning
(B) Priming
(C) Scavenging
(D) Detonation
(Ans: C)
7- The function of a radiator fan in the cooling system is that
(A) It blows air through the radiator when necessary
(B) It is turned by wind force as the vehicle moves forward and its
rotation drive the water pump
(C) It cools the engine by blowing air into the cylinder block
(D) It draws heat out of the engine compartment
(Ans: A)
8- The heat transfer from coolant to air in the radiator of an automobile engine
take place by
(A) Radiation only
(B) Convection only
(C) Radiation and convection
(D) Conduction , convection and radiation
(Ans: C)
9- In engine ______ period a cycle is required for cooling the engine
(A) 1/10
(B) 3/10
(C) ½
(D) 9/10
(Ans: D)
10- In engine about ______% of the heat energy is actually convert into
mechanical work
(A) 25
(B) 40
(C) 55
(D) 70
(Ans: 25)
11- The greater the temperature difference
(A) Higher is the heat transfer rate
(B) Lower is the heat transfer rate
(C) There is no difference in heat transfer rate
(D) Any of the above
(Ans: A)
12- An antifreeze mixture is used to achieve
(A) Freezing point depression
(B) Boiling point elevation
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)
13- The following carries coolant between the engine water jacket and the
radiator
(A) Heater hose
(B) Radiator hose
(C) Engine hose
(D) None of the above
(Ans: B)
14- A typical cooling system circuit has the thermostat between
(A) Engine outlet and radiator
(B) Radiator outlet and engine inlet
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)
15- The following type of pump is used in a car to circulate coolant in forced
water cooling system
(A) Bane type
(B) Gear type
(C) Screw type
(D) Centrifugal type
(Ans: D)
16- The purpose of radiator is______ of heat to the atmosphere
(A) Dissipation
(B) Radiation
(C) Convection
(D) Conduction
(Ans: A)
17- The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temp of
(A) Engine pistons
(B) Engine cylinder
(C) Lubricating oil
(D) Jacket cooling water
(Ans: D)
18- If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil
(A) Appears milky
(B) Become foamy
(C) Turns back
(D) None of these
(Ans: A)
19- In motorcycle, the following type cooling system is used
(A) Air cooling system
(B) Water cooling system
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
(Ans: A)
20- The cooling fan is
(A) Fitted between the engine and the radiator
(B) Driven by belt and pulleys
(C) Driven from the cam shaft
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)
Model Question Paper

DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

CLASS: B.E. SUBJECT: AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING – II (ELECTIVE III)

1- When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
a. Mechanical energy
b. Heat energy
c. Electrical energy
d. Potential energy
(Ans.: b)

2- The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on


a. the weight of vehicle
b. the deceleration rate
c. both a and b
d. None of the above
(Ans.: C)

3- The following is not a drum brake


a. External contracting brake
b. Internal expanding brake
c. Disc brake
d. All of the above
(Ans.: C)

4- The hand brake of the automobile is usually


a. External contracting brake
b. Internal expanding brake
c. Disc brake
d. All of the above
(Ans.: a)

5- In disc brake, the disc is attached to the


a. wheel
b. axle
c. suspension system
d. none of the above
(Ans.: b)

6- The mechanical brakes are operated by means of

a. levers
b. bell cranks
c. cams
d. all of the above
(Ans.: d)

7- In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of


a. atmospheric valve
b. vacuum valve
c. both a and b
d. None of the above
(Ans.: C)

8- Stopping a vehicle in shortest possible distance is function of

a. Clutch
b. Accelerator
c. Brake
d. Gear box
Ans.: C. Brake

9- Brake should work in all weathers.


a. Differently
b. Oppositely
C. Weakly
d. Equally
Ans.: d. Equally

10. The capacity of the brakes depends on .


a. Peripheral velocity of brake drum
b. Momentum of caliper
c. Toughness of drum
d. Material of brakes
Ans.: a. Peripheral velocity of brake drum

11. The brakes operated mechanically by means of levers, linkages, pedals, cams, bell cranks, etc are
known as .
a. Kinetic brakes
b. Mechanical brakes
c. Disc brakes
d. Parking brakes
Ans.: b. Mechanical brakes
12. In drum brakes brake shoes are pivoted at .
a. Fulcrum
b. Cam
c. Retracting spring
d. External periphery
Ans.: a. Fulcrum
13. is moved against rotating drum for stopping the vehicle
a. Brake linings
b. Cams
c. Fulcrum
d. Retracting spring
Ans.: a. Brake linings

14. Brake shoes are pivoted at .


a. Cams
b. Retracting spring
c. Fulcrum
d. Brake linings
Ans.: c. Fulcrum

15. used to move the brake shoes against the rotating drum
a. Cam
b. Fulcrum
c. Disc
d. Tyre
Ans.: a. Cam

16. brings the brakes shoes back to original position after releasing brakes
a. Retracting spring
b. Disc
c. Cam
d. Fulcrum
Ans. : a. Retracting spring

17 is called as secondary brake


a. Brake shoe
b. Drum brake
c. Parking brake
d. Disc brake
Ans.: c . Parking Brake

18. is used to hold the brakes at parking condition


a. Cable
b. Ratchet
c. Disc
d. Drum
Ans.: b. Ratchet
19 In disc brakes is pressed against disc
a. Revolving disc
b. Drum
c. Brake shoes
d. Brake wire
Ans.: a. Revolving Disc

20 In disc brake system the fixed disc is placed inside housing called
a. Drum
b. Shoe
c. Caliper
d. Wheel
Ans.: c. Caliper

21. Pressurized fluid forces the disc to apply the brakes


a. Wheel
b. Shoe
c. Pistons
d. Wire
Ans.: c. Pistons

22. In brakes, there is better cooling than drum brakes.


a. Disc
b. Band
c. Parking
d. Secondary
Ans.: a. Disc

23. In Hydraulic brake system is used to apply brakes in all wheels


a. Master cylinder
b. Brake shoes
c. Disc brakes
d. Wheel cylinder
Ans.: a. Master cylinder

24. Hydraulic brake uses law for application of brakes


a. Pascal law
b. Thermodynamic law
c. Joul’s law
d. Kirchoff’s law
Ans.: a. Pascal law

25. Wheel cylinder consists of


a. Disc
b. Piston
c. Shoe
d. Caliper
Ans.: b. Piston

26. Hydraulic brake system is self system


a. Cooling
b. Lubricating
c. Heating
d. Running
Ans. b. Lubricating

27. Wheel cylinder is used for


a. Running the vehicle
b. Stopping vehicle
c. Both a an b
d. None of above
Ans. b. Stopping vehicle

28. “The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of
electricity”. The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton’s law
(b) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday’s law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss’s law
Ans: c 2

29. During the charging of a lead-acid cell


(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a

30. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its


(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b

31. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a

32. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

33. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the color of its positive plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
(c) dark brown
(d) none of above
Ans: c

34. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are


(a) nickel hydroxide
(b) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

35. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is


(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b

36. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

37. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is


(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

39. Cells are connected in series in order to


(a) increase the voltage rating
(b) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

40. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel. The output voltage is


(a) 1 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d

41- In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
a. Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
b. Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
c. Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
d. Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
(Ans: a)

42- The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage current up to
about
a. 10,000 volts
b. 17,000 volts
c. 25,000 volts
d. 35,000 volts
(Ans: C)

43- In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary windings is
about
a. 1 to 50
b. 1 to 100
c. 1 to 200
d. 1 to 400
(Ans:b)

44- The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system
a. It operates break and make mechanism
b. It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
c. both (A) and (B)
d. None of the above
(Ans.: C)

45- The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at the engine speed in four stroke engine
a. half
b. equal to
c. one and half times
d. double
(Ans.: a)

46- The provides a reservoir for the current induced in the primary circuit at the time of
break.
a. A .induction coil
b. (B) distributor
c. (C) condenser
d. (D) governor
(Ans.: C)

47- The following affect the voltage required to jump over the gap of spark plug
a. Shape of electrode forming gap
b. The conductivity of gases in the gap
c. Fuel-air mixture ratio existing in the gap
d. All of the above
(Ans.: d)

48- In Magneto Ignition system


a. No battery is required
b. Engine starting is rather difficult
c. used in high speed engines
d. All of the above
(Ans.: d)

49- In four cylinder in-line engine, the probable firing order is


a. 1-3-4-2
b. 1-2-3-4
c. 2-4-1-3
d. 2-1-3-4
(Ans.: a)

50- The following is known as ‘Breaker less Ignition system’


a. Battery coil ignition system
b. Magneto Ignition system
c. Electronic Ignition system
d. Capacitive discharge Ignition system
(Ans.: c)
A- solid state switch, known as Thyristor is employed in
a. Battery coil ignition system
b. Magneto Ignition system
c. Electronic Ignition system
d. Capacitive discharge Ignition system
(Ans.: d)

52- The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system


a. Produces maximum output voltage
b. Better starting with cold engine
c. Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
d. All of the above
(Ans.: d)

53- The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by


a. evaporator
b. safety relief valve
c. dehumidifier
d. driers
Ans: d

54- Heat from the automobile is removed by


a. compressor
b. evaporator
c. both a and b
d. non of above
Ans. b.

55- The conversion of gas into liquid refrigerant is done by


a. compressor
b. evaporator
c. condenser
d. non of above
Ans. c

56. Increase in pressure of refrigerant in air conditioning system is done by


a. compressor
b. evaporator
c. condenser
d. both b and c

57- Hot air is brought in the car with the help of


a. compressor
b. condenser
c. blower
d. all above
Ans. c

58- Refrigerant used in cars


a. R12
b. R134
c. Both a and b
d. Non of above
Model Question Paper
Subject: Automobile Engineering-II
Branch: Mechanical Engg:
Class: B.E Mechanical
Semester: VIII

Unit-I --- Battery& Ignition system


1)A spark plug gap is kept from

(A) 0.3 to 0.7 mm


(B) 0.2 to 0.8 mm
(C) 0.4 to 0.9 mm
(D) 0.6 to 1.0 mm

Answer – A
2)The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by

(A) Cetane number


(B) Octane number
(C) Calorific value
(D) None of these
Answer-A
3) In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is connected across the contact
breaker in order to

(A) Prevent sparking across the gap between the points


(B) Cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher voltage in the secondary
circuit
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer- C
4)In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
(A) Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
(B) Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
(C) Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
(D) Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
Answer- A
5) The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage current
upto about
(A) 10,000 volts
(B) 17,000 volts
(C) 25,000 volts
Answer-C
6) In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary
windings is about
(A) 1 to 50
(B) 1 to 100
(C) 1 to 200
Answer- B
7) The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system
(A) It operates break and make mechanism
(B) It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
(C) both (A) and (B)
Answer- C
8) In Magneto Ignition system
(A) No battery is required
(B) Engine starting is rather difficult
(C) used in high speed engines
(D) All of the above
Answer- D
9) The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’
(A) Battery coil ignition system
(B) Magneto Ignition system
(C) Electronic Ignition system
(D) Capacitive discharge Ignition system
Answer-C
10) A solid state switch, known as Thyristor is employed in
(A) Battery coil ignition system
(B) Magneto Ignition system
(C) Electronic Ignition system
(D) Capacitive discharge Ignition system
Answer-D
11 )The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system
(A) Produces maximum output voltage
(B) Better starting with cold engine
(C) Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
(D) All of the above
Answer-D
12) The composition of the electrolyte in a fully charged battery is that
(A) The electrolyte is pure distilled water
(B) The electrolyte is pure sulphuric acid
(C) The electrolyte is a mixture of 64% distilled water and 36% sulphuric acid by weight
(D) The electrolyte is a mixture of 90% distilled water and 10% sulphuric acid by weight
Answer- C
13) The ignition coil is used to

