1.

CATARACT
 FR choroidal hemorrhage = d. Glaucoma
 Macular function test in dense cataract = d. Maddox rod testing
 Komplikasi coloboma = c. Retinal detachment
 55-year-old woman, uneventful cataract surgery in her left eye = c. Vitreous opacification
 Reliable sign indicating a posterior capsular rupture = c. Deepening of anterior chamber
 Posterior polar cataract = b. There is increased risk of posterior capsule rupture
 Answer = a. Basement membrane fingerprint lines
 Answer = a. Posterior infusion syndrome
 Answer (soal tanpa pilihan jawaban) = a. Capsulotomy performed 6 weeks after cataract
 Answer (soal tanpa pilihan jawaban) = d. Begin the patient on atropine 1% one week prior to
surgery
 Answer = b. Anterior polar cataract
 Consequence CCC with 3,5 mm diameter = d. Hampers insertion of a posterior chamber IOL
 Answer = d. Placing air or SF6 gas in the anterior chamber
 IOL that has been most associated with corneal decompensation = a. Closed-loop anterior
chamber IOLs
 Answer = d. Temporary hyperopia due to corneal edema
 IOL for child, careful of = b. Myopic shift
 Accuracy of toric IOL placement = b. ......3:00 and 9:00 o'clock positions
 Answer = d. Anterior YAG capsulotomy
 Komplikasi cataract surgery in uveitis patient = b. Zonular laxity
 Dysphotopsias from IOL = b. Reassuring patients that are a common problem......
 IOL that prevent posterior capsular opacification = a. Sharp-edge acrylic IOL placed in the
capsular bag
2. COMPREHENSIVE OPHTHALMOLOGY
 PDR patient, indication for panretinal photocoagulation = iridocorneal angle
neovascularization
 FR atrophic retinal holes = lattice degeneration
 Chronic angle-closure glaucoma = peripheral iris bowing
 Sectoral palsy of pupillary sphincter = Adie's tonic pupil
 Chronic dry mouth = topical cyclosporine
  Subepithelial infiltrates = adenovirus infection = topical steroids
 Complication of panretinal photocoagulation = transient myopia
 Pupillary block can be aggravated by miotics
 Myopic shift = capsular contraction
 Recent episodes of visual loss in the left eye = IOL exchange
 OCT quality impaired by posterior subcapsular cataract
 Condition that leads to a sensory exotropia = macular disease

3. CORNEA/EXTERNAL DISEASE
 35-year-old woman with 1-year history of decreased vision in both eyes = Masson's
trichrome
 Organisme penyebab conjunctival mycetoma = Curvularia
 90 derajat
 Slit-lamp of 70-year-old woman abnormal = Indomethacin
 3-year-old girl protein deficiency = plasminogen deficiency
 Anteriorly displaced Schwalbe's line
 Siblings with similiar complaints
 Acanthamoeba = contact lens wearer = non-nutrient agar with bacterial overlay
 Predictor of late corneal neovascularization and pannus formation = amount of scleral and
limbal ischemia
 GO 7-day-old infant = erythromycin ointment
 60-year-old woman with systemic hypertension = Magnetic resonance angiogram
 Conjunctival intraepitelian neoplasia / CIN = HPV 18
 c. Polycarbonate lenses + vision loss may slowly progress with time
 d. Localized replacement of Bowman's layer by hyaline and fibrillar material
 Donor dengan penyakit apa yang BUKAN kontraindikasi jadi donor corneal tissue = lung
adenocarcinoma
 b. Primary acquired melanosis
 a. Keratitis in the setting of varicella-zoster virus
 For 6 months, an 80-year-old man has had redness of the left eye = conjunctival biopsy with
immunofluorescence analysis
 d. Serum phosphate levels
  a. Contact lens fitting
 d. Topical corticosteroids and oral acyclovir
 Descemet's detachment = inject air into the anterior chamber
 75-year-old woman with artificial tears have not helped = conjunctival resection
 Most important initial measurement to obtain in a child who has had poor vision since birth =
IOP
 35-year-old male has had recurrent episodes of pain and redness in both eyes = facial nerve
palsy
 Mitomycin C pterygium surgery = a. Melting of the scleral bed
 Recurrent corneal erosions = d. Granular corneal dystrophy
 C. Necrotizing anterior scleritis
 Corneal hydrops in keratoconus = d. Descemet's membrane
 A. Contact lens overrefraction
 Treatment for severe persistent corneal epithelial defects = c. Amniotic membrane graft
 B. A history of small, PERIPHERAL corneal trauma,.......
 Pseudopemphigoid = d. Can be caused by antiglaucoma drops
 A conjunctival biopsy with chronic conjunctivitis shows granulomatous nodules = a. Cat-
scratch disease
 Prominent staining with rose bengal = a. Inferonasal bulbar
 Abuse of topical anesthetic = a. Hypopyon
 After successful surgical repair of a full-thickness corneal laceration = a. Irregularity in
Bowman's layer
 Central corneal scar that extends into mid-stroma = c. Lamellar keratoplasty
 Poor prognosis of alkali chemical injury = c. Blanching of over half of the perilimbal vessels
 Injury of UV radiation = a. Loss of epithelial cells
 A. Corneal verticillata
 Macular corneal dystrophy = c. Involvement of the periphery and the center of the cornea
4. GLAUCOMA
 Angle-closure glaucoma = hyperopia
 3-month-old infant have Haab's striae = avoid Brimonidine
 Birefringence = scanning laser polarimetry
 Bilateral posterior embryotoxon = Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome
 a. Low-tension glaucoma
 ISNT rule = Inferior Superior Nasal Temporal ( kuadran neural rim paling tebal ke paling
tipis pada discus nonglaucomatous )
 Pregnancy = IOP DECREASE
 Her endothelium has a "beaten-bronze appearance", what management would you
recommend ? d. Glaucoma tube-shunt surgery
 After playing basketball = c. Krukenberg spindle
 C. This may indent the SCLERA and falsely narrow the angle
 SLT energy < ALT
 Measuring IOP in the setting of corneal scarring = d. Tono-Pen tonometer
 A patient has a "well-formed bleb" = c. Angle closure
 Anatomi iridocorneal angle dari POSTERIOR ke ANTERIOR = ciliary body band, scleral
spur, pigmented trabecular meshwork, nonpigmented TM, Schwalbe's line
 Lenticular status that has the highest risk of recurrent aqueous misdirection after pars
plana vitrectomy = d. Phakic eyes
 Side effect prostaglandin analogues = c. Hypertrichosis
 Visus turun dengan penghambat anhidrase karbonat karena = a. Corneal edema
 Rare circulating cells + Eight months ago the patient had a similiar episode that resolved
within days on eyedrops = d. Posner Schlossman syndrome
 Ocular characteristic that influences indentation tonometry ( Schiotz ) BUT NOT applanation
tonometry = c. Ocular rigidity
 Port-wine stain = b. Sturge-Weber syndrome
 One month following a trabeculectomy with adjunctive mitomycin C = b. Young patient
with myopia
 D. Scleral buckle ( retinal procedures that carries the highest risk of secondary ACG )
 Surgical arm = c. Cataract formation
 Obat yg tidak boleh diberikan pada pasien sickle cell disease = a. Acetazolamide
 C. Peripheral anterior synechiae
 In an emmetropic eye, which of the following lenses cause the least change in
magnification ? C. +66 D lens
 C. Wider ciliary body band than the fellow eye ( 13 tahun lalu trauma tumpul mata )
 Important FR for the development of glaucoma = c. Central corneal thickness
 C. Blood in Schlemm's canal
  C. Compression of the eye with the laser iridotomy lens
 Kelebihan Zeiss goniolens ketimbang Goldmann = a. It offers the ability to perform
compression..........
 Produce an arcuate scotoma, which stimulates glaucoma = a. Optic disc drusen
 Threshold values = a. Threshold static perimetry ( HATI2 PILIHAN D NYA
SUPRATHRESHOLD, JANGAN KEBALIK ! )
 Type of perimetry to detect glaucomatous visual field loss earlier than white-on-white
perimetry = c. Short-wavelength automated perimetry
 Variant of iridocorneal endothelial syndrome is characterized by a predominance of iris
changes = a. Progressive iris atrophy
 A. SLT and ALT appear to be equally effective
 Argon laser white burns = d. Epithelial downgrowth