(A) Step up current


(B) Step down current
(C) Step up voltage
(D) Step down voltage
Answer- C
14) The starting system includes

(A) A battery, a starter, and an ignition switch


(B) A battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch
(C) A battery, a starter, and a distributor
(D) A distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch
Answer- A
15) A battery can be charged by

(A) Adding distilled water


(B) Adding sulphuric acid
(C) Applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of charging
(D) Applying a voltage in the same direction to that of charging
Answer- C
16) The ignition in a spark ignition engine takes place when the piston is

(A) Exactly at the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke


(B) Approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(C) Leaving the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(D) Approaching the T.D.C position on its exhaust stroke
Answer- B
17) Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?
A) Frame
B) Stator
C) Regulator
D) Rotor
Answer- D
18) In an alternator, which component controls the output?
A) Voltage regulator
B) Cutout relay
C) Current regulator
D) Diode
Answer- A
19) Field coils in a generator produce permanent magnet.
A) True
B) False
Answer- B
20) What is the material of an alternator frame?
A) Cast iron
B) Brass
C) Copper
D) Aluminum
Answer-D
Unit- II ---BRAKE SYSTEM
21) When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy
Answer –B
22) The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on
(A) the weight of vehicle
(B) the deceleration rate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer- C
23 ) The following is not a drum brake
(A) External contracting brake
(B) Internal expanding brake
(C) Disc brake
(D) All of the above
Answer-C
24) The mechanical brakes are operated by means of
(A) Levers
(B) bell cranks
(C) Cams
(D) all of the above
Answer- C
25 ) Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of
(A) Law of conservation of momentum
(B) Law of conservation of energy
(C) Pascal’s law
Answer- C
26) The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to
(A) builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
(B) maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
(C) serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
(D) All of the above
Answer- D
27) Tandem master cylinder consists of
(A) one cylinder and one reservoir
(B) two cylinders and one reservoir
(C) one cylinder and two reservoirs
(D) two cylinders and two reservoirs
Answer- D
28) Hand brake is applicable to
(A) only front wheels
(B) only rear wheels
(C) both front and rear wheels
(D) all of the above
Answer-B
29) The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes
(A) Area of brake linings
(B) Radius of car wheel
(C) Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
(D) All of the above
Answer- D
30) The power brake may be exerted by
(A) electrical energy
(B) engine vacuum
(C) air pressure
(D) all of the above
Answer- A
31) The process of removing air from the brake system is known as
(A) Bleeding
(B) Self-energizing
(C) servo action
(D) Energization
Answer- A
32) In a ventilated disc brake

(A) A duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is moving
(B) Caliper is covered with cooling fins
(C) Disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
(D) Disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling performance
Answer- D

33) The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids is


(A) DOT 4 fluids have a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(B) DOT 4 fluids have a lower boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(C) DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling point, but DOT 4 fluid has a longer service
life
(D) DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than DOT 3 fluid
Answer-A
34) The main function of a master cylinder is to
(A) Adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
(B) Boost the force applied to brake pedal
(C) Convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure
(D) Ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same amount of fluid pressure
Answer- C
35) The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is

(A) A high boiling point


(B) Low viscosity
(C) Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
(D) All of these
Answer- D
36) The power source for a brake booster is

(A) Exhaust manifold pressure


(B) Electricity
(C) The pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the vacuum pressure in the
intake manifold
D) Hydraulic pump
Answer- C
37) The brake pedal during ABS operation
(A) Is pushed upward forcefully
(B) Pedal stroke becomes longer
(C) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
(D) All of the above
Answer- C
38) . In jeeps we use
A. Mechanical brakes
B. Hydraulic brakes
Answer-B
39) In the air brake, air pressure is supplied by
A. Engine manifold
B. A compressor
Answer : B
40) . In the integral type of power brake, the diaphragm acts directly on the hydraulic
piston in the
A. Master cylinder
B. Wheel cylinder
Answer : A
Unit-III----Air conditioning System
41) HVAC stands for heating, ventilation and air conditioning:
A: True
B: False
Answer- A
42) If the air conditioning system has an accumulator, it is a:
A thermostatic expansion valve system.
B fixed orifice tube system.
C receiver dryer system.
Answer- B
43) On a vehicle with V-belts, an intermittent squealing noise is heard on acceleration with
the A/C control switch in the on or off position. The most likely cause of this problem is:
A - a loose power steering belt
B- a loose A/C compressor belt.
C-a loose air pump belt.
Answer- A
44) An A/C compressor high-pressure release valve discharges refrigerant at
approximately:
A- 200 psi (1,379 kPa).
B-325 psi (2,240 kPa).
C- 375 psi (2,585 kPa).
D- 475 psi (3,275 kPa).
Answer- D

45) The vacuum valve in the radiator cap is stuck closed. The result of this problem could
be:
A- an upper radiator hose collapsed after the engine was shut off.
B- excessive cooling system pressure at normal engine temperature.
C- engine overheating when operating under a heavy load.
D- engine overheating during extended idle periods.
Answer- A

46) All of the following statements about A/C-heater control panel service are true
EXCEPT:
A- The negative battery cable must be disconnected before A/C control panel removal.
B-The refrigeration system must be discharged before the A/C control panel is removed.
C-If the vehicle is air-bag-equipped, wait the specified time period after negative battery cable
disconnected.
D-Self-diagnostic tests may indicate a defective A/C control panel in a computer-controlled
A/C system.
Answer- B
47) A typical control panel assembly controls all of the following EXCEPT the:
A- compressor.
B- heater valve.
C- plenum door.
D-coolant temperature
Answer- D

48) The recirculate door is inoperable. Any of the following may be the problem EXCEPT
A-split, broken, or disconnected hose.
B-clogged or blocked restrictor.
C- restricted or open check valve.
D- cracked or broken vacuum tank.
Answer- B

49) In the vent position and with the temperature selector in the cool position, the incoming
air is heated. What could be the problem?
A-The cooling fan is inoperative.
B-There is low coolant in the radiator.
C-The heater core is clogged.
D_An air blend door is stuck.
Answer- A

50) The compressor clutch will not disengage. The problem could be that:
A- the A/C pressure cutoff switch is stuck open.
B-the compressor clutch coil is shorted to ground.
C- the low-pressure switch has an open wire.
D-the compressor coil positive wire is shorted to a 12 volt source.
Answer- D
51) When filling an A/C system recovery container with recovered refrigerant, the
percentage of capacity that the container may be filled to is
A-50 percent
B- 60 percent
C-70 percent
D- 80 percent
Answer-B

52) After the recovery process, the low-side pressure increases above zero after five
minutes. This condition indicates:
A-There is still some refrigerant in the system.
B- there is excessive oil in the refrigerant system.
C-the refrigerant system is leaking.
D-there is excessive moisture in the refrigerant system.
Answer- A

53) The moisture warning light on the recovery/recycling equipment indicates yellow
during the recycling process. This indicates:
A-there is excessive oil in the refrigerant.
B-the filter/dryer cartridge on the tester must be changed.
C-there are excessive noncondensable gases in the refrigerant.
D- the vacuum pump is not producing enough vacuum.
Answer-B

54) Which of the following oils can be used in a R-134a system?


A- mineral oil
B- CCOT
C- ester oil
D-PAG
Answer- D
55) Which of the following is not recommended while converting an R-12 system to R-
134a?
A- Permanently install conversion fittings using new hose clamps around the fittings.
B-Install conversion labels and remove the R-12 label.
C-Recharge the system with R-134a to approximately 80 percent of the original R-12 charge.
D-Use a refrigerant identifier to make sure the system only contains R-12
Answer-A

56) To charge an air conditioning system while it is running, the refrigerant should be
added to:
A-the high side.
B- the low side.
C- both the high and low sides.
D-either the high or the low side.
Answer- B

57) An A/C compressor has a growling noise only with the compressor clutch engaged. The
cause of this noise could be:
A-a defective internal compressor bearing.
B-a defective pulley bearing
C-a low refrigerant charge.
D-excessive refrigerant pressure.
Answer- A

58) Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?


A) Compressor
B) Condenser
C) Chiller
D) Evaporator
Answer- C
59) . Which of the following types of filters used in the air conditioning system is made of
cloth that is discarded on getting dirty?
A) Viscous type filters
B) Dry filter
C) Spray washers
D) Electric precipitators
Answer- B

60) Viscous type filters are made of screens of spilt wire and coated with non-drying
viscous oil in order to catch and remove the dust particles from the incoming air.
A) True
B) False
Answer- A
Name of college: D.N.Patel COE shahada
Subject: Automobile Engineering-II
Branch: Mechanical Engg:
Class: B.E Mechanical
Semester: VIII

Unit-I --- Battery& Ignition system


1)A spark plug gap is kept from

(A) 0.3 to 0.7 mm


(B) 0.2 to 0.8 mm
(C) 0.4 to 0.9 mm
(D) 0.6 to 1.0 mm

Answer – A
2)The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by

(A) Cetane number


(B) Octane number
(C) Calorific value
(D) None of these
Answer-A
3) In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is connected across the contact
breaker in order to

(A) Prevent sparking across the gap between the points


(B) Cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher voltage in the secondary
circuit
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer- C
4)In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
(A) Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
(B) Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
(C) Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
(D) Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
Answer- A
5) The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage current
upto about
(A) 10,000 volts
(B) 17,000 volts
(C) 25,000 volts
Answer-C
6) In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary
windings is about
(A) 1 to 50
(B) 1 to 100
(C) 1 to 200
Answer- B
7) The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system
(A) It operates break and make mechanism
(B) It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
(C) both (A) and (B)
Answer- C
8) In Magneto Ignition system
(A) No battery is required
(B) Engine starting is rather difficult
(C) used in high speed engines
(D) All of the above
Answer- D
9) The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’
(A) Battery coil ignition system
(B) Magneto Ignition system
(C) Electronic Ignition system
(D) Capacitive discharge Ignition system
Answer-C
10) A solid state switch, known as Thyristor is employed in
(A) Battery coil ignition system
(B) Magneto Ignition system
(C) Electronic Ignition system
(D) Capacitive discharge Ignition system
Answer-D
11 )The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system
(A) Produces maximum output voltage
(B) Better starting with cold engine
(C) Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
(D) All of the above
Answer-D
12) The composition of the electrolyte in a fully charged battery is that
(A) The electrolyte is pure distilled water
(B) The electrolyte is pure sulphuric acid
(C) The electrolyte is a mixture of 64% distilled water and 36% sulphuric acid by weight
(D) The electrolyte is a mixture of 90% distilled water and 10% sulphuric acid by weight
Answer- C
13) The ignition coil is used to

(A) Step up current


(B) Step down current
(C) Step up voltage
(D) Step down voltage
Answer- C
14) The starting system includes

(A) A battery, a starter, and an ignition switch


(B) A battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch
(C) A battery, a starter, and a distributor
(D) A distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch
Answer- A
15) A battery can be charged by

(A) Adding distilled water


(B) Adding sulphuric acid
(C) Applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of charging
(D) Applying a voltage in the same direction to that of charging
Answer- C
16) The ignition in a spark ignition engine takes place when the piston is

(A) Exactly at the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke


(B) Approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(C) Leaving the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(D) Approaching the T.D.C position on its exhaust stroke
Answer- B
17) Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?
A) Frame
B) Stator
C) Regulator
D) Rotor
Answer- D

18) In an alternator, which component controls the output?


A) Voltage regulator
B) Cutout relay
C) Current regulator
D) Diode
Answer- A
19) Field coils in a generator produce permanent magnet.
A) True
B) False
Answer- B
20) What is the material of an alternator frame?
A) Cast iron
B) Brass
C) Copper
D) Aluminum
Answer-D
Unit- II ---BRAKE SYSTEM
21) When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy
Answer –B
22) The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on
(A) the weight of vehicle
(B) the deceleration rate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer- C
23 ) The following is not a drum brake
(A) External contracting brake
(B) Internal expanding brake
(C) Disc brake
(D) All of the above
Answer-C
24) The mechanical brakes are operated by means of
(A) Levers
(B) bell cranks
(C) Cams
(D) all of the above
Answer- C
25 ) Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of
(A) Law of conservation of momentum
(B) Law of conservation of energy
(C) Pascal’s law
Answer- C
26) The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to
(A) builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
(B) maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
(C) serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
(D) All of the above
Answer- D
27) Tandem master cylinder consists of
(A) one cylinder and one reservoir
(B) two cylinders and one reservoir
(C) one cylinder and two reservoirs
(D) two cylinders and two reservoirs
Answer- D
28) Hand brake is applicable to
(A) only front wheels
(B) only rear wheels
(C) both front and rear wheels
(D) all of the above
Answer-B
29) The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes
(A) Area of brake linings
(B) Radius of car wheel
(C) Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
(D) All of the above
Answer- D
30) The power brake may be exerted by
(A) electrical energy
(B) engine vacuum
(C) air pressure
(D) all of the above
Answer- A
31) The process of removing air from the brake system is known as
(A) Bleeding
(B) Self-energizing
(C) servo action
(D) Energization
Answer- A
32) In a ventilated disc brake

(A) A duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is moving
(B) Caliper is covered with cooling fins
(C) Disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
(D) Disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling performance
Answer- D
33) The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids is
(A) DOT 4 fluids have a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(B) DOT 4 fluids have a lower boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(C) DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling point, but DOT 4 fluid has a longer service
life
(D) DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than DOT 3 fluid
Answer-A
34) The main function of a master cylinder is to
(A) Adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
(B) Boost the force applied to brake pedal
(C) Convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure
(D) Ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same amount of fluid pressure
Answer- C
35) The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is

(A) A high boiling point


(B) Low viscosity
(C) Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
(D) All of these
Answer- D
36) The power source for a brake booster is

(A) Exhaust manifold pressure


(B) Electricity
(C) The pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the vacuum pressure in the
intake manifold
D) Hydraulic pump
Answer- C

37) The brake pedal during ABS operation


(A) Is pushed upward forcefully
(B) Pedal stroke becomes longer
(C) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
(D) All of the above
Answer- C
38) . In jeeps we use
A. Mechanical brakes
B. Hydraulic brakes
Answer-B
39) In the air brake, air pressure is supplied by
A. Engine manifold
B. A compressor
Answer : B
40) . In the integral type of power brake, the diaphragm acts directly on the hydraulic
piston in the
A. Master cylinder
B. Wheel cylinder
Answer : A
Unit-III----Air conditioning System
41) HVAC stands for heating, ventilation and air conditioning:
A: True
B: False
Answer- A
42) If the air conditioning system has an accumulator, it is a:
A thermostatic expansion valve system.
B fixed orifice tube system.
C receiver dryer system.
Answer- B
43) On a vehicle with V-belts, an intermittent squealing noise is heard on acceleration with
the A/C control switch in the on or off position. The most likely cause of this problem is:
A - a loose power steering belt
B- a loose A/C compressor belt.
C-a loose air pump belt.
Answer- A
44) An A/C compressor high-pressure release valve discharges refrigerant at
approximately:
A- 200 psi (1,379 kPa).
B-325 psi (2,240 kPa).
C- 375 psi (2,585 kPa).
D- 475 psi (3,275 kPa).
Answer- D

45) The vacuum valve in the radiator cap is stuck closed. The result of this problem could
be:
A- an upper radiator hose collapsed after the engine was shut off.
B- excessive cooling system pressure at normal engine temperature.
C- engine overheating when operating under a heavy load.
D- engine overheating during extended idle periods.
Answer- A

46) All of the following statements about A/C-heater control panel service are true
EXCEPT:
A- The negative battery cable must be disconnected before A/C control panel removal.
B-The refrigeration system must be discharged before the A/C control panel is removed.
C-If the vehicle is air-bag-equipped, wait the specified time period after negative battery cable
disconnected.
D-Self-diagnostic tests may indicate a defective A/C control panel in a computer-controlled
A/C system.
Answer- B
47) A typical control panel assembly controls all of the following EXCEPT the:
A- compressor.
B- heater valve.
C- plenum door.
D-coolant temperature
Answer- D

48) The recirculate door is inoperable. Any of the following may be the problem EXCEPT
A-split, broken, or disconnected hose.
B-clogged or blocked restrictor.
C- restricted or open check valve.
D- cracked or broken vacuum tank.
Answer- B

49) In the vent position and with the temperature selector in the cool position, the incoming
air is heated. What could be the problem?
A-The cooling fan is inoperative.
B-There is low coolant in the radiator.
C-The heater core is clogged.
D_An air blend door is stuck.
Answer- A

50) The compressor clutch will not disengage. The problem could be that:
A- the A/C pressure cutoff switch is stuck open.
B-the compressor clutch coil is shorted to ground.
C- the low-pressure switch has an open wire.
D-the compressor coil positive wire is shorted to a 12 volt source.
Answer- D
51) When filling an A/C system recovery container with recovered refrigerant, the
percentage of capacity that the container may be filled to is
A-50 percent
B- 60 percent
C-70 percent
D- 80 percent
Answer-B

52) After the recovery process, the low-side pressure increases above zero after five
minutes. This condition indicates:
A-There is still some refrigerant in the system.
B- there is excessive oil in the refrigerant system.
C-the refrigerant system is leaking.
D-there is excessive moisture in the refrigerant system.
Answer- A

53) The moisture warning light on the recovery/recycling equipment indicates yellow
during the recycling process. This indicates:
A-there is excessive oil in the refrigerant.
B-the filter/dryer cartridge on the tester must be changed.
C-there are excessive noncondensable gases in the refrigerant.
D- the vacuum pump is not producing enough vacuum.
Answer-B

54) Which of the following oils can be used in a R-134a system?


A- mineral oil
B- CCOT
C- ester oil
D-PAG
Answer- D
55) Which of the following is not recommended while converting an R-12 system to R-
134a?
A- Permanently install conversion fittings using new hose clamps around the fittings.
B-Install conversion labels and remove the R-12 label.
C-Recharge the system with R-134a to approximately 80 percent of the original R-12 charge.
D-Use a refrigerant identifier to make sure the system only contains R-12
Answer-A

56) To charge an air conditioning system while it is running, the refrigerant should be
added to:
A-the high side.
B- the low side.
C- both the high and low sides.
D-either the high or the low side.
Answer- B

57) An A/C compressor has a growling noise only with the compressor clutch engaged. The
cause of this noise could be:
A-a defective internal compressor bearing.
B-a defective pulley bearing
C-a low refrigerant charge.
D-excessive refrigerant pressure.
Answer- A

58) Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?


A) Compressor
B) Condenser
C) Chiller
D) Evaporator
Answer- C
59) . Which of the following types of filters used in the air conditioning system is made of
cloth that is discarded on getting dirty?
A) Viscous type filters
B) Dry filter
C) Spray washers
D) Electric precipitators
Answer- B

60) Viscous type filters are made of screens of spilt wire and coated with non-drying
viscous oil in order to catch and remove the dust particles from the incoming air.
A) True
B) False
Answer- A
Model Question Paper

Subject: Elective –III (Automobile Engineering – II)

Branch: Mechanical Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII
Q1. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is
converted to

A. Mechanical energy

B. Heat energy

C. Electrical energy

D. Potential energy

Ans.: (B)Heat energy

Q2. The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on

A. The weight of vehicle

B. The deceleration rate

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Ans.: (C)Both (A) and (B)

Q3. The following is not a drum brake

A. External contracting brake

B. Internal expanding brake

C. Disc brake

D. All of the above


Ans.: (C)Disc brake

Q4. The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes

A. Area of brake linings

B. Radius of car wheel

C. Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes

D. All of the above

Ans.: (D)All of the above

Q5. Hand brake is applicable to

A. only front wheels

B. only rear wheels

C. both front and rear wheels

D. all of the above

Ans.: (B)only rear wheels

Q6. Tandem master cylinder consists of

A. one cylinder and one reservoir

B. two cylinders and one reservoir

C. one cylinder and two reservoirs

D. two cylinders and two reservoirs

Ans.: (D)two cylinders and two reservoirs

Q7. The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to

A. builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes

B. maintains constant volume of fluid in the system

C. serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system

D. All of the above


Ans.: (D)All of the above

Q8. Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of

A. Law of conservation of momentum

B. Law of conservation of energy

C. Pascal’s law

D. None of the above

Ans.: (C)Pascal’s law

Q9. In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of

A. atmospheric valve

B. vacuum valve

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Ans.: (C)both (A) and (B)

Q10. The mechanical brakes are operated by means of

A. Levers

B. bell cranks

C. Cams

D. all of the above

Ans.: (D)all of the above

Q11. The hand brake of the automobile is usually

A. External contracting brake

B. Internal expanding brake

C. Disc brake

D. All of the above


Ans.: (A) External contracting brake

Q12. In disc brake, the disc is attached to the

A. Wheel

B. Axle

C. suspension system

D. none of the above

Ans.: (B)Axle

Q13. Servo action is to

A. the amplification of braking forces

B. increase force of friction between shoe and wheel

C. transfer of weight during stop

D. All of the above

Ans.: (A)the amplification of braking forces

Q14. The power brake may be exerted by

A. electrical energy

B. engine vacuum

C. air pressure

D. all of the above

Ans.: (A)electrical energy

Q15. The process of removing air from the brake system is known as

A. Bleeding

B. self energizing

C. Powering

D. Actuating
Ans.: (A)Bleeding

Q16. What is the minimum allowable brake efficiency for foot operated brakes

A. 50%

B. 70%

C. 30%

D. 25%

Ans.: (A)50%

Q17. Higher coefficient of friction between brake shoe and brake drum…..