5. NEURO-OPHTHALMOLOGY / ORBIT
 A. Electrophysiologic testing
 B. Infection
 C. Alternate cover testing
 B. Oscillopsia
 "Drooping" left upper eyelid = b. Choroidal folds
 D. Inferonasal blurring on Amsler grid testing
 D. Choroidal melanoma
 "Smudge" on right eye = d. Scotoma on Amsler grid testing OD
 A. Upgaze deficit
 D. Arcuate defects on visual field testing
 For 3 days a 46-year-old PREVIOUSLY HEALTHY woman has had acute visual loss in both
eyes = d. Multiple sclerosis
 She denies prior similiar episodes and has had no headaches, weight loss, or jaw pain with
chewing = b. Carotid ultrasound
 Neurofibromatosis type 1, kelainan matanya = c. Iris nodules
 A. Retinal artery occlusion
 A 15-year-old boy is seen for evaluation of blurred vision OU = a. Perimetry
 A 10-year-old boy was noted to have an ENLARGED BLIND SPOT = d. Congenital
anomaly
  A 12-year-old boy DEVELOPED DIPLOPIA AND SOME PAIN WITH EYE
MOVEMENT, WORSE ON UP AND LEFT GAZE = d. Tenderness of the right superonasal
orbit
 A 53-year-old woman lost consciousness following a MOTOR VEHICLE ACCIDENT = b.
Uncrossed diplopia in right gaze with a red lens
 5'2" and weights 220 pounds = d. Brisk pupillary response to light
 Her only medication is ORAL DOXYCYCLINE FOR ROSACEA = d. Scleritis
 C. Dilated superior ophthalmic vein
 A left third nerve palsy on 62-year-old man = d. Decreased sensation over the left brow
 B. Inflammatory optic neuropathy
 Soal gambar Chiari malformation = a. Down beating nystagmus
 Nuclear sclerotic cataracts = d. Punctate keratopathy on the right side
 B. Corticosteroids
 B. The lower eyelid appearance is an expected finding
 D. Restricted forced duction testing
 For the past week, an 82-year-old woman with HYPERTENSION AND
HYPERCHOLESTEROLEMIA = b. Oral corticosteroids
 B. Both pupils react briskly
 C. Junction of the optic nerve and chiasm
 Slowly progressive vision loss = b. Subfrontal tumor
 Inferior altitudinal visual field defect on the same side = a. Retrobulbar optic neuritis
 Right homonymous hemianopic scotoma = b. Left posterior occipital lobe
 B. Bilateral fourth cranial nerve palsies
 A patient presents with double vision and impaired eye movements in left eye = a.
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
 Nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy = a. A small, crowded optic disc
 Nuclear 3rd cranial nerve palsy = c. Complete unilateral 3rd cranial nerve palsy with
CONTRALATERAL SUPERIOR RECTUS PARESIS and bilateral ptosis
 Horizontal gaze palsy + ptosis + ataxia + areflexia = c. Miller-Fischer variant of Guillain-
Barre

6. OCULOPLASTICS / ORBIT
 Clinical finding that differentiates apraxia of eyelid opening from benign essential
blepharospasm = b. Eyebrow position relative to the orbital rim
 A. Temporal branch of the facial nerve
 a. Congenital ( type or cause of Horner syndrome that you can find heterochromia )
 Eschar on the roof of the mouth or nose of diabetic patient = c. Mucormycosis
 If the pupil affected by Horner syndrome FAILS TO DILATE with hydroxyamphetamine,
defek nya di = b. Postganglionic neuron
 Karakter dari congenital nevus yang jadi FR utama malignant degeneration = b. Size of the
lesion
 Tram track, dural tail = semua tanda meningioma
 MRD1 + MRD2 = b. Vertical interpalpebral fissure height
 Tes laborat sebelum preoperatif large capillary hemangioma = c. Platelet count
 Anterior and posterior limbs of the medial canthal tendon bridge = c. Lacrimal sac
 Trachoma, herpes, and pemphigoid = d. Active inflammation
 Imaging test to evaluate a slowly progressive facial nerve palsy with myokymia = a.
Scanning of the brainstem
 Multiple cutaneous inclusion cysts AROUND PUBERTY = b. Gardner syndrome
 Ipsilateral orbital pain and paresthesia = d. Symptomps implicate adenoid cystic carcinoma
 Imaging method for orbital apex, canal, and CAVERNOUS SINUS LESION = a. MRI scan
 If you suspect that a patient has a CAROTID CAVERNOUS FISTULA = a. Orbital CT scan
 Facial nerve palsy combined with hearing loss and vestibular dysfunction = a.
Cerebellopontine angle mass
 Pembesaran lacrimal sac diatas medial canthal tendon = c. Lacrimal sac tumor
 Ground-glass texture on CT scan = a. Fibrous dysplasia
 d. Lacrimal duct
 Orbital inflammatory disease commonly affects the RESPIRATORY SYSTEM and
KIDNEYS = a. Wegener granulomatosis
 b. Incisional biopsy incorporating the maximum thickness of the lesion
 Orbital cellulitis =
i. Anak2 = a. Single organism
ii. Dewasa = Polymicrobial
 Obat buat confirm Horner syndrome = c. Cocaine
  c. Aberrant regeneration
 Idiopathic intracranial hypertension = c. Cranial nerve VI paresis
 Ragged-red fibers = d. Mitochondrial myopathy
 Essential blepharospasm = d. Diplopia as a side effect may.........
 Treatment for CICATRICAL ENTROPION of upper eyelid = d. Eyelid margin rotation
 Protopsis in adults, caused by = a. Lymphoma
 Cicatrical entropion finding = c. Lower lid retraction when the patient opens her mouth
 Answer = d. A dermis fat graft is a good option in this patient
 Clinical features of blepharochalasis syndrome = b. Blepharoptosis
i. Cause of blepharoptosis = a. Aponeurotic ptosis
 Bilateral congenital dacryocystocele = b. Probing and marsupialization of the nasolacrimal
duct
 Idiopathic orbital inflammation = a. Pleomorphic cellular infiltrate
 Levator aponeurotic ptosis = c. Elevated eyelid crease
 C. Bicanalicular intubation of the NASOLACRIMAL DUCT