A. Increases stopping distance of vehicle

B. Decreases stopping distance of vehicle

C. No effect on stopping distance

D. Provides smooth ride

Ans.: (B)Decreases stopping distance of vehicle

Q18. What do you mean by brake fade?

A. Increased brake efficiency

B. Reduced stopping power

C. Drum brake

D. Disc brake

Ans.: (B)Reduced stopping power

Q19. Which is/ are possible causes of brake binding?

A. Brake shoe may be jammed

B. Brake shoe retracting spring may be broken

C. Pedal return spring may be weak

D. All of the above


Ans.: (D)All of the above

Q20. Which of the following is not a type of brake?

A. Service brakes

B. Disc brake

C. Vacuum brake

D. None of the above

Ans.: (D)None of the above

Q21. Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?

A. Compressor

B. Condenser

C. Chiller

D. Evaporator

Ans.: (C)Chiller

Q22. Which of the following qualities is not possessed by the filters in the air
conditioning system?

A. They should be capable of removing dust particles from the incoming air

B. They should afford easy cleaning

C. They should offer low frictional resistance to the airflow

D. They should offer high frictional resistance to the airflow

Ans.: (D)They should offer high frictional resistance to the airflow

Q23. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air
is known as __________

A. Heating

B. Cooling

C. Humidification
D. Dehumidification

Ans.: (D)Dehumidification

Q24. Select the wrong characteristics of refrigerant:

A. low latent heat

B. low boiling point

C. high thermal conductivity

D. none of the above

Ans.: (A)low latent heat

Q25. Oil separator if fitted in between

A. Condenser and evaporator

B. On the suction line

C. compressor and condenser

D. at the receiver outlet

Ans.: (C)compressor and condenser

Q26. Why do we need car air conditioning system?

A. To get cold surrounding in summer

B. To get filtered air in the cities like Delhi, Mumbai, etc.

C. To get comfortable environment inside the car against climate

D. All of the above

Ans.: (D)All of the above

Q27. Now a days which refrigerant is used in AC?

A. R12

B. R22

C. R410A
D. R32

Ans.: (C)R410A

Q28. Which of the following is not used in car AC?

A. Compressor

B. Cooler

C. Condenser

D. Evaporator

Ans.: (B)Cooler

Q29. At an average how much fuel a car AC consumes?

A. 12%

B. 50%

C. 10%

D. 20%

Ans.: (D)20%

Q30. Which is/are the effective method(s) in AC car to reduce fuel


consumption? (You can select multiple answers)

A. Turn off AC when does not required

B. Allow fresh air to flow through car

C. Use car in econo mode

D. Park your vehicle in shadow

Ans.: (A,B,C,D)

Q31. Which of the following is method of Heating control in a car

A. Air blending heating system

B. Water- valve heating system

C. All of the above


D. None of the above

Ans.: (C)All of the above

Q32. Identify the correct sequence of components in a car AC.

A. Compressor – Condenser –Expansion valve – Dryer – Evaporator &


blower

B. Compressor – Condenser – Dryer – Expansion valve – Evaporator &


blower

C. Compressor – Expansion valve – Condenser – Dryer – Evaporator &


blower

D. Compressor – Expansion valve – Condenser – Dryer – Evaporator &


blower

Ans.: (B)Compressor – Condenser – Dryer – Expansion valve – Evaporator &


blower

Q33. Thermal Expansion Valve ……

A. Allows passenger to adjust temperature according to the requirement

B. Allows passenger to adjust flow of hot air

C. Allows passenger to adjust flow of cold air

D. Allows passenger to open AC and heater

Ans.: (A)Allows passenger to adjust temperature according to the requirement

Q34. What could be the problem when AC does not cool the car properly

A. Expansion valve blocked

B. Defective thermostat

C. Damaged compressor

D. All of the above

Ans.: (D)All of the above

Q35. What could be the reason for a car AC making inappropriate noise
A. Vibration noise from compressor base

B. Defective thermostat

C. Dryer does not working

D. All of the above

Ans.: (A)Vibration noise from compressor base

Q36. Which of the following components are used in battery?

A. Container

B. Plate

C. Electrolyte

D. All of the above

Ans.: (D)All of the above

Q37. Whose guidelines are followed worldwide for battery terminal?

A. Indian Battery Manufacturer’s Association

B. Chinese Battery Manufacturer’s Association

C. American Battery Manufacturer’s Association

D. European Battery Manufacturer’s Association

Ans.: (C) American Battery Manufacturer’s Association

Q38. How any can identify positive and negative terminal of battery?

A. Positive terminal is larger than Negative terminal

B. Negative terminal is larger than Positive terminal

C. Both terminals are same

D. None of the above

Ans.: (A) Positive terminal is larger than Negative terminal

Q39. Which of the following is used as ignition system in an automobile?


A. Battery ignition system

B. Circuit ignition system

C. Electrical ignition system

D. Engine ignition system

Ans.: (A) Battery ignition system

Q40. Lightning ability of a fully charged battery is called as….

A. Battery

B. Battery Rating

C. Battery system

D. All of the above

Ans.: (B) Battery Rating

Q41. What is the function of separator in battery?

A. It separates Battery cell

B. It separates Battery terminals

C. It separates Battery grid

D. It separates +ve and –ve plate

Ans.: (D) It separates +ve and –ve plate

Q42. What is Electrolyte?

A. Mixture of 60% sulphuric acid + 40% distilled water

B. Mixture of 40% sulphuric acid + 60% distilled water

C. Mixture of 50% hydrochloric acid + 50% clean water

D. Mixture of 60% hydrochloric acid + 40% clean water

Ans.: (A) Mixture of 60% sulphuric acid + 40% distilled water

Q43. What are the factors responsible for battery life?


A. Improper electrolyte level

B. Overcharging

C. Corrosion of terminals

D. All of the above

Ans.: (D) All of the above

Q44. The amount of current a battery can deliver is called as….

A. Battery Ignition

B. Battery Rating

C. Battery Capacity

D. All of the above

Ans.: (B) Battery Rating

Q45. Which of the following is used as ignition system in an automobile?

A. Electrical ignition system

B. Circuit ignition system

C. Magneto ignition system

D. Engine ignition system

Ans.: (C) Magneto ignition system

Q46. Battery rating can be classified as…

A. 20 hour rating

B. Cold rating

C. 20 Minute rating

D. All of the above

Ans.: (D) All of the above

Q47. Which of the following test is carried out on each individual cell only?
A. Open circuit voltage test

B. Specific gravity test

C. High discharge test

D. All of the above

Ans.: (B) Specific gravity test

Q48. On which of the following parameter capacity of battery depends?

A. Number of plates

B. Area of plates remain in contact with electrolyte

C. Quantity of electrolyte

D. All of the above

Ans.: (D) All of the above

Q49. Open circuit voltage test can be carried out on…

A. Whole battery at a time

B. Single cell at a time

C. All of the above

D. None of the above

Ans.: (C)All of the above

Q50. In which of the following battery test Hydrometer is used?

A. Open circuit voltage test

B. High discharge test

C. Specific gravity test

D. All of the above

Ans.: (C) Specific gravity test

Q51. Which of the following is not a battery trouble?


A. Self discharge

B. Deterioration of plates

C. Over charging of battery

D. Internal short circuiting

Ans.: (C) Over charging of battery

Q52. At an average battery gets discharged by …….per day.

A. 1%

B. 9%

C. 5%

D. 7%

Ans.: (A) 1%

Q53. Sulphation is a…...

A. Reaction of sulphuric acid with mineral water

B. Loss of sulphuric acid from electrolyte

C. Battery trouble

D. All of the above

Ans.: (C) Battery trouble

Q54. Deterioration of battery plates takes place because of…….

A. Freezing of electrolyte

B. Mechanical damage

C. Very high charging rate

D. All of the above

Ans.: (D) All of the above

Q55. Which of the following is/are components of electrical system layout?


A. Battery

B. Electrical Accessories

C. Electrical lightning system

D. All of the above

Ans.:(D)All of the above

Q56. In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is

A. Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug

B. Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug

C. Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug

D. Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug

Ans.: (A)Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug

Q57. The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high
voltage current upto about

A. 10,000 volts

B. 17,000 volts

C. 25,000 volts

D. 35,000 volts

Ans.: (C) 25,000 volts

Q58. In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and
secondary windings is about

A. 1 to 50

B. 1 to 100

C. 1 to 200

D. 1 to 400

Ans.: (B) 1 to 100


Q59. The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system

A. It operates break and make mechanism

B. It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Ans.: (C)both (A) and (B)

Q60. The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at ___ the engine speed in four
stroke engine

A. half

B. equal to

C. one and half times

D. double

Ans.: (A)half
Subject: Automobile Engineering II
Class: BE SEM- VIII

Subject: Automobile Engineering II


Unit 1: Automobile Brakes
Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
The function of master cylinder is
a) To increase pressure equally in all cylinders
1) b) To increase pressure unequally in all cylinder a
c) To decrease pressure unequally in all cylinder
d) To decrease pressure equally in all cylinder
In trucks the system of wheel braking employed is
a) Mechanical
2) b) Hydraulic b
c) Pneumatic
d) None of above
In Jeep we use brakes.
a) Mechanically
3) b) Hydraulically b
c) Pneumatically
d) None of these
Brake lining consists mainly of
a) Asbestos
4) b) Copper A
c) Cast iron
d) Aluminium
The maximum disc run out allowed on the vehicle is generally.
a) 1 mm
5) b) 0.5mm C
c) 0.1mm
d) 0.01mm
Thebrake efficiency ofa newvehicleis about
a) 30 percent
6) b) 50 percent C
c) 80 percent
d) 100 percent
Brake fade is
a) Loss of pedal
7) b) Loss of friction B
c) Loss of hydraulic fluid
d) None of these
Electric brakes are commonly used on
a) Two wheelers
8) b) Cars d
c) Trucks
d) Trailers
On suspended vacuum brakes there is vacuum on both sides of the
piston during
9) B
a) Brake application
b) Brake release
Subject: Automobile Engineering II
Class: BE SEM- VIII
c) Part application of brakes
d) All of these
During braking the push rod directly operates
a) Primary piston
10) b) Secondary piston A
c) Residual pressure valve
d) Compensating port.
The brake bleeding process removes from system
a) Air
11) b) Vacuum A
c) Excess fluid
d) Excess pressure
In maruti car the brakes used are
a) Disc brakes
c
12) b) Drum brakes only
c) Disc on front drum on rear
d) Drum or front and disc on rear
Fading of brakes occurs
a) At high speeds
13) b) At low speeds C
c) During continuous
d) When brake lining is worn
The brakes employed on cars are usually operated
a) Mechanically
14) b) Hydraulically B
c) By means of engine vacuum
d) By compressed air
Air brakes are mostly used in case of
a) Cars
15) b) Jeeps C
c) Trucks
d) Three wheelers
The hand brake usually operates on
a) Rear wheels
16) b) Front wheels A
c) Right wheels
d) Left wheels
For 100% effective operation of the hydraulic brines.
a) Brine fluid should be pure
17) b) Boiling point of the fluid should be high c
c) There should not be trapped air
d) Viscosity of the fluid should be high
Anti skiddevices aregenerally usedon
a) Pear brakes
18) b) Parking brakes c
c) Front brakes
d) None of these
The operation used to remove trapped air from hydraulic brake
19) system is known C
a) Tapping
Subject: Automobile Engineering II
Class: BE SEM- VIII
b) Trapping
c) Bleeding
d) Skidding
If the brake wheels gets locked before the vehicle stops the vehicle
is said to be
20) a) Slipping B
b) Skidding
c) Sliding
d) Rolling

Subject: Automobile Engineering II


Unit 2: AutomobileElectricalSystem
Sr.
No. Question Ans.
The capacity of a lead acid cell does not depend on its
a) Temperature
1) b) Rate of charge b
c) Rate of discharge
d) Quantity of active material
Cells are connected in series ion order to
a) Increase the voltage
2) b) Increase the current rating a
c) Increase the life of the cells
d) None of the above
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
a) Current rating
3) b) Voltage rating C
c) Ampere hour rating
d) None of the above
Electrolyte used in a lead acid cell is.
a) NaOH
4) b) Only H2 SO4 d
c) Only water
d) Dilute H2 SO4
In a lead acid cell, lead is called.
a) Positive active material
5) b) Negative active material b
c) Passive material
d) None of the above
Overcharging a battery
a) Will bring about chemical change in active materials
6) b) Will increase the capacity of the battery d
c) Will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
d) None of the above will occur
Overcharging
7) a) Produces excessive gassing d
b) Loosens the active material
Subject: Automobile Engineering II
Class: BE SEM- VIII
c) Increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
d) All above
Undercharging
a) Reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
8) b) Increases specific gravity of the electrolyte a
c) Produces excessive gassing
d) Increases the temperature
The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
a) Manometer
9) b) A mechanical gauge C
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
The output voltage of a charger is
a) Less than the battery voltage
10) b) Higher than the battery voltage b
c) The same as the battery voltage
d) None of these
A discharged lead acid battery has on its plates
a) PbSO2
11) b) Pb d
c) Pb2O4
d) PbSO4
A fully charged 6 cell automotive battery should indicate
a) 12V
12) b) 12.6V d
c) sq. gravity of 1.290 at 32oC
d) both (b) and (c)
With the increase of battery temperature the specific gravity of
electrolyte.
13) a) Increases B
b) Decreases
c) Stays the same
d) None of these
The colour of positive plate of a lead acid battery is
a) Brown
14) b) Grey a
c) White
d) Black
The colour of negative plate of a lead acid battery is
a) Brown
15) b) Grey b
c) White
d) Black
A maintenance free battery
a) Has lead antimony plate grid
16) b) Has lead calcium plate grid b
c) Does not contain acid
d) Does not contain water
17) The number of positive plates in a battery cell is b
a) One more than the negative plates
Subject: Automobile Engineering II
Class: BE SEM- VIII
b) One less than the negative plates
c) Two less than the negative plates
d) Two more than the negative plates
The positive plate of a lead acid battery has
a) PbO2
18) b) Pb a
c) PbSO4
d) H2SO4
The negative plate of a lead acid battery has
a) PbO2
19) b) Pb b
c) PbSO4
d) H2SO4
The capacity of a battery is determined by the number of plates
per cell and
20) a) Number of cells C
b) Shape of plates
c) Size of plates
d) Number of separators

Subject: Automobile Engineering II


Unit 3:- Automobile Heating ,Ventilation and Air conditioning
Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
Freon group of refrigerants are
a) Inflammable
1) b) Toxic d
c) Non inflammable
d) Non toxic and non inflammable
The boiling point of ammonia is
a) -10.5 oC
2) b) -30 oC C
c) -33.3 oC
b) -77.7 oC
Obtaining high COP, The pressure range of compressor should be
a) High
3) b) Low b
C) Optimum
d) Any blue
In a automobile refrigeration system the expansion debit is
4) connected between the C
a) Compressor and condenser
Subject: Automobile Engineering II
Class: BE SEM- VIII
b) Condenser and receiver
c) Receiver and evaporator
d) Evaporator and compressor
The vapour compression refrigerator employs The following cycle.
a) Ranking
5) b) Carnot d
c) Reversed Ranking
d) Reversed Carnot
A Human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism ofHuman body is equal to the
a) Heat dissipated to the surrounding
6) C
b) Heat starred in the human body
c) Sun of (A) and(B)
d) Difference of (A) and(B)
The purpose of radiator is of heat to the atmosphere.
a) Dissipation
7) b) Radiation a
c) Convection
d) Conduction
The commonly used antifreeze solution in automobile is
a) Carbon disulphide
8) b) Ethylene glycol b
c) Ammonium chloride
d) Freon-12
Which of the following is correct when the outside air is
introduced for ventilationProposes.
9) a) Sensible heat gain as well as latent heat gain C
b) Sensible heat gain
c) Sensible heat gain as well as latent heat loss d) Latent heat gain
The specific volume of a Automobile refrigerant should be
a) None of these
10) b) Normal d
c) high
d) Low
In following refrigerant which has the lowest freezing point.
a) R-118
11) b) R-11 d
c) Ammonia
d) R-22
The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water
from air isKnown as
a) Heating
12) d
b) Cooling
c) Humidification
d) De humidification
The object of air conditioning system in a car is to control the
a) A pressure and humidity
13) b) Temperature and pressure c
c) Temperature and humidity
d) All of the above
Subject: Automobile Engineering II
Class: BE SEM- VIII
The process generally used in automobile winter air –conditioning
to warm and humidity the air, is called as
a) Humidification.
14) c
b) De-humidification
c) Heating and humidification
d) Cooling and de-humidification
In an automobile refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is
controlled by
a) Compressor.
15) d
b) Condenser
c) Evaporator
d) Expansion valve
In an automobile air heating, sensible heating of air ----- decreases.
a) Compressor.
16) b) Condenser b
c) Evaporator
d) Expansion valve
The pressure at the inlet of a automobile refrigerant compressor is
called ----
a) Suction pressure.
17) a
b) Discharge pressure
c) Critical pressure
d) Back pressure
During automobile heating and humidification, the final relative
humidity of air
a) Can be lower or higher than of the entering air
18) a
b) is lower than that of the entering air
c) is higher than that of the entering air
d) None of the above
Which of the following automobile refrigerant has the highest
freezing point
a) Ammonia
19) b
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Sulphur di-oxide
d) R-12
Automobile air conditioning means
a) Automobile cooling
20) b) Automobile heating d
c) Automobile de-humidification
d) All of these
Model Question Paper
Subject: Automobile Engineering-II

Branch: Mechanical Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII
1) When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to

(A) Mechanical energy

(B) Heat energy

(C) Electrical energy

(D) Potential energy

Ans.: B

2) The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on

(A) the weight of vehicle

(B) the deceleration rate

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

Ans.: C

3) The following is not a drum brake

(A) External contracting brake

(B) Internal expanding brake

(C) Disc brake

(D) All of the above

Ans.: C

4) The hand brake of the automobile is usually

(A) External contracting brake


(B) Internal expanding brake

(C) Disc brake

(D) All of the above

Ans.: A

5) In disc brake, the disc is attached to the

(A) wheel

(B) axle

(C) suspension system

(D) none of the above

Ans.: A

6) The mechanical brakes are operated by means of

(A) levers

(B) bell cranks

(C) cams

(D) all of the above

Ans.: D

7) In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of

(A) atmospheric valve

(B) vacuum valve

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

Ans.: C

8) Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of

(A) Law of conservation of momentum

(B) Law of conservation of energy

(C) Pascal’s law


(D) None of the above

Ans.: C

9) The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to

(A) builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes

(B) maintains constant volume of fluid in the system

(C) serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system

(D) All of the above

Ans.: D

10) Tandem master cylinder consists of

(A) one cylinder and one reservoir

(B) two cylinders and one reservoir

(C) one cylinder and two reservoirs

(D) two cylinders and two reservoirs

Ans.: D

11) Hand brake is applicable to

(A) only front wheels

(B) only rear wheels

(C) both front and rear wheels

(D) all of the above

Ans.: B

12) The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes

(A) Area of brake linings

(B) Radius of car wheel

(C) Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes

(D) All of the above

Ans.: D
13) Servo action is to

(A) the amplification of braking forces

(B) increase force of friction between shoe and wheel

(C) transfer of weight during stop

(D) All of the above

Ans.: A

14) The power brake may be exerted by

(A) electrical energy

(B) engine vacuum

(C) air pressure

(D) all of the above

Ans.: A

15) The process of removing air from the brake system is known as

(A) bleeding

(B) self energizing

(C) servo action

(D) energization

Ans.: A

16) When the temperature increases, the coefficient of friction

(A) Decreases

(B) Increases

(C) Remains constant

(D) Any of the above

Ans.: A

17) The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known as
(A) Trapping

(B) Tapping

(C) Bleeding

(D) Cleaning

Ans.: C

18) In a disc brake, which component provides the pad-to-disc adjustment?

(A) Bleed screw

(B) Piston

(C) Caliper

(D) Piston seal

Ans.: D

19) On what principle does the braking system in the car work?

(A) Frictional force

(B) Gravitational force

(C) Magnetic force

(D) Electric force

Ans.: A

20) Generally, which brakes are on the front wheels?

(A) Drum brake

(B) Disk brake

(c) Shoe brake

(D) Double shoe brake

Ans.: B

21) How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery ?

(A) 2

(B) 4
(C) 6

(D) 8

Ans.: C

22) In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is

(A) Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug

(B) Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug

(C) Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug

(D) Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug

Ans.: A

23) Which of the following bulb in a car will have the least wattage?

(A) Head light bulb

(B) Stop light bulb

(C) Parking light bulb

(D) Ignition warning bulb

Ans.: D

24) The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage current upto
about

(A) 10,000 volts

(B) 17,000 volts

(C) 25,000 volts

(D) 35,000 volts

Ans.: C

25) The discharged lead-acid battery has on its plates

(A) lead peroxide (PbO2)

(B) spongy lead (Pb)

(C) lead sulphate (PbSO4)


(D) sulphuric acid (H2SO4)

Ans.: C

26) In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary windings is
about

(A) 1 to 50

(B) 1 to 100

(C) 1 to 200

(D) 1 to 400

Ans.: B

27) The starting system includes

(A) a battery, a starter, and an ignition switch

(B) a battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch

(C) a battery, a starter, and a distributor

(D) a distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch

Ans.: A

28) The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system

(A) It operates break and make mechanism

(B) It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

Ans.: C

29) With the increase of battery temperature, the specific gravity of electrolyte

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains the same

(D) none of these


Ans.: B

30) The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at ___ the engine speed in four stroke engine

(A) half

(B) equal to

(C) one and half times

(D) double

Ans.: A

31) The ignition coil is used to

(A) step up current

(B) step down current

(C) step up voltage

(D) step down voltage

Ans.: C

32) The _____ provides a reservoir for the current induced in the primary circuit at the time of
break.