7. OPHTHALMIC PATHOLOGY / OCULAR ONCOLOGY

 Combined hamartoma of the retinal pigment epithelium and retina = c. Dysplastic glia
 Angioid streaks = d. Calcium
 BCC most likely to recur form = b. Morpheaform
 Most common epithelial tumor of the lacrimal gland = c. Pleomorphic adenoma
 Sebaceous cell carcinoma masquerade as = b. Recurrent chalazion
 Overlying pocket of liquefied vitreus = c. Lattice degeneration
 Diffuse choroidal hemangiomas associated with = c. Sturge-Weber syndrome
 Dermoid cyst = d. Appendages
 O-A-Glaucoma causes loss of = c. Nerve fiber layer and ganglion cell layer
 Thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy = c. Extraocular muscle myositis
 Granular pink = d. Oncocytoma
 Touton giant cells = c. Juvenile xanthogranuloma
 Epiretinal membranes = a. Glial cells
 Retinal tumors found in von Hippel disease = a. Hemangioblastoma
 Schnabel = d. Hyaluronic acid
  A. Subretinal fibrosis
 Reveals a loss of the inner retina = a. Retinal artery occlusion
 Ocular or oculodermal melanocytosis = a. Choroidal melanoma
 Lattice corneal dystrophy, deposition of what material in corneal stroma = b. Amyloid
 Asteroid bodies = d. Calcium
 WOULD NOT SUGGEST a risk for development malignant melanoma = a. Basilar
hyperplasia without atypia
 Lisch nodules = b. Melanocytic hamartoma
 Primary intraocular lymphoma = c. Vitreitis
 Unique lens changes after acute A-C glaucoma = c. Glaukomflecken
 Phacoanaphylactic uveitis = b. Zonal granulomatous inflammation
 Stromal deposits in macular corneal dystrophy = d. Alcian blue
 Universal histologic finding in DIABETIC EYES = b. Thickened basement membranes
 Corneal limbal dermoids = b. Choristoma
 Corneal deposits in granular dystrophy = a. Hyaline
 Dalen-Fuchs nodules = a. Histiocytes
 Systemic condition that associated with retinal pigment epithelial hamartomas = b.
Colorectal carcinoma
 Astrocytic hamartomas = b. Tuberous sclerosis complex

8. PEDIATRIC OPHTHALMOLOGY / STRABISMUS

 Fetal alcohol syndrome = b. Esotropia
 Principal reason that patients with oculocutaneous and ocular ALBINISM have decreased
vision = c. Foveal hypoplasia
 Epiblepharon = b. Skin and pretarsal muscle extending ABOVE the eyelid margin
 A. Anisometric amblyopia ( ada 2 soal yang jawabannya ini )
 C. Discontinue the suture adjustment and place the patient in a supine position
 A. Anomalous innervation of the lateral rectus by aberrant branches of oculomotor nuclei
 Milestone is significant = c. Verbal development sets limit of fixing and following to after
age 3 months
 Allergic conjunctivitis gak ngefek dengan oral antihistamine = c. Topical H1-receptor blocker
 Stargardt disease = c. Bilateral, symmetric, progressive change
 Cover testing = d. To assess binocular alignment in patients with suspected strabismus
 Brown syndrome = c. Deficient elevation in ADDUCTION, improved elevation in
ABDUCTION
 Coats disease = b. Yellow subretinal and intraretinal exudates
 Optic nerve hypoplasia = c. Normal to light perception
 Nasolacrimal duct obstruction patency = b. Metal-on-metal contact in the nose
 C. Prompt orbital biopsy
 A 3-year-old child with + 1.50 sphere = c. Observation
 C. Recent head trauma, absence of facial asymmetry, and a larger deviation on the left gaze
 C. Hospitalization and treatment with intravenous antibiotics
 Most common cause of pseudopapilledema in children = d. Optic disc drusen
 Classic TRIAD of primary congenital glaucoma = b. Epiphora, photophobia, and
blepharospasm
 Common clinical feature of infantile esotropia = b. Primary deviation greater than 30 prism
diopters
 C. Normal-sized or small ventricles + normal CSF composition
 A. Unilateral high myopia and amblyopia
 A 4-year-old child sees 20/25 have hyperopia +1.75 = d. Needs no treatment
 Charateristic of congenital ptosis = b. Decreased levator function
 Bayi 1 bulan dengan unilateral dense cataract with no red reflex = c. B-scan USG
 Inferior arcuate visual field defect in the right eye = a. B-scan ultrasonography
 A 12-year-old African American with 5 mm traumatic hyphema OD = d. Sickle cell
 A 6-month-old boy with bilateral edema, IOP OD 33, OS 29 = c. Trabeculotomy
 Nystagmus with aniridia = a. Hypoplasia
 Positive forced duction test = d. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
 Ocular albinism = d. Foveal hypoplasia
 Infant with 25 weeks gestational age ROP = d. Laser retinal photocoagulation
 Congenital superior oblique palsy = a. Facial asymmetry and a larger vertical deviation on
left gaze
 B. Excellent stereopsis
 A. Dissociated vertical deviation
 C. Episode of asthenopia, especially while reading
  Pseudopapilledema = b. Leakage of dye from optic disc vessels on fluorescein angiography
 Nystagmus with attempted abduction = c. Nystagmus blockage syndrome
 Differentiate Duane syndrome from a sixth cranial nerve palsy = c. Limited adduction of
the affected eye
 A 3-year-old girl with mild congenital Brown syndrome = d. Observation
 Duane syndrome = d. None, because diagnosis may be made on clinical grounds
 An electroretinogram indicated if vision improved in = c. In dim light compared to bright
light
 A. Neonatal seizures and jaundice
 Patient with esodeviation > 10 prism diopters = b. High AC/A esotropia
 Intermittent exotropia, measures the total deviation of strabismus phoric + tropic = c.
Alternate prism-cover test
 A 1-year-old patient is diagnosed with pseudoesotropia = b. Re-examination of ocular
aligment in 3 to 4 months
 A young male patient presents AFTER FACIAL TRAUMA and diagnosed with a SMALL
ORBITAL FLOOR FRACTURE = a. Observation ( Kalau tidak ada kegawatan, disarankan
tunggu 2 minggu untuk foto ulang supaya edema + perdarahannya hilang dahulu )