(A) induction coil

(B) distributor

(C) condenser

(D) governor

Ans.: C

33) The main task of a battery in automobiles is to

(A) supply electricity to the alternator

(B) act as a reservoir or stabilizer of electricity

(C) supply electricity to the vehicle's electrical system at all times while the engine is running

(D) supply a large amount of power to turn the starter motor when the engine is being started

Ans.: D
34) The following affect the voltage required to jump over the gap of spark plug

(A) Shape of electrode forming gap

(B) The conductivity of gases in the gap

(C) Fuel-air mixture ratio existing in the gap

(D) All of the above

Ans.: D

35) The positive plates of lead acid battery has

(A) Lead peroxide (PbO2)

(B) Spongy lead (Pb)

(C) Lead sulphate (PbSO4)

(D) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)

Ans.: A

36) In Magneto Ignition system

(A) No battery is required

(B) Engine starting is rather difficult

(C) used in high speed engines

(D) All of the above

Ans.: D

37) The negative plates of lead acid battery has

(A) Lead peroxide (PbO2)

(B) Spongy lead (Pb)

(C) Lead sulphate (PbSO4)

(D) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)

Ans.: B

38) In four cylinder in-line engine, the probable firing order is


(A) 1-3-4-2

(B) 1-2-3-4

(C) 2-4-1-3

(D) 2-1-3-4

Ans.: A

39) The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system

(A) Produces maximum output voltage

(B) Better starting with cold engine

(C) Less possibility of arcing at spark plug

(D) All of the above

Ans.: D

40) A solid state switch, known as Thyristor is employed in

(A) Battery coil ignition system

(B) Magneto Ignition system

(C) Electronic Ignition system

(D) Capacitive discharge Ignition system

Ans.: D

41) In Mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum temperature

(A) In evaporator

(B) Before expansion valve

(C) Between compressor and condenser

(D) Between condenser and evaporator

Ans.: C

42) In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is

(A) Liquid

(B) Sub-cooled liquid


(C) Saturated liquid

(D) Wet vapour

Ans.: D

43) A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism of human body is
equal to the

(A) Heat dissipated to the surroundings

(B) Heat stored in the human body

(C) Sum of (A) and (B)

(D) Difference of (A) and (B)

Ans.: C

44) The coefficient of performance of Heat Pump is always _________ one.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Ans.: C

45) The refrigerant for refrigerator should have

(A) High sensible heat

(B) High total heat

(C) High latent heat

(D) Low latent heat

Ans.: C

46) HVAC stands for

(A) Heating, Ventilation and Air Cooling

(B) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning system

(C) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning


(D) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning for Engineers

Ans.: C

47) Air conditioning system used for

(A) cooling

(B) heating

(C) dehumidifying

(D) all of these

Ans.: D

48) State which of the following statement is TRUE?

(A) An air handling unit convey air between conditioned space and plant

(B) An air handling unit consists of supply and return air fans

(C) The fan used in an air conditioning system consumes a large amount of power

(D) All of the above

Ans.: D

49) Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?

(A) High risibility with oil

(B) Low boiling point

(C) Good electrical conductor

(D) Large latent heat

Ans.: C

50) Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratosphere?

(A) Ammonia

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Sulphur dioxide

(D) Fluorine
Ans.: D

51) The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

(A) evaporator

(B) safety relief valve

(C) dehumidifier

(D) driers

Ans.: D

52) A refrigerant compressor is used to

(A) raise the pressure of the refrigerant

(B) raise the temperature of the refrigerant

(C) circulate the refrigerant through the refrigerating system

(D) all of the above

Ans.: D

53) A hermetically sealed unit implies

(A) compressor is sealed

(B) the compressor motor is sealed

(C) the complete refrigeration unit is sealed

(D) compressor and motor are sealed

Ans.: D

54) The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at

(A) compressor discharge.

(B) expansion valve

(C) evaporator

(D) condenser discharge

Ans.: A
55) One ton of the refrigeration is

(A) the standard unit used in refrigeration problems

(B) the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice

(C) the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours

(D) the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions

Ans.: C

56) Moisture in freon refrigeration system causes

(A) ineffective refrigeration

(B) high power consumption

(C) freezing automatic regulating valve

(D) corrosion of whole system

Ans.: C

57) The boiling point of ammonia is

(A) -100°C

(B) -50°C

(C) - 33.3°C

(D) 0°C

Ans.: C

58) Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least

(A) 10%

(B) 25%

(C) 50%

(D) 75%

Ans.: C

59) Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be

(A) critical pressure of refrigerant


(B) much below critical pressure

(C) much above critical pressure

(D) near critical pressure

Ans.: B

60) Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?

(A) condenser

(B) evaporator

(C) compressor

(D) expansion valve

Ans.: B

**********
Model Question Paper
Subject: Automobile Engineering-II

Branch: Mechanical

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to

A Mechanical energy

B Heat energy

C Electrical energy

D Potential energy

Ans.: B

Q2. The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on

A the weight of vehicle

B the deceleration rate

C both (A) and (B)

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q3. The following is not a drum brake

A External contracting brake

B Internal expanding brake

C Disc brake

D Disc brake

Ans.: C
Q4. The hand brake of the automobile is usually

A External contracting brake

B Internal expanding brake

C Disc brake

D All of the above

Ans.: A

Q5. In disc brake, the disc is attached to the

A wheel

B axle

C suspension system

D none of the above

Ans.: B

Q6. The mechanical brakes are operated by means of

A levers

B bell cranks

C cams

D all of the above

Ans.: D

Q7. In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of

A atmospheric valve

B vacuum valve

C both (A) and (B)

D None of the above


Ans.: C

Q8. Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of

A Law of conservation of momentum

B Law of conservation of energy

C Pascal’s law

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q9. The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to

A builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes

B maintains constant volume of fluid in the system

C serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q10. Tandem master cylinder consists of

A one cylinder and one reservoir

B two cylinders and one reservoir

C one cylinder and two reservoirs

D two cylinders and two reservoirs

Ans.: D

Q11. Hand brake is applicable to

A only front wheels

B only rear wheels

C both front and rear wheels


D all of the above

Ans.: B

Q12. The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes

A Area of brake linings

B Radius of car wheel

C Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q13. Servo action is to

A the amplification of braking forces

B increase force of friction between shoe and wheel

C transfer of weight during stop

D All of the above

Ans.:A

Q14. The power brake may be exerted by

A electrical energy

B engine vacuum

C air pressure

D all of the above

Ans.: A

Q15. The process of removing air from the brake system is known as

A bleeding

B self energizing
C servo action

D energization

Ans.: A

Q16. Pneumatic brakes are same as electrical brakes.

A Yes both are concerned with electricity

B No, one deals with pressure and other with electricity

C Yes both deals with pressure

D None of the listed

Ans.: B

Q17. An automobile brake is only used to reduce the speed or bring the vehicle to
hault

A Yes

B No, it also be used to hold the car

C Brake acts only onmoving vehicles

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q18. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake system is

A Overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application

B Overcooling of the brakes during high speed driving

C Keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period

D An excessively high engine speed on a downhill road

Ans.: A

Q19. When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified value, then the

A Brake drags
B Brake fades

C Vapour locking occurs in the brake lines

D Antilock braking system malfunctions

Ans.: A

Q20. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the

A Vibrations on the steering wheel

B Engine power during acceleration

C Torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface

D Stopping distance in case of emergency

Ans.: C

Q21. In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is

A Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug

B Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug

C Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug

D Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug

Ans.: A

Q22. The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage
current upto about

A 10,000 volts

B 17,000 volts

C 25,000 volts

D 35,000 volts

Ans.: C
Q23. In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and
secondary windings is about

A 1 to 50

B 1 to 100

C 1 to 200

D 1 to 400

Ans.: B

Q24. The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system

A It operates break and make mechanism

B It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time

C both (A) and (B)

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q25. The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at ___ the engine speed in four stroke
engine

A half

B equal to

C one and half times

D double

Ans.: A

Q26. In Magneto Ignition system

A No battery is required

B Engine starting is rather difficult

C used in high speed engines


D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q27. The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’

A Battery coil ignition system

B Magneto Ignition system

C Electronic Ignition system

D Capacitive discharge Ignition system

Ans.: C

Q28. The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system

A Produces maximum output voltage

B Better starting with cold engine

C Less possibility of arcing at spark plug

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q29. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?

A2

B4

C6

D8

Ans.: C

Q30. the negative plate of lead battery has

A Lead peroxide (PbO₂)

B Spongy lead (Pb)


C Lead sulphate (PbSO₄)

D Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄)

Ans.: B

Q31. the positive plate of lead battery has

A Lead peroxide (PbO₂)

B Spongy lead (Pb)

C Lead sulphate (PbSO₄)

D Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄)

Ans.: A

Q32. The function of an alternator in an automobile is to

A Supply electric power

B Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy

C Continually recharges the battery

D Partly converts engine power into electric power

Ans.: C

Q33. The automotive battery is also known as __________

A lithium ion battery

B lead-acid storage battery

C zinc carbon battery

D weston cell battery

Ans.: B

Q34. What is present inside a battery?

A Electrolyte
B Fluids

C Acid

D Steam

Ans.: A

Q35. What do batteries emit while charging?

A Nitrogen

B Oxygen

C Hydrogen

D Carbon

Ans.: C

Q36. In which ignition switch position is the power supplied to ignition circuit?

A Off switch position

B Run switch position

C Start switch position

D Lock switch position

Ans.: C

Q37. Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?

A Frame

B Stator

C Regulator

D Rotor

Ans.: D

Q38. Why is a thermistor used in an alternator regulator?


A To control maximum current

B To control maximum voltage

C To compensate for temperature change

D To control minimum current

Ans.: C

Q39. At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is _______

A Lower

B Higher

C Same

D Zero

Ans.: B

Q40. In an alternator, which component controls the output?

A Voltage regulator

B Cutout relay

C Current regulator

D Diode

Ans.: A

Q41. Which of the following will occur to an air conditioning system if the power
steering is sharply moved from lock to lock while the engine is running?

A Pressure in the AC high side will increase.

B Pressure in the AC low side will decrease.

C The compressor will increase the pressure output.

D The compressor clutch may disengage.

Ans.: D
Q42. When replacing a water (coolant) pump, which of the following is the best
method of handling the used coolant?

A The coolant should be stored for recycling.

B The coolant should be reused regardless of its condition.

C The coolant should be put in with the waste oil.

D The coolant should be diluted and flushed down the drain.

Ans.: A

Q43. An air conditioning system compressor may operate under which of the
following conditions?

A When the vehicle is operated at wide open throttle.

B When the heater controls are set to defrost.

C When the heater controls are set to vent.

D When the heater controls are set to floor - recirculate.

Ans.: B

Q44. What is the colour of an HFC-134a container?

A White.

B Green.

C Blue.

D Silver.

Ans.: C

Q45. Why must an air conditioning system be evacuated before charging?

A To remove as much moisture as possible.

B To remove all the old oil from the system.

C To remove dirt and debris from the system.


D To remove all old the refrigerant from the system.

Ans.:A

Q46. Which of the following conditions may cause an air conditioning compressor
not to operate?

A The vehicle speed is over 50 km/h.

B The vehicle speed is over 90 km/h.

C The ambient temperature is too low.

D The ambient temperature is too high.

Ans.: C

Q47. If a vehicle with air conditioning is accelerated rapidly, which of the following
may occur?

A The high side pressure will be lowered to reduce load on the engine.

B The low side pressure will be lowered to reduce load on the engine.

C The compressor clutch will cycle off to reduce the load on the engine.

D The radiator fan will cycle off to reduce the load on the engine.

Ans.: C

Q48. The function of induction system of Spark Ignition (SI) engine is to supply
______ to various cylinders of the engine.

A Partly vaporized mixture of fuel and air

B Fully vaporized mixture of fuel and air

C Liquefied mixture of fuel and air

D All of the above

Ans.: A

Q49. Which of the following Air-fuel ratio is considered as rich mixture in Spark
Ignition (SI) engine?
A Below 11:1

B Below 15:1

C Below 20:1

D Above 20:1

Ans.: A

Q50. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a.......

A Compressure

B Condenser

C Evaporator

D Expansion valve

Ans.: B

Q51. When do anti-lock brakes begin to work

A Each time the brake pedal is pressed

B On road surfaces with little grip

C Just as one or more wheels begin to lock

D Only at higher speeds

Ans.: C

Q52. Anti-lock brakes prevent the wheels from locking. The benefits of this are

A Little chance of a skid

B Reduction in tyre wear

C Better road grip

D Less likely to puncture

Ans.: A
Q53. Anti-lock brakes are designed to assist the driver with the ability to

A Control the car better under accelerating

B Stop sooner

C Brake later

D Steer under heavy braking

Ans.: D

Q54. Anti-lock brakes are of most use when

A Braking normally

B Braking excessively

C Driving on highly worn tyres

D Braking gently

Ans.: B

Q55. The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is

A high boiling point

B Low viscosity

C Compatibility with rubber and metal parts

D All of these

Ans.: D

Q56. Anti-lock brakes are at their most effective when you

A Using the handbrake to reduce the stopping distance

B Apply constant and firm pressure to the foot brake until you have stopped

C Brake normally, but grip the steering wheel tightly

D Continuously pump the foot brake to prevent skidding


Ans.: B

Q57. What test allows you to determine the general condition of a maintenance
free battery?

A Cell voltage

B Battery leakage

C Battery drain

D Battery voltage

Ans.: A

Q58. What procedure is considered the only safe way to mix electrolyte for a lead-
acid battery?

A Pour water into acid slowly and stir gently.

B Pour water into acid slowly and stir vigorously.

C Pour acid into water slowly and stir gently.

D Pour acid into water slowly and stir vigorous

Ans.: A

Q59. What are the two methods for rating lead-acid storage batteries?

A Reserve capacity and discharge

B Reserve capacity and ampere-hour

C Cold-cranking and reserve capacity

D Cold-cranking and discharge

Ans.: C

Q60. A 12-volt lead-acid automotive battery consists of how many elements


connected in series?

A Six
B Four

C Three

D Two

Ans.: A
Subject Name with code: Automobile Engineering {2181915}
MCQ
1) Leaf springs absorb shocks by
a) bending
b) twisting
c) compression
d) tension

2) Coil springs absorb shocks by


a) bending
b) twisting
c) compression
d) tension

3) The following is a type of leaf springs


a) three Quarter elliptic
b) semi elliptic
c) quarter elliptic
d) all of the above

4) The material used for making torsion bar is


a) Steel
b) Cast iron
c) High carbon steel
d) All of the above

5) Drive (live) axles


a) are simply beams which supports the vehicle weight
b) are usually the front axles
c) contain differential
d) all of the above

6) The following represents the correct specification of a tyre


a) 155-80-R-13
b) R-155-80-13
c) 155-80-13-R
d) 155-R-80-13

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


7) The following is (are) the independent suspension system(s)
a) Wishbone Arm system
b) Trailing Link system
c) Sliding Pillar system
d) all of the above

8) The coil spring in used in


a) Wishbone Arm system
b) Trailing Link system
c) Sliding Pillar system
d) all of the above

9) Un-sprung weight is
a) Weigh of vehicle
b) Weigh of chassis frame
c) Weight of wheels
d) Weight of wheels and axles

10) Sprung weight is


a) Weigh of vehicle minus unsprung weight
b) Weigh of chassis frame
c) Weight of wheels
d) Weight of wheels and axles

11) While in motion, the vehicle suspension is subjected to


a) bouncing
b) pitching
c) rolling
d) all of the above

12) The angle between king pin centre line and vertical in the plane of wheel is called
a) Steering axis inclination
b) King pin inclination
c) Castor
d) Camber
13) 50-The ratio between BHP and IHP is called
a) thermal efficiency
b) engine efficiency
c) volumetric efficiency
d) mechanical efficiency

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


14) Useful power obtained at the engine flywheel is called:
a) Indicated power
b) Frictional power
c) Mechanical advantage
d) Brake power3

15) Wear on tyre is more on one side is due to:


a) incorrect camber angle
b) low tyre pressure
c) high tyre pressure
d) sudden acceleration

16) In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
a) Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
b) Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
c) Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
d) Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug

17) In Magneto Ignition system


a) No battery is required
b) Engine starting is rather difficult
c) used in high speed engines
d) All of the above

18) In four cylinder in-line engine, the probable firing order is


a) 1-3-4-2
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 2-4-1-3
d) 2-1-3-4

19) The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system


a) Produces maximum output voltage
b) Better starting with cold engine
c) Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
d) All of the above

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


20) What part of a car holds the electricity?
a) Alternator
b) Generator
c) Battery
d) Solenoid

21) The battery is made of lead, water and


a) Paint
b) Battery fluid
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Gasoline

22) Two general types of tyres are


a) Tube type and tubeless
b) Solid and tubeless
c) Air and pneumatic
d) Split rim and drop centre

23) How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?


a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

24) The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is


a) Slow air leakage
b) Better fuel efficiency
c) Less chances of running flat
d) All of these

25) In a single dry plate clutch, torsional vibrations are absorbed by


a) Coil springs known as torsional springs
b) Cushion springs
c) Central hub
d) Clutch pedal

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


26) The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery
a) Makes chemicals by mechanical means
b) Uses chemical action to provide electricity
c) Has curved plates instead of flat plates
d) Does not use an electrolyte

27) An overinflated tyre will wear the tread most near the
a) Edge
b) corner
c) centre
d) none of these

28) The following is not a Friction clutch


a) Fluid clutch
b) Centrifugal clutch
c) Cone clutch
d) Disc clutch

29) The following type of arrangement is used in synchromesh type gear box
a) Single plate clutch
b) Fluid clutch
c) Dog clutch
d) Semi-centrifugal clutch

30) The torque which a clutch can transmit, depends upon the
a) coefficient of friction
b) spring force
c) contact surfaces
d) all of the above

31) In Disc clutch, the clutch disc acts as a


a) driving member
b) driven member
c) neutral member
d) any of the above

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


32) In Disc clutch, engine flywheel acts as a
a) driving plate
b) driven plate
c) pressure plate
d) none of the above

33) The following type of spring(s) is (are) employed in the pressure plate
a) Coil springs
b) Diaphragm type conical spring
c) both (A) and (B)
d) none of the above

34) The following is an automatic clutch which is controlled by engine speed


a) Cone clutch
b) Centrifugal clutch
c) fluid clutch
d) Disc clutch

35) The following is (are) the advantage(s) of fluid flywheel


a) It gives a smoother power take up than centrifugal type
b) fluid acts as a cushioning agent
c) it needs no separate pedal or lever to operate it
d) all of the above

36) Which of the following is true?


a) high torque is required at the start of the vehicle
b) low torque is required at high speeds
c) gearbox helps in smooth running of vehicle
d) all of the above

37) The amount of tilt measured in degrees from the vertical, is called
a) Camber angle
b) Caster angle
c) Toe in
d) Toe out

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


38) The purpose of caster is to give a trailing effect to the
a) Front wheel
b) Rear wheel
c) Inner wheel
d) Outer wheel

39) Four-wheel drive vehicles have differential at


a) front wheels
b) rear wheels
c) both the front and rear wheels
d) any of the front or rear wheels

40) The propeller shaft consist of


a) knuckle joint
b) flange coupling
c) universal joint
d) Rag joint

41) The positive plates of a lead acid battery has


a) Lead peroxide (PbO2)
b) Spongy lead (Pb)
c) Lead sulphate (PbSO4)
d) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)

42) The rigid suspension is beneficial when


a) It is desired to reduce the unsprung mass
b) It is desired to have more flexibility in design
c) It is desired to improve tyre to ground contact characteristics
d) Large changes in load make it necessary to have a large suspension stroke

43) The basic purpose of tyres is to


a) Grip the road and provide good traction
b) Substitute for springs
c) Act as brake
d) None of these

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


44) The clutch is located between the transmission and the
a) Engine
b) Rear axle
c) Propeller shaft
d) Differential

45) The main function of the tread pattern on tyre is that


a) The tread grooves pass air between the tyre and road surface, thereby preventing tyre from
overheating
b) The crests between the tread grooves absorb road noise
c) In wet conditions, the tread grooves expel water that is drawn between the tyre and road
surface
d) The tread pattern protects the tyre's inner carcass from small stones and pieces of glass

46) The main function of the brake fluid is


a) Lubrication
b) Power transmission
c) Cooling
d) None of these

47) The discharged lead acid battery has on its plates


a) Lead peroxide (PbO2)
b) Spongy lead (Pb)
c) Lead sulphate (PbSO4)
d) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)

48) The service brakes employed in cars are generally operated


a) Mechanically
b) Hydraulically
c) Pneumatically
d) None of These

49) The caster is called positive when the top of the king pin is inclined to the
a) Rear of the vehicle
b) Front of the vehicle
c) Left of the vehicle
d) Right of the vehicle

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


50) Caster is a
a) Forward tilt of the kingpin
b) Backward tilt of the kingpin
c) Either 'A' or 'B'
d) None of these

51) The order in which effort applied to the steering wheel is transferred to the front wheel
is
a) Steering wheel, steering gearbox, steering shaft, tie rod, steering knuckle, front wheels
b) Steering wheel, steering shaft, steering gearbox, tie rod, steering knuckle, front wheels
c) Steering wheel, steering shaft, steering gearbox, steering knuckle, tie rod, front wheels
d) Steering wheel, tie rod, steering gearbox, steering shaft, steering knuckle, front wheels

52) The basic purpose of tyre rotation on automobiles is to


a) Avoid ply separation
b) Equalize wear
c) Get better ride
d) None of these

53) The specific gravity of acid in a fully charged battery is generally


a) 1.00
b) 1.28
c) 2.81
d)1.82

54) If a tyre is designated as 175/65 R-14 82-S, then the aspect ratio for the tyre is
a) 175
b) 65
c) 14
d) 82

55) Incorrect steering axis inclination (S.A.I.) causes


a) Tendency to assume toe-out orientation
b) Generation of a braking effect at tight corners
c) Poor recovery of the steering wheel after making a turn
d) The vehicle to pull to the side of lesser inclination

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


56) Cushioning springs in clutch plate reduces
a) Vehicle speed
b) Torsional vibrations
c) Jerky starts
d) None of these

57) The brake pedal during ABS operation


a) Is pushed upward forcefully
b) Pedal stroke becomes longer
c) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
d) All of the above

58) The basic function of the suspension is to


a) Absorbs vibration and impact forces from the road surface
b) Ensure that the steering wheel can deliver a suitable amount of steering force
c) Ensure that wheel alignment is not disturbed during driving
d) Automatically correct the effects of over steering