9. REFRACTIVE MANAGEMENT / INTERVENTION

 Mitomycin C used in laser refractive surgery = c. Reduce the incidence of corneal haze after
PRK
 How does radial keratotomy reduce myopia ? b. Radial incisions in corneal stroma result
in a stromal scar with subsequent corneal FLATTENING and reduction of myopia
 Coupling refer to within refractive surgery = d. the flattening of a cornea.........in the
meridian 90 derajat away
 Poor LASIK candidate = a. A predicted postoperative keratometry of 52.00 diopters
 Excimer laser = d. Removal of tissue is accomplished by photoablation
 Toric IOL = b. Remove the viscoelastic from behind the IOL
 Patient with a persistent epithelial defect following photorefractive keratectomy = d.
Punctal occlusion
 For the LASIK epithelial ingrowth shown = b. Peripheral, isolated nests of epithelial cells
 D. The true IOP is higher than 22 mmHg
 Feature that commonly found in patients with LASK flap macrostriae = c. Macrostriae
involve the full thickness of the LASIK flap
 C. Place the corneal cap in a moist chamber and proceed with treatment if the stromal bed is
large enough
 Intrastromal corneal ring segments ( ICRSs ), what is this limitation = c. Low to moderate
degrees of myopia can be treated
 Treatment for buttonhole in a LASIK flap = c. Replacement of the flap and a bandage contact
lens
 Interested in a multifocal IOL = c. The amount of corneal astigmatism
 Higher-order aberrations in refractive surgery = a. Symptoms can include glare, halos, or
ghosting
 Piggyback lenses = d. Removal of the lenses
 Patofisiologi pressure-induced stromal keratitis = c. It is a steroid response with elevated
IOP after LASIK
 Diffuse lamellar keratitis = a. Sterile inflammation at the LASIK flap interface
 A. Perform intraoperative pachymetry
 Conductive keratoplasty achieve its goal = c. It works by increasing the curvature of the
central cornea
 CK long-term effectiveness = d. Regression was found in treatment of hyperopia and
presbyopia
 "Blend zone" contraindicated = b. Deep ablations that go below the minimum residual
stromal bed thickness
 Process that responsible for securing a LASIK flap = a. Endothelial pump activity
 D. Dilation to assess the toric IOL's axis
 C. Indication for penetrating keratoplasty
 Inadequate suction with mechanical microkeratome = b. An incomplete flap
 C. Continued hyperopic shift..........6 months and 10 years posoperatively
 Complications after radial keratotomy = a. Glare and halos at night
 B. Cataract surgery with an accomodative IOL
 Membedakan infectious keratitis dengan diffuse lamellar keratitis = b. The location and depth
of the inflammation
 PCPIOL = d. A closed peripheral iridotomy with a shallow anterior chamber
 Anterior segment complication with posterior chamber phakic IOLs = a. Endothelial cell loss
 Microstriae affect surgical outcome = a. Rarely require intervention
 Femtosecond laser = c. Photodisruption
 Advantage that femtosecond laser have = a. Precise control of the flap diameter
 A. Photorefractive keratectomy over the LASIK flap
i. PK preferred over LASIK in = d. Epithelial basement membrane dystrophy
 Risk for a patient with glaucoma who undergoes photorefractive keratectomy ( PRK ) for the
treatment of myopia = a. Corticosteroid induced elevated IOP
 PRK is better than LASIK in condition of = a. After an epithelial defect is obtained during
LASIK on the first eye
 C. Decentered corneal ablation
 A 23-year-oldpatient get LASIK 4 months ago, sekarang datang abis trauma = a. Flap lift and
repositioning with hypotonic saline
 ......for refractive error of +2.75 D and who has a plano manifest refraction at 1 month = c.
HYPEROPIC manifest refraction at 1 year due to hyperopic regression

 Epikeratophakia or epikeratoplasty = c. Delayed epithelial healing

i. Disadvantage = d. It is UNLIKELY to reduce regular astigmatism
 Dibanding penetrating keratoplasty, EPIKERATOPLASTY menghasilkan = b. Slower
recovery of final visual acuity
 Multiple preoperative corneal markings = c. Free cap
 C. Pocket of fluid in the flap interface ( interface flap fluid )
 IOL pindah axially toward the cornea setelah 6 minggu post operasi = d. Myopic shift
 Intrastromal corneal ring devices ( INTACS ) = b. 39-year-old patient suffering from
keratoconus for the past 12 years
 Keratoconus higher-abberation = d. Vertical coma
 Forme fruste keratoconus, all EXCEPT = a. 2 D of astigmatism at 180 derajat
 INTACS, bagian apa to determine the refractive power = d. Thickness of the ring segment
 Measure amplitude of accomodation = b. Near card, +3 D lens, and a ruler
 ..... with near activities = b. Accomodative amplitude
 Indication that adequate suction has been obtained with a microkeratome = d. Pupil
dilation
 Best treatment option for a patient with decreased vision and central map-dot-fingerprint
corneal changes = b. Phototherapeutic keratectomy
 i. MDF dystrophy, best diagnosed by = b. Broad-beam tangential evaluation at the
slit lamp
 A. At the slit lamp with patient upright
 IOL selection in patients who develop cataract after LASIK is complicated, because = b.
Keratometry measurements inaccurately reflect corneal refractive power
 Spherical equivalent of Jackson cross cylinder = b. Zero
 LASIK flap complications for this patient = c. Epithelial defect
 Epitelial basement membrane dystrophy carries a greater risk in LASIK, which is = c.
Diffuse lamellar keratitis
 The refraction is -7,00 sphere OD and -8,00 sphere OS = b. Emmetropia OD, -3,00 OS
 Three and 9 o'clock staining indicates all EXCEPT = a. Rotation of lens
 4-year-old visual acuity test = c. Linear HOTV
 An air traffic controller = d. -3,25 sph
 The best fit for a rigid gas-permeable lens = a. Is resting under the upper lid
 A 44-year-old patient's spectacle correction is -8,00 sphere with a vertex distance of 16 mm =
b. -7,00 D
 Pasien mau pergi ski trip, minta contact lens only for recreational activities = c. Spherical soft
hydrogel lenses
 A patient complains of a starburst pattern and haze......... = d. Capsular opening too small
for scotopic pupil

10. RETINA / VITREOUS

 VKH syndrome = b. Alopecia and poliosis
 Vitrectomy surgery to treat what complication of diabetic retinopathy ? c. Vitreous
hemorrhage
 Preventive for intermediate, nonexudative age-related macular degeneration = d.
Antioxidants and zinc
 Most common complication of type 1 juxtafoveal retinal teleangiectasis = d. Macular
edema
 Macular complication associated with subretinal hemorrhage may result from
degenerative myopia = c. Choroidal neovascularization
 Common finding in a "spontaneous" retinal dialysis = c. Retinal elevation in the inferior
temporal quadrant
 West Nile virus = MOSQUITO
 FR dari BRVO = a. Systemic hypertension
 Intravitreal ranibizumab pada BRVO = d. Macular edema
 CRVO, confirm diagnosis with finding of = a. Amaurotic pupil
 Most likely associated with CRVO = b. POAG
 Common visual loss with acute BRVO = b. Macular edema
 Management of macular edema associated with CRVO = a. Intravitreal ranibizumab
 B. More common in subtropical and tropical climates
 Study to detect suspected vitreomacular traction = d. Optical coherence tomography
 D. Bilateral intermediate or unilateral advanced nonexudative AMD
 D. Idiopathic
 Ideal candidate for pneumatic retinopexy = a. Phakic patient........horshoe tear at 10 o'clock
 AMD and new onset metamorphopsia or unexplained blurred vision = d. Fluorescein
angiography
 What pharmaceutical agent does not directly affect vascular endothelial growth factor = d.
Verteporfin
 Recent onset of symptoms due to central serous choroidopathy = a. Observation with close
monitoring
 D. Individual symptoms and impact on lifestyle
 C. Pars plana vitrectomy with or without scleral buckle
 White dot syndrome = d. Usually unilateral
 Nondiabetic, normotensive 25-year-old African American man = c. Sickle cell anemia
 Bacterial endophthalmitis di USA = d. Following cataract surgery
 C. Familial dominant drusen
 For retinal tears without associated retinal detachment = c. Laser or cryopexy treatment, if
acute and symptomatic
 Lattice degeneration, kapan di laser retinopexy atau cryopexy = b. Symptomatic retinal
tear
 Dense vitreous hemorrhages = b. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
 Inflammatory characteristic feature is present in sympathetic ophthalmia = d. Sparing of
inflammation in the choriocapillaris
 Choroidal rupture = c. Recent blunt trauma
 2 entities that causative organism in an otherwise HEALTHY 40-year-old man = a. Herpes
simplex and varicella-zoster virus
 Scleral buckle dipilih jadi treatment rhegmatogenous retinal detachment pada keadaan =
a. Macula-on, inferior retinal dialysis
 A. Patients with the recent onset symptoms may be closely observed for spontaneous
resolution
 D. Granulomatous anterior uveitis
 Most common cause of visual loss in NPRD retinopathy = b. Diabetic macular edema
 OCT with full thickness-macular hole = c. Pars plana vitrectomy, posterior hyaloid
removal, fluid-gas exchange
 Which of the following steps is crucial to high rates of hole closure = b. Removing
posterior vitreous cortex
 D. All symptomatic holes with associated traction should be treated
 Shaken baby syndrome = b. Subdural hematoma (ada yang jawabannya vitreous hemorrhage)
 B. The ganglion cell layer is separated from the nerve fiber layer
 A 19-year-old male was struck in the right eye with a paintball = d. Observation
 Progressive outer retinal necrosis = b. Occurs in severely immunocompromised patients
 .....circumferential 150-degree peripheral retinal tear with inverted flap = b. Pars plana
vitrectomy, complete fluid-gas exchange, laser photocoagulation
 In repair of acute-onset rhegmatogenous retinal detachment, delay dari diagnosa ke surgery
yang bikin prognosis jelek = b. 1 week
 Macular lesions most likely to be associated with complete posterior vitreous detachment =
a. Macular epiretinal membrane
 Pasien dengan diabetic macular edema + extensive lipid deposition in the macula = d. Plasma
lipid profile
 Mowing the lawn = d. Pars plana vitrectomy with removal of the foreign body
 Acute retinal sclerosis ( ARN ) = c. Discrete white retinal lesions
i. Soal ARN typical feature = c. Peripheral retinitis with circumferential spread,
OCCLUSIVE VASCULITIS, MARKED VITRITIS
ii. Clinical finding is associated with ARN = d. Natural history of rapid progression
 A medium-sized choroidal melanoma = d. Blurred vision
 A 63-year-old woman developed an epiretinal membrane.........surgery need not be addresed ?
a. High rates of epiretinal membrane recurrence
  Asymptomatic atrophic retinal hole = b. Observation
 Common feature of hemorrhagic choroidal detachment = d. Increased IOP
 Under what circumstances might prophylactic treament for asymptomatic retinal holes
considered = a. Subretinal fluid larger than 2 disc diameters
 Which of the following conditions is relevant to the initiation or continuation of focal laser
photocoagulation for diabetic macular edema = d. Recent IV fluid administration
 AMD associated with increased rate of subfoveal choroidal neovascularization = b. A single
large druse
 Which of the following complications could result in irreversible visual loss following
panretinal photocoagulation therapy = b. Traction retinal detachment involving the fovea

11. UVEITIS
 Therapy that INEFFECTIVE when treating CMV = b. Oral VALACYCLOVIR ( jangan
kebalik sama VALGANCICLOVIR )
 Complication Borrelia burgdorferi infection = d. Seventh cranial nerve palsy
 Antibody = b. A glycoprotein able to bind to a specific molecular moiety
 Terapi yg permanently cross-links DNA = c. Cyclophosphamide
 Uveitis treatment that CONTRAINDICATED in MS = a. TNF alpha inhibitors
 Rarely manifests with a hypopyon = d. Pars planitis
 D. Dense vitritis and retinitis near the macula
 Greatest relative risk for corneal transplant rejection = a. Stromal vascularization of the
recipient cornea
 D. Previous viral meningitis
 Systemic medication has been associated with ocular inflammation = a. Biphosphonates
 Therapy for patient with non-necrotizin anterior scleritis yg gk mempan dengan PO NSAID =
b. Periocular triamnicolone injection
 B. Multiple evanescent white dot syndrome
 B. RPR for syphilis
 Uveitis therapy has the highest risk causing secondary glaucoma = d. Intravitreal
fluocinolone 0.59 mg implant
 Osteoporosis = d. Prednisone
 May benefit most from pars plana vitrectomy = b. Intermediate uveitis
 Mechanism DOES NOT CONTRIBUTE of elevation IOP in uveitis patient = b. Increased
aqueous production secondary to systemic diuretic use
 A. Conversion of macrophages to giant cells that form caseating granulomas
 Aqueous or vitreous aspirate in unilateral uveitis child = c. Risk of dispersing malignant
retinoblastoma cells
 B. Recognition of antigen by memory T cells........
 Tes buat sarcoidosis = d. Histopathology of conjunctival nodule, lung specimen,......
 Acute sama progressive outer retinal necrosis, beda di = d. Immunosuppresion,....
 B. OP may be labile, with a higher risk........
 A. Prednisolone acetate 1%
 A 53-year-old Caucasian woman = b. Macular choroidal neovascularization
 A 62-year-old Caucasian patient has bilateral granulomatous panuveitis = b. Loss of
tolerance of intraocular antigens.......
 Sympathetic ophthalmia = b. Autoimmune response to a previously sequestered antigen
 In patients with VKH disease, the presence of a DIFFUSE CHOROIDITIS is found in which
stage = c. Early ( acute uveitic )
 However, despite predinosolone acetate 1% drops per 2 hours + oral predniosone 20 mg/day,
pada pasien masih ditemukan persistent active anterior uveitis ( 2+ cells ) = b. Initiate
systemic immunomodulatory therapy
 Culture-positive Propionibacterium acnes after cataract surgery = b. Remove the intraocular
lens and capsule
 In a NONIMUNNOSUPPRESSED ADULT with chronic bilateral anterior uveitis, tes apa
= d. Specific anti-treponemal serologies
 Pasien dengan chronic anterior uveitis, IOP 24 mmHg di OU. Gak ada tanda glaukoma
apapun = c. Treatment with a topical, ocular-hypotensive medication
 Which patient is most likely to have scleritis = d. A 40-year-old man with red eye, throbbing
eye pain........ and NONHEALING SKIN LESIONS
 Which patient is most likely to have primary CNS/intraocular lymphoma = c. A 65-year-old
woman with intese vitritis, subretinal infiltrates, and MENTAL CONFUSION
 Ocular inflammatory disease that most commonly occurs in MS = d. Intermediate uveitis
 Indikasi buat periocular corticosteroid injection = a. Unilateral intermediate uveitis associated
with macular edema
  Common cause of severe visual loss pada pasien dengan punctate inner choroiditis = d.
Choroidal neovascularization
 Tanda pada pasien dengan acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy = b.
Well-demarcated, FLAT, SUBRETINAL LESSIONS at the level of retinal pigment
epithelium
 Funduscopic examination of a 38-year-old man with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome,
most common symptom = c. Floaters ( Diagnosa nya CMV retinitis )
 Uveitis yang terjadi following a nonocular bacterial infection of mucosal tissue = d. Anterior
uveitis ( Biasanya pasien yang positif HLA-B27, makanya infeksi GI apa genitourinary jadi
uveitis )
 In a patient with visually significant cataract + ACTIVE uveitis, operasi katarak
diindikasikan bila = d. Phacolytic glaucoma
 DD 3-year-old child with hypopyon uveitis = d. Retinoblastoma ( karena sel tumor bisa
berakumulasi di aqueous humor )
 Patient with serpiginous choroiditis = c. Old, scarred lesions may be present in the newly
diagnosed eye

12. SOAL ANGKA

 Mortality rate for iris melanoma = d. 4%
 Success rate for chemoreduction therapy in retinoblastoma WITHOUT diffuse subretinal = c.
90%
 Choroidal melanoma, evidence of metastatic disease = c. 2%
 Lattice degeneration have concomitant atrophic retinal holes = 1%
 For those with primary CNS lymphoma, what percentage of patients have intraocular
involvement = c. 25%
 B. More than 5% of untreated candidemia..........
 HZO = b. Approximately 90% of individuals over 15 years of age have been infected with
VZV
 Typical setting for argon laser peripheral iridoplasty = b. 0.5 sec duration, 500 mikrometer
spot, 250 mW power
 C. An APHAKIC patient with a postoperative IOP of 5 mmHg
 Acntic keratoses has at least a 10% chance = b. Squamous cell carcinoma
 A. Preoperative keratometry of 41
  C. +2.25 -2.75 x 115 derajat
 D. +0.50
 What is the probability of each of child's siblings developing a retinoblastoma = c. 45%
 Proportion of patients with syphilitic uveitis has a negative result when subjected to RPR
testing = d. About 33%
 Ibu2 pengen pake makeup tanpa kacamata = d. OD -3.00 sph, OS -3.00 sph
 Answer = d. 0.5 to 10 D less than that calculated for in-the-bag fixation