59) Which of the following is not a part of the chassis?


a) Wheels
b) Front axle
c) Steering system
d) Seats

60) The component that is responsible for converting the rotation of the steering wheel into
lateral motion is the
a) Steering wheel
b) Steering shaft
c) Steering gearbox
d) Tie rod

61) The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known as
a) Trapping
b) Tapping
c) Bleeding
d) Cleaning

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


62) A maintenance free battery
a) Has lead-antimony plate grid
b) Has lead-calcium plate grid
c) Does not contain acid
d) Does not contain water

63) The function of anti-lock brake system (ABS) is that is


a) it reduces the brake pad wear
b) it reduces the stopping distance
c) it avoids the skidding of the vehicle
d) it reduces cost of braking system

64) Which types of wheels cannot be used with a tubeless tire?


a) Disc wheel
b) Light alloy wheel
c) Wire wheel
d) Composite wheel

65) Which type of wheels is preferred in sports cars?


a) Disc wheel
b) Wire wheel
c) Magnesium alloy wheel
d) Aluminum alloy wheel

66) Which of the following contains no linkage between the clutch and the pedal?
a) Clutch – by – wire
b) Wet clutch
c) Hydraulic single plate clutch
d) Hydraulic multi-plate clutch

67) Where is the clutch located?


a) Between transmission and engine
b) Between transmission and rear axle
c) Between transmission and propeller shaft
d) Between transmission and differential

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


68) Which of the following is the disadvantage of the cone clutch?
a) It becomes difficult to disengage the clutch when the cone angle is less than 20°
b) It is silent in operation
c) The normal force on the contact surface is larger than the axial force
d) Same torque can be transmitted for the same size as the plate clutch

69) The dry clutch can tolerate longer engagement time than a wet clutch.
a) True
b) False

70) Which of the following is the need of the gearbox?


a) To vary the speed of the vehicle
b) To vary the torque of the vehicle
c) To vary the power of the vehicle
d) To vary the acceleration of the vehicle

71) In which type of manual transmission the double-declutching is used?


a) Constant-mesh gearbox
b) Sliding mesh gearbox
c) Synchromesh gearbox
d) Epicyclical gearbox

72) Which of the following is not part of automatic transmission?


a) Epicyclic gearbox
b) Torque convertor
c) Multi-plate clutch
d) Sliding mesh gearbox

73) Which types of gears are used in constant mesh gearbox?


a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Worm gear

74) Why are the helical gears used commonly in transmission over spur gears?
a) Low cost and high strength
b) Low noise level and high strength
c) Low noise level and economy
d) Low noise level and low cost

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


75) Which types of joints are used when the shafts are inclined?
a) Universal joint
b) Hinge joint
c) Ball and socket joint
d) Pivot joint

76) Which of the following is the disadvantage of the open differential?


a) High in cost
b) Not reliable
c) Complex design
d) Sends most of the power to the wheel having less traction

77) Where is the differential located?


a) Between transmission and rear axle
b) Between engine and transmission
c) Between two propeller shaft
d) Between steering wheel and steering column

78) What is the need of the universal joint?


a) To change inclination
b) To bend sideways
c) To transfer torque at an angle
d) To change length

79) A two-piece propeller shaft requires one universal joint.


a) True
b) False

80) If the front of the front wheels is inside and rear of front wheels are apart when the
vehicle is at rest, then the configuration is called?
a) Toe-in
b) Toe out
c) Positive camber
d) Positive castor.

81) What is the name of the angle through which the wheel has to turn to sustain the side
force?
a) Slip angle
b) Castor angle
c) Camber
d) Kingpin inclination

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


82) What is called the cornering force over the slip angle?
a) Castor trail
b) Cornering power
c) Self-righting torque
d) Pneumatic trail

83) What is a condition called when the vehicle will try to move away from its normal
direction and to keep it on the right path there is need to steer a little?
a) Understeer
b) Oversteer
c) Reversibility
d) Irreversibility

84) What is the purpose of the reciprocating ball type steering gear?
a) To reduce the operating cost
b) To reduce the number of parts
c) To reduce the operating friction
d) To reduce the toe-out during the turns

85) In a disc brake, which component provides the pad-to-disc adjustment?


a) Bleed screw
b) Piston
c) Caliper
d) Piston seal

86) Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?


a) Drum brake
b) Disc brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe brake

87) Which instrument is used for adjusting the ignition timing?


a) Accurate clock
b) Tachometer
c) Stopwatch
d) Stroboscopic light

88) What is running resistance of the vehicle?


a) Rolling resistance
b) Aerodynamic resistance
c) Sum of rolling and aerodynamic resistance
d) Traction force

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


89) Suppose the road gradient is G = 10%. What is the corresponding angle (approximate
value in radians)?
a) 5 rad
b) 0.1 rad
c) 1 rad
d) 10 rad

90) What will happen if the traction force is negative?


a) The vehicle will accelerate
b) The vehicle will decelerate
c) The vehicle will first accelerate and then decelerate
d) The vehicle will run at a constant speed

91) Suppose the vehicle is running at a constant speed on the flat road with rolling
resistance = 100 N and aerodynamic resistance = 100 N, what is the traction force
required?
a) 100 N
b) 0 N
c) 200 N
d) 50 N

92) What will happen if the vehicle is made 50% heavier, but all other parameters remain
the same?
a) The running resistance will decrease
b) The running resistance will increase
c) The running resistance will remain the same
d) The aerodynamic resistance will increase by a factor of 1.5 squared

93) If the traction resistance is equal to the total running resistance, then which of the
following will happen?
a) The vehicle will accelerate
b) The vehicle will decelerate
c) The vehicle will run at a constant velocity
d) The vehicle will come to rest

94) If the vehicle is running on the road having 10% gradient at a constant speed, then on
flat road it will accelerate at approximately 1 m/s2 (All the parameters remain the same).
a) True
b) False

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


95) Which of the following is the knock sensor?
a) Flap type sensor
b) Thermocouples
c) Thermistors
d) Piezoelectric pickup

96) What is the use of the lambda sensors in the catalytic converter?
a) To keep excess air ratio within a range
b) To keep the flow rate of constant air
c) To keep the exhaust pressure constant
d) To keep the exhaust temperature constant

97) Where are the electro-optical sensors used?


a) Position and speed measurement
b) Piston temperature measurement
c) Cooling water flow measurement
d) Lubricating oil flow measurement

98) What is the main use of the strain gauge?


a) To measure viscosity
b) To measure velocity
c) To measure temperature
d) To measure pressure

99) What is the use of the hot-wire sensor?


a) To measure temperature
b) To measure the smoke intensity
c) To measure the mass flow rate
d) To measure pressure

100) What is the disadvantage of the piezoelectric pressure sensor?


a) It has too much sensitivity
b) It can measure only low pressure
c) It is not suitable for dynamic measurement
d) It can only give pressure difference

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


101) What is LVDT used to measure?
a) Gas temperature
b) Engine speed
c) Crank angle
d) Large displacement

102) Which of the following is the best method to measure the speed?
a) Mechanical tachometer
b) Electrical tachometer
c) Magnetic pickup
d) Mechanical counters

103) Which of the following is the most accurate method of determining friction power?
a) Morse test
b) Willian’s line
c) Motoring test
d) Measurement of brake and indicated power

104) Which of the following is the most accurate dynamometer?


a) Eddy current dynamometer
b) Prony brake dynamometer
c) Hydraulic type dynamometer
d) Swinging field type dynamometer

105) On which of the following does brake mean effective pressure (BMEP) in an engine
depend upon?
a) Speed and torque
b) Speed and power
c) Torque
d) Speed

106) What should a fully-charged 6 cell automotive battery indicate?


a) 12 V
b) 12.6 V
c) The specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃
d) 12.6 V and the specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


107) What is the number of positive plates in a battery cell?
a) One more than the negative plates
b) Two less than the negative plates
c) One less than the negative plates
d) Two more than the negative plates

108) What is a maintenance-free battery?


a) A battery having lead-antimony plate grid
b) A battery having lead-calcium plate grid
c) A battery does not contain acid
d) A battery does not contain water

109) Which of the following is the advantage of alkaline battery?


a) High energy density
b) Good discharge characteristics over a wide range of temperature
c) The specific gravity of electrolyte remains the same
d) Cheap raw materials are used

110) Which component in the DC generator produces a magnetic field?


a) Stator
b) Commutator
c) Armature
d) Carbon brushes

111) Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?


a) Frame
b) Stator
c) Regulator
d) Rotor

112) At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is _______


a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same
d) Zero

113) In an alternator, which component controls the output?


a) Voltage regulator
b) Cutout relay
c) Current regulator
d) Diode

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


114) What is the material of an alternator frame?
a) Cast iron
b) Brass
c) Copper
d) Aluminum

115) If the lead-acid cell has a total of 17 cells, then what is the number of positive plates?
a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6

116) Field coils in a generator produce permanent magnet.


a) True
b) False

117) A conventional suspension system uses which of these


a) Leaf Springs
b) Coil Springs
c) Torsion bars
d) None of the mentioned

118) Load per axle for a vehicle can be reduced by which of the following methods.
a) By increasing distance between the axles
b) By increasing the number of tyres
c) By increasing the number of axles
d) By decreasing the length of an axle

119) The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels.


a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure

120) Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system


a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


121) The loads supported by an automobile frame are
a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads
b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned

122) An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes

123) The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following


a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
d) All of the mentioned

124) Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension.


a) Leaf springs
b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars
d) All of the mentioned

125) The lid that covers the engine top in a car and situated at the front is called ________
a) Gill
b) Soft top
c) Bonnet
d) Spoiler

126) An upraised part on the hood which directs the air flow into the engine compartment
is called
a) Spoiler
b) Hotpipe
c) Hood scoop
d) Wings

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel


127) Why ‘Bumpers’ are used in cars
a) To reduce the impact in case of low speed collisions
b) To improve the aerodynamics of a car
c) To increase the engine performance
d) None of the mentioned

128) The central portion of the wheel is called


a) Rim
b) Scale
c) Hub
d) Axle

129) Group A ------------------------------------Group B


(1) Short duration load------------------ (A) Beyond design capacity
(2) Impact load--------------------------- (B) While crossing a broken patch
(3) Inertia Load--------------------------- (C) While applying brakes
(4) Static Load---------------------------- (D) Due to collision of vehicle
(5) Over Load----------------------------- (E) Due to chassis parts

Option:
a) (1)-(E), (2)-(B), (3)-(D), (4)-(C), (5)-(A)
b) (1)-(E), (2)-(D), (3)-(C), (4)-(B), (5)-(A)
c) (1)-(B), (2)-(D), (3)-(C), (4)-(E), (5)-(A)
d) (1)-(B), (2)-(A), (3)-(D), (4)-(E), (5)-(C)

130) The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is


a) Slow air leakage
b) Better fuel efficiency
c) Less chances of running flat
d) All of these

131) The brake pedal during ABS operation


a) Is pushed upward forcefully
b) Pedal stroke becomes longer
c) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
d) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot

Prepared By: Dr. Vipul M. Patel

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