13. SOAL GENETIKA + TUMOR

 Most common primary intraocular malignancy found in adults = d. Choroidal melanoma
 Superior limbic keratoconjunctivitis = patogenesis nya belum diketahui, tetapi pasien
biasanya punya riwayat penyakit TIROID
 Salzmann nodular degeneration, etiologi nya = a. Postinflammatory fibrosis
 Episcleritis = b. Inflammatory bowel disease
 Inflammatory bowel disease = b. Retinal vasculitis
 Plateau iris = b. Anteriorly positioned ciliary processes
 Pigment dispersion syndrome = c. Midperipheral iris transillumination defects
 Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome = c. Smaller than normal teeth
 Unilateral facial cutaneous angioma, hemiplegia, glaucoma = d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
 An abduction deficit with lid fissure narrowing in adduction and widening in abduction = b.
Duane syndrome
 A 13-day-old infant with esotropia + poor suck reflex = a. Mobius syndrome
 A 16-year-old boy experiences acute bilateral visual lose = b. Mitochondrial DNA testing
 Adenoid cystic carcinoma spreading to skull base = c. Perineural invasion
 Cross-striation ( Rhabdomyosarcoma ) on electron microscopy = d. Chemotherapy and
radiation
 Best approach for treating a low-grade lymphoma CONFINED TO THE ORBIT = d.
Radiation therapy
 B. Lentigo maligna melanoma
 Nerve sheath meningioma that doesn't extend outside the orbit = c. Stereotactic, fractioned
radiation therapy
 Eyelid malignancy that spread along nerves = c. SCC
  RMS with highest survival rate = c. Pleomorphic
 Malignant melanoma of the eyelid MOST LIKELY = b. Dysplastic nevus syndrome
 Malignant melanoma of the eyelid with maximal depth of 1.2 mm = b. Lymphoscintigraphy
with sentinel node biopsy
 Orbital RMS = c. Subtotal resection may be adequate with adjuvant chemotherapy and
radiation
 Sebaceous adenocarcinoma = d. Map biopsies should be performed
 BCC = d. Eyelash loss
 Classic nodular BCC = a. Excision with frozen section control of margins and primary
reconstruction as indicated
 A previously healthy 6-year old boy presents with rapid onset of unilateral PAINLESS
protopsis = a. RMS of the orbit
 Bull's eye maculopathy = c. Tay-Sachs disease
 A 5-year-old asymptomatic child is noted to have leukocoria, marked elevation of retina,
visible immediately behind the lens = b. Coats disease
 High myopia = b. Down syndrome
 Primary ocular lymphoma = d. Bilateral ocular involvement
 ROP kalau sudah dewasa, bisa komplikasi = b. Cataract
 A 22-year-old with night blindness, constricted visual fields, posterior subcapsular cataracts,
and CME = c. Retinitis pigmentosa
 Sarcoid uveitis = a. "Candle-wax" drippings
 Ciliary body melanoma = b. Astigmatism
 "Sentinel" keratic precipitates = c. Glaucomatocyclitic crisis (Posner-Schlossman
syndrome)
 Patient presents with MENINGISMUS + exudative retinal detachment = b. VKH disease
 Adjunctive capsular tension ring = a. Marfan syndrome, Weill-Marchesani syndrome, and
pseudoexfoliation syndrome
 Sign of malignant transformation of a choroidal nevus = increase in basal dimension

14. MICROORGANISM
 Unilateral granulomatous conjunctivitis with lymphadenopathy = a. Bartonella henselae
 C. 6 to 15 cells per high-powered field
 Who responded to HAART = b. Immune recovery uveitis
  Lyme disease = b. Serum antibody titers by Western blot
i. Terapi = a. Doxycycline
 Decrease incidence of CMV retinitis = b. HAART
 Endophtalmitis following cataract surgery = d. Propionibacterium acnes
 Infectious crystalline keratopathy = c. Streptococcus viridans
 Mooren ulcer = biasanya pasien memiliki infeksi Hepatitis C
i. Management nya = a. Surgical resection
 Cause of chronic follicular conjunctivitis = a. Glaucoma medication
 Best management of neonatal GO conjunctivitis = c. Systemic antibiotics
 Most common nonviral pathogens for infectious keratitis in North America = d. Gram-
negative bacteria
 Adult cellulitis = c. Polymicrobial sinusitis
 Most common cause of acute conjunctivitis in children = a. Bacterial
 A 2-year-old girl with recent UPPER RESPIRATORY INFECTION = c. Orbital
lymphangioma
 A soft contact lens wearer = a. Vancomycin 5% and tobramycin 1.4%
 A 42-year-old man complains of sudden vision loss in both eyes = d. Varicella-zoster, herpes
simplex, and CMV
 Most common intraocular infection in AIDS patients = d. CMV retinitis
 Ocular toxocariasis, vitreous biopsy nya ditemukan = b. Eosinophils
 West Nile virus = a. WNV is most often contracted via mosquito bites

15. OBAT
 Answer = d. Topical latanoprost
 Neurotrophic keratopathy can be precipitated by beta blockers, so it's contraindicated in this
case
 Blepharitis = recent medical treatment for prostate cancer
 Answer = c. Alfuzosin
 Obat hipotensif untuk mengatasi spike IOP setelah cataract surgery atau trabeculoplasty = c.
Apraclonidine
 Therapy yg harus dihindari pada G6PD deficiency = c. Dapsone
 Vortex keratopathy = d. Hydroxychloroquine
 Kortikosteroid pada trauma alkali ke kornea aman dipakai saat = a. First 2 weeks
 A patient with HZO 3 MONTHS EARLIER = a. Topical prednisolone acetate 1%
 From the greatest to the least, frequency of recurrent corneal dystrophy = b. Lattice >
granular > macular ( LGM )
 A patient complains of pain and blurred vision in one eye for 2 days = b. Topical trifluridine
 Carry warnings against use in glaucoma = c. Slit to grade 1 narrow angles
 Drugs that lowering IOP by INCREASING AQUEOUS OUTFLOW = d. Pilocarpine
 Adjunctive antifibrotic agents = d. Bleb infection
 Side-effect of prostaglandin analog = a. Iris color change
 Chronic latanoprost therapy = b. Green with tan pigment
 White glistening scleral spur, torn iris processes = c. Dorzolamide
 Considering pseudotumor cerebri, medication may be relevant = a. Tetracycline
 A 45-year-old man with acute painless visual loss in the left eye.......LISINOPRIL = a. No
specific therapy indicated to improve vision
 NOT A REPORTED side effect botulinum toxin injection = d. Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
 Oral prednisone side effect = a. Psychosis
 Atropine penalization, parents must be instructed what complication = c. Flushing
 Cyclopegic for adults = b. Tropicamide 1%
 Placebo-controlled, randomized trial = d. None
 Medication that has NO ASSOCIATION with the development of retinal vasculitis = a.
Ciprofloxacin
 Prednisone di uveitis should be limited to = a. 10 mg or less
 A. Oral NSAIDs may be adversely effect renal function and elevate the systemic blood
pressure
 For which diagnosis that oral immunosuppresive therapy is indicated = b. Retinal vasculitis
with vascular occlusion associated with Behcet disease
 Medication that has an action DISSIMILAR to the others = a. Infliximab
 A patient with chronic graft-vs-host disease treated with cyclosporine presents with fever of
unknown origin. AB apa yang KONTRAINDIKASI = c. Tobramycin
 A 84-year-old patient dapet obat tetes predinisolone actetate 1% tiap jam + atropine 1% 1
tetes 4x/hari, systemic effect apa yg muncul = c. Delirium, tachycardia, and elevated IOP
  Side effect mycophenolate mofetil = a. GI upset
 Intraocular ganciclovir implant pada CMV retinitis = b. Lower risk of disease progression

16. PSEUDOEXFOLIATIVE
 Angle-closure glaucoma = b. Pseudoexfoliative glaucoma
 Pseudoexfoliation syndrome = saat operasi katarak, bisa spontaneous dislocation of the lens
 Ethnic group greater risk developing PS = a. Scandinavians
 In PS, cataract extraction can be difficult because = c. Poor pupilary dilation
 Pseudoexfoliation syndrome = b. Patients with PS may experience spontaneous dislocation of
the intraocular lens.....
 Also, PS increase risk of = c. Anterior capsular contraction ( phimosis )
 FR capsular contraction = pseudoexfoliation syndrome
 Highest likelihood of successful trabeculectomy = d. 80-year-old patient with
pseudoexfoliation
 Narrow angles are found more commonly in = d. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome
 Cataract extraction is associated with higher rates of vitreous loss = c. Pseudoexfoliation
syndrome
 Pseudoexfoliation syndrome = a. Basement membrane material

17. IMAGING MODALITY + OPERATION TECHNIQUE

 Methods that BIREFRINGENCE is an important factor = d. Scanning laser polarimetry
i. Iridoplasty is MOST USEFUL in = c. Plateau iris
 In which condition trabeculectomy most successful = d. Previous clear cornea cataract
extraction
 Congenital glaucoma surgical procedure = a. Goniotomy
 Trabeculectomy or goniotomy most successful when symptoms of primary congenital
glaucoma present at age = b. 6 months of age
 Thyroid orbitopathy = b. Orbital decompression, then strabismus surgery, followed by eyelid
surgery
 Based on the results of the Goldmann test = a. Anomalous optic nerves
 Intermittent diplopia for 5 years = a. Measurement of vertical fusional amplitudes
 Which paranasal sinus is most likely involved in aspergillosis = b. Sphenoid
 Headache associated with scintillations = a. MRI
 Obese female patient + papilledema + possible idiopathic intracranial hypertension = b.
Contract MRI of the head with magnetic resonance venography
 A. Left medial longitudinal fasciculus
 Sensitive test for myasthenia gravis = a. Single-fiber electromyography
 Neuroimaging Horner syndrome = a. Neck and carotid arteries
 Diabetic vasculopathic palsy 8 weeks ago = c. Neuroimaging to rule out tumor or aneurysm
 Patient with pseudotumor cerebri = b. Detailed eye examinations including formal perimetry
 C. Lateral tarsal strip plus skin graft
 Brow ptosis = b. Pretrichial endoscopic forehead lift
 Cavernous hemangioma = a. Contrast enhancement with both computed tomography and
MRI
 ................
 Repair a LARGE LOWER EYELID defects >60% = d. HUGHES tarsoconjunctival flap with
a full-thickness skin graft
 UPPER EYELID defects >60% = c. A TENZEL semicircular flap may be an option in
OLDER PATIENTS
 Moh's excision of a basal cell carcinoma = c. Tarsoconjunctival flap ( Hughes procedure )
plus skin graft
 ................
 MRD +1 mm; lid fissure 5 mm; lid excursion 4 mm = c. Frontalis suspension
 Evisceration better than enucleation in scenario of = c. Extensive conjunctival scarring
 A 60-year-old adult......complete limitation of adduction, elevation, and depression in the
left eye = c. Serum HgbA1c
 Toddler with 6th cranial nerve palsy = d. Neuroimaging
 Epikeratoplasty is for = c. Keratoconus
 Acute onset CRAO = d. Westergren sedimentation rate
 Test to determine chloroquine toxicity = a. Visual field testing ( Humphrey 10-2 ) with a red
target
 Ocular histoplasmosis = d. Fundus fluorescein angiogram
 Late-onset complication >6 weeks after a scleral buckle = a. Buckle extrusion
 Indication for chorioretinal biopsy = d. Sight-threatening chorioretinitis with negative work-
up that is nonresponsive to therapy
18. SYSTEMIC DISEASE
 Schizophrenic patient = b. Atopic dermatitis
 Prominent corneal nerve = CT scan of thyroid gland
 Fine punctate staining = b. Thyroid stimulating hormone / TSH
 Cause of elevated episcleral venous pressure = d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
 Kawasaki disease = c. Coronary artery aneurysm
 Bilateral optic atrophy, deafness, cataracts, and premacular membranes = c.
Neurofibromatosis type 2
 Interferon in patients with demyelinating optic neuritis ( DON ) = b. Lessen the risk of
clinically definite MS in some patients
i. IV corticosteroid in DON = c. Speed the onset of visual recovery
 Dyschromatopsia = d. Tuberculosis treated for 10 months
 Carotid artery dissection = b. Facial pain
 Transient monocular blindness for 2 minutes after picking up something heavy on two
seperate occasions = c. Patent foramen ovale
 A low-risk profile MS = b. Normal MRI of the brain
 Common ocular symptoms of increased intracranial pressure = b. Transient visual
obscurations and double vision
 A 75-year-old man complains of both transient loss of vision and worse vision in the right
eye IN BRIGHT LIGHT = b. CTA or MRA or carotid ultrasound to look for carotid
occlusion on the right side
 A 40-year-old with vision loss, disc swelling, subretinal YELLOW infiltrates, retinal
phlebitis = b. ACE level and chest imaging
 Headaches and encephalopathy has bilateral optic disc swelling = c. Malignant systemic
hypertension
 Arteriovenous fistula affecting the orbit = b. Basal skull fracture
 A patient has a known disease in cavernous sinus = a. Visual loss
 Graves ophthalmopathy = d. Hyperthyroidism
i. Most common ocular manifestation = c. Eyelid retraction
 A newborn infant is diagnosed with congenital cataract unilateral = b. Persistent fetal
vasculature ( PFV )
 Iridocyclitis associated with JRA = b. Chronic and asymptomatic
 Uveitis in pauciarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis = c. Bilateral chronic anterior uveitis
  Most common ocular complication of rheumatoid arthritis = a. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
 Screening uveitis in patients under AGE 6 newly diagnosed with juvenile RA = c. Every 3
months in patients with PAUCIARTICULAR disease and a POSITIVE ANA RESULT
 A 29-year-old Caucasian womean residing in eastern USA..........Examination disclose a
vitritis WITH NO RETINAL OR CHOROIDAL LESIONS = d. Lyme disease
 Placement of IOL is CONTRAINDICATED with what diagnosis = c. Uveitis associated with
juvenile RA
 A 32-year-old woman complained of "drooping" of both eyelids = a. Cardiac conduction
deficits
 A 19-year-old deaf patient with a known pigmentary retinopathy = c. Cardiac conduction
defect
 Over 3 months, a 8-year-old boy has developed WORSENING DIPLOPIA AND A MILD
TREMOR = d. Midbrain

19. ANATOMY LOCATION

 A 79-year-old woman...........There is decreased corneal sensation and decreased blinking on
the left = c. Cerebellopontine angle
 Rebound nystagmus = a. Cerebellar hemisphere
 Gray line is formed by = d. Pretarsal orbicularis muscle
 Orbital CT-scan of a patient with dural cavernous sinus fistula = a. Superior ophthalmic vein
 Naso-orbital-ethmoid fractures = a. Epiphora
 Infant with cortical visual impairment = c. Normal pupillary examination
 Onset of left ptosis 2 days ago = d. Imaging to rule out intracranial aneurysm
 Tes untuk corneal light reflex, prism, and pupil/iris landmarks = c. Krimsky test
 Nasolacrimal duct obstruction in 4-month-old healthy infant = b. Crigler massage
 Hartmann-Shack wavefront sensor = d. Cornea, anterior chamber, lens, vitreous
 A 6-year-old boy with neuroblastoma is found to have acquired Horner syndrome = d.
Primary cervical chain
 Injury mechanism of scleral integrity that has the best anatomic prognosis = a. Metal-on-
metal projectile
 Sudden onset of severe headaches and "spots" in both eyes = b. Lumbar puncture
 C. The diagnosis of syphilitic uveitis require lumbar puncture.........
20. LABORATORY + OTHER TEST
 Keratometry values should be utilized for this patient = b. Values for which the change in
manifest..........
 Chronic, bilateral, foreign body sensation which is WORSE AT THE END OF THE DAY =
anti-La antibodies
 50-year-old woman notes 1 week of nasal swelling and redness = anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic
antibody
 Retinal vasculitis and scleritis, tes spesifiknya = d. Serum antineutrophil cystoplasmic
antibodies
 Wegener granulomatosis = b. C-ANCA antibody

21. SURGICAL PROCEDURE

 Striae di kornea = c. Tight tunnel incision
 Postocclusion surge = a. Reduce the maximum vacuum setting
 CCI > limbal incision, karena CCI = a. It is self-sealing
 During CCC, lens nucleus + capsular bag rotate with application of capsular traction = d. Use
capsular hooks or a capsular tension ring to stabilize the bag
 HLA-B27 uveitis, type of anesthesia that CONTRAINDICATED = a. Peribulbar
 "Stop and chop" = b. Add viscoelastic gel and then remove the phacoemulsification needle
from the eye
 Maneuver when you suspect a posterior capsule rupture = c. Continue irrigation at foot
position 1 and place dispervise ophthalmic viscoelastic gel into the anterior chamber
 CCC, lalu capsular tear has extended radially beyond the edge of the iris = b. Irrigate/aspirate
liquid cortical material, then restart CCC in the opposite direction
 Triple procedure = a. Corneal edema ( jawaban YANG PALING PENDEK )
 Cataract surgery in nanophtalmos = c. Use of a highly cohesive or highly retentive
viscoelastic material
 LARGE ESODEVIATION = a. Transposition of the vertical recti
 Exotropic Duane syndrome = a. Recession of the lateral rectus muscle in the involved eye
 Esotropic Duane syndrome = b. RECESSION of the medial rectus muscle on the side of the
head tilt
 Patients with Duane syndrome, surgical procedure to treat upshoots and downshoots = d. Y-
splitting of the lateral rectus muscle
22. FUCHS
 Postoperative corneal edema = b. Fuchs dystrophy
 Unilateral stellate keratic precipitates, cataract development, and increased risk of glaucoma
= a. Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis
 Tanda di Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis IN THE ABSENCE OF PRIOR OCULAR
SURGERY = c. Diffuse stellate keratoprecipitates

23. STUDY
 EVStudy showed that = b. If the vision is hand motion or better,......
 PMMA IOL = d. For transscleral suture fixation of a lens
 CNTGS = c. Treatment significantly reduced glaucoma progression..........
 AGIS = c. High IOP prior to laser trabeculoplasty
 In the surgical arm CIGTS = d. Cataract formation
 UKPDS = d. HT worsens diabetic retinopathy regardless of glucose control
 EMGT = a. Was associated with a 10% decrease in the risk of glaucoma progression
 Ocular Hypertension Treatment Study = d. Patients with ocular hypertension and thinner
corneas.......

24. CME
 Cystoid macular edema following cataract extraction = c. Vitreomacular traction
 CME after cataract surgery in the nondiabetic patient = a. Intravitreal corticosteroid injection
 Complication that cause vision loss after transscleral cyclophotocoagulation = cystoid
macular edema
 Retinitis pigmentosa, pasien2 tersebut penyebab kehilangan central visus nya adalah cystoid
macular edema
 Cystoid macular edema = c. Periocular or intravitreal corticosteroid therapy

25. GENETIKA
 Retinitis pigmentosa = autosomal DOMINANT A 75-year-old woman complains of
progressive difficulty seeing in the dark during the last 10 years = b. Autosomal dominant
retinitis pigmentosa
  von Hippel-Lindau disease = d. Autosomal dominant inheritance
 A 9-year-old girl was found to have reduced visual acuity in a SCHOOL-screening
examination = a. Autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
 Stargardt disease = b. Autosomal recessive
 Ectopia lentis et pupillae = a. Autosomal RECESSIVE pattern
 FR blepharophimosis syndrome = c. Epicanthus inversus
i. Inheritence pattern dari BS = b. Autosomal dominant
 Oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy = b. Autosomal dominant or recessive
i. OMD yang di tes = d. Genetic testing
 Angle-closure glaucoma = hyperopic elderly Asian woman
 Juvenile OAG = TIGR/MYOC
 HLA-A29 = b. Birdhost chorioretinopathy
 HLA-B27 = a. Anterior uveitis
 Adamantiades-Behcet disease = c. HLA-B8
 Highest prevalence POAG = d. African Americans
 Iris and ciliary body colobomas = d. Trisomy 13

26. LEAST / EXCEPT

 NOT A CAUSE of ocular hypotony = a. Hyphema
 Cause of hypotony in chronic anterior uveitis = d. Ciliary body membranes resulting in
ciliary body detachment
 Postoperative serous choroidal detachment = d. Hypotony
 LEAST COMMON CAUSE of neovascular glaucoma = a. CRAO ( Artery Occlusion )
 Optic nerve finding that LEAST SPECIFIC for POAG = b. Peripapillary atrophy
 LEAST LIKELY be paralyzed by a retrobulbar anesthetic = d. Superior oblique muscle
 The IOL in the left eye is subluxed into the vitreous cavity. What's the LEAST preferred
option = b. Full spectacle correction ( gak boleh di aniseikonia )
 Location of periocular lymphoma is LEAST likely associated with systemic lymphomas = b.
Conjunctiva
 Iris-fixated phakic IOL, UNLIKELY = b. Cataract formation
 Chronic vitreous cells are likely to be ABSENT in = b. Ocular histoplasmosis
 Bleb-associated endophthalmitis, UNLIKELY CAUSATIVE = c. Bacillus cereus
  Ocular ischemic syndrome be UNLIKELY = d. Horizontal strabismus surgery
 Periocular triamnicolone injection UNLIKELY to encounter = b. Iris atrophy

27. A + V-PATTERN
 A 5-year-old boy has a history of bilateral superior oblique palsy = a. V-pattern esotropia
( DIHAPAL )
 Chin up posture = b. V-pattern exotropia
 A-pattern exotropia = b. Superior oblique overaction and inferior oblique underaction